Re: The limit of all computations

2012-05-21 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 20 May 2012, at 18:27, Stephen P. King wrote:


On 5/20/2012 6:06 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



In Bruno's theory, the physical world is not computed by an  
algorithm, the physical world is the limit of all computations  
going throught your current state... what is computable is your  
current state, an infinity of computations goes through it. So I  
don't see the problem here, the UD is not an algorithm which  
computes the physical world 4D or whatever.


Quentin


Hi Quentin,

Maybe you can answer some questions. These might be badly  
composed so feel free to fix them. ;-)


1) If my current state is equivalent to a 4-manifold and the  
next state is also, what is connecting the two? Markov's proof 
tells us that it is not a algorithm. So what is it?


Markov theorem says that giving two arbitrary states, it is  
undecidable to know if a computation will relate those states or not.

It does not say that some states are not algorithmically linked.


With computer it is not in general possible to know in advance if  
states are related by computations. If they are, this can be usually  
decided, but if there are not , well there are no algorithm for  
deciding that in general.






2) Is there another equivalent set of words for the physical world  
is the limit of all computations going through your current state?


3) Is there at least one physical system running the computations?  
Is the physical universe a purely subjective appearance/experience  
for each conscious entity? What is it that shifts from one state to  
the next?


4) What is the cardinality of all computations?


Aleph_0, when see in the third person picture.
2^aleph_0, when seen in the first person picture (well, the 3-view on  
the 1-views, because it is 1, from the 1_view on the 1_view). In that  
case, arbitrary sequence of natural numbers play the role of oracle.





5) Is the totality of what exists static and timeless and are all of  
the subsets of that totality static and timeless as well?


Yes, for the basic ontological reality. No, for the epistemological  
reality.




6) Does all succession of events emerge only from the well  
ordering of Natural numbers?


Not for the physical events. (epistemological, with comp).

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: The limit of all computations

2012-05-21 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 21 May 2012, at 07:31, meekerdb wrote:


On 5/20/2012 8:15 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:







Yes. Are those entities that exist from the beginning (which is  
what ontological primitivity implies...) or are they aspects of the  
unfolding reality?


I think they are concepts we made up.  But you're the one claiming  
the universe (actually I think you mean the multiverse) is not  
computable and you think this is contrary to Bruno.  But Bruno's UD  
isn't a Turing machine and what it produces is not computable, if I  
understand him correctly.



?

The UD is a Turing machine. I gave the algorithm in LISP (and from  
this you can compile it into a Turing machine).


What it does is computable, in the 3-views, but not in the 1-view  
(which 'contains' consciousness and matter).


A simple pseudo code is

begin
For i, j, k, non negative integers
Compute phi_i(j) up to k steps
end

The relation 'phi_i(j) = r' is purely arithmetical.

The UD is just a cousin of the universal machine, forced to generate  
all what it can do. It has to dovetail for not being stuck in some  
infinite computations (which we cannot prevent in advance).


The existence of UMs and UDs are theorem of elementary arithmetic.

The UD gives the only one known effective notion of everything.








This is debate that has been going on since Democritus and  
Heraclitus stepped into the Academy. Can you guess what ontology  
I am championing?




That is what goes into defining meaningfulness. When you define  
that X is Y, you are also defining all not-X to equal not-Y, no?


No. Unless your simply defining X to be identical with Y, a mere  
semantic renaming, then a definition is something like X:=Y|Zx.   
And it is not the case that ~X=~Y.


OK.



When you start talking about a collection then you have to  
define what are its members.


I'm not talking about a collection.  You're the one assuming that  
all 4-manifolds exist and that everything existing must be  
computed BY THE SAME ALGORITHM.  That's two more assumptions than  
I'm willing to make.


Is a universal algorithm capable of generating all possible  
outputs when feed all possible inputs?


I dunno what a universal algorithm is.  What you describe however  
is easy to write:


x-input
print x.


I think a better answer is a Universal Turing Machine, or universal  
computable function code. It is a number u such that phi_u(x, y) =  
phi_x(y).


This exist provably for all known and very different powerful enough  
'programming language' (systems, numbers, programs, ...), and it  
exists absolutely, with Church thesis.


Bruno






What exactly is an algorithm in your thinking?


An explicit sequence of instructions.






Absent the specification or ability to specify the members of a  
collection, what can you say of the collection?


This universe is defined ostensively.


Interesting word: Ostensively.

Represented or appearing as such... It implies a subject to  
whom the representations or appearances have meaningful content.  
Who plays that role in your thinking?


You do.  When I write this you know what I mean.


And are we alone in the universe? You seem to take for granted  
the existence of others.


I wouldn't say taken for granted.  I have some evidence.

Brent










Brent



What is the a priori constraint on the Universe? Why this  
one and not some other? Is the limit of all computations not a  
computation? How did this happen?





No attempts to even comment on these?


As Mark Twain said, I'm pleased to be able to answer all your  
questions directly.  I don't know.


Brent


OK...
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Stephen

Nature, to be commanded, must be obeyed.
~ Francis Bacon
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Re: The limit of all computations

2012-05-21 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 20 May 2012, at 21:06, meekerdb wrote:


On 5/20/2012 9:27 AM, Stephen P. King wrote:


On 5/20/2012 6:06 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



In Bruno's theory, the physical world is not computed by an  
algorithm, the physical world is the limit of all computations  
going throught your current state... what is computable is your  
current state, an infinity of computations goes through it. So I  
don't see the problem here, the UD is not an algorithm which  
computes the physical world 4D or whatever.


Quentin


Hi Quentin,

Maybe you can answer some questions. These might be badly  
composed so feel free to fix them. ;-)


1) If my current state is equivalent to a 4-manifold and the  
next state is also, what is connecting the two? Markov's proof  
tells us that it is not a algorithm. So what is it?


I don't think Markov's theorem tells you that.  It says there can be  
no algorithm that will determine the homomorphy of any two arbitrary  
compact 4-manifolds.  But there is nothing that says the next state  
can be any arbitrary 4-manifold.  In most theories it is an  
evolution of the Cauchy data on the present manifold, where  
'present' is defined by some time slice.




2) Is there another equivalent set of words for the physical world  
is the limit of all computations going through your current state?


3) Is there at least one physical system running the computations?  
Is the physical universe a purely subjective appearance/ 
experience for each conscious entity? What is it that shifts from  
one state to the next?


Well that's a crucial question.  Bruno assumes that truth implies  
existence.


That makes no sense. Only truth of existential statement entails  
existence. s(s(s(0))) is prime' entails Ex x is prime





So if 1+1=2 is true that implies that 1, +, =, and 2 exist.


This is because we assume logic, and P(n) === ExP(x) is an inference  
rule in first order logic. And this works for 1 and 2, not for + and  
=, which might exist for different reason, as well defined subsets  
of the models or as relation at the meta-level or through their Gödel  
numbers.




I think this is a doubtful proposition; particularly when talking  
about infinities.  Even if every number has a successor is true,  
what existence is implied?  Just the non-existence of a number with  
no successor.





4) What is the cardinality of all computations?


Aleph1.


From the 1-views (or from the 3-view of the many 1-views).

Bruno





5) Is the totality of what exists static and timeless and are all  
of the subsets of that totality static and timeless as well?


6) Does all succession of events emerge only from the well  
ordering of Natural numbers?

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Stephen

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~ Francis Bacon
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Re: The limit of all computations

2012-05-21 Thread Russell Standish
On Sun, May 20, 2012 at 12:06:05PM -0700, meekerdb wrote:
 On 5/20/2012 9:27 AM, Stephen P. King wrote:
 
 4) What is the cardinality of all computations?
 
 Aleph1.
 

Actually, it is aleph_0. The set of all computations is
countable. OTOH, the set of all experiences (under COMP) is uncountable
(2^\aleph_0 in fact), which only equals \aleph_1 if the continuity
hypothesis holds.

This is the origin of Bruno's claim that COMP entails that physics is
not computable, a corrolory of which is that Digital Physics is
refuted (since DP=COMP).

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Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
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Re: The limit of all computations

2012-05-21 Thread Stephen P. King

On 5/21/2012 12:33 AM, Russell Standish wrote:

On Sun, May 20, 2012 at 12:06:05PM -0700, meekerdb wrote:

On 5/20/2012 9:27 AM, Stephen P. King wrote:

4) What is the cardinality of all computations?

Aleph1.


Actually, it is aleph_0. The set of all computations is
countable. OTOH, the set of all experiences (under COMP) is uncountable
(2^\aleph_0 in fact), which only equals \aleph_1 if the continuity
hypothesis holds.


Hi Russell,

Interesting. Do you have any thoughts on what would follow from not 
holding the continuity (Cantor's continuum?) hypothesis?




This is the origin of Bruno's claim that COMP entails that physics is
not computable, a corrolory of which is that Digital Physics is
refuted (since DP=COMP).


Does the symbol = mean implies? I get confused ...

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Stephen

Nature, to be commanded, must be obeyed.
~ Francis Bacon


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Re: The limit of all computations

2012-05-21 Thread Stephen P. King

On 5/21/2012 1:55 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
No it's not a computation, it arises because at every step, 
computations diverge into new sets of infinite computations, giving 
rise to the 1p indeterminacy.


Quentin


 Hi Quentin,

So could we agree that the idea that the universe is 
defined/determined ab initio (in the beginning) is refuted by this?


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Nature, to be commanded, must be obeyed.
~ Francis Bacon


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Re: The limit of all computations

2012-05-21 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2012/5/21 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net

 On 5/21/2012 1:55 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

 No it's not a computation, it arises because at every step, computations
 diverge into new sets of infinite computations, giving rise to the 1p
 indeterminacy.

 Quentin

   Hi Quentin,

So could we agree that the idea that the universe is defined/determined
 ab initio (in the beginning) is refuted by this?



I don't know what you mean here... but in comp the universe per se does not
exist, it emerges from computations and is not an object by itself
(independent of computations).

Quentin

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 Stephen

 Nature, to be commanded, must be obeyed.
 ~ Francis Bacon


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Re: The limit of all computations

2012-05-21 Thread Stephen P. King

On 5/21/2012 7:54 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/5/21 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net 
mailto:stephe...@charter.net


On 5/21/2012 1:55 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

No it's not a computation, it arises because at every step,
computations diverge into new sets of infinite computations,
giving rise to the 1p indeterminacy.

Quentin

 Hi Quentin,

   So could we agree that the idea that the universe is
defined/determined ab initio (in the beginning) is refuted by this?



I don't know what you mean here... but in comp the universe per se 
does not exist, it emerges from computations and is not an object by 
itself (independent of computations).


Quentin

Hi Quentin,

OK, you are equating universe with physical universe? Are you 
considering computations to be ontologically primitive? It feels like 
I am starting to explain myself all over again. That's OK, but just a 
bit frustrating.


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~ Francis Bacon

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Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-21 Thread John Clark
On Sun, May 20, 2012  PM Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:

 Free means it is not imposed onto you. It is free because the choice was
 made by you.


I have no problem with that and I have no problem with the word will; its
meaning is clear, people want to do some things and they don't want to do
other things. On the other hand not only is it not clear if human beings
have this thing called free will it's not even clear what the hell the
term is supposed to mean.

  John K Clark















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Re: The limit of all computations

2012-05-21 Thread meekerdb

On 5/20/2012 9:33 PM, Russell Standish wrote:

On Sun, May 20, 2012 at 12:06:05PM -0700, meekerdb wrote:

On 5/20/2012 9:27 AM, Stephen P. King wrote:

4) What is the cardinality of all computations?

Aleph1.


Actually, it is aleph_0.


I see that the set of all programs is countable.


The set of all computations is
countable. OTOH, the set of all experiences (under COMP) is uncountable
(2^\aleph_0 in fact), which only equals \aleph_1 if the continuity
hypothesis holds.


Ok, I was thinking that because the outputs of infinitely many programs were infinite 
there would be 2^\aleph_0, but I see that's a mistake.


Brent



This is the origin of Bruno's claim that COMP entails that physics is
not computable, a corrolory of which is that Digital Physics is
refuted (since DP=COMP).



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Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-21 Thread Craig Weinberg
On May 21, 10:47 am, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Sun, May 20, 2012  PM Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:

  Free means it is not imposed onto you. It is free because the choice was
  made by you.

 I have no problem with that and I have no problem with the word will; its
 meaning is clear, people want to do some things and they don't want to do
 other things. On the other hand not only is it not clear if human beings
 have this thing called free will it's not even clear what the hell the
 term is supposed to mean.

In addition to approving of one presented option and disapproving of
another, free will allows us to nominate our own option for approval.

I don't see much of a difference between 'will' and 'free will'. They
are both colloquial terms that don't need to be put under a
microscope. Free will is used in philosophy and implies that one's
will provides a significant degree of influence of in shaping your
destiny or circumstances, as opposed to being put upon by circumstance
to determine your every thought, feeling, and action. It emphasizes
the liberating potential of voluntary personal effort.

Craig

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Re: The limit of all computations

2012-05-21 Thread Stephen P. King

On 5/21/2012 7:54 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/5/21 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net 
mailto:stephe...@charter.net


On 5/21/2012 1:55 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

No it's not a computation, it arises because at every step,
computations diverge into new sets of infinite computations,
giving rise to the 1p indeterminacy.

Quentin

 Hi Quentin,

   So could we agree that the idea that the universe is
defined/determined ab initio (in the beginning) is refuted by this?



I don't know what you mean here... but in comp the universe per se 
does not exist, it emerges from computations and is not an object by 
itself (independent of computations).




Dear Quentin,

My interest is philosophy so I am asking questions in an attempt to 
learn about peoples ideas. Now I am learning about yours. Your sentence 
here implies to me that only objects (considered as capable of being 
separate and isolated from all others) can exist. Only objects exist 
and not, for example, processes. Is this correct?


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Stephen

Nature, to be commanded, must be obeyed.
~ Francis Bacon

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Re: The limit of all computations

2012-05-21 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2012/5/21 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net

  On 5/21/2012 7:54 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



 2012/5/21 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net

 On 5/21/2012 1:55 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

 No it's not a computation, it arises because at every step, computations
 diverge into new sets of infinite computations, giving rise to the 1p
 indeterminacy.

 Quentin

   Hi Quentin,

So could we agree that the idea that the universe is
 defined/determined ab initio (in the beginning) is refuted by this?



 I don't know what you mean here... but in comp the universe per se does
 not exist, it emerges from computations and is not an object by itself
 (independent of computations).


  Dear Quentin,

 My interest is philosophy so I am asking questions in an attempt to
 learn about peoples ideas. Now I am learning about yours. Your sentence
 here implies to me that only objects (considered as capable of being
 separate and isolated from all others) can exist. Only objects exist
 and not, for example, processes. Is this correct?


No, it depends what you mean by existing. When I say in comp the universe
per se does not exist, I mean it does not exist ontologically as it emerge
from computations. Existence means different thing at different level.

Does a table exist ? It depends at which level you describe it.

I still don't understand what you mean by the idea that the universe is
defined/determined ab initio (in the beginning) is refuted by this.

Regards,
Quentin



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 ~ Francis Bacon

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Re: The limit of all computations

2012-05-21 Thread meekerdb

On 5/21/2012 12:51 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 21 May 2012, at 07:31, meekerdb wrote:


On 5/20/2012 8:15 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:





Yes. Are those entities that exist from the beginning (which is what ontological 
primitivity implies...) or are they aspects of the unfolding reality?


I think they are concepts we made up.  But you're the one claiming the universe 
(actually I think you mean the multiverse) is not computable and you think this is 
contrary to Bruno.  But Bruno's UD isn't a Turing machine and what it produces is not 
computable, if I understand him correctly.



?

The UD is a Turing machine. I gave the algorithm in LISP (and from this you can compile 
it into a Turing machine).


What it does is computable, in the 3-views, but not in the 1-view (which 'contains' 
consciousness and matter).


A simple pseudo code is

begin
For i, j, k, non negative integers
Compute phi_i(j) up to k steps
end

The relation 'phi_i(j) = r' is purely arithmetical.

The UD is just a cousin of the universal machine, forced to generate all what it can do. 
It has to dovetail for not being stuck in some infinite computations (which we cannot 
prevent in advance).


The existence of UMs and UDs are theorem of elementary arithmetic.

The UD gives the only one known effective notion of everything.


Ok, I stand corrected.

Then what is the relation to the problem Stephen poses.  Can the UD compute the topology 
of all possible 4-manifolds - it seems it can since they correspond to Turing machine 
computations.  So does Markov's theorem just correspond to the fact that there is no 
general algortihm to determine whether to Turing machines compute the same function?


Brent

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Re: The limit of all computations

2012-05-21 Thread Russell Standish
On Mon, May 21, 2012 at 07:42:01AM -0400, Stephen P. King wrote:
 On 5/21/2012 12:33 AM, Russell Standish wrote:
 On Sun, May 20, 2012 at 12:06:05PM -0700, meekerdb wrote:
 On 5/20/2012 9:27 AM, Stephen P. King wrote:
 4) What is the cardinality of all computations?
 Aleph1.
 
 Actually, it is aleph_0. The set of all computations is
 countable. OTOH, the set of all experiences (under COMP) is uncountable
 (2^\aleph_0 in fact), which only equals \aleph_1 if the continuity
 hypothesis holds.
 
 Hi Russell,
 
 Interesting. Do you have any thoughts on what would follow from
 not holding the continuity (Cantor's continuum?) hypothesis?
 

No - its not my field. My understanding is that the CH has bugger all
impact on quotidian mathematics - the stuff physicists use,
basically. But it has a profound effect on the properties of
transfinite sets. And nobody can decide whether CH should be true or
false (both possibilities produce consistent results).

Its one reason why Bruno would like to restrict ontology to machines,
or at most integers - echoing Kronecker's quotable God made the
integers, all else is the work of man.

 
 This is the origin of Bruno's claim that COMP entails that physics is
 not computable, a corrolory of which is that Digital Physics is
 refuted (since DP=COMP).
 
 Does the symbol = mean implies? I get confused ...
 

Yes, that is the usual meaning. It can also be written (DP or not COMP).

Of course in Fortran, it means something entirely different: it
renames a type, much like the typedef statement of C. Sorry, that was
a digression.

 -- 
 Onward!
 
 Stephen
 
 Nature, to be commanded, must be obeyed.
 ~ Francis Bacon
 
 
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Re: Free will in MWI

2012-05-21 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On Sun, May 20, 2012 at 4:00 AM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

 In a branching multiverse where all possibilities happen at a decision
 point, some versions of you decide to type the sentence and others do
 not. This could be completely deterministic for the multiverse as a
 whole: x versions of you will definitely type it, y versions of you
 will definitely not.

 I understand the theory, but my example shows how that appears not to
 be the case, since my experience of intending to do something almost
 always results in an experience where I do what I intended. I can
 control the probability range that it will happen through the strength
 of my motive and the clarity of my sense.

 However, from your point of view, you don't know
 which version of you you will experience, so your future is
 indeterminate /  random / probabilistic, not deterministic.

 So you say. How much do you want to bet that I'm going to sleep in my
 bed tonight? How about for the rest of my life not including
 vacations? That's a lot of universe where I sleep under a bush or on
 the roof or in Jellystone Park.

There is obviously at least a small probability that you will decide
to sleep under a bush tonight. You would have to admit that under your
concept of free will, otherwise in a deterministic single universe you
would be compelled to sleep in your bed, which I don't have a problem
with but you do. In a deterministic multiverse, you will definitely
sleep in your bed in most universes (loosely most if they are
infinite in number) and definitely sleep under a bush in a few. You
can't be sure in which type of universe you will end up in so the
future is indeterminate.

 It's
 impossible - logically impossible, impossible even if you know every
 deterministic detail of the multiverse's future history - for you to
 know which version will be the real you, since all versions have
 equal claim to being the real you. This is a quite simple, but
 counterintuitive idea.

 No I understand the idea completely, I just think it's an obvious plug
 for the inconsistencies of QM. Like Dark matter dark energy,
 superposition, emergence, and entanglement. It's all phlogiston,
 libido, elan vital, animal magnetism, etc. It's quite nice in theory,
 but it sodomizes one side of Occam's Razor with the other. It's
 counter intuitive because it's an absurd way of explaining the
 universe in terms of nearly infinite nearly nonsensical universes.
 Every grain of sand on every planet in the cosmos having it's own set
 of universes customized to fit every pebble collision and sea tousled
 movement? Seriously? With sense as a primitive you don't need any of
 that. The universe is one thing with different views of itself. Each
 view doesn't need to be a creator of literal separate universes.

Whether it's true or not is a separate question but it does allow for
your future to be truly indeterminate in a deterministic multiverse.
The teleportation thought experiments we often talk about here model
this in a simpler way.


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: The limit of all computations

2012-05-21 Thread Stephen P. King

On 5/21/2012 3:49 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/5/21 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net 
mailto:stephe...@charter.net


On 5/21/2012 7:54 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



2012/5/21 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net
mailto:stephe...@charter.net

On 5/21/2012 1:55 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

No it's not a computation, it arises because at every
step, computations diverge into new sets of infinite
computations, giving rise to the 1p indeterminacy.

Quentin

 Hi Quentin,

   So could we agree that the idea that the universe is
defined/determined ab initio (in the beginning) is refuted
by this?



I don't know what you mean here... but in comp the universe per
se does not exist, it emerges from computations and is not an
object by itself (independent of computations).



Dear Quentin,

My interest is philosophy so I am asking questions in an
attempt to learn about peoples ideas. Now I am learning about
yours. Your sentence here implies to me that only objects
(considered as capable of being separate and isolated from all
others) can exist. Only objects exist and not, for example,
processes. Is this correct?


No, it depends what you mean by existing. When I say in comp the 
universe per se does not exist, I mean it does not exist 
ontologically as it emerge from computations. Existence means 
different thing at different level.


Does a table exist ? It depends at which level you describe it.


Dear Quentin,

I am trying to understand exactly how you think and define words.

By exist are you considering capacity of the referent of a word, 
say table, of being actually experiencing by anyone that might happen to 
be in its vecinity or otherwise capable of being causally affected by 
the presence and non-presence of the table?




I still don't understand what you mean by the idea that the universe 
is defined/determined ab initio (in the beginning) is refuted by this.


Regards,
Quentin


Don't worry about that for now. Let us nail down what existence 
is first.


--
Onward!

Stephen

Nature, to be commanded, must be obeyed.
~ Francis Bacon

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Re: The limit of all computations

2012-05-21 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2012/5/22 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net

  On 5/21/2012 3:49 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



 2012/5/21 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net

  On 5/21/2012 7:54 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



 2012/5/21 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net

 On 5/21/2012 1:55 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

 No it's not a computation, it arises because at every step,
 computations diverge into new sets of infinite computations, giving rise to
 the 1p indeterminacy.

 Quentin

   Hi Quentin,

So could we agree that the idea that the universe is
 defined/determined ab initio (in the beginning) is refuted by this?



 I don't know what you mean here... but in comp the universe per se does
 not exist, it emerges from computations and is not an object by itself
 (independent of computations).


  Dear Quentin,

 My interest is philosophy so I am asking questions in an attempt to
 learn about peoples ideas. Now I am learning about yours. Your sentence
 here implies to me that only objects (considered as capable of being
 separate and isolated from all others) can exist. Only objects exist
 and not, for example, processes. Is this correct?


 No, it depends what you mean by existing. When I say in comp the universe
 per se does not exist, I mean it does not exist ontologically as it emerge
 from computations. Existence means different thing at different level.

 Does a table exist ? It depends at which level you describe it.


 Dear Quentin,

 I am trying to understand exactly how you think and define words.

 By exist


Existence is dependent on the level of description, and can be seperated by
what exists ontologically and what exists epistemologically. So it depends
on the theory you use to define existence.

I would favor a theory which would define existence by what can be
experienced/observed. Maybe it's a lack of imagination, but I don't know
what it would mean for a thing to exist and never be observed/experienced.


 are you considering capacity of the referent of a word, say table, of
 being actually experiencing by anyone that might happen to be in its
 vecinity or otherwise capable of being causally affected by the presence
 and non-presence of the table?



 I still don't understand what you mean by the idea that the universe is
 defined/determined ab initio (in the beginning) is refuted by this.

 Regards,
 Quentin


 Don't worry about that for now. Let us nail down what existence is
 first.

 --
 Onward!

 Stephen

 Nature, to be commanded, must be obeyed.
 ~ Francis Bacon

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