To add my "two cents" ---- I believe the American Indians had the right
idea......that no one "owned" the land.........that we are all just
"renters". This does not mean that I do not value private property
ownership......it's just that I think we should be "stewards" of the land,
that it is immoral to pollute and ruin the land for future generations.
However, I have read that there was pollution/misuse of the land by Indian
tribes recorded by the Lewis and Clark expedition - does anyone have any
further knowledge about this?
Minelle Paloff
----- Original Message -----
From: "(ARTEMIS)" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Monday, November 15, 2004 8:46 AM
Subject: [rhetoric-list] Fundamental Rights
>
>
>
>
> On Mon, 15 Nov 2004, donnella whitacre wrote:
>
>>
>> you missed nothing. these people were only one of many living there. it
>> was part of the ottoman empire. they didn't own the land any more than
>> any one else living there for centuries and are no more entitled to it
>> all than any one else. and certainly lets show respect for every one
>> instead of just the one portion that already has over 80% of it.
>
> Consider this:
>
> Are you referring to commons or to private property? What is a village?
>
> Land deeds are legal constructs which began with land grants by the
> throne. For example, and land in Florida was given to the U.S. by Spain
> and then acquired by individuals. An abtract of deed would show the chain
> of ownership. That is the legal chain of ownership. Towns and cities were
> acquired as commons from the state.
>
> In the area called Israel and Palestine the villages and lands belonged to
> a sovereign, which for centuries was the Ottomans, but it doesn't make
> much sense to tell someone who lived there during that time that they
> cannot continue with the quiet enjoyment of the land their family lived on
> and farmed for their own collective use perhaps contributing some taxes to
> the sovereign for their security (which is why taxes were paid) but
> protection did not imply real ownership. There was no fee simple, few
> deeds of title. Ownership was proved by possession. Simply because the
> sovereign made the mistake of an alliance with the wrong power in a war
> and losing it's hegemony does not alter the fact of possession, ergo:
> ownership (you have heard that possession is 9/10s of the law).
>
> When the sovereign is defeated does that then mean the ownership of the
> land is up for grabs? What do you think the moral justification could be
> for taking that land from the people who lived there and raised their
> families there? This is not a difficult problem. There is none - no matter
> how badly the people who take that land may have been treated by others
> somewhere else - on some other continent - and how despised they have been
> because of the prejudices of a religion (call it Christianity) which
> taught that the Jews killed Christ.
>
> There has been a grave injustice to the original inhabitants. How is that
> injustice going to be addressed? And it would be infinitely better for the
> Jews to realize they have more in common with their Muslim cousins than
> their Christian hosts for the last 2,000 years.
>
> Hank Roth
>
>
>
>
>
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