Re: Would math make God obsolete ?

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Jan 2014, at 17:30, Brian Tenneson wrote:

Some basic.questions.  When you say PA, do you mean the set of all  
theorems entailed by the axioms of Peano arithmetic?


Yes. In some context it means only the axioms, but often I use the  
same expression to denote the axioms and its logical consequences  
(theorems).




Does this include the true (relative to PA of course) wffs that are  
not provable from PA alone?


No.



How can it be that PA+con(I) can prove its own consistency because  
it is inconsistent?


PA+con(I) is inconsistent, because it can prove its own consistency  
(in one line), and that makes it inconsistent by the second  
incompleteness theorem (no consistent Löbian theory can prove its own  
consistency).


Then, being inconsistent, it can prove its consistency, like it can  
prove any proposition.






Do you mean that it is consistent relative to itself but  
inconsistent in the metalanguage?


No, it is totally inconsistent. It proves f by its own axioms and the  
modus ponens rule.




Or else how can we have it be both consistent and inconsistent?


No. That would made us inconsistent.




This is probably way off the subject (hope that's ok with you):  
isn't all mathematical truth relative to the formal system one is  
operating in?


Why? I doubt this for some theories, like those who specify logically  
a Turing universal system. In all case a machine will stop or not  
stop, independently of the description and language used to describe  
the system. But I can imagine that you are partially right for richer  
theories.



 all mathematical truth is relative to the formal system one is  
operating in is relative to the formal system I call rational  
discourse in which mathematical discourse and machine-level  
discourse are sub-systems.


Hmm Above arithmetic, I can make some sense on this. But to just  
define formal system, I need some absolute part, and I use the (second  
order) distinction between finite and infinite to do this, at the  
metat-level.


Bruno






On Mon, Jan 27, 2014 at 7:41 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 27 Jan 2014, at 16:12, Brian Tenneson wrote:

Yes, some day a computer might be able to figure out that the set  
of rationals is not equipollent to the set of real numbers.


A Lôbian machine like ZF can do that already.



I saw somewhere that using an automated theorem prover, one of  
Godel's incompleteness theorems was proved by a computer.


Boyer and Moore, yes, but that is not conceptuallydifferent than ZF,  
except that the Boyer-Moore machine uses more efficient sort of AI  
path.


Gödel discovered that PM already proves his own incompleteness  
theorem. All Lôbian machine proves their own Gödel's theorem. They  
all prove If I am consistent, then I can't prove my consistency.





The question I raised initially was this: will there ever be a  
machine or human who can correctly answer all questions with a  
mathematical theme that have answers?


All? No, for any machine i in the phi_i.
But that is less clear for evolving machines, whose evolution rule  
is not part of the program of the machine. Of course, at each moment  
of her life, she will be incomplete, but if her evolution is  
enough non computable, or using some special oracle, it might be  
that the machine will generate the infinitely many truth of  
arithmetic, but not in any provable way.



 I didn't think so in my original post but now I'm starting to  
wonder.  It's the existence of undecidable statements that would  
probably lead to the machine or human not being able to do it in  
general.  This reminds me of the halting problem.


Those are related. Undecidable is always relative. Consistent(PA) is  
not provable by PA, but is provable in two lines in the theory PA 
+con(PA). Of course PA+con(PA) cannot prove con(PA+con(PA)).


What about PA+con(I), with I = PA+con(I). It exists as we can  
eliminate the occurence of I by using the Dx = xx method. Well, in  
this case PA+con(I) can prove its own consistency, but only because  
it is actually inconsistent.




The good news is we will never run out of mathematical territory to  
think about.


Yes indeed, even if we confine ourselves on elementary (first order)  
arithmetic. There is an infinity of surprises there.


Bruno





On Mon, Jan 27, 2014 at 6:58 AM, Gabriel Bodeen  
gabebod...@gmail.com wrote:
FWIW, under the usual definitions, the rationals are enumerable and  
so are a smaller set than the reals.  I'd suppose that if people  
can figure that out with our nifty fleshy brains, then a well- 
designed computer brain could, too.

-Gabe


On Friday, January 24, 2014 1:23:40 AM UTC-6, Brian Tenneson wrote:
There are undecidable statements (about arithmetic)... There are  
true statements lacking proof. There are also false statements  
about arithmetic the proof of whose falsehood is impossible; not  
just impossible for you and me but for a computer of any capacity  
or other 

Re: Would math make God obsolete ?

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Jan 2014, at 19:55, John Clark wrote:

On Fri, Jan 24, 2014 at 2:23 AM, Brian Tenneson tenn...@gmail.com  
wrote:


 There are undecidable statements (about arithmetic)... There are  
true statements lacking proof.


Yes.

 There are also false statements about arithmetic the proof of  
whose falsehood is impossible;


A proof is a FINITE number of statements establishing the truth or  
falsehood of something;


Not establishing the truth, but establishing the theoremhood.
At the metalevel, if the theiry is formalized in first order logic,  
you will have that the proved proposition will be satisfied in all  
models of the theory, but this cannot, in general, be shown *in* the  
theory, unless the theory is Löbian (but that is not easy to prove---I  
don't use that).




if Goldbach's Conjecture is untrue then there is a FINITE even  
number that is NOT the sum of 2 primes.


Yes. The negation of Goldbach is Sigma_1. Goldbach is Pi_1. Like  
Riemann Hypothesis.


But Syracuse conjecture is above Pi_1. You cannot decide it, nor his  
negation, by a simple mechanical procedure.



It would only take a finite number of lines to list all the prime  
numbers smaller than that even number and show that no two of them  
equal that even number, and that would be a proof that Goldbach's  
Conjecture is wrong.


The real problem would come if Goldbach's Conjecture is true (so  
we'll never find two primes to show it's wrong) but can not be  
proven to be true (so we will never find a finite proof to show its  
correct).


OK.

Bruno





  John K Clark








not just impossible for you and me but for a computer of any  
capacity or other forms of rational processing. We'll never have a  
computer, then, that will work as a mathematically-omniscient  
device. By that I mean a computer such that every question that has  
a mathematically-oriented theme having an answer truthfully can be  
answered by such a device. Calculators demonstrate the concept but  
are clearly not mathematically-omniscient: you ask the calculator  
what is 2+2 and press a button and presto you get an answer. What  
I'm talking about would be questions like is the set of rational  
numbers equal in size to the set of real numbers, and get the  
correct answer. So we will never have such a computer no matter what  
its capacities are, even if computer encompasses the entire human  
brain. Unfortunately, that means that even for humans, we will never  
know everything about math. Unless something weird would happen and  
we suddenly had infinite capacities; that might change the  
conclusions.


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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Jan 2014, at 19:56, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/27/2014 3:20 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 27 Jan 2014, at 06:55, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/26/2014 9:19 PM, LizR wrote:

On 27 January 2014 17:31, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
On 1/26/2014 6:44 PM, LizR wrote:

On 27 January 2014 14:08, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
On 1/26/2014 3:15 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

I have provided the definition. Should I repeat?
God is the transcendental reality we bet on, and which is  
supposed to be responsible for my or our existence.

Sounds like physics to me.

If physics is transcendental, a lot of people may be wasting  
their time trying to find a TOE.
Depends on what transcendental things have to transcend.   
Bruno's fond of pointing out that physicist just assume that  
matter is fundamental but don't define it.  Of course they might  
say, It's whatever we find to be fundamental...and we're calling  
it doG.


Transcendental does have a lot of meanings, depending on who's  
using it, but generally I'd take it to be something like beyond  
our understanding, hence my (tongue in cheek) comment.


I think Bruno has a point. Well, at least, I'd be disappointed if  
physicist decided that they couldn't explain matter etc, and that  
they should just shut up and calculate from now on.


Refer to my discourse on solving the hard problem.  If you  
calculate stuff accurately and predict stuff that surprising,  
people will think you've explained it.


By definition, that can solve only the easy problem. You just  
dismiss the hard problem.


Yet, the hard problem is 99,9% solvable, but with the price that  
physicalism is wrong. net adavantage, we do get an explanation, not  
only for consciousness, but also for the origin of matter.


Here I 'm afraid you tend to be an eliminativist, here.


That's the main point.


I'm afraid so.



Science has advanced and people *suppose* that it has explained  
gravity and electromagnetism and atoms and descent of species and  
lots of other stuff.  But what it has done is show their relations  
and made accurate predictions AND *eliminated* the things people  
asked to be explained: Newton didn't explain what pushed the planets  
around.


He was tormented by that problem. We have progressed of course,  
notably through QM and SR.




Darwin didn't explain how animals adapted.


But Mendel, Morgan, and then Watson and Crick, Jacob and Monod, and  
QM, completed the picture. We have progressed.



Maxwell didn't explain the luminiferous ether. Just like we can't  
explain to Edgar how gravity gets out of a black hole.  Science  
advances a lot by eliminativism.


Yes, and most of the time, such eliminativism is a progress. WE  
eliminate the terms of the obsolete theories, like phlogiston, or like  
the cold and hot atoms of Lavoisier, or the N rays, etc.


To eliminate persons and consciousness is different: that is a deny of  
key data.

Beside being humanly morally dubious, it is the contrary of science.

To eliminate the mind, can be a useful methodological simplification:  
we don't need consciousness to send a man on the moon, or to study the  
ring of Saturn. But to solve the mind-bod problem, and keep the comp  
theory in the cognitive science, we have to eliminate primitive  
matter, not consciousness (that's my point).
We have to eliminate what cannot be used, not the data in need of  
explanations.


Bruno







Brent

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Jan 2014, at 21:48, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/27/2014 9:07 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
it was, of course, a lie what you read about my religious  
convictions, a lie which is being systematically repeated. I do  
not believe in a personal God and I have never denied this but  
have expressed it clearly.  If something is in me which can be  
called religious then it is the unbounded admiration for the  
structure of the world so far as our science can reveal it.



This makes my point. Einstein illustrates that you can believe in a  
non personal God.


No.  That Einstein does not believe in a personal god does not  
entail that he does believe in an impersonal god.


Of course.

But Einstein has heavily insisted all his life that he does believe in  
the good Lord. The quote given by John Clark comes from Einstein  
insisting that he does not believe in a personal God, that he made  
when people misused his assertion of his belief in God.


(Einstein is of course a bit sloppy when describing his non personal  
god as a good Lord, but that's just a poetical means, like Plotinus  
calling the ONE father: it was just a way to attract Christians to  
Neoplatonism).





That's a pretty sloppy inference for a logician, and you do it twice  
more.


Read Jammer's book if you have any doubt that Einstein was not a  
believer in God (yet not in a personal or institutionalized God).
Einstein will reassessed that belief all his life. But he will also  
condemn all religious institutions, all his life.
Unlike Gödel, Einstein will not be interested in digging on this with  
the scientfic method, but thanks to Gödel, Einstein will eventually be  
open to the possibility that physics might not be the fundamental  
science, and that math could be. This is something that I have  
discovered recently. Einstein did understood a little bit what Gödel  
tried to explain to him, after all.


Bruno


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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Jan 2014, at 22:05, LizR wrote:

I hope those are real quotes. There are quite a few fake Einstein  
quotes floating around the web.


They were real, but taken out of the context.

But they made my point. Einstein is a believer, but out of  
confessional religion. Like Gödel.


Bruno






On 28 January 2014 05:18, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:
On Sun, Jan 26, 2014  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 John should read the book by Jammer on Einstein's religion. 2/3 of  
that book is really informative about Einstein's religion.


Rather than read what Jammer had to say try reading what Einstein  
himself had to say about God:


it was, of course, a lie what you read about my religious  
convictions, a lie which is being systematically repeated. I do not  
believe in a personal God and I have never denied this but have  
expressed it clearly.  If something is in me which can be called  
religious then it is the unbounded admiration for the structure of  
the world so far as our science can reveal it.


And:

I have never imputed to Nature a purpose or a goal, or anything  
that could be understood as anthropomorphic. What I see in Nature is  
a magnificent structure that we can comprehend only very  
imperfectly, and that must fill a thinking person with a feeling of  
humility


And:

The idea of a personal God is quite alien to me and seems even  
naive.


And:

A man's ethical behavior should be based effectually on sympathy,  
education, and social ties; no religious basis is necessary. Man  
would indeed be in a poor way if he had to be restrained by fear of  
punishment and hope of reward after death.


And:

I don't try to imagine a personal God; it suffices to stand in awe  
at the structure of the world, insofar as it allows our inadequate  
senses to appreciate it.”


Although to a far less degree I will admit that Einstein was  
sometimes guilty of the same sin that members of this list  
habitually commit, falling in love not with the concept but with the  
English word God when all Einstein meant is awe at the structure  
of the world.


 John seems to be unaware what God was for the greeks,

John is board to death by the Greeks, scornful of their enormous  
ignorance and utterly repelled by the unhealthy ancestor worship  
that is epidemic on the everything list.


 John acts in a way which is typical for the usual christians.

Wow, calling a guy known for disliking religion religious, never  
heard that one before, at least I never heard it before I was 12.


  John K Clark



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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Jan 2014, at 22:20, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/27/2014 12:21 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Mon, Jan 27, 2014 at 10:51 AM, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com  
wrote:




On Sun, Jan 26, 2014 at 2:43 PM, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com  
wrote:


 I use the exact same definition of life that MILLIONS of people  
on this planet once used: the word Life refers to some organic  
matter filled with elan vital.


Fine. Organic matter is matter that operates according to the laws  
of carbon chemistry, and future computers will almost certainly  
contain carbon nanotubes and 2D carbon Graphene sheets.  And I have  
no idea what elan vital is and those who like the term have even  
less idea than I do, but whatever it is if meat can have it I see  
no reason why a computer can't have it too. So even by your  
definition a computer could be alive.



To be sure there was no misunderstanding, I do not seriously  
subscribe to that definition of life. Rather, I was using your own  
phrasing to show how it can be ridiculous it is to hold the  
meanings of words cannot change and must remain absolutely static.  
For we find that the meanings of many words change and evolve along  
with our understanding of the world.



But Jason I want to ask you a direct question, and this isn't  
rhetorical I'd really like an answer:  If there is no all  
encompassing purpose or a goal to existence and if the unknown  
principle responsible for the existence of the universe is not  
intelligent and is not conscious and is not a being then do you  
think it adds to clarity to call that principle God?


I consider this question equivalent to asking If there is no elan  
vital found within organisms, does it still make sense to call  
those organisms life? Asking this question illustrates the  
attitude of holding the word in higher esteem than the idea, which  
to me seems little different from a kind of ancestor  
worship (which you are also opposed to). I think there is a common  
kernel of idea behind the word God, which is common across many  
religions, though each religion also adds various additional things  
on top of and beyond what is contained in that kernel. If our  
theories lead us to conclude God has or doesn't have these  
attributes, that is progress, and our definitions ought to update  
accordingly, just as we did not throw out the word life when we  
discovered it is just matter arranged in certain ways. Similarly,  
even if we were to determine God is not omnipotent, or not  
conscious, should we abandon that word and come up with something  
else? Should we do this every time we learn some knew fact about  
some thing? If we did, it seems to me that any old text would have  
an incomprehensible vocabulary, as scientific progress forced us to  
adopt knew words each time we learned something new.


But that's a false analogy.  Life was something we could point to,  
so it makes sense to say we discover it does or doesn't have some  
attribute.  But God, since we stopped looking on Olympus, has just  
been defined by some set of attributes: Creator of the universe.   
Definer of morality.  Your ultimate value.  Love.  Omniscient,  
omnipotent, and omnibenevolent.  The necessary being.  So it makes  
no sense to ask whether god has an attribute.  The attributes are so  
varied and inconsistent that the word has become meaningless.  It's  
then just a muddle to say, I'm going back to the really real  
original meaning.  The original meaning was one of many superhuman,  
immortal beings.  To pick Plotinus'es meaning, or Kronecker's, is no  
different than just making up another set of attributes and saying  
they define god.


The problem is that once you suppress God, you will make Matter into  
a God, and science into pseudo-religious scientism, with his train of  
authoritative arguments. why do you think the FPI is still ignored by  
most scientists?


To say I don't believe in God is quasi-equivalent with saying Now  
we have the answer to the fundamental question, which is just a  
crackpot kind of statement.


Concepts like God, Matter, Universe are very useful, as long as their  
precise sense are free to evolve, like any other concepts. To stuck a  
concept in one theory is just like assessing that theory. I know only  
atheists to stuck the God concept in the institution definition.  
Atheists are the best ally of the religious fundamentalists. Both  
prevents the rise of the scientific attitude in the field. Both  
promote the same ridiculous notion of God, and both promote the  
absence of doubt about Matter and Nature. It *is* pseudo-science and  
pseudo-religion.


Bruno






Brent

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Jan 2014, at 22:48, LizR wrote:


On 28 January 2014 06:07, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
On 27 Jan 2014, at 17:18, John Clark wrote:

On Sun, Jan 26, 2014  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 John should read the book by Jammer on Einstein's religion. 2/3  
of that book is really informative about Einstein's religion.


Rather than read what Jammer had to say try reading what Einstein  
himself had to say about God:


it was, of course, a lie what you read about my religious  
convictions, a lie which is being systematically repeated. I do not  
believe in a personal God and I have never denied this but have  
expressed it clearly.  If something is in me which can be called  
religious then it is the unbounded admiration for the structure of  
the world so far as our science can reveal it.


This makes my point. Einstein illustrates that you can believe in a  
non personal God.


After all my lessons in logic, I feel duty bound to point out that  
Einstein only said that he didn't believe in a personal God. From  
that, one cannot deduce that he thought you can believe in a non- 
personal God (or god, if you prefer).


That is right.

But the premise is false. Einstein did not only said that he does not  
believe in a personal God. Clark was quoting partially Einstein, out  
of the context. Einstein said also that he believes in God.





(I would try to formalise this, something like ~p - q =/= p - ~q  
but my expertise in meta-self-doubt assures me I'd probably mess it  
up.)


~p - q is indeed not equivalent with p - ~q.

This means that ((~p - q) - (p - ~q)) is not a law.

But that does not mean that its negation is a law.

~((~p - q) - (p - ~q))   is not a law either.

Bruno




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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Jan 2014, at 22:52, LizR wrote:


On 28 January 2014 06:46, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:
On Mon, Jan 27, 2014 at 12:07 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:
 You seem to take the Aristotelian (naturalist, materialist,  
physicalist) theology for granted.


I've said more than once that Aristotle was the worst physicist who  
ever lived, he certainly caused the most damage to the field.


Bruno is using Aristotle to mean materialist, since Aristotle was  
apparently the person who started physics on the materialism route.  
So taking Aristotle for granted just means taking materialism for  
granted. If you think Aristotle was a bad physicist, then perhaps  
you shouldn't do that (assuming you do).




That's why I said Aristotle theology.

It is fun that Clark insists so much that Aristotle was a bad  
physicists, but insist so much (even if implicitly) that we took his  
THEOLOGY for granted.


Bruno




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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread LizR
On 28 January 2014 21:48, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 On 27 Jan 2014, at 22:05, LizR wrote:

 I hope those are real quotes. There are quite a few fake Einstein quotes
 floating around the web.

 They were real, but taken out of the context.

 But they made my point. Einstein is a believer, but out of confessional
 religion. Like Gödel.


Didn't Godel update the ontological argument for the existence of God ? I
suppose that doesn't say anything about what God is (guy with a long beard,
or chthulhu, or white light...)

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread LizR
On 28 January 2014 21:59, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 Concepts like God, Matter, Universe are very useful, as long as their
 precise sense are free to evolve, like any other concepts. To stuck a
 concept in one theory is just like assessing that theory. I know only
 atheists to stuck the God concept in the institution definition. Atheists
 are the best ally of the religious fundamentalists. Both prevents the rise
 of the scientific attitude in the field. Both promote the same ridiculous
 notion of God, and both promote the absence of doubt about Matter and
 Nature. It *is* pseudo-science and pseudo-religion.


fanatical atheists...are like slaves who are still feeling the weight of
their chains which they have thrown off after hard struggle. They are
creatures who--in their grudge against the traditional 'opium of the
people'--cannot bear the music of the spheres

 -- Albert Einstein

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Jan 2014, at 23:38, LizR wrote:


On 28 January 2014 09:21, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com wrote:
But Jason I want to ask you a direct question, and this isn't  
rhetorical I'd really like an answer:  If there is no all  
encompassing purpose or a goal to existence and if the unknown  
principle responsible for the existence of the universe is not  
intelligent and is not conscious and is not a being then do you  
think it adds to clarity to call that principle God?


I consider this question equivalent to asking If there is no elan  
vital found within organisms, does it still make sense to call those  
organisms life? Asking this question illustrates the attitude of  
holding the word in higher esteem than the idea, which to me seems  
little different from a kind of ancestor worship (which you are  
also opposed to). I think there is a common kernel of idea behind  
the word God, which is common across many religions, though each  
religion also adds various additional things on top of and beyond  
what is contained in that kernel. If our theories lead us to  
conclude God has or doesn't have these attributes, that is progress,  
and our definitions ought to update accordingly, just as we did not  
throw out the word life when we discovered it is just matter  
arranged in certain ways. Similarly, even if we were to determine  
God is not omnipotent, or not conscious, should we abandon that  
word and come up with something else? Should we do this every time  
we learn some knew fact about some thing? If we did, it seems to me  
that any old text would have an incomprehensible vocabulary, as  
scientific progress forced us to adopt knew words each time we  
learned something new.


Nevertheless, might there not be a threshold beyond which it seems  
ridiculous to drag a word and its associated baggage? Hence we could  
say the planets move in epicycles, but we prefer to call them  
orbits, since that word doesn't carry the baggage of a discredited  
theory. Similarly, we don't talk about the aether, but space-time;  
we don't talk about elan vital, but DNAI'm sure you can think of  
a few similar examples.


I think God has enough baggage that the answer to John's question  
should be no. Although given the unconscious reification of  
various things (matter, maths, minds...) we might still want a  
relatively neutral term for the (possibly unknowable) principle  
behind the universe. (Assuming most people on this list are  
Westerners, I suppose we could try Tao ... or maybe Ylem ?)


That would be like attributing importance to a name, at a place where  
precisely we should not attribute any importance. I would use tao,  
that would make the results looking new-age. Use any another name,  
people will add more connotations than with the concept of god, and  
its quasi-name God for the monist or monotheist big unique being or  
beyond being entity.


Bruno





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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread LizR
On 28 January 2014 22:08, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 On 27 Jan 2014, at 22:48, LizR wrote:

 After all my lessons in logic, I feel duty bound to point out that
 Einstein only said that he didn't believe in a personal God. From that, one
 cannot deduce that he thought you *can *believe in a non-personal God (or
 god, if you prefer).

 That is right.

 But the premise is false. Einstein did not only said that he does not
 believe in a personal God. Clark was quoting partially Einstein, out of the
 context. Einstein said also that he believes in God.


Sorry, I just couldn't resist teasing a bit. (Also, I hadn't seen Brent's
comment when I wrote that.)

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Jan 2014, at 05:57, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/27/2014 7:17 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Jan 27, 2014, at 4:38 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:


On 28 January 2014 09:21, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com wrote:
But Jason I want to ask you a direct question, and this isn't  
rhetorical I'd really like an answer:  If there is no all  
encompassing purpose or a goal to existence and if the unknown  
principle responsible for the existence of the universe is not  
intelligent and is not conscious and is not a being then do you  
think it adds to clarity to call that principle God?


I consider this question equivalent to asking If there is no elan  
vital found within organisms, does it still make sense to call  
those organisms life? Asking this question illustrates the  
attitude of holding the word in higher esteem than the idea, which  
to me seems little different from a kind of ancestor  
worship (which you are also opposed to). I think there is a  
common kernel of idea behind the word God, which is common across  
many religions, though each religion also adds various additional  
things on top of and beyond what is contained in that kernel. If  
our theories lead us to conclude God has or doesn't have these  
attributes, that is progress, and our definitions ought to update  
accordingly, just as we did not throw out the word life when we  
discovered it is just matter arranged in certain ways. Similarly,  
even if we were to determine God is not omnipotent, or not  
conscious, should we abandon that word and come up with  
something else? Should we do this every time we learn some knew  
fact about some thing? If we did, it seems to me that any old text  
would have an incomprehensible vocabulary, as scientific progress  
forced us to adopt knew words each time we learned something new.


Nevertheless, might there not be a threshold beyond which it seems  
ridiculous to drag a word and its  associated  
baggage?


Perhaps, but what word would you nominate for the infinite,  
transcendent, eternal, uncreated, immutable, ground of all reality?  
Or for those minds that simulate whole worlds and universes for fun?


Supposing there is a ground of all reality, as some would nominate  
the strings of string theory and others computations of a universal  
dovetailer, why would suppose in advance that this GOAR is infinite,  
transcendent(whatever that means), eternal, or immutable.  If you're  
not going to jump to conclusions, carrying baggage with you, let's  
just call it goar.  And I would remind you that there is not  
necessarily a goar.  I still like the virtuous cycle of explanation:  
physics-biology-intelligence-consciousness-observation-language- 
mathematics-physics-...




We are far from proving such (god-like) things do not exist, and I  
would say the opposite is the case: their existance is a  
consequence of many theories, including most of the everything type  
theories popular on this list.


Hence we could say the planets move in epicycles, but we prefer to  
call them orbits, since that word doesn't carry the baggage of a  
discredited theory. Similarly, we don't talk about the aether, but  
space-time; we don't talk about elan vital, but DNAI'm sure  
you can think of a few similar examples.


Élan vital and DNA are two explanations (theories) of life. Just as  
the Abrahamic God and the comp God are two explanations  
(theories) of that which is responsible for our existance.


Explanations may fall in and out of favor, but the phenomenon to be  
explained persists.





I think God has enough baggage that the answer to John's  
question should be no. Although given the unconscious  
reification of various things (matter, maths, minds...) we might  
still want a relatively neutral term for the (possibly  
unknowable) principle behind the universe.


Any suggestions?

(Assuming most people on this list are Westerners, I suppose we  
could try Tao ... or maybe Ylem ?)


I think that might be somewhat more prone to misinterpretation. I  
think god is a little more neutral since it does not refer to any  
particular religion.


But it refers to an immortal person, and singular at that.

Brent

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal

Oops send a message by mistake, sorry. Comment below.
On 28 Jan 2014, at 05:57, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/27/2014 7:17 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Jan 27, 2014, at 4:38 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:


On 28 January 2014 09:21, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com wrote:
But Jason I want to ask you a direct question, and this isn't  
rhetorical I'd really like an answer:  If there is no all  
encompassing purpose or a goal to existence and if the unknown  
principle responsible for the existence of the universe is not  
intelligent and is not conscious and is not a being then do you  
think it adds to clarity to call that principle God?


I consider this question equivalent to asking If there is no elan  
vital found within organisms, does it still make sense to call  
those organisms life? Asking this question illustrates the  
attitude of holding the word in higher esteem than the idea, which  
to me seems little different from a kind of ancestor  
worship (which you are also opposed to). I think there is a  
common kernel of idea behind the word God, which is common across  
many religions, though each religion also adds various additional  
things on top of and beyond what is contained in that kernel. If  
our theories lead us to conclude God has or doesn't have these  
attributes, that is progress, and our definitions ought to update  
accordingly, just as we did not throw out the word life when we  
discovered it is just matter arranged in certain ways. Similarly,  
even if we were to determine God is not omnipotent, or not  
conscious, should we abandon that word and come up with  
something else? Should we do this every time we learn some knew  
fact about some thing? If we did, it seems to me that any old text  
would have an incomprehensible vocabulary, as scientific progress  
forced us to adopt knew words each time we learned something new.


Nevertheless, might there not be a threshold beyond which it seems  
ridiculous to drag a word and its  associated  
baggage?


Perhaps, but what word would you nominate for the infinite,  
transcendent, eternal, uncreated, immutable, ground of all reality?  
Or for those minds that simulate whole worlds and universes for fun?


Supposing there is a ground of all reality, as some would nominate  
the strings of string theory and others computations of a universal  
dovetailer, why would suppose in advance that this GOAR is infinite,  
transcendent(whatever that means), eternal, or immutable.  If you're  
not going to jump to conclusions, carrying baggage with you, let's  
just call it goar.  And I would remind you that there is not  
necessarily a goar.  I still like the virtuous cycle of explanation:  
physics-biology-intelligence-consciousness-observation-language- 
mathematics-physics-...


That is poetry. But even such a circle is easy to explain in  
arithmetic, which we have to assume already for defining those terms.  
So why not adopt the simplest explanation, if only to discover its  
limit one day.








We are far from proving such (god-like) things do not exist, and I  
would say the opposite is the case: their existance is a  
consequence of many theories, including most of the everything type  
theories popular on this list.


Hence we could say the planets move in epicycles, but we prefer to  
call them orbits, since that word doesn't carry the baggage of a  
discredited theory. Similarly, we don't talk about the aether, but  
space-time; we don't talk about elan vital, but DNAI'm sure  
you can think of a few similar examples.


Élan vital and DNA are two explanations (theories) of life. Just as  
the Abrahamic God and the comp God are two explanations  
(theories) of that which is responsible for our existance.


Explanations may fall in and out of favor, but the phenomenon to be  
explained persists.





I think God has enough baggage that the answer to John's  
question should be no. Although given the unconscious  
reification of various things (matter, maths, minds...) we might  
still want a relatively neutral term for the (possibly  
unknowable) principle behind the universe.


Any suggestions?

(Assuming most people on this list are Westerners, I suppose we  
could try Tao ... or maybe Ylem ?)


I think that might be somewhat more prone to misinterpretation. I  
think god is a little more neutral since it does not refer to any  
particular religion.


But it refers to an immortal person, and singular at that.


Yes. Singular. that the main contribution of the Parmenides: the rise  
of monotheism and the rise of monism. The idea that there is a unique  
reality. That is the motor of the fundamental inquiry. It has given  
the modern science, alas, without theology abandoned to politics.


Bruno




Brent

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Jan 2014, at 10:13, LizR wrote:


On 28 January 2014 21:48, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
On 27 Jan 2014, at 22:05, LizR wrote:
I hope those are real quotes. There are quite a few fake Einstein  
quotes floating around the web.


They were real, but taken out of the context.

But they made my point. Einstein is a believer, but out of  
confessional religion. Like Gödel.


Didn't Godel update the ontological argument for the existence of  
God ? I suppose that doesn't say anything about what God is (guy  
with a long beard, or chthulhu, or white light...)


Gödel has formalized St-Anselmus  notion of God in ... The Leinizian  
modal logic. Then he proved his existence.


He did this just to illustrate that rigor can exist in Theology.

I am not sure he really believed in St-Anselmus notion of God, and I  
doubt he really took Leibniz modal logic as the only correct  
metaphysical account of the alethic (Leibnizian) modal logic.


Open problem: does the inner god of the machine believes in St- 
Anselmus-Gödel God? (= can we translate the proof of God existence  
into S4Grz?).


More on Leibniz modal logic soon.


Bruno






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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Jan 2014, at 10:16, LizR wrote:


On 28 January 2014 21:59, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

Concepts like God, Matter, Universe are very useful, as long as  
their precise sense are free to evolve, like any other concepts. To  
stuck a concept in one theory is just like assessing that theory. I  
know only atheists to stuck the God concept in the institution  
definition. Atheists are the best ally of the religious  
fundamentalists. Both prevents the rise of the scientific attitude  
in the field. Both promote the same ridiculous notion of God, and  
both promote the absence of doubt about Matter and Nature. It *is*  
pseudo-science and pseudo-religion.


fanatical atheists...are like slaves who are still feeling the  
weight of their chains which they have thrown off after hard  
struggle. They are creatures who--in their grudge against the  
traditional 'opium of the people'--cannot bear the music of the  
spheres


 -- Albert Einstein


Ah! Good to compensate Clark's partial quoting.

Bruno





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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Jason Resch
On Mon, Jan 27, 2014 at 10:57 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 1/27/2014 7:17 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



 On Jan 27, 2014, at 4:38 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

On 28 January 2014 09:21, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com wrote:

  But Jason I want to ask you a direct question, and this isn't
 rhetorical I'd really like an answer:  If there is no all encompassing
 purpose or a goal to existence and if the unknown principle responsible for
 the existence of the universe is not intelligent and is not conscious and
 is not a being then do you think it adds to clarity to call that principle
 God?



 I consider this question equivalent to asking If there is no elan vital
 found within organisms, does it still make sense to call those organisms
 life? Asking this question illustrates the attitude of holding the word in
 higher esteem than the idea, which to me seems little different from a kind
 of ancestor worship (which you are also opposed to). I think there is a
 common kernel of idea behind the word God, which is common across many
 religions, though each religion also adds various additional things on top
 of and beyond what is contained in that kernel. If our theories lead us to
 conclude God has or doesn't have these attributes, that is progress, and
 our definitions ought to update accordingly, just as we did not throw out
 the word life when we discovered it is just matter arranged in certain
 ways. Similarly, even if we were to determine God is not omnipotent, or
 not conscious, should we abandon that word and come up with something
 else? Should we do this every time we learn some knew fact about some
 thing? If we did, it seems to me that any old text would have an
 incomprehensible vocabulary, as scientific progress forced us to adopt knew
 words each time we learned something new.

Nevertheless, might there not be a threshold beyond which it seems
 ridiculous to drag a word and its associated baggage?


  Perhaps, but what word would you nominate for the infinite,
 transcendent, eternal, uncreated, immutable, ground of all reality? Or
 for those minds that simulate whole worlds and universes for fun?


 Supposing there is a ground of all reality, as some would nominate the
 strings of string theory and others computations of a universal dovetailer,
 why would suppose in advance that this GOAR is infinite,
 transcendent(whatever that means), eternal, or immutable.


Those are the properties of the god of computationalism: arithmetical
truth


   If you're not going to jump to conclusions, carrying baggage with you,
 let's just call it goar.  And I would remind you that there is not
 necessarily a goar.


There is a reality, for which various theories attempt to offer an
explaination of.


 I still like the virtuous cycle of explanation:
 physics-biology-intelligence-consciousness-observation-language-mathematics-physics-...


That is interesting, but it's not a complete cycle, for the physics or math
conceived of by intelligence is not necessarily the true or complete math
or physics.




  We are far from proving such (god-like) things do not exist, and I would
 say the opposite is the case: their existance is a consequence of many
 theories, including most of the everything type theories popular on this
 list.

Hence we *could *say the planets move in epicycles, but we prefer to
 call them orbits, since that word doesn't carry the baggage of a
 discredited theory. Similarly, we don't talk about the aether, but
 space-time; we don't talk about elan vital, but DNAI'm sure you can
 think of a few similar examples.


  Élan vital and DNA are two explanations (theories) of life. Just as the
 Abrahamic God and the comp God are two explanations (theories) of that
 which is responsible for our existance.

  Explanations may fall in and out of favor, but the phenomenon to be
 explained persists.



  I think God has enough baggage that the answer to John's question
 should be no. Although given the unconscious reification of various
 things (matter, maths, minds...) we might still want a relatively neutral
 term for the (possibly unknowable) principle behind the universe.


  Any suggestions?

(Assuming most people on this list are Westerners, I suppose we could
 try Tao ... or maybe Ylem ?)


  I think that might be somewhat more prone to misinterpretation. I think
 god is a little more neutral since it does not refer to any particular
 religion.


 But it refers to an immortal person, and singular at that.


Not generally. That is the case only in some specific religions.

Jason

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Jan 2014, at 10:19, LizR wrote:


On 28 January 2014 22:08, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
On 27 Jan 2014, at 22:48, LizR wrote:
After all my lessons in logic, I feel duty bound to point out that  
Einstein only said that he didn't believe in a personal God. From  
that, one cannot deduce that he thought you can believe in a non- 
personal God (or god, if you prefer).


That is right.

But the premise is false. Einstein did not only said that he does  
not believe in a personal God. Clark was quoting partially Einstein,  
out of the context. Einstein said also that he believes in God.


Sorry, I just couldn't resist teasing a bit. (Also, I hadn't seen  
Brent's comment when I wrote that.)


No problem with teasing, but careful in applying logic.

The misuse of logic has probably killed more people on this planet  
than anything else.


Bruno






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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Jan 2014, at 22:22, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Monday, January 27, 2014 5:57:55 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 27 Jan 2014, at 06:07, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Saturday, January 25, 2014 11:36:11 PM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:


On 26 January 2014 01:35, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com  
wrote:


 But that doesn't answer the question: do you think (or  
understand, or

 whatever you think the appropriate term is) that the Chinese Room
 COULD POSSIBLY be conscious or do you think that it COULD NOT  
POSSIBLY

 be conscious?


 NO ROOM CAN BE CONSCIOUS. NO BODY CAN BE CONSCIOUS. NO FORM CAN BE
 CONSCIOUS.*

 *Except within the fictional narrative of a conscious experience.  
Puppets
 can seem conscious. Doors, door-knobs, and Chinese rooms can SEEM  
to be

 conscious.

Do you think Barack Obama is conscious? If you do, then in whatever  
sense you understand that, can the Chinese Room also be conscious?  
Or do you think that is impossible?


Yes, I think that Barack Obama is conscious, because he is  
different from a building or machine. Buildings and machines cannot  
be conscious, just as pictures of people drinking pictures of water  
do no experience relief from thirst.


To compare a brain with a machine can make sense.
To compare a brain with a picture cannot.

It depends what the picture is doing. If you have a collection of  
detailed pictures of brains, and you organize them so that they are  
shown in different sequences according to some computation, isn't  
that a simulation of a brain?


It is not. It is a description of a computation, not a computation.  
The computation is in the logical relation, which includes the  
counterfactuals.
Now, we do describe computation by some description, and so this  
confusion is frequent. But it is the same type of confusion between  
ciphers and numbers. Ciphers and sequence of ciphers are not numbers.  
It is the cionfusion between 345 and 345.





In either case, consciousness makes no more sense as part of a brain  
or a machine than a picture.


Right. We agree on that. But a brain can locally manifest a person. A  
picture cannot. You can't implement it in a computer, in the sense of  
implementing a program, which then can manifest a person.




Machines are like 4D pictures. One picture or form leads to another  
and another, and if there were some interpreter they could infer a  
logic to those transitions, but there is nothing in the machine  
which would itself lead from unconsciousness to awareness.


No, but the machine can still enact it.

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Jan 2014, at 22:59, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Monday, January 27, 2014 6:15:35 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 27 Jan 2014, at 06:28, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Sunday, January 26, 2014 5:18:53 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 25 Jan 2014, at 15:35, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Saturday, January 25, 2014 1:41:30 AM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:
On 25 January 2014 00:26, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 Tell me what you believe so we can be clear:

 My understanding is that you believe that if the parts of the  
Chinese
 Room don't understand Chinese, then the Chinese Room can't  
understand

 Chinese. Have I got this wrong?


 The fact that the Chinese Room can't understand Chinese is not  
related to
 its parts, but to the category error of the root assumption that  
forms and
 functions can understand things.  I see forms and functions as  
one of the

 effects of experience, not as a cause of them.

But that doesn't answer the question: do you think (or understand,  
or

whatever you think the appropriate term is) that the Chinese Room
COULD POSSIBLY be conscious or do you think that it COULD NOT  
POSSIBLY

be conscious?

NO ROOM CAN BE CONSCIOUS. NO BODY CAN BE CONSCIOUS. NO FORM CAN BE  
CONSCIOUS.*


I agree.

Cool.





*Except within the fictional narrative of a conscious experience.  
Puppets can seem conscious. Doors, door-knobs, and Chinese rooms  
can SEEM to be conscious.


You do the Searle error. The fact that the room/body form is not  
conscious does not entail that the narrative is fictional. If the  
room simulates the person at its right level, it can manifest the  
real abstract person related to the narrative.


That makes perfect sense to me, but it makes more sense that it is  
a mistake. It assumes the information-theoretic ground of being in  
which simulation is possible.


That is arithmetic. yes we assume things like 0+1=1, etc.

I think that 0+1=1 already requires consciousness. If we assume that  
from the start, then all further argument is begging the question.  
If something can 'equal' something else, then consciousness is  
unnecessary.


Comp explains the role of self-consciousness. It is a relative  
accelerator. Non self-consciousness is harder to explain.


The understanding of 0+1=1 certainly requires consciousness and  
attention, but the fact that it is the case that 0+1=1 does not a  
priori.









My understanding is that this is not only precisely the opposite of  
the whole truth, which is that all awareness is grounded in the  
unprecedented, unrepeatable, and unique,


If you know the truth; there is nothing we can do for you.

I'm not asking for anything to be done for me.




but that the inverted assumption of comp is actually incapable of  
detecting its own error.



The point is that it can, but not by introspection. Just by  
comparing the comp physics and the inferred physics.


Physics is measurement though. Awareness can't be located that way.




This blindness is what is being reflected in its projections of  
first person machine denial of mechanism.


?
To be clear, 1p is not denied. It plays indeed the key role in the  
whole UDA.
Then the math recover it Through the arithmetical translation of  
Theaetetus idea, and this is made possible by machine's  
incompleteness.


That version of 1p is a behaviorist silhouette though.


That would be the case if it was formally describable. But it can't.

A behaviorist has no means to see the difference between Bp and Bp p.  
They proves exactly the same propositions of arithmetic, and for that  
reason, have the same 3p behavior. But the math shows that they obey  
quite different self-referential logic.



It is a 1p which has no function but to pad the 3p math so that the  
unknown can be taken into account. It does not specify the nature of  
the unknown or link it to qualitative awareness.


It does. But you might need to follow the explanation I am given to Liz.







There is no level of simulation, because simulation itself is a  
theory which mistakes local sensory approximation for universal  
interchangeability.


Well, that is the comp bet. You just assert non)comp here, without  
an argument.


There can't be an argument, because the argument has to begin with  
sophistry. We can only argue for comp if we allow ourselves to doubt  
what cannot really be doubted.


But I don't argue for comp. I just invalidate arguments against comp.  
That is NOT arguing for comp.
And also, I agree we should not doubt what cannot be doubted. But I  
know only consciousness to be undoubtable. All the rest, in fact all  
public beliefs can be doubted.









It makes the mistake of imposing the specially blunted aesthetics  
of functionalism onto the aesthetic totality.


That's no better than Jacques Arsac argument: i am catholic, so i  
can't believe that a machine will ever think.


It's the argument that makes the most sense, given the assumption  
that sense is primordial and 

Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Jan 2014, at 07:52, LizR wrote:

On 28 January 2014 17:35, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com  
wrote:

On Monday, January 27, 2014 5:24:06 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:
On 28 January 2014 10:59, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

I think that 0+1=1 already requires consciousness. If we assume that  
from the start, then all further argument is begging the question.  
If something can 'equal' something else, then consciousness is  
unnecessary.


Could you explain? (I don't understand what's being said in any of  
the three sentences above, so would appreciate a blow by blow  
explanation if that's OK).


By saying that 0+1=1 already requires consciousness, I mean that all  
mathematical expressions are intentional communication of a  
conscious appreciation of symbolic relations.


In itself, that looks like a confusion of the map with the  
territory. Fortunately, however, you have a lot more to say on the  
subject...


If we start with disembodied mathematical concepts as realities in  
their own right, then we are automatically smuggling in all kinds of  
assumptions about what the universe comes with out of the box.  
Integers, operators, and equivalence are the end result of a kind of  
manufacturing process which includes a lot of ontological raw  
materials; sequence, representation, symmetry, universality, ideal  
objects, participation in manipulating formulas...lots of things  
which have no plausible origin within mathematics.


False. We know now that arithmetic is full of mathematicians. That is  
the essence of Gödel discovery (not just in the light of  
computationalism). This is brought from Gödel understanding that  
arithmetic already do meta-arithmetic. More on this later, probably.




They are all figures of experience which are valid because of  
aesthetic familiarity - because of the sense that cognitive  
awareness furnishes us with. If math can do all of that by itself,  
then an additional type of 'consciousness' would be redundant.


That's a good point.


Yes. That is the mind-body problem (that some physicalist call hard  
problem of consciousness, but I prefer the more neutral standard  
expression in philosophy of mind).


Bruno




At a slight tangent, it seems possible that the universe has some of  
these concepts built in (in some sense). This isn't an objection to  
what you're saying, but maybe it should be borne in mind, in case  
these are somehow indicative of what can be considered primitive...


Equivalence - all electrons (say) appear to be identical.

Counting - a BEC (for example) does a sort of simple arithmetic, in  
that the universe keeps track of the number of objects involved even  
when they aren't even in theory distinguishable.


Symmetry - as I'm sure you know there all lots of examples of this  
in physics. All the conservation laws (energy, momentum, etc) can be  
expressed in terms of symmetries.



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Re: Kevin Knuth's emergent spacetime

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Jan 2014, at 01:51, Stephen Paul King wrote:


Hi Folks,

  Check out this paper by Kevin Knuth. In it he shows how one can  
obtain space-time (and its Lorentz symmetry in the limit) from  
interactions between observers and some basic relational algebra.


http://fqxi.org/data/essay-contest-files/Knuth_fqxi13knuthessayfinal.pdf

  This is, IMHO, a nice alternative to the block universe concept.



It is quite good stuff, but it does not address the question of the  
origin and nature of Matter (the hard problem of matter), nor the mind- 
body problem (still less the comp mind-body problem: he still uses the  
basic (and inconsistent) mind-brain association implicitly).


Nor do I see any threat to the block reality idea.

Bruno





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Re: A humble suggestion to the group

2014-01-28 Thread Telmo Menezes
Hi Jason,

The wiki doesn't seem to be working :( I get a 404...

Cheers,
Telmo.

On Sun, Jan 26, 2014 at 11:43 PM, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com wrote:
 Russell,

 Yes, I also tried to salvage what was available from the web archive, but
 unfortunate it looks like the archiver never found the wiki to begin with so
 nothing was ever archived. I won't let that happen this time, I will submit
 the new wiki address such that it gets properly archived should the worst
 happen.

 I don't know what happened with my web-hosting provider, it looks like the
 database it was referencing simply disappeared..

 P.S., I've created a provisonal Talk page for myself, in case others
 wanted some kind of template to base your own on:

 http://everythingwiki.gcn.cx/wiki2/index.php?title=User:Jresch

 Jason



 On Sun, Jan 26, 2014 at 4:37 PM, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au
 wrote:

 That is a pity, given I wrote quite a few of those pages. I don't have
 the time now to repeat the effort :(. But I'll chime on of other
 people's efforts.

 We must make sure we have backups this time!

 PS - checked the Wayback machine, and it did only one archive of the
 wiki back in 21st of July last year - alas it got an Error 403 :(

 https://web.archive.org/web/20130721124015/http://everythingwiki.gcn.cx

 Cheers

 On Sun, Jan 26, 2014 at 04:13:40PM -0600, Jason Resch wrote:
  All,
 
  Unfortunately it seems the database for previous wiki page was somehow
  deleted, but I have created a fresh version at:
 
  http://everythingwiki.gcn.cx/wiki2/index.php?title=Main_Page
 
  I've also created a number of stub pages, which you can see at:
 
  http://everythingwiki.gcn.cx/wiki2/index.php?title=Special:AllPages
 
  If you would like to help make the wiki more complete, feel free to
  write
  one of the wanted pages:
 
  http://everythingwiki.gcn.cx/wiki2/index.php?title=Special:WantedPages
 
  Or flesh out any of the existing pages with more details, references,
  links, etc.
 
  I also think it would be valuable to register and place a description of
  some of your background and ideas you subscribe to on your own talk
  page.
  We've fallen out of the habit of using Wei Dai's suggested Joining
  Posthttp://www.weidai.com/everything.html,
  but the wiki might be a good place to registry your beliefs and
  background,
  as well as update it as your opinions page.
 
  Jason
 
 
  On Mon, Jan 20, 2014 at 7:43 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:
 
   On 21 January 2014 12:49, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com wrote:
  
   It looks like I need to update the database connection information:
  
   http://everythingwiki.gcn.cx/wiki/
  
   If others are interested, I will try to find time for that. I think
   as
   useful as any page would be Bio pages of members, which state where
   people fall on a number of questions, and we can trend that overtime
   to see
   if anyone's mind's change.
  
   That would be interesting, if you do have the time.
  
  
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 Principal, High Performance Coders
 Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
 University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

 

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Liz,

No, those are entirely different effects. You need to understand the 
difference.

My proposed black hole effect is not as you suggested but due to the uneven 
Hubble expansion of space around galaxies.

The effect Brent is proposing has nothing to do with the Hubble expansion. 
It seems to be as if moving masses left their gravitational field behind 
them as they entered BHs. There is no known case in which moving masses 
leave their gravitational fields behind them. That seems to me to 
contradict GR.

Brent is trying to tell us that black holes have NO mass (but they still 
causes gravitational effects), which I don't think anyone other than he 
believes.

Mass is one of the few things BHs DO have

Edgar



On Monday, January 27, 2014 10:25:20 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 On 1/27/2014 4:03 PM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

  I asked How does mass inside a BH produce an gravitational effect 
 outside the event horizon if gravity propagates at the speed of light and 
 nothing can go faster than the speed of light to come out of a black hole? 

  Your answer was that when mass enters a black hole the mass disappears 
 completely into the singularity and has NO gravitational effect outside and 
 that the gravitational effect of a BH is somehow left over space warping 
 from the passage of the mass before it enters the BH which seems like a 
 pretty crazy idea. *Passing mass doesn't leave trails of its space 
 warping behind in any other circumstances.* 
  
 I seem to recall that you had the idea that the mass of a galaxy would 
 leave behind a space warp even when the galaxy responsible had gone 
 somewhere else.

 Once the warp is formed it can easily separate from the matter that caused 
 it. At that point it is effectively just another mass of matter. That is 
 why it's called dark matter. And of course masses separate from each other 
 all the time.
 Don't think of it like it's continued existence depends on the original 
 galactic mass. Once it's created it exists as a separate dark mass that can 
 go anywhere it likes under gravitational forces just like VISIBLE matter 
 can...





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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-01-28 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Tuesday, January 28, 2014 5:23:02 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 27 Jan 2014, at 22:22, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Monday, January 27, 2014 5:57:55 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 27 Jan 2014, at 06:07, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Saturday, January 25, 2014 11:36:11 PM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:



 On 26 January 2014 01:35, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

  But that doesn't answer the question: do you think (or understand, or
  whatever you think the appropriate term is) that the Chinese Room
  COULD POSSIBLY be conscious or do you think that it COULD NOT POSSIBLY
  be conscious?
 
 
  NO ROOM CAN BE CONSCIOUS. NO BODY CAN BE CONSCIOUS. NO FORM CAN BE
  CONSCIOUS.*
 
  *Except within the fictional narrative of a conscious experience. 
 Puppets
  can seem conscious. Doors, door-knobs, and Chinese rooms can SEEM to be
  conscious.

 Do you think Barack Obama is conscious? If you do, then in whatever 
 sense you understand that, can the Chinese Room also be conscious? Or do 
 you think that is impossible?


 Yes, I think that Barack Obama is conscious, because he is different from 
 a building or machine. Buildings and machines cannot be conscious, just as 
 pictures of people drinking pictures of water do no experience relief from 
 thirst.


 To compare a brain with a machine can make sense.
 To compare a brain with a picture cannot.


 It depends what the picture is doing. If you have a collection of detailed 
 pictures of brains, and you organize them so that they are shown in 
 different sequences according to some computation, isn't that a simulation 
 of a brain?


 It is not. It is a description of a computation, not a computation. The 
 computation is in the logical relation, which includes the counterfactuals.


But the counterfactuals are theoretical rather than realistic. The 
computation is like an Escher drawing, it can do things that would be 
impossible for a real brain and cannot do or be real in ways that a brain 
must necessarily be. A picture is just the next step in abstraction toward 
the sub-theoretical, but it is actually one step more concrete in aesthetic 
realism. A real picture of a triangle is closer to consciousness than a 
computation for the Mandelbot Set, which is only a theory until it is 
presented graphically to a visual participant.
 

 Now, we do describe computation by some description, and so this confusion 
 is frequent. But it is the same type of confusion between ciphers and 
 numbers. Ciphers and sequence of ciphers are not numbers. It is the 
 cionfusion between 345 and 345.


Both 345 and 345 are still pictures. They can only be made meaningful 
when they are associated by a sensory experience in which some aesthetic 
content or expectation can be labelled with a string or value.
 




 In either case, consciousness makes no more sense as part of a brain or a 
 machine than a picture. 


 Right. We agree on that. But a brain can locally manifest a person. 


I don't think it can. A tip cannot locally manifest an iceberg. A cookie 
cutter cannot manifest a cookie.
 

 A picture cannot. You can't implement it in a computer, in the sense of 
 implementing a program, which then can manifest a person.


Right, because nothing can manifest a person except the complete history of 
experiences of Homo sapiens. 




 Machines are like 4D pictures. One picture or form leads to another and 
 another, and if there were some interpreter they could infer a logic to 
 those transitions, but there is nothing in the machine which would itself 
 lead from unconsciousness to awareness.


 No, but the machine can still enact it. 


What the machine enacts is an impersonal performance of personhood, not a 
person. 

Craig


 Bruno

 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/





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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-01-28 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Tuesday, January 28, 2014 1:52:47 AM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 On 28 January 2014 17:35, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript:
  wrote:

 On Monday, January 27, 2014 5:24:06 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 On 28 January 2014 10:59, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:


 I think that 0+1=1 already requires consciousness. If we assume that 
 from the start, then all further argument is begging the question. If 
 something can 'equal' something else, then consciousness is unnecessary.

 Could you explain? (I don't understand what's being said in any of the 
 three sentences above, so would appreciate a blow by blow explanation if 
 that's OK).

 By saying that 0+1=1 already requires consciousness, I mean that all 
 mathematical expressions are intentional communication of a conscious 
 appreciation of symbolic relations.


 In itself, that looks like a confusion of the map with the territory. 
 Fortunately, however, you have a lot more to say on the subject...
  

  If we start with disembodied mathematical concepts as realities in their 
 own right, then we are automatically smuggling in all kinds of assumptions 
 about what the universe comes with out of the box. Integers, operators, and 
 equivalence are the end result of a kind of manufacturing process which 
 includes a lot of ontological raw materials; sequence, representation, 
 symmetry, universality, ideal objects, participation in manipulating 
 formulas...lots of things which have no plausible origin within 
 mathematics. They are all figures of experience which are valid because of 
 aesthetic familiarity - because of the sense that cognitive awareness 
 furnishes us with. If math can do all of that by itself, then an additional 
 type of 'consciousness' would be redundant.

 That's a good point. 

 At a slight tangent, it seems possible that the universe has some of these 
 concepts built in (in some sense). This isn't an objection to what you're 
 saying, but maybe it should be borne in mind, in case these are somehow 
 indicative of what can be considered primitive...


Yes exactly. I would say that *our kind of view* of the totality includes 
the appearance of those concepts being built in to the universe. Locally 
that is true, just as locally it seems to me that the meaning of these 
letters and words as English language is now, as an adult, part of the 
scenery. I think that because mathematical relations are almost completely 
primitive, they appear almost as a shadow of what is absolutely primitive, 
which is sense itself. Being that it is more primitive than space or time 
(which, as Bruno suggests, are mathematically derived), math is eternal and 
instantaneous relative to our awareness. Our local frame of reference is 
nested within schemas which are both larger and smaller: 
astrophysics-QMgeology-chemistryevolution-microbiologyzoology-physiologyanthropology-neurology.
 
The position of our frame of reference flattens the more distant frames as 
they occur on scales which are too remote, too fast and too slow, for us to 
relate to as consciousness.


 Equivalence - all electrons (say) appear to be identical.


The more remote the frame of reference (for us, Astrophysics and QM are the 
most remote), the more generic and mechanical appearances tend to be. The 
electron itself may not even be 'real' so much as perceptual 'fill-in' from 
those remote levels. There may not be individual electrons at all, but more 
of a stereotype of a whole category of low level experiences which are, 
ontologically, none of our business.
 


 Counting - a BEC (for example) does a sort of simple arithmetic, in that 
 the universe keeps track of the number of objects involved even when they 
 aren't even in theory distinguishable.


Sure, the universe keeps track of everything. It is only our nested 
insensitivity which obscures almost everything from us. I would not say 
that the BEC *does* arithmetic, so much as the fidelity of arithmetic sense 
is preserved (as one of many layers of sense that is preserved, at or 
beneath our measurement).
 


 Symmetry - as I'm sure you know there all lots of examples of this in 
 physics. All the conservation laws (energy, momentum, etc) can be expressed 
 in terms of symmetries.


Yes, symmetry is a key principle, but it is an aesthetic phenomenon 
already. We can define symmetry in specific terms, but the presence of 
symmetry requires some aesthetic description to be realized. There can be 
no theory of symmetry without the reality of spatiotemporal experiences.

 

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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-01-28 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Tuesday, January 28, 2014 6:09:33 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 28 Jan 2014, at 07:52, LizR wrote:

 On 28 January 2014 17:35, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript:
  wrote:

 On Monday, January 27, 2014 5:24:06 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 On 28 January 2014 10:59, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:


 I think that 0+1=1 already requires consciousness. If we assume that 
 from the start, then all further argument is begging the question. If 
 something can 'equal' something else, then consciousness is unnecessary.

 Could you explain? (I don't understand what's being said in any of the 
 three sentences above, so would appreciate a blow by blow explanation if 
 that's OK).

 By saying that 0+1=1 already requires consciousness, I mean that all 
 mathematical expressions are intentional communication of a conscious 
 appreciation of symbolic relations.


 In itself, that looks like a confusion of the map with the territory. 
 Fortunately, however, you have a lot more to say on the subject...
  

  If we start with disembodied mathematical concepts as realities in their 
 own right, then we are automatically smuggling in all kinds of assumptions 
 about what the universe comes with out of the box. Integers, operators, and 
 equivalence are the end result of a kind of manufacturing process which 
 includes a lot of ontological raw materials; sequence, representation, 
 symmetry, universality, ideal objects, participation in manipulating 
 formulas...lots of things which have no plausible origin within 
 mathematics. 


 False. We know now that arithmetic is full of mathematicians. That is the 
 essence of Gödel discovery (not just in the light of computationalism). 
 This is brought from Gödel understanding that arithmetic already do 
 meta-arithmetic. More on this later, probably.


From what I have read, I suspect that Gödel would disagree. I do not think 
that incompleteness implicates consciousness within arithmetic, and in fact 
suggests the opposite - that arithmetic is not complete enough to contain 
consciousness. To say that arithmetic is full of mathematicians sounds 
unfalsifiable and arbitrary to me. At the very least it is a discovery 
which is yours and not a popular understanding within mathematics. How 
would you tell the difference between arithmetic being full of 
mathematicians and arithmetic being full of impersonal reflections of the 
mathematician?




 They are all figures of experience which are valid because of aesthetic 
 familiarity - because of the sense that cognitive awareness furnishes us 
 with. If math can do all of that by itself, then an additional type of 
 'consciousness' would be redundant.

 That's a good point. 


 Yes. That is the mind-body problem (that some physicalist call hard 
 problem of consciousness, but I prefer the more neutral standard 
 expression in philosophy of mind).


If we are talking about math though, then we don't need the body. It is 
more like the mind-math problem. If you have the math, why do you need an 
aesthetic mind?

Craig
 


 Bruno



 At a slight tangent, it seems possible that the universe has some of these 
 concepts built in (in some sense). This isn't an objection to what you're 
 saying, but maybe it should be borne in mind, in case these are somehow 
 indicative of what can be considered primitive...

 Equivalence - all electrons (say) appear to be identical.

 Counting - a BEC (for example) does a sort of simple arithmetic, in that 
 the universe keeps track of the number of objects involved even when they 
 aren't even in theory distinguishable.

 Symmetry - as I'm sure you know there all lots of examples of this in 
 physics. All the conservation laws (energy, momentum, etc) can be expressed 
 in terms of symmetries.


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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-01-28 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On 27 January 2014 16:07, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

 Do you think Barack Obama is conscious? If you do, then in whatever sense
 you understand that, can the Chinese Room also be conscious? Or do you think
 that is impossible?


 Yes, I think that Barack Obama is conscious, because he is different from a
 building or machine. Buildings and machines cannot be conscious, just as
 pictures of people drinking pictures of water do no experience relief from
 thirst.

If Barack Obama revealed that he was a machine, would that change your
view of whether machines could be conscious?

 The Chinese Room is not important. You are missing the whole point.
 Consciousness is beyond reason and cannot be discovered through evidence or
 argument, but sensory experience alone.

So the Chinese Room is conscious not through evidence or argument, but
through sensory experience alone.

 The claim is that the consciousness of the room stands in relation to the
 physical room as the consciousness of a person stands in relation to the
 physical person.


 There is no 'physical person', there is a public facing body. A person is
 not a body. On one level of an animal's body there are organs which cannot
 survive independently of the body as a whole, but on another level all of
 those organs are composed of living cells which have more autonomy.
 Understanding this theme of coexisting but contrasting levels of description
 suggests that a room need not be comparable to the body of a living
 organism. Since the room is not something which naturally evolves of its own
 motives and sense, we need not assume that the level at which it appears to
 us as a room or machine is in fact the relevant level of description when
 considering its autonomy and coherence. In my view, the machine expresses
 only the lowest levels of immediate thermodynamic sensitivity according to
 the substance which is actually reacting, and the most distant levels of
 theoretical design, but with nothing in between. We do not have to pretend
 that there is no way to guess whether a doll or a cadaver might be
 conscious. With an adequate model of qualitative nesting and its relation to
 quantitative scale, we can be freed from sophism and pathetic fallacy.

An observer might say that the Chinese Room or the AI in Her or
Barack Obama naturally evolves of its own motives and sense after
the point of creation.

 It could not become John Wayne physically, and it could not become John
 Wayne mentally if the actual matter in John Wayne is required to reproduce
 John Wayne's mind, but you have not proved that the latter is the case.

 It has nothing to do with matter. There can only ever be one John Wayne. A
 person is like a composite snapshot of a unique human lifetime, and the
 nesting of that lifetime within a unique cultural zeitgeist. It's all made
 of the expression of experience through time. The matter is just the story
 told to us by the experiences of eyeballs and fingertips, microscopes, etc.

What if it were revealed that John Wayne's body while he was asleep on
the night of his 40th birthday was annihilated and replaced by a copy?
Would you still say there can only be one John Wayne? Why couldn't we
make a John Wayne Mk3 long after his death, who would stand in
relation to John Wayne Mk2 as John Wayne Mk2 stood in relation to John
Wayne Mk1?

 That's what Searle claims, which is why he makes the Room pass a Turing
 test in Chinese and then purports to prove (invalidly, according to what
 you've said) that despite passing the test it isn't conscious.


 The question of whether or not a Turing test is possible is beyond the scope
 of the the Chinese Room. The Room assumes, for the sake of argument, that
 Computationalist assumptions are true, and that a Turing type test would be
 useful, and that anything which could pass such a test would have to be
 conscious. Searle rightly identifies the futility of looking for outward
 appearances to reveal the quality of interior awareness. He successfully
 demonstrates that blind syntactic approaches to producing symbols of
 consciousness could indeed match any blind semantic approach of expecting
 consciousness.

And he purports to do that by showing that despite external
appearances the Chinese Room cannot be conscious because the
components are not conscious, which you agree is not a valid argument.

 My hypotheses go further into the ontology of awareness, so
 that we are not limited to the blindness of measurable communication in our
 empathy, and that our senses extend beyond their own accounts of each other.
 Our intuitive capacities can be more fallible than empirical views can
 measure, but they can also be more veridical than information based methods
 can ever dream of. Intuition, serendipity, and imagination are required to
 generate the perpetual denationalization of creators ahead of the created.
 This doesn't mean that some people cannot be fooled all of the time or that
 all of the 

Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
On Tue, Jan 28, 2014 at 2:46 AM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 1/27/2014 2:32 PM, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:




 On Mon, Jan 27, 2014 at 10:09 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 1/27/2014 12:12 PM, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:

 So sure yeah, there's no limit to what you can do when you eliminate and
 don't care about x. Louis C.K. had a good one: Wow, I can't believe we
 built the pyramids - yeah, we just threw human death and suffering at them
 until they were built. There's no end to what we can achieve when we don't
 give a sh*t how to get there... Science that advances by eliminativism
 comes with a price and some side-effects.


 Just because there's a price doesn't mean you shouldn't pay it.  We
 eliminated the Egyptian gods, the divine Pharoh and their theology, so we
 don't get pyramids anymore - and I'd call it progress.


  Well Louis' bit finishes in the contemporary world with: Wow, look at
 all this amazing customized digital technology we have, waving around an
 iphone, that's because where they build these things, people are so
 miserable they have to deploy nets outside the factories to keep them from
 jumping off the effin roofs...


 There's a lot of young men and women concentrated in a small area.  Given
 the numbers I don't think the suicide rate is higher than elsewhere.
 Universities in the U.S. also have high suicide rate.

 *At Cornell University in Ithaca, N.Y., there have been six confirmed
 suicides this academic year, including two on successive days last month.
 Last week, Cornell installed chain-link fencing along many of the bridges
 that cross the gorges on campus, serving both as deterrent and a physical
 reminder.*

 *According to a 2009 article in Professional Psychology, 6 percent of
 participating undergraduates and 4 percent of graduate students in
 four-year colleges said they had seriously considered attempting suicide
 in the past year--and nearly half of each group did not tell anyone.***


Agreed and you make my point.

The possible maturing from a critical naiveté, in terms of implications of
beliefs, their negation, naturalization through sustaining
self-legitimizing histories as falsely true (e.g. through creation and
unquestioning beliefs in institutional function, which includes exploiting
factory floors, forcing obedience in conventions through education systems,
reliance on fossil fuels, overemphasis on weapons manufacture etc.), that
result in all our progress, can't keep up with the effects of an apparent
efficacy, through lucky metaphors/isomorphisms perhaps, of our prohibition
style separation of theology and science.

The Pharaoh is now for example say: US law. Such monsters of ornate rules
and codes benefit whom? Right, it's ideal for PR exploiting Pharaohs that
can afford the army of slave lawyers to look after their pyramids on
Nantucket or wherever.

I don't think we've ended imperialistic and massive slave-like treatment of
people, based on dominance theologies. We've just given them different
labels, and since the law is atheistic (just swear on the Bible for a
moment), its great to mask that we haven't changed in this regard much.

We're also more vulnerable to PR manipulation, negating importance of
theology in science. Believing all kinds of crap because of a few idiots
being handed the mike or air time. See climate change.




   so that we can leave a grumpy comment on Youtube, while we're taking a
 sh*t.

  Sure, it's comedy.

 But it's not trivial in proclaiming civilization has not made the
 progress promised by Science, liberalized from theology. I guess people
 think less about such problems as good and evil, fundamental science,
 philosophy, theology etc. and we may be materially richer for it, and
 technologically stronger, but perhaps ethically poorer and more naive about
 the limits our ignorance imposes, without which we will tend to use
 technology for savage and low stuff, simply because we lose the capacity to
 envision more appropriate beliefs in such complex contexts.

 Eliminate/negate belief, and pair just half of science (the how-techne
 bit, fundamentally laying aside what with belief implication) with what's
 left, our default opportunism, and Louis' joke is no surprise. It's also no
 surprise why many argue this way: it's simpler and clearer.

 Doesn't make it valid. I think we may be half blind in this sense.
 Children with access to the weapons shed. The ignoramus Greeks were onto
 this. PGC


 The Greeks also kept slaves, considered women inferior, and gave us the
 Spartans and Alexander the Great as well as Plato.


Nobody here is making the claim that the Greeks were saints or have answers
for us. But they did articulate the problem with the problem and question
of knowledge's limits. Plato, Plotinus to Gödel and co. have even made some
progress. PGC



 Brent

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Re: Modal Logic (Part 1: Leibniz)

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Jan 2014, at 23:57, LizR wrote:


On 27 January 2014 06:11, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 26 Jan 2014, at 01:56, LizR wrote:


On 25 January 2014 23:56, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


if p is true (in this world, say) then it's true in all worlds  
that p is true in at least one world.


You need just use a conditional (if). The word asked was if.

OK?

OK. I think I see. p becomes if p is true rather than p is true

Yes.

Rereading a previews post I ask myself if this is well understood.

I have tended to work on the basis that 'p' means 'p is true'

That is correct.
- to make it easier to get my head around what an expression like  
[]p - p means.

?

p - q means: if p is true then q is true. (or means, equivalently  
'p is false or q is true')


In fact p - q is a sort of negation of p. It means p if false  
(unless q is true).


OK, I think I misunderstood something you said which made me think  
I'd previously misunderstood ... but actually I hadn't. I got it  
right the first time.



Yes. I talk too much :)
Consider all typo and incorrect statements of me as exercises!
(OK, it is a bit easy for me to say this, but expect errors. It is  
frequent and normal).




I realise it could also mean if p is false in all worlds, that  
implies it is false in this one

Here you talk like if   p - q   implies ~p - ~q.

But p - q is equivalent with ~q - ~p, not with ~p - ~q

Socrates is human - Socrates is mortal does not imply Socrates  
is not human - Socrates is not mortal.  Socrates could be my dog,  
for example.


But Socrates is human - Socrates is mortal does imply Socrates  
is not mortal - Socrates is not human


Keep in mind that p - q is ~p V q. Then (if you see that ~~p = p,  
and that p V q = q V p).


~p - ~q  = ~~p v ~q = p V ~q = ~q V p = q - p.  (not p - q).  OK?

Yes.


OK.




You said that we cannot infer anything from Alicia song as we don't  
know if his theory/song  is true.
But the whole point of logic is in the art of deriving and  
reasoning without ever knowing if a premise is true or not. Indeed,  
we even want to reason independetly of any interpretation (of the  
atoical propositions).


Yes, I do appreciate that is the point. I was a bit thrown by the  
word usage with Alicia, if A is singing...everybody loves my  
baby...can we deduce... I mean, I often sing all sorts of things  
that I don't intend to be self-referential (e.g. I am the Walrus)  
so I felt the need to add a little caveat.

OK.

Let me try to be clear.

From the truth of  Everybody loves my baby  my baby loves nobody  
but me you have deduced correctly  the proposition everybody loves  
me.  (with me = Alicia, and, strangely enough, = the baby).


From the truth of Alicia song Everybody loves my baby  my baby  
loves nobody  ,  we can only deduce that everybody loves Alicia or  
Alicia is not correct. In that last case either someone does not  
love the baby, or the baby does not love only her, maybe the baby  
loves someone else, secretly.


OK.


OK.



That error is done by those who believe that I defend the truth of  
comp, which I never do.
In fact we never know if a theory is true (cf Popper). That is why  
we do theories. We can prove A - B, without having any clues if A  
is false (in which case A - B is trivial), or A is true.

I will come back on this. It is crucially important.

I agree. I think psychologically it's hard to derive the results  
from a theory mechanically, without at least having some idea that  
it could be true. But obviously one can, as with Alicia.
You are right. Most of the time, mathematicians are aware of what  
they want to prove. They work topdown, using their intuition and  
familiarity with the subject. To be sure, very often too, they will  
prove a different theorem than the one they were thinking about. In  
some case they can even prove the contrary, more or less like Gödel  
for his 1931 result. He thought he could prove the consistency of  
the Hilbert program, but the math reality kicked back.


Ooh, really?! Well that really IS maths kicking back big time. I  
must remember that as an example of how maths really can kick back  
unexpectedly.


Another famous example is the proof of the irrationality of sqrt(2).  
Although the fact that Pythagorus killed 100 cows, and one disciple  
(!) belongs plausibly to a legend, it is still a kicking back result,  
showing that not all length on the plane are commensurable.

of course there are many others.





Nevertheless, the level of rigor in math today is such that in the  
paper, you will have to present the proof in a way showing that  
anyone could extract a formal proof of it, whose validity can be  
checked mechanically in either directly in predicate first order  
calculus, or in a theory which admits a known description in first  
order predicate calculus, like ZF, category theory.


All physical theories admits such description (like classical  
physics, quantum mechanics, cosmology, 

Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Telmo Menezes
On Tue, Jan 28, 2014 at 4:34 PM, Platonist Guitar Cowboy
multiplecit...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Tue, Jan 28, 2014 at 2:46 AM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 On 1/27/2014 2:32 PM, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:




 On Mon, Jan 27, 2014 at 10:09 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 On 1/27/2014 12:12 PM, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:

 So sure yeah, there's no limit to what you can do when you eliminate and
 don't care about x. Louis C.K. had a good one: Wow, I can't believe we
 built the pyramids - yeah, we just threw human death and suffering at them
 until they were built. There's no end to what we can achieve when we don't
 give a sh*t how to get there... Science that advances by eliminativism
 comes with a price and some side-effects.


 Just because there's a price doesn't mean you shouldn't pay it.  We
 eliminated the Egyptian gods, the divine Pharoh and their theology, so we
 don't get pyramids anymore - and I'd call it progress.


 Well Louis' bit finishes in the contemporary world with: Wow, look at all
 this amazing customized digital technology we have, waving around an
 iphone, that's because where they build these things, people are so
 miserable they have to deploy nets outside the factories to keep them from
 jumping off the effin roofs...


 There's a lot of young men and women concentrated in a small area.  Given
 the numbers I don't think the suicide rate is higher than elsewhere.
 Universities in the U.S. also have high suicide rate.

 At Cornell University in Ithaca, N.Y., there have been six confirmed
 suicides this academic year, including two on successive days last month.
 Last week, Cornell installed chain-link fencing along many of the bridges
 that cross the gorges on campus, serving both as deterrent and a physical
 reminder.

 According to a 2009 article in Professional Psychology, 6 percent of
 participating undergraduates and 4 percent of graduate students in four-year
 colleges said they had seriously considered attempting suicide in the past
 year--and nearly half of each group did not tell anyone.


 Agreed and you make my point.

 The possible maturing from a critical naiveté, in terms of implications of
 beliefs, their negation, naturalization through sustaining self-legitimizing
 histories as falsely true (e.g. through creation and unquestioning beliefs
 in institutional function, which includes exploiting factory floors, forcing
 obedience in conventions through education systems, reliance on fossil
 fuels, overemphasis on weapons manufacture etc.), that result in all our
 progress, can't keep up with the effects of an apparent efficacy, through
 lucky metaphors/isomorphisms perhaps, of our prohibition style separation of
 theology and science.

 The Pharaoh is now for example say: US law. Such monsters of ornate rules
 and codes benefit whom? Right, it's ideal for PR exploiting Pharaohs that
 can afford the army of slave lawyers to look after their pyramids on
 Nantucket or wherever.

 I don't think we've ended imperialistic and massive slave-like treatment of
 people, based on dominance theologies. We've just given them different
 labels, and since the law is atheistic (just swear on the Bible for a
 moment), its great to mask that we haven't changed in this regard much.

 We're also more vulnerable to PR manipulation, negating importance of
 theology in science. Believing all kinds of crap because of a few idiots
 being handed the mike or air time. See climate change.

PGC: good stuff!




 so that we can leave a grumpy comment on Youtube, while we're taking a
 sh*t.

 Sure, it's comedy.

 But it's not trivial in proclaiming civilization has not made the
 progress promised by Science, liberalized from theology. I guess people
 think less about such problems as good and evil, fundamental science,
 philosophy, theology etc. and we may be materially richer for it, and
 technologically stronger, but perhaps ethically poorer and more naive about
 the limits our ignorance imposes, without which we will tend to use
 technology for savage and low stuff, simply because we lose the capacity to
 envision more appropriate beliefs in such complex contexts.

 Eliminate/negate belief, and pair just half of science (the how-techne
 bit, fundamentally laying aside what with belief implication) with what's
 left, our default opportunism, and Louis' joke is no surprise. It's also no
 surprise why many argue this way: it's simpler and clearer.

 Doesn't make it valid. I think we may be half blind in this sense.
 Children with access to the weapons shed. The ignoramus Greeks were onto
 this. PGC


 The Greeks also kept slaves, considered women inferior, and gave us the
 Spartans and Alexander the Great as well as Plato.


 Nobody here is making the claim that the Greeks were saints or have answers
 for us. But they did articulate the problem with the problem and question of
 knowledge's limits. Plato, Plotinus to Gödel and co. have even made some
 progress. PGC



 Brent

Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Jan 2014, at 13:36, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Tuesday, January 28, 2014 5:23:02 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 27 Jan 2014, at 22:22, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Monday, January 27, 2014 5:57:55 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 27 Jan 2014, at 06:07, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Saturday, January 25, 2014 11:36:11 PM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:


On 26 January 2014 01:35, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com  
wrote:


 But that doesn't answer the question: do you think (or  
understand, or

 whatever you think the appropriate term is) that the Chinese Room
 COULD POSSIBLY be conscious or do you think that it COULD NOT  
POSSIBLY

 be conscious?


 NO ROOM CAN BE CONSCIOUS. NO BODY CAN BE CONSCIOUS. NO FORM CAN BE
 CONSCIOUS.*

 *Except within the fictional narrative of a conscious  
experience. Puppets
 can seem conscious. Doors, door-knobs, and Chinese rooms can  
SEEM to be

 conscious.

Do you think Barack Obama is conscious? If you do, then in  
whatever sense you understand that, can the Chinese Room also be  
conscious? Or do you think that is impossible?


Yes, I think that Barack Obama is conscious, because he is  
different from a building or machine. Buildings and machines  
cannot be conscious, just as pictures of people drinking pictures  
of water do no experience relief from thirst.


To compare a brain with a machine can make sense.
To compare a brain with a picture cannot.

It depends what the picture is doing. If you have a collection of  
detailed pictures of brains, and you organize them so that they are  
shown in different sequences according to some computation, isn't  
that a simulation of a brain?


It is not. It is a description of a computation, not a computation.  
The computation is in the logical relation, which includes the  
counterfactuals.


But the counterfactuals are theoretical rather than realistic.


I will no more comment any statements using word like real,  
realistic, concrete, etc.




The computation is like an Escher drawing, it can do things that  
would be impossible for a real brain and cannot do or be real in  
ways that a brain must necessarily be. A picture is just the next  
step in abstraction toward the sub-theoretical, but it is actually  
one step more concrete in aesthetic realism. A real picture of a  
triangle is closer to consciousness than a computation for the  
Mandelbot Set, which is only a theory until it is presented  
graphically to a visual participant.


Now, we do describe computation by some description, and so this  
confusion is frequent. But it is the same type of confusion between  
ciphers and numbers. Ciphers and sequence of ciphers are not  
numbers. It is the cionfusion between 345 and 345.


Both 345 and 345 are still pictures.


?

I ask myself if you get the notion of number.


They can only be made meaningful when they are associated by a  
sensory experience in which some aesthetic content or expectation  
can be labelled with a string or value.


What can I say? That follows from your theory. But your theory does  
not even try to explain the sensory experience. You assume the  
difficulty which I think computer science explains partially, and in a  
testable way.
The existence of your theory is not by itself a refutation of a  
different theory.










In either case, consciousness makes no more sense as part of a  
brain or a machine than a picture.


Right. We agree on that. But a brain can locally manifest a person.

I don't think it can.


So, if someone lost his body in some accident, but the rescuer saves  
the brain, and succeeded in connecting it to an artificial heart, and  
eventually an artificial body (but still with his natural brain).
The guy behaves normally. He kept his job. But you tell me that he has  
become a zombie?




A tip cannot locally manifest an iceberg. A cookie cutter cannot  
manifest a cookie.


A picture cannot. You can't implement it in a computer, in the sense  
of implementing a program, which then can manifest a person.


Right, because nothing can manifest a person except the complete  
history of experiences of Homo sapiens.


You confirm that you are lowering the level, and in fact up to infinity.

It looks like saying I am an infinite being.
I have no local Gödel number that you can put on some hard disk.

It is your right, but, well, I am not interested in that type of theory.

It excludes too much possibilities, and is based on some illusion of  
superiority. The 1p of the machine also believes, even know, its  
relation with *infinity*, but the correct machine does not brag on  
this, and still less, derived any superiority feeling from this.


(especially that comp explains in which sense the machine is right  
when saying that about herself (her 1-self).







Machines are like 4D pictures. One picture or form leads to another  
and another, and if there were some interpreter they could infer a  
logic to those transitions, but there is nothing in the 

Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread meekerdb

On 1/28/2014 12:32 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Yes, and most of the time, such eliminativism is a progress. WE eliminate the terms of 
the obsolete theories, like phlogiston, or like the cold and hot atoms of Lavoisier, or 
the N rays, etc.


Just as an aside, N rays is now used to describe neutron radiography

http://www.nray.ca/nray/res_XvsN.php

I laugh every time I see an engineering specification that calls out N ray inspection.  
Engineers never heard of Blondlot.


Brent

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread meekerdb

On 1/28/2014 12:59 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
The problem is that once you suppress God, you will make Matter into a God, and 
science into pseudo-religious scientism, with his train of authoritative arguments. why 
do you think the FPI is still ignored by most scientists?


To say I don't believe in God is quasi-equivalent with saying Now we have the answer 
to the fundamental question, which is just a crackpot kind of statement.


That's a great deal of attribution of thoughts to me.  Have you taken up mind reading, 
Bruno?  If one forms a theory in which matter is fundamental then matter=god, and 
god=matter.  What you call it makes no difference to whether it is a good theory of the 
world.  And since, as you've noted, physics doesn't try to start with an axiom defining 
matter, it is just defined implicitly by the equations and ostensively, physics could 
reach a theory in which matter=computation...and in fact that's exactly what Tegmark has 
done.  So you are factually wrong assuming matter is some blinding constraint on 
physics. The reason FPI is ignored by /*most*/ scientists is that /*most*/ scientist 
judge there is more progress to be made elsewhere.  Everett introduced the idea of FPI, 
but he didn't research it, because he saw no way to do so.  And your own theory 
essentially supports that judgement by showing that part of FP experience is ineffable.


To say I don't believe in God is quite clear to all those people who write dictionaries 
and has nothing to do with claiming that the fundamental questions are answered.  When 
Mach said, I don't believe in atoms. did it imply he knew what was fundamental?  For a 
logician you make a lot false inferences - or at least attribute them to others.


Brent

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread meekerdb

On 1/28/2014 1:16 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
That would be like attributing importance to a name, at a place where precisely we 
should not attribute any importance. I would use tao, that would make the results 
looking new-age. Use any another name, people will add more connotations than with the 
concept of god, and its quasi-name God for the monist or monotheist big unique being or 
beyond being entity.


If I show it is empirically false that Use any another name, people will add more 
connotations than with the concept of god, will you stop using God and switch to goar?


Brent

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread meekerdb

On 1/28/2014 1:27 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

But it refers to an immortal person, and singular at that.


Yes. Singular. that the main contribution of the Parmenides: the rise of monotheism and 
the rise of monism. The idea that there is a unique reality. That is the motor of the 
fundamental inquiry. It has given the modern science, alas, without theology abandoned 
to politics.


But there was no rise of monotheism following Parmenides.  It rose following the Jews, 
who insisted that only *their* great-man-in-the-sky was really real.


Brent

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread meekerdb

On 1/28/2014 1:47 AM, Jason Resch wrote:


Supposing there is a ground of all reality, as some would nominate the 
strings of
string theory and others computations of a universal dovetailer, why would 
suppose
in advance that this GOAR is infinite, transcendent(whatever that means), 
eternal,
or immutable.


Those are the properties of the god of computationalism: arithmetical truth


So you're choosing the attributes of goar to match the theory of comp?  Well I guess 
that's one way to know what goar is - and a popular way at that.

...


  If you're not going to jump to conclusions, carrying baggage with you, 
let's just
call it goar.  And I would remind you that there is not necessarily a goar.


There is a reality, for which various theories attempt to offer an explaination 
of.


But the ground of all reality, goar, isn't necessarily transcendent, infinite, etc... or 
even singular.  If this is science and not religion we must find out what goar is and its 
attributes - not assume them at the start.


Brent

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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Jan 2014, at 14:09, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Tuesday, January 28, 2014 6:09:33 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 28 Jan 2014, at 07:52, LizR wrote:


On 28 January 2014 17:35, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:
On Monday, January 27, 2014 5:24:06 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:
On 28 January 2014 10:59, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

I think that 0+1=1 already requires consciousness. If we assume  
that from the start, then all further argument is begging the  
question. If something can 'equal' something else, then  
consciousness is unnecessary.


Could you explain? (I don't understand what's being said in any of  
the three sentences above, so would appreciate a blow by blow  
explanation if that's OK).


By saying that 0+1=1 already requires consciousness, I mean that  
all mathematical expressions are intentional communication of a  
conscious appreciation of symbolic relations.


In itself, that looks like a confusion of the map with the  
territory. Fortunately, however, you have a lot more to say on the  
subject...


If we start with disembodied mathematical concepts as realities in  
their own right, then we are automatically smuggling in all kinds  
of assumptions about what the universe comes with out of the box.  
Integers, operators, and equivalence are the end result of a kind  
of manufacturing process which includes a lot of ontological raw  
materials; sequence, representation, symmetry, universality, ideal  
objects, participation in manipulating formulas...lots of things  
which have no plausible origin within mathematics.


False. We know now that arithmetic is full of mathematicians. That  
is the essence of Gödel discovery (not just in the light of  
computationalism). This is brought from Gödel understanding that  
arithmetic already do meta-arithmetic. More on this later, probably.


From what I have read, I suspect that Gödel would disagree.


You are right, but I was talking in the comp theory. I should have  
said that if comp is true, then arithmetic is full of mathematicians.


By the way, arithmetic is also full of non-machine entities, and some  
(most self-referentially correct one) are still  Löbian and obeys the  
same theology. Infinity by itself does not help to escape the  
consequence of comp.





I do not think that incompleteness implicates consciousness within  
arithmetic,


Indeed. But the self-consciousness or self-awareness will start, not  
from incompleteness, but from the provable incompleteness. (Already  
mirrored by Gödel second incompleteness theorem, or by Löb theorem).  
Löbian machines are aware of their limitations.




and in fact suggests the opposite - that arithmetic is not complete  
enough to contain consciousness.


You misunderstand Gödel. Arithmetic is the reality for which machines,  
theories, and any finite beings, are only capable to scratch.





To say that arithmetic is full of mathematicians sounds  
unfalsifiable and arbitrary to me.



It is a direct consequence of comp, and of a theorem showing the  
representability of the partial recursive function in (Robinson  
already) arithmetic (RA).   (with comp = Church's thesis + it exists a  
level n such ... yes doctor).


If you bet in comp, it exists an infinity of computations going  
through you actual state S. And Löbian machines can prove that. The  
existence of all such computations are theorem in RA.







At the very least it is a discovery which is yours and not a popular  
understanding within mathematics.


Since how long can woman vote?

It is the normal fear of the others. That kind of thing takes time.



How would you tell the difference between arithmetic being full of  
mathematicians and arithmetic being full of impersonal reflections  
of the mathematician?


No, no, it is full of mathematicians. With comp, Euler is there, and  
Ramanujan too. It is a triviality. Astonishing, but trivial (and only  
a tiny part of a difficult but interesting problem deriving physics  
from the statistics on those computations).


I think it is a problem of your theory: it solves the problem. It is  
more interesting when a theory lead to a problem. Especially to  
attract the serious guy with competence, in this morbid and taboo  
field. Comp leads to reducing physics to a dreamy arithmetical complex  
structures.









They are all figures of experience which are valid because of  
aesthetic familiarity - because of the sense that cognitive  
awareness furnishes us with. If math can do all of that by itself,  
then an additional type of 'consciousness' would be redundant.


That's a good point.


Yes. That is the mind-body problem (that some physicalist call hard  
problem of consciousness, but I prefer the more neutral standard  
expression in philosophy of mind).


If we are talking about math though, then we don't need the body. It  
is more like the mind-math problem. If you have the math, why do you  
need an aesthetic mind?


After Gödel we have 

Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread meekerdb

On 1/28/2014 4:20 AM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

Liz,

No, those are entirely different effects. You need to understand the difference.

My proposed black hole effect is not as you suggested but due to the uneven Hubble 
expansion of space around galaxies.


The effect Brent is proposing has nothing to do with the Hubble expansion. It seems to 
be as if moving masses left their gravitational field behind them as they entered BHs. 
There is no known case in which moving masses leave their gravitational fields behind 
them. That seems to me to contradict GR.


Brent is trying to tell us that black holes have NO mass (but they still causes 
gravitational effects), which I don't think anyone other than he believes.


All you would have had to do is look at the Wikipedia:

=


 Deriving the Schwarzschild solution

The Schwarzschild solution http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schwarzschild_solution is one of 
the simplest and most useful solutions of the Einstein field equations 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Einstein_field_equations (see general relativity 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_relativity). It describes spacetime 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spacetime in the vicinity of a non-rotating massive 
spherically-symmetric object. It is worthwhile deriving this metric in some detail; the 
following is a reasonably rigorous derivation that is not always seen in the textbooks.


Working in a coordinate chart http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coordinate_chart with 
coordinates \left(r, \theta, \phi, t \right) labelled 1 to 4 respectively, we begin with 
the metric in its most general form (10 independent components, each of which is a smooth 
function of 4 variables). The solution is assumed to be spherically symmetric, static and 
vacuum. For the purposes of this article, these assumptions may be stated as follows (see 
the relevant links for precise definitions):


(1) A spherically symmetric spacetime 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spherically_symmetric_spacetime is one in which all metric 
components are unchanged under any rotation-reversal \theta \rightarrow - \theta or \phi 
\rightarrow - \phi.


(2) A static spacetime http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Static_spacetime is one in which all 
metric components are independent of the time coordinate t (so that \frac {\part g_{\mu 
\nu}}{\part t}=0) and the geometry of the spacetime is unchanged under a time-reversal t 
\rightarrow -t.


(3) A /*vacuum solution http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Einstein_field_equation*/ is one 
that satisfies the equation T_{ab}=0. From the Einstein field equations 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Einstein_field_equations (with zero cosmological constant 
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cosmological_constant), this implies that R_{ab}=0 (after 
contracting R_{ab}-\frac{R}{2} g_{ab}=0 and putting R = 0).


(4) Metric signature http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metric_signature used here 
is (-,+,+,+).

===


But apparently learning something is not on your agenda.


Brent


Mass is one of the few things BHs DO have

Edgar



On Monday, January 27, 2014 10:25:20 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

On 1/27/2014 4:03 PM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


I asked How does mass inside a BH produce an gravitational effect 
outside the
event horizon if gravity propagates at the speed of light and nothing 
can go
faster than the speed of light to come out of a black hole?

Your answer was that when mass enters a black hole the mass disappears
completely into the singularity and has NO gravitational effect outside 
and
that the gravitational effect of a BH is somehow left over space 
warping from
the passage of the mass before it enters the BH which seems like a 
pretty crazy
idea. *Passing mass doesn't leave trails of its space warping behind in 
any
other circumstances.*


I seem to recall that you had the idea that the mass of a galaxy would 
leave behind
a space warp even when the galaxy responsible had gone somewhere else.

Once the warp is formed it can easily separate from the matter that 
caused it.
At that point it is effectively just another mass of matter. That is 
why it's
called dark matter. And of course masses separate from each other all 
the time.
Don't think of it like it's continued existence depends on the original 
galactic
mass. Once it's created it exists as a separate dark mass that can go 
anywhere
it likes under gravitational forces just like VISIBLE matter can...



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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-01-28 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Tuesday, January 28, 2014 12:31:07 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 28 Jan 2014, at 13:36, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Tuesday, January 28, 2014 5:23:02 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 27 Jan 2014, at 22:22, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Monday, January 27, 2014 5:57:55 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 27 Jan 2014, at 06:07, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Saturday, January 25, 2014 11:36:11 PM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:



 On 26 January 2014 01:35, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

  But that doesn't answer the question: do you think (or understand, or
  whatever you think the appropriate term is) that the Chinese Room
  COULD POSSIBLY be conscious or do you think that it COULD NOT 
 POSSIBLY
  be conscious?
 
 
  NO ROOM CAN BE CONSCIOUS. NO BODY CAN BE CONSCIOUS. NO FORM CAN BE
  CONSCIOUS.*
 
  *Except within the fictional narrative of a conscious experience. 
 Puppets
  can seem conscious. Doors, door-knobs, and Chinese rooms can SEEM to 
 be
  conscious.

 Do you think Barack Obama is conscious? If you do, then in whatever 
 sense you understand that, can the Chinese Room also be conscious? Or do 
 you think that is impossible?


 Yes, I think that Barack Obama is conscious, because he is different 
 from a building or machine. Buildings and machines cannot be conscious, 
 just as pictures of people drinking pictures of water do no experience 
 relief from thirst.


 To compare a brain with a machine can make sense.
 To compare a brain with a picture cannot.


 It depends what the picture is doing. If you have a collection of 
 detailed pictures of brains, and you organize them so that they are shown 
 in different sequences according to some computation, isn't that a 
 simulation of a brain?


 It is not. It is a description of a computation, not a computation. The 
 computation is in the logical relation, which includes the counterfactuals.


 But the counterfactuals are theoretical rather than realistic. 


 I will no more comment any statements using word like real, realistic, 
 concrete, etc. 


How would you like to refer to the difference between an Escher portrait, 
in which lizards can come from paper and staircases can turn inside out, 
and the ordinary world which is presented in which such things are 
understood to be obviously and permanently impossible?
 




 The computation is like an Escher drawing, it can do things that would be 
 impossible for a real brain and cannot do or be real in ways that a brain 
 must necessarily be. A picture is just the next step in abstraction toward 
 the sub-theoretical, but it is actually one step more concrete in aesthetic 
 realism. A real picture of a triangle is closer to consciousness than a 
 computation for the Mandelbot Set, which is only a theory until it is 
 presented graphically to a visual participant.
  

 Now, we do describe computation by some description, and so this 
 confusion is frequent. But it is the same type of confusion between ciphers 
 and numbers. Ciphers and sequence of ciphers are not numbers. It is the 
 cionfusion between 345 and 345.


 Both 345 and 345 are still pictures. 


 ?

 I ask myself if you get the notion of number.


Yes, but the notion of number is not the necessarily true. It may not refer 
to something which exists, but rather common sense of the gaps between what 
exists.
 



 They can only be made meaningful when they are associated by a sensory 
 experience in which some aesthetic content or expectation can be labelled 
 with a string or value.


 What can I say? That follows from your theory. But your theory does not 
 even try to explain the sensory experience. 


Of course. Explanation means only the translation from one aesthetic 
context to another. Sense experience is the primordial identity, so 
explaining it would be to appeal to the senseless.
 

 You assume the difficulty which I think computer science explains 
 partially, and in a testable way.
 The existence of your theory is not by itself a refutation of a different 
 theory.


That's because the theory prevents the truth about it from being accessed. 
The theory of comp is blind to its blindness, and demands to be refuted 
only by those wearing blindfolds. To test fairly, you would have to take 
off the blindfold, but then the fact of your seeing would make the test 
redundant.
 




  




 In either case, consciousness makes no more sense as part of a brain or a 
 machine than a picture. 


 Right. We agree on that. But a brain can locally manifest a person. 


 I don't think it can. 


 So, if someone lost his body in some accident, but the rescuer saves the 
 brain, and succeeded in connecting it to an artificial heart, and 
 eventually an artificial body (but still with his natural brain).
 The guy behaves normally. He kept his job. But you tell me that he has 
 become a zombie?


The brain never stopped being an expression of the victim's life though. It 
is still his body in some sense, even if there is 

Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-01-28 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Tuesday, January 28, 2014 8:37:04 AM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:

 On 27 January 2014 16:07, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript: 
 wrote: 

  Do you think Barack Obama is conscious? If you do, then in whatever 
 sense 
  you understand that, can the Chinese Room also be conscious? Or do you 
 think 
  that is impossible? 
  
  
  Yes, I think that Barack Obama is conscious, because he is different 
 from a 
  building or machine. Buildings and machines cannot be conscious, just as 
  pictures of people drinking pictures of water do no experience relief 
 from 
  thirst. 

 If Barack Obama revealed that he was a machine, would that change your 
 view of whether machines could be conscious? 


If nobody ever survived a translation into machine simulation, would that 
change your mind of whether consciousness can be simulated?


  The Chinese Room is not important. You are missing the whole point. 
  Consciousness is beyond reason and cannot be discovered through evidence 
 or 
  argument, but sensory experience alone. 

 So the Chinese Room is conscious not through evidence or argument, but 
 through sensory experience alone. 


It would be if the Chinese Room had sensory experience. Our experience of 
the Chinese Room doesn't matter.
 


  The claim is that the consciousness of the room stands in relation to 
 the 
  physical room as the consciousness of a person stands in relation to 
 the 
  physical person. 
  
  
  There is no 'physical person', there is a public facing body. A person 
 is 
  not a body. On one level of an animal's body there are organs which 
 cannot 
  survive independently of the body as a whole, but on another level all 
 of 
  those organs are composed of living cells which have more autonomy. 
  Understanding this theme of coexisting but contrasting levels of 
 description 
  suggests that a room need not be comparable to the body of a living 
  organism. Since the room is not something which naturally evolves of its 
 own 
  motives and sense, we need not assume that the level at which it appears 
 to 
  us as a room or machine is in fact the relevant level of description 
 when 
  considering its autonomy and coherence. In my view, the machine 
 expresses 
  only the lowest levels of immediate thermodynamic sensitivity according 
 to 
  the substance which is actually reacting, and the most distant levels of 
  theoretical design, but with nothing in between. We do not have to 
 pretend 
  that there is no way to guess whether a doll or a cadaver might be 
  conscious. With an adequate model of qualitative nesting and its 
 relation to 
  quantitative scale, we can be freed from sophism and pathetic fallacy. 

 An observer might say that the Chinese Room or the AI in Her or 
 Barack Obama naturally evolves of its own motives and sense after 
 the point of creation. 


Those are fictional examples. I don't deny that many people find it 
plausible that machines can evolve their own motives, but I think that I 
understand why they are mistaken.
 


  It could not become John Wayne physically, and it could not become John 
  Wayne mentally if the actual matter in John Wayne is required to 
 reproduce 
  John Wayne's mind, but you have not proved that the latter is the case. 
  
  It has nothing to do with matter. There can only ever be one John Wayne. 
 A 
  person is like a composite snapshot of a unique human lifetime, and the 
  nesting of that lifetime within a unique cultural zeitgeist. It's all 
 made 
  of the expression of experience through time. The matter is just the 
 story 
  told to us by the experiences of eyeballs and fingertips, microscopes, 
 etc. 

 What if it were revealed that John Wayne's body while he was asleep on 
 the night of his 40th birthday was annihilated and replaced by a copy? 
 Would you still say there can only be one John Wayne? 


What if you were annihilated at age 5, but you were replaced by a copy? 
Would you still say that the body using your name was you, even though you 
are not using it?
 

 Why couldn't we 
 make a John Wayne Mk3 long after his death, who would stand in 
 relation to John Wayne Mk2 as John Wayne Mk2 stood in relation to John 
 Wayne Mk1? 


For the same reason that we can't build a model of Paris out of clay and 
have it actually become Paris. It is because the publicly measurable end of 
what we are is not sufficient to describe who we have been and who we are 
becoming.
 


  That's what Searle claims, which is why he makes the Room pass a Turing 
  test in Chinese and then purports to prove (invalidly, according to 
 what 
  you've said) that despite passing the test it isn't conscious. 
  
  
  The question of whether or not a Turing test is possible is beyond the 
 scope 
  of the the Chinese Room. The Room assumes, for the sake of argument, 
 that 
  Computationalist assumptions are true, and that a Turing type test would 
 be 
  useful, and that anything which could pass such a test would have to be 
  

Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread John Clark
On Mon, Jan 27, 2014 at 3:21 PM, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com wrote:

 But Jason I want to ask you a direct question, and this isn't rhetorical
 I'd really like an answer:  If there is no all encompassing purpose or a
 goal to existence and if the unknown principle responsible for the
 existence of the universe is not intelligent and is not conscious and is
 not a being then do you think it adds to clarity to call that principle
 God?


  I consider this question equivalent to asking If there is no elan vital
 found within organisms, does it still make sense to call those organisms
 life?


Elan vital has never been found in organisms, or in anything else for that
matter, so the obvious answer is YES, otherwise there would NEVER be an
occasion to use the word life (except in the negative, but if every
physical thing is not X then X is of no interest whatsoever) and the word
life should be retired from the English language.


  I think there is a common kernel of idea behind the word God,


I agree, but neither omniscience nor omnipotence are among those key ideas
behind the word God, the idea that He created the universe is closer to
that core but still not quite there; after all the supreme being need not
be perfect or infinite, He or she  (it needs to be a being, if it's a it
then it's not God) needs only to be better than the competition.

But calling something God (as Einstein regrettably did) that has no goal
and no purpose, that has zero intelligence and zero consciousness, that has
nothing to do with morality, that does not hear our prayers much less
answer them, and is not even a being is equivalent to calling something a
dog even though the thing can not bark, does not have 4 legs, is not a
mammal or even a vertebrate, needs to be plugged in and is very good at
opening cans. To avoid confusion I would not call such a thing a dog, I
would call it what it is, an electric can opener.

 John K Clark

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread John Clark
On Mon, Jan 27, 2014 at 4:05 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 I hope those are real quotes. There are quite a few fake Einstein quotes
 floating around the web.


They were real, real enough to provoke a furious response from  thousands
of American hillbillies in the 1930's such as:

Professor Einstein, I believe that every Christian in America will answer
you, We will not give up our belief in our God and his son Jesus Christ,
but we invite you, if you do not believe in the God of the people of this
nation, to go back where you came from. I have done everything in my power
to be a blessing to Israel, and then you come along and with one statement
from your blasphemous tongue, do more to hurt the cause of your people than
all the efforts of the Christians who love Israel can do to stamp out
anti-Semitism in our land. Professor Einstein, every Christian in America
will immediately reply to you, Take your crazy, fallacious theory of
evolution and go back to Germany where you came from, or stop trying to
break down the faith of a people who gave you a welcome when you were
forced to flee your native land.

We deeply regret that you made your statement in which you ridicule the
idea of a personal God. In the past ten years nothing has been so
calculated to make people think that Hitler had some reason to expel the
Jews from Germany as your statement. Conceding your right to free speech, I
still say that your statement constitutes you as one of the greatest
sources of discord in America.

  John K Clark










 On 28 January 2014 05:18, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Sun, Jan 26, 2014  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  John should read the book by Jammer on Einstein's religion. 2/3 of that
 book is really informative about Einstein's religion.


 Rather than read what Jammer had to say try reading what Einstein himself
 had to say about God:

 it was, of course, a lie what you read about my religious convictions, a
 lie which is being systematically repeated. I do not believe in a personal
 God and I have never denied this but have expressed it clearly.  If
 something is in me which can be called religious then it is the unbounded
 admiration for the structure of the world so far as our science can reveal
 it.

 And:

 I have never imputed to Nature a purpose or a goal, or anything that
 could be understood as anthropomorphic. What I see in Nature is a
 magnificent structure that we can comprehend only very imperfectly, and
 that must fill a thinking person with a feeling of humility

 And:

 The idea of a personal God is quite alien to me and seems even naive.

 And:

 A man's ethical behavior should be based effectually on sympathy,
 education, and social ties; no religious basis is necessary. Man would
 indeed be in a poor way if he had to be restrained by fear of punishment
 and hope of reward after death.

 And:

 I don't try to imagine a personal God; it suffices to stand in awe at
 the structure of the world, insofar as it allows our inadequate senses to
 appreciate it.

 Although to a far less degree I will admit that Einstein was sometimes
 guilty of the same sin that members of this list habitually commit, falling
 in love not with the concept but with the English word God when all
 Einstein meant is awe at the structure of the world.

  John seems to be unaware what God was for the greeks,


 John is board to death by the Greeks, scornful of their enormous
 ignorance and utterly repelled by the unhealthy ancestor worship that is
 epidemic on the everything list.

  John acts in a way which is typical for the usual christians.


 Wow, calling a guy known for disliking religion religious, never heard
 that one before, at least I never heard it before I was 12.

   John K Clark


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Modal Logic (Part 2: From Leibniz to Kripke)

2014-01-28 Thread Bruno Marchal

Hi Liz, Others,


In the general semantic of Leibniz, we have a non empty set of worlds  
W, and some valuation of the propositional variables (p, q, r, ...) at  
each world.


And we should be convinced than all formula, with A, B, C, put for any  
formula,  of the type


[](A-B) - ([]A - []B)
[]A - A
[]A - [][]A
A - []A
A - []A

are all laws, in the sense that they are all true in all worlds in all  
Leibnizian multiverse. OK?


Most are obvious (once familiarized with the idea 'course). Take []A  
- A. Let us prove by contradiction, to change a bit. Imagine there is  
world with []A - A is false. That means that in that world we have  
[]A and ~A. But []A means that A is true in all world, so in that  
world we would have [A and ~A. Contradiction (all worlds obeys  
classical CPL).


Test yourself by justifying in different ways the other propositions,  
again and again.


But now, all that was semantic, and logicians are interested in  
theories. They want axioms and deduction rules.


So, the question is: is there a theory capturing all the laws, true in  
all worlds in all Leibnizian multiverse?


Answer: YES.

Ah? Which one.

S5.

S5?

Yes, S5. The fifth system of Lewis. Who did modal logical purely  
deductively, and S5 was his fifth attempt in trying to formalize a  
notion of deducibility.


The axioms of S5 are (added to some axiomatization of CPL, like the  
one I gave you sometimes ago):


[](A-B) - ([]A - []B)
[]A - A
[]A - [][]A
A - []A

The rules of S5 are:

The modus ponens rule, like CPL axiomatization.
The necessitation rule: derive []A from A.

It can be proved that S5 can prove all the laws satisfied by all  
worlds in the Leibnizian multiverse.


Those axioms are independent. For example you cannot prove A -  
[]A from the other axioms using those rules. But how could we prove  
that? This was rather well known by few modal logicians.


There is a curious article by Herman Weyl, the ghost of modality,  
were Herman Weyl illustrate both that he is a great genius, and a  
great idiot (with all my very deep and sincere respect).


Modal logic has been very badly seen by many mathematicians and  
logicians. In the field of logic, modal logicians were considered as  
freak, somehow. Important philosopher, like Quine were also quite  
opposed to modal logic.
So it was very gentle from Herman Weyl to attempt to give modal logic  
some serious considerations.
He tried to provide a semantic of modal logic with intuitionist logic,  
but concluded that it fails, then with quantum logic, idem, then with  
provability logic (sic), but it fails. It fails because each time some  
axiom of S5 failed!
This shows he was biased by the Aristotelian Leibnizian metaphysics.  
In fact he was discovering, before everybody, that there are many  
modal logics, and that indeed they provide classical view on many non  
standard logics. In fact, somehow, it is the first apparition of the  
hypostases in math (to be short).
I really love that little visionary paper (if only I could put my hand  
on it).


But if S5 is characterized by the Leibnizian multiverse. What will  
characterize the other modal logics?


Well, there has been many other semantics, but a beautiful and  
important step was brought by Kripke.


It is almost like the passage from the ASSA to the RSSA! The passage  
from absolute to relative. The passage from Newton to Einstein.


Kripke will put some structure on the Leibnizian multiverse. He will  
relativize the necessities and possibilities.

How?
By introducing a binary relation on the worlds, called accessibility  
relation. Then he require this:


[]A is true in a world alpha   =A is true in all worlds  
*accessible* from alpha.


Exercise: what means A here?  (cf A is defined by ~[]~A).

So a Kripke multiverse is just a non empty set, with a binary relation  
(called accessibility relation). It is a Leibnizian multiverse,  
enriched by that accessibility relation. For []A being true, we don't  
require it to be true in all worlds, but only in all worlds accessible  
from some world (like the actual world, for example).


Again a Kripkean law will be a proposition true in all worlds in all  
Kripke multiverse.


Now I am a bit tired, so I give you the sequel in 2 exercises, or  
subject of meditation.


1) Try to convince yourself that the formula:

[](A-B) - ([]A - []B)

is a Kripkean law. It is satisfied in all worlds (meaning also all  
valuations of the propositional letters), in all  Kripke multiverse.


2) try to convince yourself that none of the other formula are laws in  
all Kripke multiverse. Try to find little Kripke multiverse having  
some world contradicting those laws.
Can you find *special* binary relations which would enforce some of  
those propositions to be law in those corresponding *special* Kripke  
multiverse?


Advise. Draw potatoes for the worlds, with the valuation inside, and  
draw big readable arrow between two worlds when one is accessible from  
the 

Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Brent,

Perhaps I'm missing something but I read the Wikipedia article and several 
others (eg. http://casa.colorado.edu/~ajsh/schwp.html) and reread Chapter 
13: Inside Black Holes of 'Black Holes and Time Warps' by Kip Thorne and 
NONE of those sources say what you are saying, namely that

1. Matter (mass) vanishes inside a black hole
2. The intense gravitation of a black hole is not due to any mass inside of 
it but to the trail of space curvature left behind outside the event 
horizon by the matter entering the black hole.

I haven't found a single source that claims that but I'm open to correction 
if you can provide an authoritative one.

In fact the Schwarzchild solution specifically HAS a mass term in it on the 
basis of which the radius of the event horizon is calculated. So my reading 
of the Schwarzchild solution is that it specifically ASSUMES that the black 
hole is created by the mass INSIDE IT.

So are 1. and 2. above YOUR own interpretation of what's inside a black 
hole or do you have some authoritative source(S) that actually states that 
in plain English you can provide?

Now I certainly don't automatically discount the possibility that the 
matter inside a black hole leaves through the singularity and pops up 
somewhere else, but there is no convincing argument that that must be true. 
And if so you must come up with a VERY convincing argument that explains 
why a BH still appears to contain all the mass producing its gravitational 
field even though that mass isn't actually there anymore.

Just referencing an equation that doesn't have a mass term does none of the 
above.

Again is this your personal interpretation or can you give me an actual 
authoritative reference that states your 1. and 2.?

BTW where are you employed as a physicist? In academia or the corporate 
world?

Best,
Edgar



On Tuesday, January 28, 2014 1:20:39 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote:

  On 1/28/2014 4:20 AM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
  
 Liz, 

  No, those are entirely different effects. You need to understand the 
 difference.

  My proposed black hole effect is not as you suggested but due to the 
 uneven Hubble expansion of space around galaxies.

  The effect Brent is proposing has nothing to do with the Hubble 
 expansion. It seems to be as if moving masses left their gravitational 
 field behind them as they entered BHs. There is no known case in which 
 moving masses leave their gravitational fields behind them. That seems to 
 me to contradict GR.

  Brent is trying to tell us that black holes have NO mass (but they still 
 causes gravitational effects), which I don't think anyone other than he 
 believes.
  

 All you would have had to do is look at the Wikipedia:

 =
 Deriving the Schwarzschild solution The Schwarzschild 
 solutionhttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schwarzschild_solutionis one of the 
 simplest and most useful solutions of the Einstein 
 field equations http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Einstein_field_equations(see 
 general 
 relativity http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_relativity). It 
 describes spacetime http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spacetime in the 
 vicinity of a non-rotating massive spherically-symmetric object. It is 
 worthwhile deriving this metric in some detail; the following is a 
 reasonably rigorous derivation that is not always seen in the textbooks. 

 Working in a coordinate 
 charthttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coordinate_chartwith coordinates [image: 
 \left(r, \theta, \phi, t \right)] labelled 1 to 4 respectively, we begin 
 with the metric in its most general form (10 independent components, each 
 of which is a smooth function of 4 variables). The solution is assumed to 
 be spherically symmetric, static and vacuum. For the purposes of this 
 article, these assumptions may be stated as follows (see the relevant links 
 for precise definitions):

 (1) A spherically symmetric 
 spacetimehttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spherically_symmetric_spacetimeis one 
 in which all metric components are unchanged under any 
 rotation-reversal [image: \theta \rightarrow - \theta] or [image: \phi 
 \rightarrow - \phi].

 (2) A static spacetime http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Static_spacetime is 
 one in which all metric components are independent of the time coordinate 
 [image: 
 t] (so that [image: \frac {\part g_{\mu \nu}}{\part t}=0]) and the 
 geometry of the spacetime is unchanged under a time-reversal [image: t 
 \rightarrow -t].

 (3) A *vacuum solution 
 http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Einstein_field_equation* is one that 
 satisfies the equation [image: T_{ab}=0]. From the Einstein field 
 equations http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Einstein_field_equations (with 
 zero cosmological 
 constanthttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cosmological_constant), 
 this implies that [image: R_{ab}=0] (after contracting [image: 
 R_{ab}-\frac{R}{2} g_{ab}=0] and putting [image: R = 0]).

 (4) Metric signature http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metric_signature used 
 here is [image: (-,+,+,+)].

 

Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-01-28 Thread David Nyman
On 28 January 2014 18:25, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

That's because the theory prevents the truth about it from being accessed.
 The theory of comp is blind to its blindness, and demands to be refuted
 only by those wearing blindfolds. To test fairly, you would have to take
 off the blindfold, but then the fact of your seeing would make the test
 redundant.


Hi Craig

Your use of the word blindness above prompts me to ask you a question
that has long puzzled me about your ideas. What I don't understand is why
the sense you posit as fundamental in your theory would not, in effect, be
blind to itself. If I've understood you (which isn't necessarily the
case, of course) sense is the inner dual of outer activity (or vice
versa) - so that the complete picture is a sort of intrinsic/extrinsic
duality. If that is the case, your ideas seem to bear a strong relation to
panpsychist or panexperientialist theories.

These latter theories do not, in general, dispute that extrinsic activity
per se is fully explainable in its own terms (is reducible, for example, to
the entities and processes described by physics) Rather, they additionally
posit a basic sensory component accompanying these activities (i.e. an
inner duality) that in some way summates, at the appropriate level, all the
way up to conscious experience. The problem that concerns me about this way
of looking at things is that any and all behaviour associated with
consciousness - including, crucially, the articulation of our very thoughts
and beliefs about conscious phenomena - can at least in principle be
exhausted by an extrinsic account. But if this be so, it is very difficult
indeed to understand how such extrinsic behaviours could possibly make
reference to any intrinsic remainder, even were its existence granted. It
isn't merely that any postulated remainder would be redundant in the
explanation of such behaviour, but that it is hardly possible to see how an
inner dual could even be accessible in principle to a complete (i.e.
causally closed) extrinsic system of reference in the first place.

It might seem at first that comp (which also exploits an outer/inner
distinction) is vulnerable to a similar line of criticism, but I believe it
can escape it - unlike primitive-physical or (subject to your comments)
primitive-sensory explanations - by building on the fundamental elements of
reference from the ground up (so to speak). Comp (which derives from the
study of computation, not computers, as you seem to assume rather often in
your critique) is built on recursive webs of reference (notably
self-reference) which bootstrap beyond proof or ostensive demonstration to
incontrovertible truth (at least the arithmetical variety). This puts us in
the position (assuming the comp hypothesis) of accepting our own
incommunicable ability to access such incorrigible indexical truths - in
common with the arithmetical machines we study - or concluding (per
impossibile) that we too are truthless zombies.

David

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread meekerdb

On 1/28/2014 12:45 PM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

Brent,

Perhaps I'm missing something but I read the Wikipedia article and several others (eg. 
http://casa.colorado.edu/~ajsh/schwp.html) and reread Chapter 13: Inside Black Holes of 
'Black Holes and Time Warps' by Kip Thorne and NONE of those sources say what you are 
saying, namely that


1. Matter (mass) vanishes inside a black hole
2. The intense gravitation of a black hole is not due to any mass inside of it but to 
the trail of space curvature left behind outside the event horizon by the matter 
entering the black hole.


I haven't found a single source that claims that but I'm open to correction if you can 
provide an authoritative one.


You didn't read the Wikipedia page I referenced, which showed that the Schwarzschild BH 
solution is found by assuming a vacuum, T_u_v=0?




In fact the Schwarzchild solution specifically HAS a mass term in it on the basis of 
which the radius of the event horizon is calculated. So my reading of the Schwarzchild 
solution is that it specifically ASSUMES that the black hole is created by the mass 
INSIDE IT.


But that's the equivalent mass that would be necessary to produce the same field outside 
the event horizon.  As I said, the BH is massive in that it warps space, but it doesn't 
follow that it has matter inside the event horizon which is trying to send out gravity.




So are 1. and 2. above YOUR own interpretation of what's inside a black hole or do you 
have some authoritative source(S) that actually states that in plain English you can 
provide?


Now I certainly don't automatically discount the possibility that the matter inside a 
black hole leaves through the singularity and pops up somewhere else,


I doesn't pop up somewhere else.  Remember mass and energy are the same thing in GR.  One 
way to look at it is to say the mass in converted to gravitational energy, i.e. is takes a 
lot of energy/mass to warp space up into a singularity.  Gravity in GR is non-linear so it 
pulls on itself, that's why it makes a singularity (classically).  Hawking the radiation 
is the conversion of this mass/energy back into particles.


but there is no convincing argument that that must be true. And if so you must come up 
with a VERY convincing argument that explains why a BH still appears to contain all the 
mass producing its gravitational field even though that mass isn't actually there anymore.


Just referencing an equation that doesn't have a mass term does none of the 
above.


No, but it shows that a BH doesn't have to be created from matter, and in fact there is 
speculation that black holes might have been created in big bang just from fluctuations in 
the metric.  Of course we suppose that BH like the one at the center of the Milky Way were 
created, or at least grew large, by matter falling in.




Again is this your personal interpretation or can you give me an actual authoritative 
reference that states your 1. and 2.?


No, it's common knowledge.   Here's Sean Carroll's email, 
seancarr...@gmail.com; ask him.



BTW where are you employed as a physicist? In academia or the corporate world?


I'm retired.  I worked for the U.S. Navy.

Brent

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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-01-28 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On 29 January 2014 05:39, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Tuesday, January 28, 2014 8:37:04 AM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:

 On 27 January 2014 16:07, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

  Do you think Barack Obama is conscious? If you do, then in whatever
  sense
  you understand that, can the Chinese Room also be conscious? Or do you
  think
  that is impossible?
 
 
  Yes, I think that Barack Obama is conscious, because he is different
  from a
  building or machine. Buildings and machines cannot be conscious, just as
  pictures of people drinking pictures of water do no experience relief
  from
  thirst.

 If Barack Obama revealed that he was a machine, would that change your
 view of whether machines could be conscious?


 If nobody ever survived a translation into machine simulation, would that
 change your mind of whether consciousness can be simulated?

Yes. But you didn't answer my question.

  The Chinese Room is not important. You are missing the whole point.
  Consciousness is beyond reason and cannot be discovered through evidence
  or
  argument, but sensory experience alone.

 So the Chinese Room is conscious not through evidence or argument, but
 through sensory experience alone.


 It would be if the Chinese Room had sensory experience. Our experience of
 the Chinese Room doesn't matter.

That's the question: could the Chinese Room have sensory experience?
For entities such as Barack Obama, you guess that they do based on
your observation of their behaviour.

 What if it were revealed that John Wayne's body while he was asleep on
 the night of his 40th birthday was annihilated and replaced by a copy?
 Would you still say there can only be one John Wayne?


 What if you were annihilated at age 5, but you were replaced by a copy?
 Would you still say that the body using your name was you, even though you
 are not using it?

As a matter of fact, I was annihilated when I was 5. The atoms making
up my body then are long gone, dispersed throughout the Earth and
probably even beyond.

 Why couldn't we
 make a John Wayne Mk3 long after his death, who would stand in
 relation to John Wayne Mk2 as John Wayne Mk2 stood in relation to John
 Wayne Mk1?


 For the same reason that we can't build a model of Paris out of clay and
 have it actually become Paris. It is because the publicly measurable end of
 what we are is not sufficient to describe who we have been and who we are
 becoming.

Do you think it is impossible that John Wayne was replaced by a copy
at age 40 and nobody noticed?

 And he purports to do that by showing that despite external
 appearances the Chinese Room cannot be conscious because the
 components are not conscious, which you agree is not a valid argument.


 It's not because the components are not conscious, it is because the
 description of the Room or 'system' as a whole is consistent with the
 absence of consciousness. This is the double standard of functionalism which
 makes the hard problem hard. Functionalism asserts on the one hand that all
 functions of consciousness can be produced mechanically, but then the effect
 of consciousness could not provide any additional functionality to the
 mechanism. The hard problem exposes the hypocrisy of 'We don't need
 consciousness to explain everything when consciousness itself is what needs
 to be explained. The machine's definition of itself does not include
 consciousness. Building machines based on that definition will therefore not
 include consciousness.

If the machine were conscious, then its definition of itself would
include consciousness. Functionalism asserts that consciousness
emerges from function, but it's a non sequitar to say that therefore
consciousness should provide additional functionality.

  My hypotheses go further into the ontology of awareness, so
  that we are not limited to the blindness of measurable communication in
  our
  empathy, and that our senses extend beyond their own accounts of each
  other.
  Our intuitive capacities can be more fallible than empirical views can
  measure, but they can also be more veridical than information based
  methods
  can ever dream of. Intuition, serendipity, and imagination are required
  to
  generate the perpetual denationalization of creators ahead of the
  created.
  This doesn't mean that some people cannot be fooled all of the time or
  that
  all of the people can't be fooled some of the time, only that all of the
  people cannot be fooled all of the time.

 You still haven't come up with any reason better than a vague
 prejudice why, for example, the AI in the movie Her could not be
 conscious.


 Because she doesn't need to be conscious. She could just as easily be
 programmed as a chameleon, which analyzes the profile of each user and
 builds an ad hoc identity to reflect some Bayesian extraction of their
 preferences. Would such a chameleon have to be all of the different people
 that it pretends to be?

Samantha in the film claims that 

Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Brent,

I did read the Wikipedia page, and frankly I don't buy your interpretation 
that proves 1. and 2. below though I'm trying to keep an open mind.

And I'm not going to go by what 1 person, who I don't even know and who is 
presumably your friend says via an email.

Again I challenge you to provide me some authoritative online sources who 
agree with you that
1. Matter (mass) vanishes inside a black hole
2. The intense gravitation of a black hole is not due to any mass inside of 
it but to the trail of space curvature left behind outside the event 
horizon by the matter entering the black hole.

I haven't found a single source that claims that but I'm open to correction 
if you can provide some authoritative ones.

And I disagree with your interpretation of the Schwartzchild solution which 
clearly is based on the ACTUAL mass of a BH. So far as I know all, or at 
least most physicists, agree with me that it is the mass INSIDE the black 
hole that produces the event horizon.

Again, authoritative sources to support your 1. and 2. above? Can you 
produce any? If not I find your explanation unsupported..

Edgar


On Tuesday, January 28, 2014 5:19:27 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote:

 On 1/28/2014 12:45 PM, Edgar L. Owen wrote: 
  Brent, 
  
  Perhaps I'm missing something but I read the Wikipedia article and 
 several others (eg. 
  http://casa.colorado.edu/~ajsh/schwp.html) and reread Chapter 13: 
 Inside Black Holes of 
  'Black Holes and Time Warps' by Kip Thorne and NONE of those sources say 
 what you are 
  saying, namely that 
  
  1. Matter (mass) vanishes inside a black hole 
  2. The intense gravitation of a black hole is not due to any mass inside 
 of it but to 
  the trail of space curvature left behind outside the event horizon by 
 the matter 
  entering the black hole. 
  
  I haven't found a single source that claims that but I'm open to 
 correction if you can 
  provide an authoritative one. 

 You didn't read the Wikipedia page I referenced, which showed that the 
 Schwarzschild BH 
 solution is found by assuming a vacuum, T_u_v=0? 

  
  In fact the Schwarzchild solution specifically HAS a mass term in it on 
 the basis of 
  which the radius of the event horizon is calculated. So my reading of 
 the Schwarzchild 
  solution is that it specifically ASSUMES that the black hole is created 
 by the mass 
  INSIDE IT. 

 But that's the equivalent mass that would be necessary to produce the 
 same field outside 
 the event horizon.  As I said, the BH is massive in that it warps space, 
 but it doesn't 
 follow that it has matter inside the event horizon which is trying to 
 send out gravity. 

  
  So are 1. and 2. above YOUR own interpretation of what's inside a black 
 hole or do you 
  have some authoritative source(S) that actually states that in plain 
 English you can 
  provide? 
  
  Now I certainly don't automatically discount the possibility that the 
 matter inside a 
  black hole leaves through the singularity and pops up somewhere else, 

 I doesn't pop up somewhere else.  Remember mass and energy are the same 
 thing in GR.  One 
 way to look at it is to say the mass in converted to gravitational energy, 
 i.e. is takes a 
 lot of energy/mass to warp space up into a singularity.  Gravity in GR is 
 non-linear so it 
 pulls on itself, that's why it makes a singularity (classically). 
  Hawking the radiation 
 is the conversion of this mass/energy back into particles. 

  but there is no convincing argument that that must be true. And if so 
 you must come up 
  with a VERY convincing argument that explains why a BH still appears to 
 contain all the 
  mass producing its gravitational field even though that mass isn't 
 actually there anymore. 
  
  Just referencing an equation that doesn't have a mass term does none of 
 the above. 

 No, but it shows that a BH doesn't have to be created from matter, and in 
 fact there is 
 speculation that black holes might have been created in big bang just from 
 fluctuations in 
 the metric.  Of course we suppose that BH like the one at the center of 
 the Milky Way were 
 created, or at least grew large, by matter falling in. 

  
  Again is this your personal interpretation or can you give me an actual 
 authoritative 
  reference that states your 1. and 2.? 

 No, it's common knowledge.   Here's Sean Carroll's email, 
 seanc...@gmail.com javascript:; ask him. 

  
  BTW where are you employed as a physicist? In academia or the corporate 
 world? 

 I'm retired.  I worked for the U.S. Navy. 

 Brent 


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Big Bang Abandoned in New Model of the Universe

2014-01-28 Thread Edgar L. Owen
All, again a post FYI, not  because I necessarily believe it. Edgar

Big Bang Abandoned in New Model of the Universe

A new cosmology successfully explains the accelerating expansion of the 
universe without dark energy; but only if the universe has no beginning and 
no end.

As one of the few astrophysical events that most people are familiar with, 
the Big Bang has a special place in our culture. And while there is 
scientific consensus that it is the best explanation for the origin of the 
Universe, the debate is far from closed. However, it’s hard to find 
alternative models of the Universe without a beginning that are genuinely 
compelling.

That could change now with the fascinating work of Wun-Yi Shu at the 
National Tsing Hua University in Taiwan. Shu has developed an innovative 
new description of the Universe in which the roles of time space and mass 
are related in new kind of relativity.

Shu’s idea is that time and space are not independent entities but can be 
converted back and forth between each other. In his formulation of the 
geometry of spacetime, the speed of light is simply the conversion factor 
between the two. Similarly, mass and length are interchangeable in a 
relationship in which the conversion factor depends on both the 
gravitational constant G and the speed of light, neither of which need be 
constant.

So as the Universe expands, mass and time are converted to length and space 
and vice versa as it contracts.

This universe has no beginning or end, just alternating periods of 
expansion and contraction. *In fact, Shu shows that singularities cannot 
exist in this cosmos.*

It’s easy to dismiss this idea as just another amusing and unrealistic 
model dreamed up by those whacky comsologists.

That is until you look at the predictions it makes. During a period of 
expansion, an observer in this universe would see an odd kind of change in 
the red-shift of bright objects such as Type-I supernovas, as they 
accelerate away. It turns out, says Shu, that his data exactly matches the 
observations that astronomers have made on Earth.

This kind of acceleration is an ordinary feature of Shu’s universe.

That’s in stark contrast to the various models of the Universe based on the 
Big Bang. Since the accelerating expansion of the Universe was discovered, 
cosmologists have been performing some rather worrying contortions with the 
laws of physics to make their models work.

The most commonly discussed idea is that the universe is filled with a dark 
energy that is forcing the universe to expand at an increasing rate. For 
this model to work, dark energy must make up 75 per cent of the energy-mass 
of the Universe and be increasing at a fantastic rate.

But there is a serious price to pay for this idea: the law of conservation 
of energy. The embarrassing truth is that the world’s cosmologists have 
conveniently swept under the carpet one the of fundamental laws of physics 
in an attempt to square this circle.

That paints Shu’s ideas in a slightly different perspective. There’s no 
need to abandon conservation of energy to make his theory work.

That’s not to say Shu’s theory is perfect. Far from it. One of the biggest 
problems he faces is explaining the existence and structure of the cosmic 
microwave background, something that many astrophysicists believe to be the 
the strongest evidence that the Big Bang really did happen. The CMB, they 
say, is the echo of the Big bang.

How it might arise in Shu’s cosmology isn’t yet clear but I imagine he’s 
working on it.

Even if he finds a way, there will need to be some uncomfortable rethinking 
before his ideas can gain traction. His approach may well explain the 
Type-I supernova observations without abandoning conservation of energy but 
it asks us to give up the notion of the Big Bang, the constancy of the 
speed of light and to accept a vast new set of potential phenomenon related 
to the interchangeable relationships between mass, space and time.

Rightly or wrongly, that’s a trade off that many will find hard. Let’s hope 
Shu sticks to his guns, if only for the sake of good old-fashioned debate

Ref: arxiv.org/abs/1007.1750: Cosmological Models with No Big Bang

 

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Re: Modal Logic (Part 2: From Leibniz to Kripke)

2014-01-28 Thread LizR
On 29 January 2014 08:29, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Hi Liz, Others,


Good morning Professor Marchal!


 In the general semantic of Leibniz, we have a non empty set of worlds W,
 and some valuation of the propositional variables (p, q, r, ...) at each
 world.

 And we should be convinced than all formula, with A, B, C, put for any
 formula,  of the type

 [](A-B) - ([]A - []B)
 []A - A
 []A - [][]A
 A - []A
 A - []A

 are all laws, in the sense that they are all true in all worlds in all
 Leibnizian multiverse. OK?


Yes.


 Most are obvious (once familiarized with the idea 'course). Take []A -
 A. Let us prove by contradiction, to change a bit. Imagine there is world
 with []A - A is false. That means that in that world we have []A and ~A.
 But []A means that A is true in all world, so in that world we would have
 [A and ~A. Contradiction (all worlds obeys classical CPL).

 Test yourself by justifying in different ways the other propositions,
 again and again.

 But now, all that was semantic, and logicians are interested in theories.
 They want axioms and deduction rules.

 So, the question is: is there a theory capturing all the laws, true in all
 worlds in all Leibnizian multiverse?

 Answer: YES.

 Ah? Which one.

 S5.

 S5?

 Yes, S5. The fifth system of Lewis. Who did modal logical purely
 deductively, and S5 was his fifth attempt in trying to formalize a notion
 of deducibility.

 The axioms of S5 are (added to some axiomatization of CPL, like the one I
 gave you sometimes ago):

 [](A-B) - ([]A - []B)
 []A - A
 []A - [][]A
 A - []A

 The rules of S5 are:

 The modus ponens rule, like CPL axiomatization.
 The necessitation rule: derive []A from A.


? derive []A from A ???


 It can be proved that S5 can prove all the laws satisfied by all worlds in
 the Leibnizian multiverse.

 Those axioms are independent. For example you cannot prove A - []A
 from the other axioms using those rules. But how could we prove that? This
 was rather well known by few modal logicians.

 There is a curious article by Herman Weyl, the ghost of modality, were
 Herman Weyl illustrate both that he is a great genius, and a great idiot
 (with all my very deep and sincere respect).


He said that our minds crawl up our worldlines didn't he? Thereby giving
lots of people the wrong idea about how a block universe works.


 Modal logic has been very badly seen by many mathematicians and logicians.
 In the field of logic, modal logicians were considered as freak, somehow.
 Important philosopher, like Quine were also quite opposed to modal logic.
 So it was very gentle from Herman Weyl to attempt to give modal logic some
 serious considerations.
 He tried to provide a semantic of modal logic with intuitionist logic, but
 concluded that it fails, then with quantum logic, idem, then with
 provability logic (sic), but it fails. It fails because each time some
 axiom of S5 failed!
 This shows he was biased by the Aristotelian Leibnizian metaphysics. In
 fact he was discovering, before everybody, that there are many modal
 logics, and that indeed they provide classical view on many non standard
 logics. In fact, somehow, it is the first apparition of the hypostases in
 math (to be short).
 I really love that little visionary paper (if only I could put my hand on
 it).


It comes up a lot if you google - I think you have to belong to various
academic groups to read it...maybe you would be able to?


 But if S5 is characterized by the Leibnizian multiverse. What will
 characterize the other modal logics?

 Well, there has been many other semantics, but a beautiful and important
 step was brought by Kripke.

 It is almost like the passage from the ASSA to the RSSA! The passage from
 absolute to relative. The passage from Newton to Einstein.

 Kripke will put some structure on the Leibnizian multiverse. He will
 relativize the necessities and possibilities.
 How?
 By introducing a binary relation on the worlds, called accessibility
 relation. Then he require this:

 []A is true in a world alpha   =A is true in all worlds *accessible*
 from alpha.

 Exercise: what means A here?  (cf A is defined by ~[]~A).


it isn't the case that in all worlds accessible from alpha, A is false. Or
in at least one world accessible from alpha, A is true.


 So a Kripke multiverse is just a non empty set, with a binary relation
 (called accessibility relation). It is a Leibnizian multiverse, enriched by
 that accessibility relation. For []A being true, we don't require it to be
 true in all worlds, but only in all worlds accessible from some world (like
 the actual world, for example).

 Again a Kripkean law will be a proposition true in all worlds in all
 Kripke multiverse.

 Now I am a bit tired, so I give you the sequel in 2 exercises, or subject
 of meditation.

 1) Try to convince yourself that the formula:

 [](A-B) - ([]A - []B)

 is a Kripkean law. It is satisfied in all worlds (meaning also all
 valuations of the propositional 

Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Jason Resch
On Tue, Jan 28, 2014 at 12:11 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 1/28/2014 1:47 AM, Jason Resch wrote:

  Supposing there is a ground of all reality, as some would nominate the
 strings of string theory and others computations of a universal dovetailer,
 why would suppose in advance that this GOAR is infinite,
 transcendent(whatever that means), eternal, or immutable.


  Those are the properties of the god of computationalism: arithmetical
 truth


 So you're choosing the attributes of goar to match the theory of comp?
 Well I guess that's one way to know what goar is - and a popular way at
 that.
 ...


You have removed my quote from its original context, in which I was
providing various examples of God-like things which various theories
(popular on this list) are a direct consequence of.




If you're not going to jump to conclusions, carrying baggage with you,
 let's just call it goar.  And I would remind you that there is not
 necessarily a goar.


  There is a reality, for which various theories attempt to offer an
 explaination of.


 But the ground of all reality, goar, isn't necessarily transcendent,
 infinite, etc... or even singular.


Right, so let's try and find out.


 If this is science and not religion


That's a false dichotomy. Why not apply scientific methods in the
furtherance of religion?


 we must find out what goar is and its attributes - not assume them at the
 start.


I agree.

Jason

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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-01-28 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Brent,

Let me ask you some questions to clarify what you are saying here...

To make it simpler assume two observers, A and B. A is stationary on the 
surface of a hugely massive planet. Now B plummets past him in free fall. 
Consider the situation as B passes A just before he hits the ground.

I agree B is in free fall in inertial motion along a geodesic so there is 
no gravitational field experienced nor any acceleration.
However A is experiencing an intense gravitational acceleration because the 
surface of the planet resists his free fall.

Now assume another observer C outside the gravitational field.

Now who sees whose clock slow and by how much and for what reason? There 
are 6 cases as each of the 3 observers observes the clocks of 2 others.

Specifically does C see the clocks of A and B slow equally?

Does B's clock actually slow because he's accelerating in a gravitation 
field, but A's clock doesn't because he is free falling?

Does A see C's clock slow the same amount as C sees A's slow?
Does B see C's clock slow the same amount as C sees B's slow?

How do A and B view each other's clocks?

When B hits the ground does his clock change its speed (assuming it 
survives the hit)? This would have to be the case if A's and B's clocks 
were running at different rates as B plummets past A.

Thanks,
Edgar


On Monday, January 27, 2014 2:25:21 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote:

  On 1/27/2014 5:22 AM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
  
 Brent, 

  I don't think my statement is confused. Your response is ambiguous 
 because it doesn't specify frames of reference correctly.

  The object's clock DOES tick slower according to the external observer's 
 clock, but obviously not by the object's OWN comoving clock. It is of 
 course ACTUALLY objectively ticking slower because it is falling into a 
 gravity well which is an absolute, not a relative phenomenon.

  Contrary to what you said, the object's comoving clock DOES actually 
 'physically' (your words) tick slower. it's just that the infalling clock 
 can't measure its own slowing...

  Obviously one can't tell how fast a clock is ticking by comparing the 
 clock to itself. That's proper time which always appears to tick at the 
 same rate, but ONLY because all comoving processes tick in synch. Proper 
 time does NOT measure an actual gravitational time dilation, or any time 
 dilation for that matter.

  The infalling observer has an ABSOLUTE slowing of its clock due to 
 increasing gravitation but just cannot locally measure that slowing.


 The infalling observer just falls in an goes about his business (assuming 
 a very large BH) until he gets spaghettified by tidal forces near the 
 singularity.  There's no slowing of his clock.  What could possibly be the 
 mechanism for slowing it?  He's on an inertial frame.  He isn't even 
 accelerated.  For the clock to slow would be a violation of the principle 
 of equivalence.

  
  Thus in the infalling observer's experience as his clock slows he will 
 never actually reach the event horizon because his clock comes to a 
 complete ACTUAL PHYSICAL stop at that point.


 Nope. Try reading Lewis Carroll Epstein's Relativity Visualized.  A good 
 clock keeps proper time along its world line.  Gravitational time dilation 
 is a purely geometric effect of spacetime (just like the twin paradox).  
 The clock *appears* to run slower in the gravitational well because it has 
 to traverse more space.

 Brent
  

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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-01-28 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Brent,

But the twins DO AGREE on whose clock ran slower.

So I don't see your point if you use the twins as evidence...

Edgar

On Monday, January 27, 2014 3:27:54 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote:

 On 1/27/2014 7:48 AM, Edgar L. Owen wrote: 
  Jesse, 
  
  First this doesn't have anything to do with present moment theory, only 
 with standard 
  physics. 
  
  2nd, hopefully it's just a matter of you using different semantics than 
 me as to what is 
  meant by absolute and relative. I'll explain once more. 
  
  In the case of time dilation effects caused by gravitation or 
 acceleration the effects 
  are absolute in the sense that both observers agree on them. Take 2 
 observers A in a 
  gravitational well and B not. In this case B observes A's clock SLOW, 
 and A observes B's 
  clock rate SPEED up. They AGREE as to this effect. 

 They can't agree on that.  They can only agree via signals the their 
 clocks *appear* to 
 run at different rates.  Just like the twins in the SR twin paradox. 

  AND the clock time difference PERSISTS after A and B meet up afterwards 
 when their 
  clocks are again running at the same rate. Therefore in my terminology 
 it is an absolute 
  effect. It is a real and actual effect, that both observers agree upon. 
 This is well 
  understood and confirmed because it's used in GPS calculation 
 corrections all the time. 

 Yes, it's real that they have traveled through different intervals of 
 spacetime - just 
 like the twins in the twin paradox. 

 You seem determined to ignore the basic principle of GR, it is a 
 *geometric theory of 
 spacetime*  Geometry doesn't make clocks change speed. 

 Brent 


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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-01-28 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Brent,

PS: If geometry doesn't make clocks slow then what does?

Edgar


On Tuesday, January 28, 2014 7:17:56 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Brent,

 But the twins DO AGREE on whose clock ran slower.

 So I don't see your point if you use the twins as evidence...

 Edgar

 On Monday, January 27, 2014 3:27:54 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote:

 On 1/27/2014 7:48 AM, Edgar L. Owen wrote: 
  Jesse, 
  
  First this doesn't have anything to do with present moment theory, only 
 with standard 
  physics. 
  
  2nd, hopefully it's just a matter of you using different semantics than 
 me as to what is 
  meant by absolute and relative. I'll explain once more. 
  
  In the case of time dilation effects caused by gravitation or 
 acceleration the effects 
  are absolute in the sense that both observers agree on them. Take 2 
 observers A in a 
  gravitational well and B not. In this case B observes A's clock SLOW, 
 and A observes B's 
  clock rate SPEED up. They AGREE as to this effect. 

 They can't agree on that.  They can only agree via signals the their 
 clocks *appear* to 
 run at different rates.  Just like the twins in the SR twin paradox. 

  AND the clock time difference PERSISTS after A and B meet up afterwards 
 when their 
  clocks are again running at the same rate. Therefore in my terminology 
 it is an absolute 
  effect. It is a real and actual effect, that both observers agree upon. 
 This is well 
  understood and confirmed because it's used in GPS calculation 
 corrections all the time. 

 Yes, it's real that they have traveled through different intervals of 
 spacetime - just 
 like the twins in the twin paradox. 

 You seem determined to ignore the basic principle of GR, it is a 
 *geometric theory of 
 spacetime*  Geometry doesn't make clocks change speed. 

 Brent 



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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread meekerdb

On 1/28/2014 3:36 PM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

Brent,

I did read the Wikipedia page, and frankly I don't buy your interpretation that proves 
1. and 2. below though I'm trying to keep an open mind.


It proves that no mass is *needed* inside a BH, that the gravity alone, in the absence of 
matter (you know what vacuum means?), forms a BH.  If you added matter to the 
Schwarzschild solution it would quickly disappear into the singularity with a 
corresponding increase in the size of the BH.




And I'm not going to go by what 1 person, who I don't even know and who is presumably 
your friend says via an email.


So you don't know who Sean Carroll is and you didn't even bother to look him 
up!?

I'm afraid you're hopeless Edgar.

Brent

Again I challenge you to provide me some authoritative online sources who agree with you 
that

1. Matter (mass) vanishes inside a black hole
2. The intense gravitation of a black hole is not due to any mass inside of it but to 
the trail of space curvature left behind outside the event horizon by the matter 
entering the black hole.


I haven't found a single source that claims that but I'm open to correction if you can 
provide some authoritative ones.


And I disagree with your interpretation of the Schwartzchild solution which clearly is 
based on the ACTUAL mass of a BH. So far as I know all, or at least most physicists, 
agree with me that it is the mass INSIDE the black hole that produces the event horizon.


Again, authoritative sources to support your 1. and 2. above? Can you produce any? If 
not I find your explanation unsupported..


Edgar


On Tuesday, January 28, 2014 5:19:27 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote:

On 1/28/2014 12:45 PM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
 Brent,

 Perhaps I'm missing something but I read the Wikipedia article and 
several others
(eg.
 http://casa.colorado.edu/~ajsh/schwp.html
http://casa.colorado.edu/%7Eajsh/schwp.html) and reread Chapter 13: 
Inside Black
Holes of
 'Black Holes and Time Warps' by Kip Thorne and NONE of those sources say 
what you are
 saying, namely that

 1. Matter (mass) vanishes inside a black hole
 2. The intense gravitation of a black hole is not due to any mass inside 
of it but to
 the trail of space curvature left behind outside the event horizon by the 
matter
 entering the black hole.

 I haven't found a single source that claims that but I'm open to 
correction if you
can
 provide an authoritative one.

You didn't read the Wikipedia page I referenced, which showed that the 
Schwarzschild BH
solution is found by assuming a vacuum, T_u_v=0?


 In fact the Schwarzchild solution specifically HAS a mass term in it on 
the basis of
 which the radius of the event horizon is calculated. So my reading of the
Schwarzchild
 solution is that it specifically ASSUMES that the black hole is created 
by the mass
 INSIDE IT.

But that's the equivalent mass that would be necessary to produce the 
same field
outside
the event horizon.  As I said, the BH is massive in that it warps space, 
but it doesn't
follow that it has matter inside the event horizon which is trying to send 
out
gravity.


 So are 1. and 2. above YOUR own interpretation of what's inside a black 
hole or do
you
 have some authoritative source(S) that actually states that in plain 
English you can
 provide?

 Now I certainly don't automatically discount the possibility that the 
matter inside a
 black hole leaves through the singularity and pops up somewhere else,

I doesn't pop up somewhere else.  Remember mass and energy are the same 
thing in GR.
 One
way to look at it is to say the mass in converted to gravitational energy, 
i.e. is
takes a
lot of energy/mass to warp space up into a singularity.  Gravity in GR is 
non-linear
so it
pulls on itself, that's why it makes a singularity (classically).  
Hawking the
radiation
is the conversion of this mass/energy back into particles.

 but there is no convincing argument that that must be true. And if so you 
must
come up
 with a VERY convincing argument that explains why a BH still appears to 
contain
all the
 mass producing its gravitational field even though that mass isn't 
actually there
anymore.

 Just referencing an equation that doesn't have a mass term does none of 
the above.

No, but it shows that a BH doesn't have to be created from matter, and in 
fact there is
speculation that black holes might have been created in big bang just from
fluctuations in
the metric.  Of course we suppose that BH like the one at the center of the 
Milky
Way were
created, or at least grew large, by matter falling in.


 Again is this your personal interpretation or can you give me an actual 
authoritative
 reference that states your 1. and 2.?

No, it's common knowledge.   

Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread LizR
I imagine this is he:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sean_M._Carroll

That took a good 5 seconds!

On the subject of a BH not containing matter, surely that depends on
whether there really *is* a singularity inside it? If it's a genuine
singularity, as GR suggests, then any original matter that went into its
formation has disappeared down an infinite plughole, and there's no way to
tell if the BH was formed from matter, antimatter, energy, vacuum
fluctuations, gravitational waves, or whatever else is possible. The
resulting object only has mass, spin and electric charge. (The famous no
hair theorem.)

(By the way, what's so special about electromagnetism that it leaves an
imprint on a BH when the weak force and hypercharge and whatever other
oddities are around don't?)

However, the no hair theorem runs afoul of the equally famous BH
information paradox. QM at least suggests that something may turn out to
be necessary besides the GR formulation, and that whatever it is will allow
the information about what went into making the BH to (very much in
principle) be recoverable.




On 29 January 2014 13:20, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 1/28/2014 3:36 PM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Brent,

  I did read the Wikipedia page, and frankly I don't buy your
 interpretation that proves 1. and 2. below though I'm trying to keep an
 open mind.


 It proves that no mass is *needed* inside a BH, that the gravity alone, in
 the absence of matter (you know what vacuum means?), forms a BH.  If you
 added matter to the Schwarzschild solution it would quickly disappear into
 the singularity with a corresponding increase in the size of the BH.



  And I'm not going to go by what 1 person, who I don't even know and who
 is presumably your friend says via an email.


 So you don't know who Sean Carroll is and you didn't even bother to look
 him up!?

 I'm afraid you're hopeless Edgar.

 Brent


  Again I challenge you to provide me some authoritative online sources
 who agree with you that
  1. Matter (mass) vanishes inside a black hole
 2. The intense gravitation of a black hole is not due to any mass inside
 of it but to the trail of space curvature left behind outside the event
 horizon by the matter entering the black hole.

  I haven't found a single source that claims that but I'm open to
 correction if you can provide some authoritative ones.

  And I disagree with your interpretation of the Schwartzchild solution
 which clearly is based on the ACTUAL mass of a BH. So far as I know all, or
 at least most physicists, agree with me that it is the mass INSIDE the
 black hole that produces the event horizon.

  Again, authoritative sources to support your 1. and 2. above? Can you
 produce any? If not I find your explanation unsupported..

  Edgar


 On Tuesday, January 28, 2014 5:19:27 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote:

 On 1/28/2014 12:45 PM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
  Brent,
 
  Perhaps I'm missing something but I read the Wikipedia article and
 several others (eg.
  http://casa.colorado.edu/~ajsh/schwp.html) and reread Chapter 13:
 Inside Black Holes of
  'Black Holes and Time Warps' by Kip Thorne and NONE of those sources
 say what you are
  saying, namely that
 
  1. Matter (mass) vanishes inside a black hole
  2. The intense gravitation of a black hole is not due to any mass
 inside of it but to
  the trail of space curvature left behind outside the event horizon by
 the matter
  entering the black hole.
 
  I haven't found a single source that claims that but I'm open to
 correction if you can
  provide an authoritative one.

 You didn't read the Wikipedia page I referenced, which showed that the
 Schwarzschild BH
 solution is found by assuming a vacuum, T_u_v=0?

 
  In fact the Schwarzchild solution specifically HAS a mass term in it on
 the basis of
  which the radius of the event horizon is calculated. So my reading of
 the Schwarzchild
  solution is that it specifically ASSUMES that the black hole is created
 by the mass
  INSIDE IT.

 But that's the equivalent mass that would be necessary to produce the
 same field outside
 the event horizon.  As I said, the BH is massive in that it warps space,
 but it doesn't
 follow that it has matter inside the event horizon which is trying to
 send out gravity.

 
  So are 1. and 2. above YOUR own interpretation of what's inside a black
 hole or do you
  have some authoritative source(S) that actually states that in plain
 English you can
  provide?
 
  Now I certainly don't automatically discount the possibility that the
 matter inside a
  black hole leaves through the singularity and pops up somewhere else,

 I doesn't pop up somewhere else.  Remember mass and energy are the same
 thing in GR.  One
 way to look at it is to say the mass in converted to gravitational
 energy, i.e. is takes a
 lot of energy/mass to warp space up into a singularity.  Gravity in GR is
 non-linear so it
 pulls on itself, that's why it makes a singularity (classically).
  Hawking the radiation
 

Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-28 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Brent,

That's just your interpretation and you apparently ARE UNABLE to find any 
authoritative sites to confirm it. Yes, of course the mass interior to a BH 
collapses into the singularity but that doesn't mean it vanishes from the 
black hole.

Looking at Carroll's Wiki Bio it seems that a lot of his theories are 
highly speculative and unconfirmed...

Here, on the other hand, is a quote from Kip Thorne's 'Black Holes and Time 
Warps' which says otherwise:

The hole must be born when a star implodes upon itself; THE HOLE'S MASS, 
AT BIRTH MUST BE THE SAME AS THE STAR'S; AND EACH TIME SOMETHING FALLS INTO 
THE HOLE, ITS MASS MUST GROW

So again your theory is a highly speculative INTERPRETATION of the 
equations you mention which so far as you can demonstrate is NOT a 
mainstream scientific understanding of BH's.

So who's hopeless now? (I wouldn't have added this barb if you hadn't BTW)

Edgar



On Tuesday, January 28, 2014 7:20:25 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote:

 On 1/28/2014 3:36 PM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
  
 Brent, 

  I did read the Wikipedia page, and frankly I don't buy your 
 interpretation that proves 1. and 2. below though I'm trying to keep an 
 open mind.
  

 It proves that no mass is *needed* inside a BH, that the gravity alone, in 
 the absence of matter (you know what vacuum means?), forms a BH.  If you 
 added matter to the Schwarzschild solution it would quickly disappear into 
 the singularity with a corresponding increase in the size of the BH.

  
  And I'm not going to go by what 1 person, who I don't even know and who 
 is presumably your friend says via an email.
  

 So you don't know who Sean Carroll is and you didn't even bother to look 
 him up!?  

 I'm afraid you're hopeless Edgar.

 Brent

  Again I challenge you to provide me some authoritative online sources 
 who agree with you that
  1. Matter (mass) vanishes inside a black hole
 2. The intense gravitation of a black hole is not due to any mass inside 
 of it but to the trail of space curvature left behind outside the event 
 horizon by the matter entering the black hole.

  I haven't found a single source that claims that but I'm open to 
 correction if you can provide some authoritative ones.

  And I disagree with your interpretation of the Schwartzchild solution 
 which clearly is based on the ACTUAL mass of a BH. So far as I know all, or 
 at least most physicists, agree with me that it is the mass INSIDE the 
 black hole that produces the event horizon.

  Again, authoritative sources to support your 1. and 2. above? Can you 
 produce any? If not I find your explanation unsupported..

  Edgar

  
 On Tuesday, January 28, 2014 5:19:27 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote: 

 On 1/28/2014 12:45 PM, Edgar L. Owen wrote: 
  Brent, 
  
  Perhaps I'm missing something but I read the Wikipedia article and 
 several others (eg. 
  http://casa.colorado.edu/~ajsh/schwp.html) and reread Chapter 13: 
 Inside Black Holes of 
  'Black Holes and Time Warps' by Kip Thorne and NONE of those sources say 
 what you are 
  saying, namely that 
  
  1. Matter (mass) vanishes inside a black hole 
  2. The intense gravitation of a black hole is not due to any mass inside 
 of it but to 
  the trail of space curvature left behind outside the event horizon by 
 the matter 
  entering the black hole. 
  
  I haven't found a single source that claims that but I'm open to 
 correction if you can 
  provide an authoritative one. 

 You didn't read the Wikipedia page I referenced, which showed that the 
 Schwarzschild BH 
 solution is found by assuming a vacuum, T_u_v=0? 

  
  In fact the Schwarzchild solution specifically HAS a mass term in it on 
 the basis of 
  which the radius of the event horizon is calculated. So my reading of 
 the Schwarzchild 
  solution is that it specifically ASSUMES that the black hole is created 
 by the mass 
  INSIDE IT. 

 But that's the equivalent mass that would be necessary to produce the 
 same field outside 
 the event horizon.  As I said, the BH is massive in that it warps space, 
 but it doesn't 
 follow that it has matter inside the event horizon which is trying to 
 send out gravity. 

  
  So are 1. and 2. above YOUR own interpretation of what's inside a black 
 hole or do you 
  have some authoritative source(S) that actually states that in plain 
 English you can 
  provide? 
  
  Now I certainly don't automatically discount the possibility that the 
 matter inside a 
  black hole leaves through the singularity and pops up somewhere else, 

 I doesn't pop up somewhere else.  Remember mass and energy are the same 
 thing in GR.  One 
 way to look at it is to say the mass in converted to gravitational energy, 
 i.e. is takes a 
 lot of energy/mass to warp space up into a singularity.  Gravity in GR is 
 non-linear so it 
 pulls on itself, that's why it makes a singularity (classically). 
  Hawking the radiation 
 is the conversion of this mass/energy back into particles. 

  but there is no convincing argument