Re: Tegmark and UDA step 3

2014-03-04 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 04 Mar 2014, at 04:18, chris peck wrote:

So has Tegmark convinced me that in his thought experiment I would  
assign 50/50 probability of seeing one or the other room each  
iteration? Not really.



The question is: can you refute this. And for the UDA, you don't need  
the 50%. You need only to assess the indeterminacy, and its invariance  
for the changes described in the next steps.


What is you talk about the step 4?  It asks if the way to evaluate the  
P(W) and the P(M) changes if some delay of reconstitution is  
introduced in W, or in M.


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: [foar] Amoeba's Secret, by Bruno Marchal available from Kindle store

2014-03-04 Thread LizR
I would like to get a non-kindle version (!) - is that available?


On 4 March 2014 19:43, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au wrote:

 Hi everyone,

 Just want to let everyone know that the English translation of Buno
 Marchal's The Amoeba's Secret is now available from Amazon's Kindle
 store. See http://www.amazon.com/dp/B00IRLEKPA


 The Amoeba's Secret was written when Bruno received the
 prestigious Prix Le Monde de la Recherche Universitaire for his PhD
 thesis, only for the prize to be mysteriously revoked, and the book
 not published. The original French version exists only as a manuscript
 available from Bruno's website.

 The Amoeba's Secret remains one of clearest explanations of Bruno's
 UDA and AUDA arguments, and provides a lot of historical background
 motivating him to formulate and study these issues in this way. Now,
 after about 4 years of effort, Kim Jones and I have finally finished
 the translation of this book into English.

 For those of you who prefer their books hard, the paperback version
 will probably be available towards the end of March. I need to see a
 physical copy of what Amazon produces before approving it for
 general sale. I have jigged things so that hard copy purchases are
 entitled to a free Kindle version fo the book, so you can have the
 best of both worlds.

 Cheers

 --


 
 Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
 Principal, High Performance Coders
 Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
 University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

 

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Re: Tegmark and UDA step 3

2014-03-04 Thread meekerdb

On 3/3/2014 11:55 PM, chris peck wrote:

* I'm not reading Max's book, so I don't know exactly what he said,*

Im reading the quote Jason kindly provided and responding to exactly what 
Tegmark said.

*but using FPI as in Everett QM and writing down which of two equally likely events 
you actually experience is an example of bernoulli trials. *


and the figures I've been stating reflect bernoulli trials precisely.

* The proportion of 1s and 0s both converge to 1/2 in probability. *

but in doing so call in to question definitions of 'about' 'roughly' and 'almost all'. 
But then you haven't read the Tegmark quote so you won't be able to add anything 
substantive about that.


I read Jason's quote: If you repeated the cloning experiment from Figure 8.3 many times 
and wrote down your room number each time, you'd in almost all cases find that the 
sequence of zeros and ones you'd written looked random, with zeros occurring about 50% of 
the time. In other words, causal physics will produce the illusion of randomness from your 
subjective viewpoint in any circumstance where you're being cloned.  But I don't know 
what Figure 8.3 is.




* It is irrelevant that the proportion of subsequences that have exactly equally 1s 
and 0s goes down.*


Whats irrelevant is the use of proportion of 1s and 0s in determining 'apparent 
randomness'. It doesn't. Which is my point. The figures for exact proportions were just 
my arse about tit way of getting there.


That's true.  The proportions of 1s and 0s doesn't determine randomness, it just 
determines the relative measures of experiencing room 1 and room 0.  But what Max wrote is 
true also; there would be 2^N yous and most of them would have written down sequences 
that were within z/sqrt(N) of 50/50 and looked random (i.e. incompressible) where you can 
choose z to be whatever you want to define most of them.  But whatever you choose for z, 
z/sqrt(N) still goes toward zero as N-inf.


Brent



But still, even though I seemed to get there on my tod, at least I know what a Bernoulli 
trial is now. Thanks for that.


--
Date: Mon, 3 Mar 2014 21:43:29 -0800
From: meeke...@verizon.net
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: Tegmark and UDA step 3

I'm not reading Max's book, so I don't know exactly what he said, but using FPI as in 
Everett QM and writing down which of two equally likely events you actually experience 
is an example of bernoulli trials.  The proportion of 1s and 0s both converge to 1/2 in 
probability.  This is exactly the way prediction of probabilities are evaluated 
experimentally.  It is irrelevant that the proportion of subsequences that have exactly 
equally 1s and 0s goes down.


Brent

On 3/3/2014 8:32 PM, chris peck wrote:

Hi Liz

* I'm not sure I follow.*

Me neither.

*  wrote down your room number each time, you'd in almost all cases find 
that the
sequence of zeros and ones you'd written looked random, with zeros 
occurring about
50% of the time.*

there would be no 'about' it were your interpretation right, Liz.

It would be all the time, exactly 50%.

Hes saying that zeros occur about 50%of the time in the zeros and ones you 
have
written down.

That corresponds to the individual bit strings. Not the entire collection 
of them.

* I guess the sloppy phrasing is he implies 0s happen half the time in 
most
sequences?*

I suspect its sloppy interpretation rather than sloppy phrasing that 
implies that.

* I don't know if that is true (it's true for 6 of the 16 sequences 
above)*

6/16 isn't half is it? I measured 1 divided by 2 just now and it still 
seems to come
out as 0.5 here.

* or if it becomes more true (or almost true) with longer sequences. 
Maybe a
mathematician can enlighten me?*

I wrote a little program Liz that collects together all the bit strings 
that can be
made from 16 bits. Then it counts the number of 1s and 0s in each one. It 
has a
little counter that goes up by one every time there are 8 zeros.

there are 65536 combinations. 12870 of them have 8 zeros. 12870 / 65536 * 
100 = 19%.

6/16*100 = 37%

I don't know about you but 19, being less than 37, suggests to me that the
percentage is going down. But ofcourse ask a mathematician if you're not 
certain of
that yourself.
*
 I admit Max seems a little slapdash in how he phrases things in the 
chapters I've
read so far, presumably because he's trying to make his subject matter seem 
more
accessible.*

Yeah, which is preferable to people with similar ideas being slap dash in 
order to
make them less accessible.



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Re: [foar] Amoeba's Secret, by Bruno Marchal available from Kindle store

2014-03-04 Thread LizR
Please let me know when the hard copy is available, as I would like a
physical version (ironic, I suspect, given the subject).


On 4 March 2014 19:43, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au wrote:

 Hi everyone,

 Just want to let everyone know that the English translation of Buno
 Marchal's The Amoeba's Secret is now available from Amazon's Kindle
 store. See http://www.amazon.com/dp/B00IRLEKPA


 The Amoeba's Secret was written when Bruno received the
 prestigious Prix Le Monde de la Recherche Universitaire for his PhD
 thesis, only for the prize to be mysteriously revoked, and the book
 not published. The original French version exists only as a manuscript
 available from Bruno's website.

 The Amoeba's Secret remains one of clearest explanations of Bruno's
 UDA and AUDA arguments, and provides a lot of historical background
 motivating him to formulate and study these issues in this way. Now,
 after about 4 years of effort, Kim Jones and I have finally finished
 the translation of this book into English.

 For those of you who prefer their books hard, the paperback version
 will probably be available towards the end of March. I need to see a
 physical copy of what Amazon produces before approving it for
 general sale. I have jigged things so that hard copy purchases are
 entitled to a free Kindle version fo the book, so you can have the
 best of both worlds.

 Cheers

 --


 
 Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
 Principal, High Performance Coders
 Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
 University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

 

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Re: Tegmark and UDA step 3

2014-03-04 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 04 Mar 2014, at 04:49, LizR wrote:

I'm not sure I follow. Tegmark said If you repeated the cloning  
experiment from Figure 8.3 many times and wrote down your room  
number each time, you'd in almost all cases find that the sequence  
of zeros and ones you'd written looked random, with zeros occurring  
about 50% of the time.


That seems to me to be correct. If you do the experiment 4 times you  
get the sequences I typed out before, except I seem to have  
accidentally doubled up! The correct sequences should read:


  0001  0010  0011  0100  0101  0110  0111  1000  1001  1010   
1011  1100  1101  1110  


Depending on how you decide something looks random, I'd say quite a  
few of those sequences do. And 0s do occur 50% of the time overall,  
for sure.


I guess the sloppy phrasing is he implies 0s happen half the time in  
most sequences? I don't know if that is true (it's true for 6 of the  
16 sequences above) or if it becomes more true (or almost true) with  
longer sequences. Maybe a mathematician can enlighten me?



Imagine you throw a billions of coins. You can understand intuitively  
that getting *exactly* half tails and half heads would be a lucky  
event. Then you can do the math, and it confirms this. You will get  
white noise, most of the case. With big number, such sequence of  
P=1/2 events gives a grey white noise, which confirms Tegmark  
statement that most sequence will have approximately the same number  
of head and tail, but the about here is important. The deviation  
from this will be non null, but non significant. It drops like 1/ 
sqrt(n) as Brent said. Indeed, if you get too many heads, or too many  
tails, that would make you believe that the coins are biased. All  
correlation studies in experimental physics are based on this.





I admit Max seems a little slapdash in how he phrases things in the  
chapters I've read so far, presumably because he's trying to make  
his subject matter seem more accessible.



Yes, I have often met that problem. I like to be slightly non rigorous  
for helping people to grasp the main idea, but then nitpickers jumps  
on the details. If you expose the point in taking all details into  
account, then you are accused of making things less accessible, or to  
hide difficulties in jargon.


Some people just try hard to not understand, and this usually, I  
guess,  for private agenda or some ideologies, I'm afraid.


Bruno






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Re: Alien Hand/Limb Syndrome

2014-03-04 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 03 Mar 2014, at 21:17, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Monday, March 3, 2014 1:16:49 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 02 Mar 2014, at 17:42, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Sunday, March 2, 2014 3:50:07 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 01 Mar 2014, at 12:24, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Saturday, March 1, 2014 1:52:12 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 28 Feb 2014, at 03:22, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Thursday, February 27, 2014 8:03:15 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:
On 28 February 2014 03:02, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com  
wrote:


In other words, why, in a functionalist/materialist world would  
we need a breakable program to keep telling us that our hand is  
not Alien?


Or contrariwise, why do you need a breakable programme to tell  
you that it's your hand?


Sure, that too. It doesn't make sense functionally. What  
difference does it make 'who' the hand 'belongs' to, as long as  
it performs as a hand.


Maybe it isn't always obvious that it's my hand... I believe the  
brain has an internal model of the body. I guess without one it  
wouldn't find it so easy to control it? A body's quite  
complicated, after all...


Why should the model include its own non-functional presence  
though?



Because the model, the machine is not just confronted with its  
own self-representation, but also with truth, as far as we are.  
Put differently, because the machine can't conflate []p and []p   
p. Only God can do that.


I don't see why self-representation would or could go beyond a  
simple inventory of functions.


[]p is self representation only.
But []p  p is not. We can prove that the machine cannot associate  
anything 3p-describable for []p  p. It is not a representation,  
but a (meta) link between representation and truth.


Why don't we see such a (meta) link in our own languages?


Because we duplicate too slowly, unlike amoeba, which have not the  
cognitive abilities to exploit this.
This entails that in natural language we use the same indexical term  
I for both the 3-I and the 1-I. We say I lost a tooth (3-I) ,  
and I feel pain in my mouth (1-I). Only teleportation and  
duplication, or deep reflexion on belief and knowledge,  makes clear  
the difference. It appears clearly in Theaetetus, and in other  
fundamental texts.


When we say I lost a tooth what we mean is In my experience it  
seems like I lost a tooth. It is still 1-I. We may wake up and find  
that experience was a dream, in which case we say I didn't lose a  
tooth but mean In my experience it seems like my previous  
experience of losing a tooth was a dream,


Funny but irrelevant. Like Clark can always avoid a question on the 1- 
views, by jumping out of his body and adding a 3  (passing from some  
1-1-1 view to a 3-1-1-1 view for example), you can always add a 1 on  
any view, like you do here. But in the argument we were assuming the  
3p view at the start.






Instead of seeing it in terms of Bp  p, I see it as something like  
Bp  Bp^e (where e is Euler's number).


???



There is no p, only a tendency toward stability across nested  
histories of experience as the accumulate.


If there is no p, there is no truth, and we waste our time when doing  
research. I begin to think I waste my time trying to get you back to  
research instead of your hopelessly negative and destructive quasi- 
racist personal reification.


Bruno





Craig


Bruno


PS for reason of scheduling, I will comment only paragraph that I  
understand.

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/




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Re: Amoeba's Secret, by Bruno Marchal available from Kindle store

2014-03-04 Thread Bruno Marchal

Many thanks, Russell. Many thanks, Kim.

Best,

Bruno


On 04 Mar 2014, at 07:43, Russell Standish wrote:


Hi everyone,

Just want to let everyone know that the English translation of Buno
Marchal's The Amoeba's Secret is now available from Amazon's Kindle
store. See http://www.amazon.com/dp/B00IRLEKPA


The Amoeba's Secret was written when Bruno received the
prestigious Prix Le Monde de la Recherche Universitaire for his PhD
thesis, only for the prize to be mysteriously revoked, and the book
not published. The original French version exists only as a manuscript
available from Bruno's website.

The Amoeba's Secret remains one of clearest explanations of Bruno's
UDA and AUDA arguments, and provides a lot of historical background
motivating him to formulate and study these issues in this way. Now,
after about 4 years of effort, Kim Jones and I have finally finished
the translation of this book into English.

For those of you who prefer their books hard, the paperback version
will probably be available towards the end of March. I need to see a
physical copy of what Amazon produces before approving it for
general sale. I have jigged things so that hard copy purchases are
entitled to a free Kindle version fo the book, so you can have the
best of both worlds.

Cheers

--


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: If it's all math, then where does math come from?

2014-03-04 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 04 Mar 2014, at 03:11, Kim Jones wrote:



On 4 Mar 2014, at 9:48 am, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

Without listening to that (since I'm at work) I am under the  
impression that Carmina Burana is, at the beginning at least, 4  
beats to the bar, not 3?




Maybe I missed the point. I am not musical (except that I like  
listening to music).



You would have to be halfway musical to even pick up on that! Indeed  
O Fortuna (the first song of Orff's Carmina Burana) is cast in 3  
beats to the bar at the opening, certainly when it gets fully under  
way...


I just checked it on the full orchestral score. This is interesting  
because the threeness of this huge opening is not explicit, which  
is what I was saying earlier. Beat in music is simple arithmatic,  
yet even with such simple resources as ordinal numbers associating  
with each other (somehow!) to produce these qualia that gives me an  
aesthetic impression of circularity is already incredibly advanced  
and difficult to describe. Tis the magic of the numbers.


Music IS numbers, but the qualia it induces in my consciousness are  
something else. If I understand that part of comp correctly.


The qualia are not numbers, indeed. No 1p notion at all can be a 3p  
notion, like numbers are. But a qualia can be associated to some 1p  
notions, which arise in some of the self-referential machine's talk,   
when distinguishing the proofs and the truth available by that  
machine, and taking into account many intensional combinations.


By the way, did you know that some plant loves music. There is even a  
dancing plant, which seems to dance on classical melody, but not on  
noise or on too rocky music.


If interested here is a video on plant's mind:

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NeX6ST7rexslist=WL20F101EB06378011

Bruno





K








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Email: kimjo...@ozemail.com.au
Mobile:   0450 963 719
Landline: 02 9389 4239
Web:   http://www.eportfolio.kmjcommp.com

Never let your schooling get in the way of your education - Mark  
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Re: Tegmark and UDA step 3

2014-03-04 Thread LizR
On 4 March 2014 18:43, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  I'm not reading Max's book, so I don't know exactly what he said,


It's quoted in the first post on this thread.


 but using FPI as in Everett QM and writing down which of two equally
 likely events you actually experience is an example of bernoulli trials.
 The proportion of 1s and 0s both converge to 1/2 in probability.  This is
 exactly the way prediction of probabilities are evaluated experimentally.
 It is irrelevant that the proportion of subsequences that have exactly
 equally 1s and 0s goes down.

 It depends what Max meant. I think he meant that there are likely to be
*roughly* equal numbers of 0s and 1s in a long string, which depends on how
you interpret roughly. Say with chris' programme that counts the 0s in
all the 16 bit numbers, we should take roughly half to be between, say, 7
and 9 inclusive, while with 4 bits it's more reasonable to make it exactly
2. With a 64 bit string it might be reasonable to make it between 30 and 34
(if I got that right).

This is a bit nitpicky since we know (or can calculate) the actual
proportions anyway, so we can see for ourselves how the number of 0s is
distributed. I suspect a bell shaped curve with the maximum at 50% :-)

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Re: Block Universes

2014-03-04 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

I'm interested in finding the truth, not in assigning blame.

The important thing is we both now agree that there IS ALWAYS A CORRELATION 
OF ACTUAL AGES between any two observers.

The difference is I think it's an EXACT correlation, and you think that 
it's ALMOST EXACT except for cases of extreme separation or motion.

I think we have to analyze the age correlation from a POV that preserves 
the actual relationship of the accelerations that are the ONLY cause of age 
rate differences. Whereas you think we have to consider all possible views 
irrespective of whether they properly preserve the relationship of causes 
of age rate differences. My method provides an EXACT correlation. Your 
method provides an ALMOST EXACT correlation in all but extreme cases.


Also now that I have pointed out the error in your Alice, Bob, Arlene, Bart 
example do you agree my method does produce consistent, unambiguous and 
transitive 1:1 correlations of proper ages among all observers?


To address your new questions:

Do you deny acceleration and gravitation produce real actual slowings of 
clock rates and thus of real actual aging rates? Of course we can VIEW 
these slowings differently from different frames, but the ACTUAL effects 
they produce on the observer who experiences them are exact. It is these 
exact actual effects that my method explains, and yours doesn't. We know 
these effects are real and actual when twins meet up with different ages. 
Thus we know they were ALSO REAL AND ACTUAL BEFORE the twins met. That is 
pure simple logic.

How many times do I have to explain. The twins exchange flight plans for 
EXACT SAME ACCLERATIONS AT THE EXACT SAME TIMES before they part. This 
ABSOLUTELY ENSURES that their age rates will slow EXACTLY THE SAME during 
their trip. There is no way around that. Another observer can VIEW that 
differently but from the POV of the twins themselves it IS EXACT AND 
ABSOLUTE. Thus it is clear to anyone that to properly analyze the REAL 
ACTUAL CORRELATION OF THE TWINS' AGES WE MUST PRESERVE THE REAL ACTUAL 
RELATIONSHIP OF THE ACCELERATIONS THAT ARE THE ONLY CAUSE OF AGE RATE 
CHANGES.

Jeez, how difficult is that to understand? And your different frame to 
exchange flight plans in is an oxymoron because it would make their actual 
symmetric flight plans appear to be NON symmetric. Only a pair of idiots 
would do that

You are just endlessly repeating what you read in some relativity textbook 
without using simple logic to determine its proper application

Edgar







On Monday, March 3, 2014 5:51:25 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Mon, Mar 3, 2014 at 3:45 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 No, it was you that said there was NO correlation.


 Jeez Edgar, you really need to work on your reading comprehension. I just 
 got through AGREEING that I had said that there wasn't a correlation, but I 
 explained that this was because I was using correlation in the way YOU 
 had consistently been using it up until now, to refer to a 1:1 correlation 
 in which each proper age of a twin is matched up to one unique proper age 
 of the other twin. The archive at 
 http://www.mail-archive.com/everything-list@googlegroups.com/ has a 
 better search function than google's archive (returning individual posts 
 rather than threads), so I searched for posts from Edgar L. Owen with 
 correlate or correlation in them, results here:


 http://www.mail-archive.com/search?a=1l=everything-list%40googlegroups.comhaswords=correlatefrom=Edgar+L.+Owennotwords=subject=datewithin=1ddate=order=datenewestsearch=Search
  


 http://www.mail-archive.com/search?a=1l=everything-list%40googlegroups.comhaswords=correlationfrom=Edgar+L.+Owennotwords=subject=datewithin=1ddate=order=datenewestsearch=Search

 Earliest posts on the block time thread I could find in these searches 
 (that were directed at me, and not some other poster) were these from Feb. 
 12 and 13 (shown in order below), where you can see from the quotes that 
 you were talking specifically about 1:1 correlations that map clock times 
 of one to specific clock times of the other:


 http://www.mail-archive.com/everything-list%40googlegroups.com/msg48613.html

 So all observers are always in the same p-time moment. Now it's just a 
 matter of correlating their clock times to see which clock times occurred 
 in any particular current moment of p-time.


 http://www.mail-archive.com/everything-list%40googlegroups.com/msg48716.html

 Do you see how this mutual agreed on understanding of how each's clock 
 time varies in the other's frame always allows each to correlate their own 
 comoving clock time with the comoving (own) clock time of the other? In 
 other words for A to always know what B's clock time was reading when A's 
 clock time was reading t, and for B to always know what A's clock time was 
 reading when B's clock time was reading t'?


 

Re: If it's all math, then where does math come from?

2014-03-04 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Bruno,

It may be that some plants respond to music or at least to sound but to 
claim some plants love music is an unwarranted anthropomorphism that 
demonstrates a rather 'New Agey' mentality.

Can you link me to any slow motion videos in which plants move IN SYNCH 
WITH MUSIC? I rather doubt it but I've got an open mind.

Extreme claims demand a modicum of evidence. Of course there is NO evidence 
at all for comp so I won't be surprised if you can't come up with any for 
plants love music.

Hmmm, isn't that a symptom of what you and Liz claim Trolls do?
:-)

Edgar

On Tuesday, March 4, 2014 4:05:04 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 04 Mar 2014, at 03:11, Kim Jones wrote:


 On 4 Mar 2014, at 9:48 am, LizR liz...@gmail.com javascript: wrote:

 Without listening to that (since I'm at work) I am under the impression 
 that Carmina Burana is, at the beginning at least, 4 beats to the bar, 
 not 3?



 Maybe I missed the point. I am not musical (except that I like listening 
 to music).



 You would have to be halfway musical to even pick up on that! Indeed “O 
 Fortuna” (the first song of Orff’s “Carmina Burana”) is cast in 3 beats to 
 the bar at the opening, certainly when it gets fully under way... 

 I just checked it on the full orchestral score. This is interesting 
 because the “threeness” of this huge opening is not explicit, which is what 
 I was saying earlier. “Beat” in music is simple arithmatic, yet even with 
 such simple resources as ordinal numbers associating with each other 
 (somehow!) to produce these qualia that gives me an aesthetic impression of 
 circularity is already incredibly advanced and difficult to describe. Tis 
 the magic of the numbers.

 Music IS numbers, but the qualia it induces in my consciousness are 
 something else. If I understand that part of comp correctly. 


 The qualia are not numbers, indeed. No 1p notion at all can be a 3p 
 notion, like numbers are. But a qualia can be associated to some 1p 
 notions, which arise in some of the self-referential machine's talk,  when 
 distinguishing the proofs and the truth available by that machine, and 
 taking into account many intensional combinations.

 By the way, did you know that some plant loves music. There is even a 
 dancing plant, which seems to dance on classical melody, but not on noise 
 or on too rocky music.

 If interested here is a video on plant's mind:

 http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NeX6ST7rexslist=WL20F101EB06378011

 Bruno




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 Email: kimj...@ozemail.com.au javascript:
 Mobile:   0450 963 719
 Landline: 02 9389 4239
 Web:   http://www.eportfolio.kmjcommp.com

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 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/





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Re: consciousness questions bruno or anyone

2014-03-04 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 04 Mar 2014, at 01:04, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:

I don't have a great comprehension of UDA, but that the foundation  
of everything must be arithmetic as you say.


If computationalism is correct, yes. And the base theory can be be any  
logical specification or axiomatization of any universal system, and  
arithmetic is enough.


The technical way to extract physics from arithmetic extends Gödel's  
extraction of meta-arithmetic from arithmetic. I will explain this  
(again) soon.



The more I read papers and research about the holographic universe,  
the more it seems like consciousness might be a program (for want of  
a better word) in physics, which somehow itself, emanates, from some  
kind of  2D space, which I guess might be a...database?


That is interesting but not yet extracted from computationalism. There  
are resemblance with the distinction between the UD, UD* (the infinite  
running of the UD) and the first person indeterminacy domain (that is  
his 3-1 view actually). But with computationalism we get an  
explanation from a 0-dimensional theory of the way an Hilbert space  
(infinitely dimensional, normally) appears, and the cosmology is more  
difficult to extract.
Note that the goal is to solve the mind-body problem, not to propose a  
new theory of physics. It just happens that explaining physics from a  
theory of mind (comp) happens (by UDA) to be a necessary part of the  
mind-body problem, and this makes also the comp hypothesis refutable/ 
testable.


Bruno






-Original Message-
From: Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Mon, Mar 3, 2014 1:19 am
Subject: Re: consciousness questions bruno or anyone


On 02 Mar 2014, at 17:45, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:


Just a hunch, is that we cannot separate consciousness from physics.



What do you mean by this? It is more that we can't separate physics  
from consciousness.
Are you aware that if we (in the third person view) are machine,  
then physics emerge from arithmetic?

Do you have a problem with the UD Argument, and if yes, which one?

Bruno






What this implies I shall leave for the truly, brainy.
-Original Message-
From: ghibbsa ghib...@gmail.com
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Sun, Mar 2, 2014 7:36 am
Subject: consciousness questions bruno or anyone

So, why do we get tired, and why is being tired like the way that  
it is? If its exhaustion, maybe  up a couple of days, why does it  
stop being about motivation and becomes that we can't think  
straight? ass


Why do we need to sleep? Why do we need to REM sleep in what looks  
to be precise amounts, which we're not capable of losing ground on  
(strong evidence when people are prevented REM sleep in the lab  
over days, they begin to pass out more and more easily, and don't  
return to normal until all the REM is made up for)

i
Why is it, mental fatigue has certain properties that ties fatigue  
to specific mental activities but not other, equally challenging  
ones? Why is this strongly correlated with how much time a specifc  
kind of activity has already been focused on since last sleep? Such  
that 'a change is as good as a rest'.

ion
If computation is intrinsically conscious why aren't we conscious   
in the vast majority of our brains, where the vast majority of the  
heavy lifting goes on?  Why aren't we conscious in our other organs  
where  sigtinificant computation takes place, and is connected with  
our brains. When I write a piece of code and run it, why aren't I  
experiencing the consciousness of the code?  What decides what  
object and experiences what consciousness,  and why is that stable?  
If I lie down beside my twin, why don't I sometimes wake up him?


If computation is intrinsically conscious, where is consciousness  
experienced? How is facilitated? If a computer is intrinsically  
conscious, which hardware parts are consciousness, and/or which   
hardwaerre parts are required by the conscious experience of  
software, such that the experience is able to think the next  
thought? The processor? RAM?


Given all this hardware is tightly controlled by processes running,  
and given these processes, and their footprint through the hardware  
can be precisely known, why is the old Turing needed, or should it  
be updated to include predictions for what an emergent  
consciousness would look like, its footprint, CPU use? If  
computation is intrinsically consciousness why can we account for  
the footprint of our code, purely in terms of, and exactly

 of that code?
,
Why haven't these footprint iss9ues been heavily researched over  
the past 50 years...why isn't there a hard theory? With nothing at  
all having been done in this area, for all we know when the  
computer runs slow and starts to ceize that isn't sometimes a  
darling little consciousness flashing into existence and struggling  
to survive, only to be broken on the wheel of the Norton  

Re: MODAL Last exercise

2014-03-04 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 04 Mar 2014, at 01:18, LizR wrote:


OK, so ignoring Brent who I'm sure is way ahead of me...

The problem is to show that

(W, R) respects []A - A if and only if R is reflexive,

Where reflexive means for all alpha, { alpha R alpha } (and nothing  
more is implied!)


OK.

(better not to use the accolade though, as you are just saying that  
for all alpha, alpha R alpha (and then if you represent R by a set, R   
will contain all couples like (alpha, alpha), so R = {(alpha, alpha),  
(alpha beta), (beta beta), ... }.





And []p means that p is true in all worlds reachable from the world  
being considered.


OK.
You could have said more precisely that

[]p means, in a world alpha,  that p is true in all worlds reachable  
from the world alpha.





(...I think. I just checked my diary and was told that []p means  
that p is a law. Maybe that was the wrong page...)


Yes, that's was in the Leibniz semantics.  Something similar will  
happen with kripke, but if I explain now, it can be confusing.






OK, so anyway, before I get too confused



You should never allow this to happen. It happens because you allow  
slight confusion, and then they add up. I know it is not easy.





let's consider world alpha which is part of W.


A part of W means usually a subset of W.
A world is an element of W.

If W = {a, b}, a and b are elements of W. The parts of W are { }, {a},  
{b}, {a, b}. If W has n elements, we have seen that W has 2^n parts.


I hope you don't mind I help you to use the standard terminology, as  
it will help us a lot later.






We know { alpha R alpha }.


?
At this stage I am not sure if you try to prove:

(W, R) respects []A - A  -  R is reflexive,

or

R is reflexive  -  (W, R) respects []A - A

I will have to guess. And here I guess you assume R is reflexive, and  
so you intent to deduce from this that (W, R) respects []A - A.




[]p means p is true in all worlds reachable from alpha (I think)  
which includes alpha itself, hence it means that p has to be true in  
alpha, hence it means []p - p.


That's correct, but still a bit fuzzy. To say that (W, R) respects a  
formula, like []A - A, means that (W,R, V) satisfies the formula, for  
all valuations V.
May be I am just nitpicking, but what if p is not true in alpha. Do we  
still have []p - p?


Your fuzziness, or perhaps my own imperfect brain, makes consistent  
that you did treat that case, or that you did not.



(Conversely, if alpha wasn't reachable from itself, then p being  
true in all worlds reachable from alpha wouldn't entail that p is  
true in alpha.)


Very good. Just a bit lazy. When you say that p being true in all  
worlds reachable from alpha wouldn't entail that p is true in alpha,   
you might give us the counterexample, like chosing a valuation  
(illumination) V with p false in alpha and true in all worlds  
accessible from alpha.

We love counter-examples, you know.




QED, perhaps? Did I just prove something?



Yes. You did.

You have proved that

1) if R is reflexive, []A - A is automatically true in all worlds in  
any reflexive illuminated multiverse.


And then, three lines above, beginning by Conversely, ... you have  
proved that, conversely indeed:


2) ~ (R is reflexive)  -~(For all V (W,R,V) respects []A -  
A)) (by showing one V with a world in which []A - A is false,  
when R is not reflexive).








If so, I'still m not sure that proves if any only if...



Oh! You might say that once you proved 2) you did prove that

2') (For all V (W,R,V) respects []A - A))  - (R is reflexive)

But you can derived P - Q from a derivation of ~Q - ~P.  All  
right.


You did it, and it would have been simpler for you, and for me, if you  
just started from what you were asked to prove.






Although... maybe it does.


Sure it does.




For []p to imply p in a world alpha, where []p means p is true in  
all worlds reachable from alpha, it can only imply p is true if  
alpha is reachable from alpha.


This applies to all worlds in (W, R) hence it must be reflexive.

I think.



Good.

To prove that P - Q, you can prove that P  ~Q leads to a  
contradiction, or you can prove that ~Q leads to ~P.


But it helps a lot if you start from what you want to prove, up to the  
conclusion, so that not only you prove it, but you know exactly what  
you discovered. In this case a necessary link, in Kripke semantics,  
between a binary relation (reflexivity) and a modal formula []A-A.


You learned that the fact that (W, R) respects []A - A is equivalent  
with the fact that R is reflexive.


OK?

Bruno





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Re: consciousness questions bruno or anyone

2014-03-04 Thread spudboy100

Thanks, Professor Marchal, I shall be purchasing your newly, translated, book 
on Amazon, and a hat tip to professor Standish for the alert on this. 

Mitch


-Original Message-
From: Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Tue, Mar 4, 2014 9:07 am
Subject: Re: consciousness questions bruno or anyone




On 04 Mar 2014, at 01:04, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:


 
I don't have a great comprehension of UDA, but that the foundation of 
everything must be arithmetic as you say. 



If computationalism is correct, yes. And the base theory can be be any logical 
specification or axiomatization of any universal system, and arithmetic is 
enough.


The technical way to extract physics from arithmetic extends Gödel's 
extraction of meta-arithmetic from arithmetic. I will explain this (again) 
soon.




The more I read papers and research about the holographic universe, the more it 
seems like consciousness might be a program (for want of a better word) in 
physics, which somehow itself, emanates, from some kind of  2D space, which I 
guess might be a...database?



That is interesting but not yet extracted from computationalism. There are 
resemblance with the distinction between the UD, UD* (the infinite running of 
the UD) and the first person indeterminacy domain (that is his 3-1 view 
actually). But with computationalism we get an explanation from a 0-dimensional 
theory of the way an Hilbert space (infinitely dimensional, normally) appears, 
and the cosmology is more difficult to extract. 
Note that the goal is to solve the mind-body problem, not to propose a new 
theory of physics. It just happens that explaining physics from a theory of 
mind (comp) happens (by UDA) to be a necessary part of the mind-body problem, 
and this makes also the comp hypothesis refutable/testable.


Bruno










 
 
 
-Original Message-
 From: Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be
 To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Mon, Mar 3, 2014 1:19 am
 Subject: Re: consciousness questions bruno or anyone
 
 
 

 
 
On 02 Mar 2014, at 17:45, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:
 

 
Just a hunch, is that we cannot separate consciousness from physics. 
 
 

 
 

 
 
What do you mean by this? It is more that we can't separate physics from 
consciousness.
 
Are you aware that if we (in the third person view) are machine, then physics 
emerge from arithmetic?
 
Do you have a problem with the UD Argument, and if yes, which one?
 

 
 
Bruno
 

 
 

 
 

 
 

 
 
 
 
What this implies I shall leave for the truly, brainy.
 
 
 
-Original Message-
 From: ghibbsa ghib...@gmail.com
 To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Sun, Mar 2, 2014 7:36 am
 Subject: consciousness questions bruno or anyone
 
 
 
 
So, why do we get tired, and why is being tired like the way that it is? If its 
exhaustion, maybe  up a couple of days, why does it stop being about motivation 
and becomes that we can't think straight? ass 
 
 
 
Why do we need to sleep? Why do we need to REM sleep in what looks to be 
precise amounts, which we're not capable of losing ground on (strong evidence 
when people are prevented REM sleep in the lab over days, they begin to pass 
out more and more easily, and don't return to normal until all the REM is made 
up for)
 
i
 
Why is it, mental fatigue has certain properties that ties fatigue to specific 
mental activities but not other, equally challenging ones? Why is this strongly 
correlated with how much time a specifc kind of activity has already been 
focused on since last sleep? Such that 'a change is as good as a rest'. 
 
ion
 
If computation is intrinsically conscious why aren't we conscious  in the vast 
majority of our brains, where the vast majority of the heavy lifting goes on?  
Why aren't we conscious in our other organs where  sigtinificant computation 
takes place, and is connected with our brains. When I write a piece of code and 
run it, why aren't I experiencing the consciousness of the code?  What decides 
what object and experiences what consciousness,  and why is that stable? If I 
lie down beside my twin, why don't I sometimes wake up him?
 
 
 
If computation is intrinsically conscious, where is consciousness experienced? 
How is facilitated? If a computer is intrinsically conscious, which hardware 
parts are consciousness, and/or which  hardwaerre parts are required by the 
conscious experience of software, such that the experience is able to think the 
next thought? The processor? RAM? 
 
 
 
Given all this hardware is tightly controlled by processes running, and given 
these processes, and their footprint through the hardware can be precisely 
known, why is the old Turing needed, or should it be updated to include 
predictions for what an emergent consciousness would look like, its footprint, 
CPU use? If computation is intrinsically consciousness why can we account for 
the footprint of our code, purely in terms 

RE: [foar] Amoeba's Secret, by Bruno Marchal available from Kindle store

2014-03-04 Thread Chris de Morsella
Thanks. I will look for the paperback version towards the end of this month.


Chris

 

From: everything-list@googlegroups.com
[mailto:everything-list@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of LizR
Sent: Tuesday, March 04, 2014 12:16 AM
To: f...@googlegroups.com; everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: [foar] Amoeba's Secret, by Bruno Marchal available from Kindle
store

 

Please let me know when the hard copy is available, as I would like a
physical version (ironic, I suspect, given the subject).

 

On 4 March 2014 19:43, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au wrote:

Hi everyone,

Just want to let everyone know that the English translation of Buno
Marchal's The Amoeba's Secret is now available from Amazon's Kindle
store. See http://www.amazon.com/dp/B00IRLEKPA


The Amoeba's Secret was written when Bruno received the
prestigious Prix Le Monde de la Recherche Universitaire for his PhD
thesis, only for the prize to be mysteriously revoked, and the book
not published. The original French version exists only as a manuscript
available from Bruno's website.

The Amoeba's Secret remains one of clearest explanations of Bruno's
UDA and AUDA arguments, and provides a lot of historical background
motivating him to formulate and study these issues in this way. Now,
after about 4 years of effort, Kim Jones and I have finally finished
the translation of this book into English.

For those of you who prefer their books hard, the paperback version
will probably be available towards the end of March. I need to see a
physical copy of what Amazon produces before approving it for
general sale. I have jigged things so that hard copy purchases are
entitled to a free Kindle version fo the book, so you can have the
best of both worlds.

Cheers

--


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: [foar] Amoeba's Secret, by Bruno Marchal available from Kindle store

2014-03-04 Thread Telmo Menezes
Great news! I've got mine already on my trusty ebook reader. Let's displace
Paul McCartney

http://www.amazon.com/Amoebas-Secret-Paul-Mccartney/dp/B001OD6HRW/ref=sr_1_1?ie=UTF8qid=1393954155sr=8-1keywords=the+secret+of+the+amoeba

:)


On Tue, Mar 4, 2014 at 6:14 PM, Chris de Morsella cdemorse...@yahoo.comwrote:

 Thanks. I will look for the paperback version towards the end of this
 month.

 Chris



 *From:* everything-list@googlegroups.com [mailto:
 everything-list@googlegroups.com] *On Behalf Of *LizR
 *Sent:* Tuesday, March 04, 2014 12:16 AM
 *To:* f...@googlegroups.com; everything-list@googlegroups.com
 *Subject:* Re: [foar] Amoeba's Secret, by Bruno Marchal available from
 Kindle store



 Please let me know when the hard copy is available, as I would like a
 physical version (ironic, I suspect, given the subject).



 On 4 March 2014 19:43, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au wrote:

 Hi everyone,

 Just want to let everyone know that the English translation of Buno
 Marchal's The Amoeba's Secret is now available from Amazon's Kindle
 store. See http://www.amazon.com/dp/B00IRLEKPA


 The Amoeba's Secret was written when Bruno received the
 prestigious Prix Le Monde de la Recherche Universitaire for his PhD
 thesis, only for the prize to be mysteriously revoked, and the book
 not published. The original French version exists only as a manuscript
 available from Bruno's website.

 The Amoeba's Secret remains one of clearest explanations of Bruno's
 UDA and AUDA arguments, and provides a lot of historical background
 motivating him to formulate and study these issues in this way. Now,
 after about 4 years of effort, Kim Jones and I have finally finished
 the translation of this book into English.

 For those of you who prefer their books hard, the paperback version
 will probably be available towards the end of March. I need to see a
 physical copy of what Amazon produces before approving it for
 general sale. I have jigged things so that hard copy purchases are
 entitled to a free Kindle version fo the book, so you can have the
 best of both worlds.

 Cheers

 --


 
 Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
 Principal, High Performance Coders
 Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
 University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

 

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 You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups
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Re: MODAL Last exercise (+ a zest of the real thing)

2014-03-04 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 04 Mar 2014, at 03:00, LizR wrote:

Hm. I don't know if the first one was OK but anyway let's look at  
the second one.



A Kripke multiverse (W, R) is said transitive if R is transitive.  
That is


alpha R beta, and beta R gamma entails alpha R gamma, for all alpha  
beta and gamma in W.


Show that

(W, R) respects []A - [][]A if and only R is transitive,


I think []A - [][]A means (for a world alpha in (W,R)) that if A  
is true in all worlds accessible from alpha, then it's true in all  
worlds reachable from alpha that A is true in all worlds reachable  
from alpha.


I am not sure.

[]A - [][]A means, in a world alpha, in W, from (W,R), indeed, that  
[]A - [][]A is true in alpha. So if []A is true in alpha, you know  
that [][]A is true in alpha, so that means that if A is true in all  
accessible worlds, then []A is true in all the accessible worlds.







That's a bit - I don't know - recursive? I can feel a bit of  
boggling starting in my mind. Let's try to keep things (very, very)  
simple.


No problem.




Consider a world alpha in which p is true. I assume I can use p  
since I'm used to typing []p by now!


And suppose we have beta and gamma as above.

So []p implies that p is true in beta because alpha R beta... OK so  
far...


Hang on, does transitive imply reflexive? This is hard to think  
about, having 3 things! For ALL a,b,c, in (W,R) we have


 (aRb  bRc) - aRc.

Specifically if a,b,c are the same (aRa  aRa) - aRa, so we (kind  
of redundantly) get reflexivity too. I think.


Well tried, but if (a Ra) is false, that is just f - f.

Take a strict order relation like strictly less than, on N, or R,  
that relation is transitive, but not reflexive.

Take less or equal, that relation is both reflexive and transitive.

Strictly less than is even worse than not reflexive, it is  
irreflexive. For all a ~(aRa), or if you prefer ~ Exist a such that a  
R A.






By the way, I suspect that the 3-fold nature of the transitivity  
rule somehow connects with the 3 []s in the thing I'm trying to  
prove! But I have no idea why or how that works, if it does.


Maybe I should stop for a coffee break and let this percolate around  
my brain for a bit.


Take the time.

And don't worry, at some point I will have to re-explained all this,  
to what some people might take as a very dumb machine, which indeed  
believes only few axioms of elementary arithmetic.
That will be the real things, some modal logics will impose themselves  
there, including the one corresponding to alternating consistent  
extensions.


The theory of everything, here, is  classical first order logic + the  
following formula:


0 ≠ s(x)
s(x) = s(y) - x = y
x+0 = x
x+s(y) = s(x+y)
x*0=0
x*s(y)=(x*y)+x

An observer will be defined, in the theory above, by a sound extension  
believer of the axioms above, + some amount of induction axioms, of  
the type:


(F(0)  Ax(F(x) - F(s(x))) - AxF(x), with F(x) being a formula in  
the arithmetical language (with 0, s, +, *).


We have to explain to a dumb machine, which understands only 0, s(0),  
s(s(0)), ... and can only add and multiply, but yet can reason in  
classical logic, the very functioning of such a dumb machine.


There is no miracle. To define the variables, we can use the letter x,  
y, ..., it works well for many human people, but the dumb machine  
understands only 0, s(0), s(s(0)), so we will have to decide to say  
something like let the variable be defined by 0, s(s(0)),  
s(s(s(s(0, that is, the even number, so we will defined in  
arithmetic, the variable by the even numbers.


Variable(x) - even(x) - Ey(2*y = x)

And about , - t, and even what about (, and ) ?

Well, again, there is no magic, you have to chose particular odd  
numbers (to not confuse them from variable) to represent them.

That is both logic and polite.

And then, how about finite sequences of symbols like 0≠s(x)?

There too must be defined in terms of number relations, and in this  
case a simple way, if we allow ourselves the use of exponentiation, is  
given by the uniqueness of prime decomposition. If g(0), g(≠), ...  
represents the particular odd number symbol for 0, ≠, etc. then  
you can represent 0≠s(x) by

2^g(0)*3^g(≠)*5^g(s)*7^g(()*11^g(x)*13^g()).

Then the theory itself can be defined or represented, as a number,  
being a finite sequences of the number corresponding to the axioms  
above.


We will have to defined in arithmetic what we mean by a valid proof. A  
proof is itself a finite (or infinite) sequences of application of  
inference rules, making proof easy to check (and hard to find in  
many domains).  So we can define in arithmetic a predicate b(x, y)  
true when y is a proof (in the dumb number language) of x.


Then provable(x) can be defined by EyB(x, y). It is a Turing complete  
sigma_1 arithmetical predicate, a Löbian once it  get few induction  
axioms.


That provable(x), or believable(x), or assertable(x) by the  
modest believer in the axiom above, 

Re: If it's all math, then where does math come from?

2014-03-04 Thread Bruno Marchal

Edgar,


On 04 Mar 2014, at 15:02, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Bruno,

It may be that some plants respond to music or at least to sound but  
to claim some plants love music is an unwarranted anthropomorphism  
that demonstrates a rather 'New Agey' mentality.


Can you link me to any slow motion videos in which plants move IN  
SYNCH WITH MUSIC? I rather doubt it but I've got an open mind.


Extreme claims demand a modicum of evidence. Of course there is NO  
evidence at all for comp so I won't be surprised if you can't come  
up with any for plants love music.


About plants loving music, you take my words far too much seriously,  
and you have already acknowledge that your theory implies comp, so  
that you should learn its consequences, which makes your point  
possibly consistent with an internal view of the block mindscape of  
the universal Turing machine (computer in the mathematical sense).  
(but it makes it definitely inconsistent as reified reality).


Don't infer from that that I would be certain that some plants don't  
love music, as I am too much ignorant for that. But their behavior is  
amazing, notably on larger scale.





Hmmm, isn't that a symptom of what you and Liz claim Trolls do?
:-)


Only a troll can add a smiley to an insult, I think.

I mean that you know that we are *seriously* asking ourself if you are  
not a troll.


In this list we are open minded and basically agnostic, we don't a  
priori assume god, matter, universe, numbers, or whatever, and then  
try theories by making clear the assumptions.


I will comment your posts only if I got them. And without them I will  
eventually put you in the spam list, if you insist on the boring  
insulting strategy.


I think you convince no one on this list.
You loose.
Come back when better prepared.
Just give us a link with your assumptions, and mode of reasoning.
Stop insulting us.


Bruno





Edgar

On Tuesday, March 4, 2014 4:05:04 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 04 Mar 2014, at 03:11, Kim Jones wrote:



On 4 Mar 2014, at 9:48 am, LizR liz...@gmail.com wrote:

Without listening to that (since I'm at work) I am under the  
impression that Carmina Burana is, at the beginning at least, 4  
beats to the bar, not 3?




Maybe I missed the point. I am not musical (except that I like  
listening to music).



You would have to be halfway musical to even pick up on that!  
Indeed O Fortuna (the first song of Orff's Carmina Burana) is  
cast in 3 beats to the bar at the opening, certainly when it gets  
fully under way...


I just checked it on the full orchestral score. This is interesting  
because the threeness of this huge opening is not explicit, which  
is what I was saying earlier. Beat in music is simple arithmatic,  
yet even with such simple resources as ordinal numbers associating  
with each other (somehow!) to produce these qualia that gives me an  
aesthetic impression of circularity is already incredibly advanced  
and difficult to describe. Tis the magic of the numbers.


Music IS numbers, but the qualia it induces in my consciousness are  
something else. If I understand that part of comp correctly.


The qualia are not numbers, indeed. No 1p notion at all can be a 3p  
notion, like numbers are. But a qualia can be associated to some 1p  
notions, which arise in some of the self-referential machine's  
talk,  when distinguishing the proofs and the truth available by  
that machine, and taking into account many intensional combinations.


By the way, did you know that some plant loves music. There is even  
a dancing plant, which seems to dance on classical melody, but not  
on noise or on too rocky music.


If interested here is a video on plant's mind:

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NeX6ST7rexslist=WL20F101EB06378011

Bruno





K








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Re: Alien Hand/Limb Syndrome

2014-03-04 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Tuesday, March 4, 2014 3:27:58 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 03 Mar 2014, at 21:17, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Monday, March 3, 2014 1:16:49 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 02 Mar 2014, at 17:42, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Sunday, March 2, 2014 3:50:07 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 01 Mar 2014, at 12:24, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Saturday, March 1, 2014 1:52:12 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 28 Feb 2014, at 03:22, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Thursday, February 27, 2014 8:03:15 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 On 28 February 2014 03:02, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:


 In other words, why, in a functionalist/materialist world would we 
 need a breakable program to keep telling us that our hand is not Alien?

 Or contrariwise, why do you need a breakable programme to tell you 
 that it's your hand?


 Sure, that too. It doesn't make sense functionally. What difference 
 does it make 'who' the hand 'belongs' to, as long as it performs as a hand.
  

 Maybe it isn't always obvious that it's my hand... I believe the brain 
 has an internal model of the body. I guess without one it wouldn't find 
 it 
 so easy to control it? A body's quite complicated, after all...


 Why should the model include its own non-functional presence though?



 Because the model, the machine is not just confronted with its own 
 self-representation, but also with truth, as far as we are. Put 
 differently, because the machine can't conflate []p and []p  p. Only God 
 can do that.


 I don't see why self-representation would or could go beyond a simple 
 inventory of functions.


 []p is self representation only.
 But []p  p is not. We can prove that the machine cannot associate 
 anything 3p-describable for []p  p. It is not a representation, but a 
 (meta) link between representation and truth.


 Why don't we see such a (meta) link in our own languages? 


 Because we duplicate too slowly, unlike amoeba, which have not the 
 cognitive abilities to exploit this.
 This entails that in natural language we use the same indexical term I 
 for both the 3-I and the 1-I. We say I lost a tooth (3-I) , and I feel 
 pain in my mouth (1-I). Only teleportation and duplication, or deep 
 reflexion on belief and knowledge,  makes clear the difference. It appears 
 clearly in Theaetetus, and in other fundamental texts.


 When we say I lost a tooth what we mean is In my experience it seems 
 like I lost a tooth. It is still 1-I. We may wake up and find that 
 experience was a dream, in which case we say I didn't lose a tooth but 
 mean In my experience it seems like my previous experience of losing a 
 tooth was a dream,


 Funny but irrelevant. Like Clark can always avoid a question on the 
 1-views, by jumping out of his body and adding a 3  (passing from some 
 1-1-1 view to a 3-1-1-1 view for example), you can always add a 1 on any 
 view, like you do here. But in the argument we were assuming the 3p view at 
 the start.


I'm not adding a 1 view, I'm giving a literal description of the 
phenomenon. There is no expectation of 3p unless that expectation is 
provided by the 1p. We were not assuming the 3p view at the start though, 
since I think that the 3p view is only realized as a (Bp-x/Bp)(x/Bp+x/Bp), 
never as a stand-alone perspective.





 Instead of seeing it in terms of Bp  p, I see it as something like Bp  
 Bp^e (where e is Euler's number). 


 ???


Yes. My view is that there is no p other than as a representation within 
some Bp. Truth is a measure of the length of the trail of experiences 
leading back closer and closer to the capacity for sense itself. Short 
trails present the truth of superficial, disconnected sensations. Long 
trails present profoundly unifying states of consciousness.




 There is no p, only a tendency toward stability across nested histories of 
 experience as the accumulate. 


 If there is no p, there is no truth, and we waste our time when doing 
 research. 


No, there is truth, but it is not a separate perfect thing, it's more like 
the mass of experience. Truth is a measure of how much sense is made of 
what makes sense already.
 

 I begin to think I waste my time trying to get you back to research 
 instead of your hopelessly negative and destructive quasi-racist personal 
 reification.


I can see your research as hopelessly naive and potentially destructive as 
well, as to me, it conflates the personal with a reified impersonal and 
presents a quasi-racist arithmetic supremacy. I wouldn't hold that against 
you though. You could still be right, I just happen to think that my view 
makes more sense in defining the basic points. 

Craig


 Bruno




 Craig


 Bruno


 PS for reason of scheduling, I will comment only paragraph that I 
 understand.
 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/




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Re: The situation at Fukushima appears to be deteriorating

2014-03-04 Thread John Clark
On Mon, Mar 3, 2014 at 7:42 PM, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:

 What if the sad choice is saving the environment or human beings?


At least to some degree that is indeed the choice. There are over 7 billion
people on the planet, never before in the history of the Earth has a large
animal (over 50 pounds) of the same species been that numerous or even come
close to it. To keep all of those people alive other animals are going to
suffer, to keep them not only alive but happy and prosperous its inevitable
that other species will suffer even more. Environmentalists seem to expect
everybody to live as Thoreau did at Walden Pond, but the Earth is not big
enough for 7 billion people to remain alive, much less be prosperous, that
way. Those 7 billion people need energy to live and environmentalists want
nearly all existing energy sources shut down yesterday and they can offer
nothing to replace them.

And even Thoreau, the poster boy for the back to nature crowd, only lived
at Walden Pond for 2 years 2 months and 2 days, after that he had enough
and went back to energy hungry civilization. I don't blame him.

  John K Clark

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Re: If it's all math, then where does math come from?

2014-03-04 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Tuesday, March 4, 2014 1:05:57 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 Edgar,

 In this list we are open minded and basically agnostic, we don't a priori 
 assume god, matter, universe, numbers, or whatever, and then try theories 
 by making clear the assumptions. 


The a priori assumption is that you can have a sensible strategy to deflate 
your assumptions by making a priori explicit sense of them. In all cases, 
the first implicit assumption is sense itself. Sense of arithmetic, sense 
of machines, sense of sense, sense of self...all of that comes later.

Craig

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Re: Block Universes

2014-03-04 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Tue, Mar 4, 2014 at 12:19 PM, Jesse Mazer laserma...@gmail.com wrote:

 So you are just going to COMPLETELY IGNORE my response, which pointed out
 that your supposed error relied on using the ambiguous phrase B's and
 C's proper ages are simultaneous in p-time because they are at the same
 place in spacetime to describe my views, and interpreting it in a way that
 I would never had agreed with? Again, this phrase could be interpreted two
 possible ways:

 1. If B's proper age at this point in spacetime in T, then C's proper age
 at this point in spacetime must be T as well (i.e. their proper ages are
 simultaneous in the sense that they must reach the same age
 simultaneously).

 2. If B and C's worldlines both pass through a specific point in spacetime
 P, and B's age is T1 when she passes through P, while C's age is T2 when
 she passes through P, then B must be at age T1 simultaneously with C being
 at age T2 (i.e. whatever two specific ages they have at P, they must reach
 those two ages simultaneously, even if the two ages are different)



Minor typo in #1 there, it should read If B's proper age at this point in
spacetime is T, not in T.

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Re: Block Universes

2014-03-04 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

You ask me to choose between 1. and 2.

1. If B's proper age at this point in spacetime is T, then C's proper age 
at this point in spacetime must be T as well (i.e. their proper ages are 
simultaneous in the sense that they must reach the same age 
simultaneously).

2. If B and C's worldlines both pass through a specific point in spacetime 
P, and B's age is T1 when she passes through P, while C's age is T2 when 
she passes through P, then B must be at age T1 simultaneously with C being 
at age T2 (i.e. whatever two specific ages they have at P, they must reach 
those two ages simultaneously, even if the two ages are different)


First I assume that by passing through the same point in spacetime you 
mean that the worldlines cross at P simultaneously by the operational 
definition of no light delay.

1. is true only in a SYMMETRIC case. In the symmetric case they would have 
the same ages as they pass through the same point P, but in that case they 
have the same ages during the WHOLE trip so no big surprise.

2. is true in all cases. The actual ages T1 and T2 at which they 
simultaneously cross will stand in a 1:1 correlation, but ONLY AT THAT 
POINT P because their ages could be different due to acceleration 
differences either before or after.

There are two equivalent ways they can confirm their actual 1:1 age 
correlations in both (all cases) when they cross paths.

First they can directly observe this 1:1 correlation by simply looking at 
each other's clocks as they pass. Normally this is not possible if two 
observers have relative motion with respect to each other, but in this case 
there is no time delay and the looking only takes a SINGLE MOMENT OF TIME, 
so even though the time RATES of each other's proper clocks are dilated in 
each other's frames, each can still actually read the correct proper time 
on the other's clock as they cross.

(One might initially think it is impossible to read each others' clocks 
correctly due to the dilation of relative motion, or even if they passed 
with different accelerations, but this is not true in the case where they 
read as they cross. Each proper clock is ALWAYS reading the actual proper 
age. The apparent dilation effect is just due to the longer interval it 
takes for signals from that clock to reach the observer. But the signals 
received always display the real and actual proper age of the clock WHEN 
the signals were sent. So in the crossing case where there is only a single 
signal with NO time delay the clock reading received = the actual clock 
reading when the signal was sent.

Note that this analysis points out that all proper clocks continually show 
the actual proper age of the clock when the signal was sent. So that real 
actual age is REALLY OUT THERE. Your imaginary 1:1 correlation problem just 
doesn't take into proper account the transmission time from the clock to 
the receiver. Just subtract the transmission time and you will get the 
actual 1:1 age correlation between when any proper age signal was sent and 
what proper time it was received.)

Second they CAN CONFIRM the actual age correlation in ALL cases simply by 
exchanging light messages as they cross telling each other their actual 
ages which is an equivalent method. As they cross the light signal has no 
appreciable delay so whatever actual age they report will correlate to the 
actual age the other receives the signal.

In this way crossing observers CAN UNambiguously determine the 1:1 
correlation of their actual ages even if they are in relative motion.

With this understanding your 1. is true of symmetric cases, and 2. is true 
of all cases...

Edgar






On Tuesday, March 4, 2014 12:19:27 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Tue, Mar 4, 2014 at 8:37 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 I'm interested in finding the truth, not in assigning blame.

 The important thing is we both now agree that there IS ALWAYS A 
 CORRELATION OF ACTUAL AGES between any two observers.

 The difference is I think it's an EXACT correlation, and you think that 
 it's ALMOST EXACT except for cases of extreme separation or motion.

 I think we have to analyze the age correlation from a POV that preserves 
 the actual relationship of the accelerations that are the ONLY cause of age 
 rate differences. Whereas you think we have to consider all possible views 
 irrespective of whether they properly preserve the relationship of causes 
 of age rate differences. My method provides an EXACT correlation. Your 
 method provides an ALMOST EXACT correlation in all but extreme cases.


 Also now that I have pointed out the error in your Alice, Bob, Arlene, 
 Bart example do you agree my method does produce consistent, unambiguous 
 and transitive 1:1 correlations of proper ages among all observers?


 So you are just going to COMPLETELY IGNORE my response, which pointed out 
 that your supposed error relied on using the ambiguous phrase B's and 
 C's proper ages are 

Re: The situation at Fukushima appears to be deteriorating

2014-03-04 Thread meekerdb
But there's no rule that there have to be 7 billion people (and going to 9).  Where ever 
the Enlightenment and technology have displaced religion and poverty the birthrate has 
dropped to below replacement.


Brent

On 3/4/2014 10:23 AM, John Clark wrote:

On Mon, Mar 3, 2014 at 7:42 PM, spudboy...@aol.com 
mailto:spudboy...@aol.com wrote:

 What if the sad choice is saving the environment or human beings?


At least to some degree that is indeed the choice. There are over 7 billion people on 
the planet, never before in the history of the Earth has a large animal (over 50 pounds) 
of the same species been that numerous or even come close to it. To keep all of those 
people alive other animals are going to suffer, to keep them not only alive but happy 
and prosperous its inevitable that other species will suffer even more. 
Environmentalists seem to expect everybody to live as Thoreau did at Walden Pond, but 
the Earth is not big enough for 7 billion people to remain alive, much less be 
prosperous, that way. Those 7 billion people need energy to live and environmentalists 
want nearly all existing energy sources shut down yesterday and they can offer nothing 
to replace them.


And even Thoreau, the poster boy for the back to nature crowd, only lived at Walden Pond 
for 2 years 2 months and 2 days, after that he had enough and went back to energy hungry 
civilization. I don't blame him.


  John K Clark




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Re: If it's all math, then where does math come from?

2014-03-04 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Bruno,

I only insult people who insult me first, which you and Liz did earlier 
today and yesterday by referring to me as a Troll. If you insult someone 
you should expect to receive the same.

If you don't I certainly won't. OK?

Edgar

 

On Tuesday, March 4, 2014 1:05:57 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 Edgar,


 On 04 Mar 2014, at 15:02, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Bruno,

 It may be that some plants respond to music or at least to sound but to 
 claim some plants love music is an unwarranted anthropomorphism that 
 demonstrates a rather 'New Agey' mentality.

 Can you link me to any slow motion videos in which plants move IN SYNCH 
 WITH MUSIC? I rather doubt it but I've got an open mind.

 Extreme claims demand a modicum of evidence. Of course there is NO 
 evidence at all for comp so I won't be surprised if you can't come up with 
 any for plants love music.


 About plants loving music, you take my words far too much seriously, and 
 you have already acknowledge that your theory implies comp, so that you 
 should learn its consequences, which makes your point possibly consistent 
 with an internal view of the block mindscape of the universal Turing 
 machine (computer in the mathematical sense). (but it makes it definitely 
 inconsistent as reified reality).

 Don't infer from that that I would be certain that some plants don't love 
 music, as I am too much ignorant for that. But their behavior is amazing, 
 notably on larger scale. 



 Hmmm, isn't that a symptom of what you and Liz claim Trolls do?
 :-)


 Only a troll can add a smiley to an insult, I think. 

 I mean that you know that we are *seriously* asking ourself if you are not 
 a troll.

 In this list we are open minded and basically agnostic, we don't a priori 
 assume god, matter, universe, numbers, or whatever, and then try theories 
 by making clear the assumptions. 

 I will comment your posts only if I got them. And without them I will 
 eventually put you in the spam list, if you insist on the boring insulting 
 strategy.

 I think you convince no one on this list. 
 You loose. 
 Come back when better prepared. 
 Just give us a link with your assumptions, and mode of reasoning. 
 Stop insulting us.


 Bruno




 Edgar

 On Tuesday, March 4, 2014 4:05:04 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 04 Mar 2014, at 03:11, Kim Jones wrote:


 On 4 Mar 2014, at 9:48 am, LizR liz...@gmail.com wrote:

 Without listening to that (since I'm at work) I am under the impression 
 that Carmina Burana is, at the beginning at least, 4 beats to the bar, 
 not 3?



 Maybe I missed the point. I am not musical (except that I like 
 listening to music).



 You would have to be halfway musical to even pick up on that! Indeed “O 
 Fortuna” (the first song of Orff’s “Carmina Burana”) is cast in 3 beats to 
 the bar at the opening, certainly when it gets fully under way... 

 I just checked it on the full orchestral score. This is interesting 
 because the “threeness” of this huge opening is not explicit, which is what 
 I was saying earlier. “Beat” in music is simple arithmatic, yet even with 
 such simple resources as ordinal numbers associating with each other 
 (somehow!) to produce these qualia that gives me an aesthetic impression of 
 circularity is already incredibly advanced and difficult to describe. Tis 
 the magic of the numbers.

 Music IS numbers, but the qualia it induces in my consciousness are 
 something else. If I understand that part of comp correctly. 


 The qualia are not numbers, indeed. No 1p notion at all can be a 3p 
 notion, like numbers are. But a qualia can be associated to some 1p 
 notions, which arise in some of the self-referential machine's talk,  when 
 distinguishing the proofs and the truth available by that machine, and 
 taking into account many intensional combinations.

 By the way, did you know that some plant loves music. There is even a 
 dancing plant, which seems to dance on classical melody, but not on noise 
 or on too rocky music.

 If interested here is a video on plant's mind:

 http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NeX6ST7rexslist=WL20F101EB06378011

 Bruno




 K







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 Kim Jones B.Mus.GDTL

 Email: kimj...@ozemail.com.au
 Mobile:   0450 963 719
 Landline: 02 9389 4239
 Web:   http://www.eportfolio.kmjcommp.com

 Never let your schooling get in the way of your education - Mark Twain



  

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Re: Block Universes

2014-03-04 Thread meekerdb

On 3/4/2014 11:19 AM, Jesse Mazer wrote:


On Tue, Mar 4, 2014 at 2:02 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net 
mailto:edgaro...@att.net wrote:


Jesse,

You ask me to choose between 1. and 2.

1. If B's proper age at this point in spacetime is T, then C's proper age 
at this
point in spacetime must be T as well (i.e. their proper ages are 
simultaneous in
the sense that they must reach the same age simultaneously).

2. If B and C's worldlines both pass through a specific point in spacetime 
P, and
B's age is T1 when she passes through P, while C's age is T2 when she 
passes through
P, then B must be at age T1 simultaneously with C being at age T2 (i.e. 
whatever two
specific ages they have at P, they must reach those two ages 
simultaneously, even if
the two ages are different)


First I assume that by passing through the same point in spacetime you 
mean that
the worldlines cross at P simultaneously by the operational definition of 
no light
delay.

1. is true only in a SYMMETRIC case. In the symmetric case they would have 
the same
ages as they pass through the same point P, but in that case they have the 
same ages
during the WHOLE trip so no big surprise.



This isn't true.  In the inertial frame of a third party passing by, B and C age at 
different rates in different segments of their world lines even though those rates 
integrate to the same total aging between their two meetings.


Brent

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Re: The situation at Fukushima appears to be deteriorating

2014-03-04 Thread spudboy100

according to a study today out in New Scientist, a researcher has estimated 
that OTEC power,even with 3% efficiency, can produce 4000 times our current 
consumption. It may even be affordable. We may have a good way out.


-Original Message-
From: John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Tue, Mar 4, 2014 1:23 pm
Subject: Re: The situation at Fukushima appears to be deteriorating


On Mon, Mar 3, 2014 at 7:42 PM,  spudboy...@aol.com wrote:



 What if the sad choice is saving the environment or human beings? 



At least to some degree that is indeed the choice. There are over 7 billion 
people on the planet, never before in the history of the Earth has a large 
animal (over 50 pounds) of the same species been that numerous or even come 
close to it. To keep all of those people alive other animals are going to 
suffer, to keep them not only alive but happy and prosperous its inevitable 
that other species will suffer even more. Environmentalists seem to expect 
everybody to live as Thoreau did at Walden Pond, but the Earth is not big 
enough for 7 billion people to remain alive, much less be prosperous, that way. 
Those 7 billion people need energy to live and environmentalists want nearly 
all existing energy sources shut down yesterday and they can offer nothing to 
replace them.  
 
And even Thoreau, the poster boy for the back to nature crowd, only lived at 
Walden Pond for 2 years 2 months and 2 days, after that he had enough and went 
back to energy hungry civilization. I don't blame him.


  John K Clark 





 
 



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Re: Block Universes

2014-03-04 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

BTW, in spite of your claim it can't be done, here is another simple way 
for any two observers at rest with respect to each other but separated by 
any arbitrary distance in space to determine their 1:1 age correlation.

If A and B are separated at any distance but at rest with respect to each 
other A sends B a light message telling B what A's current age is, and B 
immediately reflects that light message back to A with B's current age 
reading attached.

Because they are at rest A knows that the actual age difference is A's 
CURRENT age - B's REPORTED age + 1/2 delta c (half the light signal's round 
trip time). In this way A determines a unique 1:1 age correlation between 
his and B's age that will hold for as long as they are at rest. B can use 
the same method to determine his 1:1 age correlation with A. A and B do NOT 
have to synchronize the signals to do this.

This gives both A and B their single correct 1:1 age correlation at any 
distance which holds so long as they are at rest with respect to each 
other. 

Of course other observers may see this differently but IT'S NOT THEIR AGE 
CORRELATION, IT'S ONLY A'S AND B'S AGE CORRELATION and A and B can 
determine exactly what that correlation is. 

Do you agree?

I know you will claim it's not valid since other observers may view it 
differently, but frankly A and B's age correlation is NONE OF THEIR 
BUSINESS!


I'll respond to the rest of your post later when I have more time...

Edgar



On Tuesday, March 4, 2014 2:19:46 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:


 On Tue, Mar 4, 2014 at 2:02 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 You ask me to choose between 1. and 2.

 1. If B's proper age at this point in spacetime is T, then C's proper age 
 at this point in spacetime must be T as well (i.e. their proper ages are 
 simultaneous in the sense that they must reach the same age 
 simultaneously).

 2. If B and C's worldlines both pass through a specific point in spacetime 
 P, and B's age is T1 when she passes through P, while C's age is T2 when 
 she passes through P, then B must be at age T1 simultaneously with C being 
 at age T2 (i.e. whatever two specific ages they have at P, they must reach 
 those two ages simultaneously, even if the two ages are different)


 First I assume that by passing through the same point in spacetime you 
 mean that the worldlines cross at P simultaneously by the operational 
 definition of no light delay.

 1. is true only in a SYMMETRIC case. In the symmetric case they would have 
 the same ages as they pass through the same point P, but in that case they 
 have the same ages during the WHOLE trip so no big surprise.

 2. is true in all cases. The actual ages T1 and T2 at which they 
 simultaneously cross will stand in a 1:1 correlation, but ONLY AT THAT 
 POINT P because their ages could be different due to acceleration 
 differences either before or after.



 Thanks for the clear answer. So now you hopefully see that you must 
 retract your claim that there's an error in my comments about the 
 scenario with the two pairs of twins A/B and C/D, since I never asserted 
 anything remotely resembling #1, my point about ages that occur at the same 
 point in spacetime being simultaneous in p-time referred SOLELY to #2.

 Now, can you please address the follow-up questions that I asked you to 
 address if you did agree with #2? I will requote them below:

 'On the other hand, if you would answer no, statement #2 is not in error, 
 I agree that in this case T1 and T2 are simultaneous in absolute terms, 
 then please have another look at the specific numbers I gave for x(t), 
 coordinate position as a function of coordinate time, and T(t), proper time 
 as a function of coordinate time, for each observer, and then tell me if 
 you agree or disagree with the following two statements:

 For A: x(t) = 25, T(t) = t
 For B: x(t) = 0, T(t) = t
 For C: x(t) = 0.8c * t, T(t) = 0.6*t
 For D: x(t) = [0.8c * t] + 9, T(t) = 0.6*t - 12

 --given the x(t) functions for B and C, we can see that they both pass 
 through the point in spacetime with coordinates x=0, t=0. Given their T(t) 
 functions, we can see that B has a proper time T=0 at those coordinates, 
 and C also has a proper time T=0 at those coordinates. Agree or disagree?

 --given the x(t) functions for A and D, we can see that they both pass 
 through the point in spacetime with coordinates x=25, t=20. Given their 
 T(t) functions, we can see that A has a proper time T=20 at those 
 coordinates, and D has a proper time T=0 at those coordinates. Agree or 
 disagree?'

 (if you don't understand the math of how to use x(t) to determine whether 
 someone passed through a given point in spacetime with known x and t 
 coordinates, or how to determine their proper time T at this point, then 
 just ask and I will elaborate)

  


 There are two equivalent ways they can confirm their actual 1:1 age 
 correlations in both (all cases) when they cross paths.

 

Re: Block Universes

2014-03-04 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Tue, Mar 4, 2014 at 4:04 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 BTW, in spite of your claim it can't be done, here is another simple way
 for any two observers at rest with respect to each other but separated by
 any arbitrary distance in space to determine their 1:1 age correlation.

 If A and B are separated at any distance but at rest with respect to each
 other A sends B a light message telling B what A's current age is, and B
 immediately reflects that light message back to A with B's current age
 reading attached.

 Because they are at rest A knows that the actual age difference is A's
 CURRENT age - B's REPORTED age + 1/2 delta c (half the light signal's round
 trip time). In this way A determines a unique 1:1 age correlation between
 his and B's age that will hold for as long as they are at rest. B can use
 the same method to determine his 1:1 age correlation with A. A and B do NOT
 have to synchronize the signals to do this.


This is a valid method for determining what ages are simultaneous in the
inertial frame where they are both at rest. But there is no basis in
relativity for judging this frame's views on simultaneity to be any more
valid than another frame's.



 This gives both A and B their single correct 1:1 age correlation at any
 distance which holds so long as they are at rest with respect to each
 other.


Again, you present no argument for why this is the single correct
correlation, you just assert it.




 Of course other observers may see this differently but IT'S NOT THEIR AGE
 CORRELATION, IT'S ONLY A'S AND B'S AGE CORRELATION and A and B can
 determine exactly what that correlation is.

 Do you agree?



No. You already agreed in an earlier post that for an inertial observer to
label the frame where they are at rest as their own frame is purely a
matter of HUMAN CONVENTION, not an objective reality that is forced on them
by nature. So even if we ignore these other observers, there is nothing
stopping A and B from using a different convention to define their own
frame, such as the inertial frame where they both have a velocity of 0.99c
along the x-axis.




 I know you will claim it's not valid since other observers may view it
 differently, but frankly A and B's age correlation is NONE OF THEIR
 BUSINESS!


Again, you are conflating observers with frames, even though you earlier
acknowledged that any link between particular observers and particular
frames is just a matter of convention.





 I'll respond to the rest of your post later when I have more time...


OK, thanks. Please prioritize my latest post discussing the scenario with
A/B and C/D and statement #1 vs. statement #2, since it seems that your
original argument for an error in my analysis was based on falsely
imagining I was asserting statement #1 rather than statement #2. Since the
analysis really only depends on #2 which you seem to agree with, I would
like to proceed with the analysis of this scenario to see if you can find
any other reason to object  to any other step in the reasoning--if you
can't, then presumably you will have no basis for denying the final
conclusion that two different ages of the same observer A would have to be
simultaneous in p-time, according to your own rules.

Jesse



 On Tuesday, March 4, 2014 2:19:46 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:


 On Tue, Mar 4, 2014 at 2:02 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 You ask me to choose between 1. and 2.

 1. If B's proper age at this point in spacetime is T, then C's proper age
 at this point in spacetime must be T as well (i.e. their proper ages are
 simultaneous in the sense that they must reach the same age
 simultaneously).

 2. If B and C's worldlines both pass through a specific point in
 spacetime P, and B's age is T1 when she passes through P, while C's age is
 T2 when she passes through P, then B must be at age T1 simultaneously with
 C being at age T2 (i.e. whatever two specific ages they have at P, they
 must reach those two ages simultaneously, even if the two ages are
 different)


 First I assume that by passing through the same point in spacetime you
 mean that the worldlines cross at P simultaneously by the operational
 definition of no light delay.

 1. is true only in a SYMMETRIC case. In the symmetric case they would
 have the same ages as they pass through the same point P, but in that case
 they have the same ages during the WHOLE trip so no big surprise.

 2. is true in all cases. The actual ages T1 and T2 at which they
 simultaneously cross will stand in a 1:1 correlation, but ONLY AT THAT
 POINT P because their ages could be different due to acceleration
 differences either before or after.



 Thanks for the clear answer. So now you hopefully see that you must
 retract your claim that there's an error in my comments about the
 scenario with the two pairs of twins A/B and C/D, since I never asserted
 anything remotely resembling #1, my point about ages that occur at the same
 point in spacetime being 

Re: Block Universes

2014-03-04 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Brent,

First thanks for your comment. 

I think Jesse and I are both aware of that, but we are considering the age 
relationship JUST BETWEEN A and B and so must consider only how they see it 
in their OWN frames, not the view of a 3rd observer of that relationship. 
Though Jesse would probably disagree.

The current discussion is about choice of frames though. Check my latest 
post for a synopsis of one case..

Edgar



On Tuesday, March 4, 2014 2:56:49 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote:

  On 3/4/2014 11:19 AM, Jesse Mazer wrote:
  
  
 On Tue, Mar 4, 2014 at 2:02 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse, 

  You ask me to choose between 1. and 2.

  1. If B's proper age at this point in spacetime is T, then C's proper 
 age at this point in spacetime must be T as well (i.e. their proper ages 
 are simultaneous in the sense that they must reach the same age 
 simultaneously).

  2. If B and C's worldlines both pass through a specific point in 
 spacetime P, and B's age is T1 when she passes through P, while C's age is 
 T2 when she passes through P, then B must be at age T1 simultaneously with 
 C being at age T2 (i.e. whatever two specific ages they have at P, they 
 must reach those two ages simultaneously, even if the two ages are 
 different)

  
  First I assume that by passing through the same point in spacetime 
 you mean that the worldlines cross at P simultaneously by the operational 
 definition of no light delay.

  1. is true only in a SYMMETRIC case. In the symmetric case they would 
 have the same ages as they pass through the same point P, but in that case 
 they have the same ages during the WHOLE trip so no big surprise.
  
   
 This isn't true.  In the inertial frame of a third party passing by, B and 
 C age at different rates in different segments of their world lines even 
 though those rates integrate to the same total aging between their two 
 meetings.

 Brent

  

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Re: Block Universes

2014-03-04 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

Good, we agree it's a valid method for determining 1:1 age correlations in 
a common inertial frame in which they are both at rest. I claim that frame 
is the correct one to determine the actual age correlation because it 
expresses the actual relation in a manner both A and B agree, is transitive 
among all observers, AND is the exact same method that gives the correct 
answer WHEN A AND B MEET and everyone, even you, agrees on the 1:1 age 
correlation.

Our disagreement over choice of frames is spinning its wheels and not 
getting anywhere. It's a matter of how to INTERPRET relativity, rather than 
relativity itself. And I have given very convincing reasons why a 
privileged frame that preserves the actual physical facts that affect age 
changes is appropriate. You just don't agree with them.

As to your example claiming to prove my method leads to a contradiction, 
just give me the bottom line, a simple synopsis. I don't have the time to 
wade through a detailed example only to find the only disagreement is over 
choice of frames again.

On the other hand if you ASSUME privileged frames the way I do and think my 
method of using them leads to a contradiction that isn't just another 
disagreement over choice of frames that were assumed, then give me a simple 
example, the simplest you can come up with.

Edgar


On Tuesday, March 4, 2014 4:37:32 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Tue, Mar 4, 2014 at 4:04 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 BTW, in spite of your claim it can't be done, here is another simple way 
 for any two observers at rest with respect to each other but separated by 
 any arbitrary distance in space to determine their 1:1 age correlation.

 If A and B are separated at any distance but at rest with respect to each 
 other A sends B a light message telling B what A's current age is, and B 
 immediately reflects that light message back to A with B's current age 
 reading attached.

 Because they are at rest A knows that the actual age difference is A's 
 CURRENT age - B's REPORTED age + 1/2 delta c (half the light signal's round 
 trip time). In this way A determines a unique 1:1 age correlation between 
 his and B's age that will hold for as long as they are at rest. B can use 
 the same method to determine his 1:1 age correlation with A. A and B do NOT 
 have to synchronize the signals to do this.


 This is a valid method for determining what ages are simultaneous in the 
 inertial frame where they are both at rest. But there is no basis in 
 relativity for judging this frame's views on simultaneity to be any more 
 valid than another frame's.
  


 This gives both A and B their single correct 1:1 age correlation at any 
 distance which holds so long as they are at rest with respect to each 
 other. 


 Again, you present no argument for why this is the single correct 
 correlation, you just assert it.

  


 Of course other observers may see this differently but IT'S NOT THEIR AGE 
 CORRELATION, IT'S ONLY A'S AND B'S AGE CORRELATION and A and B can 
 determine exactly what that correlation is. 

 Do you agree?



 No. You already agreed in an earlier post that for an inertial observer to 
 label the frame where they are at rest as their own frame is purely a 
 matter of HUMAN CONVENTION, not an objective reality that is forced on them 
 by nature. So even if we ignore these other observers, there is nothing 
 stopping A and B from using a different convention to define their own 
 frame, such as the inertial frame where they both have a velocity of 0.99c 
 along the x-axis.

  


 I know you will claim it's not valid since other observers may view it 
 differently, but frankly A and B's age correlation is NONE OF THEIR 
 BUSINESS!


 Again, you are conflating observers with frames, even though you earlier 
 acknowledged that any link between particular observers and particular 
 frames is just a matter of convention.

  



 I'll respond to the rest of your post later when I have more time...


 OK, thanks. Please prioritize my latest post discussing the scenario with 
 A/B and C/D and statement #1 vs. statement #2, since it seems that your 
 original argument for an error in my analysis was based on falsely 
 imagining I was asserting statement #1 rather than statement #2. Since the 
 analysis really only depends on #2 which you seem to agree with, I would 
 like to proceed with the analysis of this scenario to see if you can find 
 any other reason to object  to any other step in the reasoning--if you 
 can't, then presumably you will have no basis for denying the final 
 conclusion that two different ages of the same observer A would have to be 
 simultaneous in p-time, according to your own rules.

 Jesse



 On Tuesday, March 4, 2014 2:19:46 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:


 On Tue, Mar 4, 2014 at 2:02 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 You ask me to choose between 1. and 2.

 1. If B's proper age at this point in spacetime is T, then 

Re: Block Universes

2014-03-04 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Tue, Mar 4, 2014 at 4:57 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 Good, we agree it's a valid method for determining 1:1 age correlations in
 a common inertial frame in which they are both at rest. I claim that frame
 is the correct one to determine the actual age correlation because it
 expresses the actual relation in a manner both A and B agree


You are avoiding my question of whether identifying this frame with A and
B's view or perspective is just a matter of convention as you
previously seemed to agree, or whether it is tied to them in some more
fundamental way. If it's just a matter of convention, then A and B could
equally well agree to define any other frame as their own view of the
situation.




 is transitive among all observers, AND is the exact same method that gives
 the correct answer WHEN A AND B MEET and everyone, even you, agrees on the
 1:1 age correlation.

 Our disagreement over choice of frames is spinning its wheels and not
 getting anywhere. It's a matter of how to INTERPRET relativity, rather than
 relativity itself. And I have given very convincing reasons why a
 privileged frame that preserves the actual physical facts that affect age
 changes is appropriate. You just don't agree with them.


But you refuse to answer my very simple questions about your reasons,
like my question about whether you ASSUME FROM THE START that a particular
definition of simultaneity (the one you prefer) is the actual reality, or
whether you claim to have convincing reasons for this definition of
simultaneity representing reality that don't simply assume it from the
start.




 As to your example claiming to prove my method leads to a contradiction,
 just give me the bottom line, a simple synopsis. I don't have the time to
 wade through a detailed example only to find the only disagreement is over
 choice of frames again.


I promise you the example has nothing to do with any frames other than the
ones in which each pair is at rest. Again, the only assumptions about
p-time that I make in deriving the contradiction are:

ASSUMPTION 1. If two observers are at rest in the same inertial frame, then
events on their worldlines that are simultaneous in their rest frame are
also simultaneous in p-time

ASSUMPTION 2. If two observers cross paths at a single point in spacetime
P, and observer #1's proper time at P is T1 while observer #2's proper time
at P is T2, then the event of observer #1's clock showing T1 is
simultaneous in p-time with the event of observer #2's clock showing T2.

ASSUMPTION 3. p-time simultaneity is transitive

That's it! I make no other assumptions about p-time simultaneity. But if
you want to actually see how the contradiction is derived, there's really
no shortcut besides looking at the math. If you are willing to do that, can
we just start with the last 2 questions I asked about the scenario? Here's
what I asked again, with a few cosmetic modifications:

Please have another look at the specific numbers I gave for x(t),
coordinate position as a function of coordinate time, and T(t), proper time
as a function of coordinate time, for each observer (expressed using the
inertial frame where A and B are at rest, and C and D are moving at 0.8c),
and then tell me if you agree or disagree with the following two statements:

For A: x(t) = 25, T(t) = t
For B: x(t) = 0, T(t) = t
For C: x(t) = 0.8c * t, T(t) = 0.6*t
For D: x(t) = [0.8c * t] + 9, T(t) = 0.6*t - 12

--given the x(t) functions for B and C, we can see that they both pass
through the point in spacetime with coordinates x=0, t=0. Given their T(t)
functions, we can see that B has a proper time T=0 at those coordinates,
and C also has a proper time T=0 at those coordinates. Therefore, by
ASSUMPTION 1 above, the event of B's proper time clock reading T=0 is
simultaneous in p-time with the event of C's proper time clock reading T=0.
Agree or disagree?

--given the x(t) functions for A and D, we can see that they both pass
through the point in spacetime with coordinates x=25, t=20. Given their
T(t) functions, we can see that A has a proper time T=20 at those
coordinates, and D has a proper time T=0 at those coordinates. Therefore,
by ASSUMPTION 1 above, the event of A's proper time clock reading T=20 is
simultaneous in p-time with the event of D's proper time clock reading T=0.
Agree or disagree?

(if you don't understand the math of how to use x(t) to determine whether
someone passed through a given point in spacetime with known x and t
coordinates, or how to determine their proper time T at this point, then
just ask and I will elaborate)

If you agree with both of these, then I will proceed to the next few
agree/disagree statements that follow from the three assumptions, and if
you agree with them all you'll have no way to avoid the contradiction.





 On the other hand if you ASSUME privileged frames the way I do and think
 my method of using them leads to a contradiction that isn't just another
 disagreement over 

Re: [foar] Amoeba's Secret, by Bruno Marchal available from Kindle store

2014-03-04 Thread LizR
On 5 March 2014 06:29, Telmo Menezes te...@telmomenezes.com wrote:

 Great news! I've got mine already on my trusty ebook reader. Let's
 displace Paul McCartney


 http://www.amazon.com/Amoebas-Secret-Paul-Mccartney/dp/B001OD6HRW/ref=sr_1_1?ie=UTF8qid=1393954155sr=8-1keywords=the+secret+of+the+amoeba

 Wow! Great minds really do think alike.

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Re: [foar] Amoeba's Secret, by Bruno Marchal available from Kindle store

2014-03-04 Thread spudboy100


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Re: [foar] Amoeba's Secret, by Bruno Marchal available from Kindle store

2014-03-04 Thread spudboy100


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Re: MODAL Last exercise

2014-03-04 Thread LizR
On 5 March 2014 04:18, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 Good.

 To prove that P - Q, you can prove that P  ~Q leads to a contradiction,
 or you can prove that ~Q leads to ~P.

 But it helps a lot if you start from what you want to prove, up to the
 conclusion, so that not only you prove it, but you know exactly what you
 discovered. In this case a necessary link, in Kripke semantics, between a
 binary relation (reflexivity) and a modal formula []A-A.


I had to get my head around ... well, everything ... again. So I may have
sneaked up on the result.


 You learned that the fact that (W, R) respects []A - A is equivalent with
 the fact that R is reflexive.

 OK?

 OK.

So, the next question was

A Kripke multiverse (W, R) is said transitive if R is transitive. That is

 alpha R beta, and beta R gamma entails alpha R gamma, for all alpha beta
 and gamma in W.

 Show that

 (W, R) respects []A - [][]A if and only R is transitive,


Damn. This looks too complicated for me to fake it!

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Re: The situation at Fukushima appears to be deteriorating

2014-03-04 Thread LizR
On 5 March 2014 09:56, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:

 according to a study today out in New Scientist, a researcher has
 estimated that OTEC power,even with 3% efficiency, can produce 4000 times
 our current consumption. It may even be affordable. We may have a good way
 out.

 What's OTEC? Oops silly me, Il'l look it up.OK. It's solar, via the
oceans. Nice.

The trouble is, New Scientist solves the world's problems regularly, as
well as discovering the secret of life the universe and everything and a
cure for cancer every other week. I bet most of their gosh wow stories
never get off the drawing board. I hope this one does.

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Re: If it's all math, then where does math come from?

2014-03-04 Thread LizR
On 5 March 2014 08:14, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Bruno,

 I only insult people who insult me first, which you and Liz did earlier
 today and yesterday by referring to me as a Troll. If you insult someone
 you should expect to receive the same.


It wasn't an insult, merely an observation based on how you have behaved.

But in any case you have failed to understand what Bruno was saying; he
meant stop insulting our intelligence by throwing out vague ideas with no
intellectual substance.


 If you don't I certainly won't. OK?

 That has yet to be proved. So far, you have thrown around plenty of
insults without provocation. Both the normal type and the sort Bruno was
referring to.

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Re: Block Universes

2014-03-04 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Tue, Mar 4, 2014 at 5:45 PM, Jesse Mazer laserma...@gmail.com wrote:



 I promise you the example has nothing to do with any frames other than the
 ones in which each pair is at rest. Again, the only assumptions about
 p-time that I make in deriving the contradiction are:

 ASSUMPTION 1. If two observers are at rest in the same inertial frame,
 then events on their worldlines that are simultaneous in their rest frame
 are also simultaneous in p-time

 ASSUMPTION 2. If two observers cross paths at a single point in spacetime
 P, and observer #1's proper time at P is T1 while observer #2's proper time
 at P is T2, then the event of observer #1's clock showing T1 is
 simultaneous in p-time with the event of observer #2's clock showing T2.

 ASSUMPTION 3. p-time simultaneity is transitive

 That's it! I make no other assumptions about p-time simultaneity. But if
 you want to actually see how the contradiction is derived, there's really
 no shortcut besides looking at the math. If you are willing to do that, can
 we just start with the last 2 questions I asked about the scenario? Here's
 what I asked again, with a few cosmetic modifications:

 Please have another look at the specific numbers I gave for x(t),
 coordinate position as a function of coordinate time, and T(t), proper time
 as a function of coordinate time, for each observer (expressed using the
 inertial frame where A and B are at rest, and C and D are moving at 0.8c),
 and then tell me if you agree or disagree with the following two statements:

 For A: x(t) = 25, T(t) = t
 For B: x(t) = 0, T(t) = t
 For C: x(t) = 0.8c * t, T(t) = 0.6*t
 For D: x(t) = [0.8c * t] + 9, T(t) = 0.6*t - 12

 --given the x(t) functions for B and C, we can see that they both pass
 through the point in spacetime with coordinates x=0, t=0. Given their T(t)
 functions, we can see that B has a proper time T=0 at those coordinates,
 and C also has a proper time T=0 at those coordinates. Therefore, by
 ASSUMPTION 1 above, the event of B's proper time clock reading T=0 is
 simultaneous in p-time with the event of C's proper time clock reading T=0.
 Agree or disagree?

 --given the x(t) functions for A and D, we can see that they both pass
 through the point in spacetime with coordinates x=25, t=20. Given their
 T(t) functions, we can see that A has a proper time T=20 at those
 coordinates, and D has a proper time T=0 at those coordinates. Therefore,
 by ASSUMPTION 1 above, the event of A's proper time clock reading T=20 is
 simultaneous in p-time with the event of D's proper time clock reading T=0.
 Agree or disagree?


Another little correction--in the last two paragraphs there, where I said
Therefore, by ASSUMPTION 1 above, I should have written ASSUMPTION 2,
since in both cases I was deriving p-time simultaneity from the fact that
two clock readings happened at the same point in spacetime.

Jesse

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RE: The situation at Fukushima appears to be deteriorating

2014-03-04 Thread Chris de Morsella
 

 

From: everything-list@googlegroups.com
[mailto:everything-list@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of LizR
Sent: Tuesday, March 04, 2014 4:40 PM
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: The situation at Fukushima appears to be deteriorating

 

On 5 March 2014 09:56, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:

according to a study today out in New Scientist, a researcher has estimated
that OTEC power,even with 3% efficiency, can produce 4000 times our current
consumption. It may even be affordable. We may have a good way out.

 

What's OTEC? Oops silly me, Il'l look it up.OK. It's solar, via the
oceans. Nice.

I've looked at OTEC in the past, as you said it is essentially harvesting
stored solar energy stored in the warm surface layer above the thermocline.
There are however some formidable engineering issues dealing with salt
corrosion, oceanic storms and such.  They tried to build one - a ship based
unit -- decades ago; I believe corrosion and other such problems were too
costly. One place they are using OTEC is Hawaii - maybe the only place that
I know of. There is an installation (or at least was operating a few years
back) where they were pumping up the deep cold water onto an on land
installation. They were able to use this quite cold water for
air-conditioning  concurrent production of some fresh water - the cooled
air loses a lot of its water vapor as dew. I am not sure that this unit was
producing electric energy as much as off-loading the air-conditioners load
that would have otherwise been sucking electricity down from the grid. do
perhaps indirectly in the form of negawatts (e.g. negative watts)

The biggest energy source we have available in fact is energy efficiency. In
the US buildings consume the lion's share of total energy consumed, far more
than the transportation sector for example. By just doing wide spread
insulation retrofits, putting in double and triple pane glass, and by using
energy efficient lighting - I have seen estimates that almost half the
energy currently used could instead be saved (reserves would then last
longer giving us more time to figure out an answer).

This is by far the most significant thing we can do; this is the low hanging
fruit. It is not sexy and is low tech for the most part, but it is by far
the most effective action our society can take at this juncture, given the
very poor energy efficiency base line of our nations built structures.

Chris

The trouble is, New Scientist solves the world's problems regularly, as well
as discovering the secret of life the universe and everything and a cure for
cancer every other week. I bet most of their gosh wow stories never get off
the drawing board. I hope this one does.
 

 

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Re: Alien Hand/Limb Syndrome

2014-03-04 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 04 Mar 2014, at 19:14, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Tuesday, March 4, 2014 3:27:58 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 03 Mar 2014, at 21:17, Craig Weinberg wrote:





Why don't we see such a (meta) link in our own languages?


Because we duplicate too slowly, unlike amoeba, which have not the  
cognitive abilities to exploit this.
This entails that in natural language we use the same indexical  
term I for both the 3-I and the 1-I. We say I lost a tooth (3- 
I) , and I feel pain in my mouth (1-I). Only teleportation and  
duplication, or deep reflexion on belief and knowledge,  makes  
clear the difference. It appears clearly in Theaetetus, and in  
other fundamental texts.


When we say I lost a tooth what we mean is In my experience it  
seems like I lost a tooth. It is still 1-I. We may wake up and  
find that experience was a dream, in which case we say I didn't  
lose a tooth but mean In my experience it seems like my previous  
experience of losing a tooth was a dream,


Funny but irrelevant. Like Clark can always avoid a question on the  
1-views, by jumping out of his body and adding a 3  (passing from  
some 1-1-1 view to a 3-1-1-1 view for example), you can always add a  
1 on any view, like you do here. But in the argument we were  
assuming the 3p view at the start.


I'm not adding a 1 view, I'm giving a literal description of the  
phenomenon. There is no expectation of 3p unless that expectation is  
provided by the 1p.



that is what I meant by adding the 1-p view.




We were not assuming the 3p view at the start though,


That is why your position is akin to solipsism.




since I think that the 3p view is only realized as a (Bp-x/Bp)(x/Bp 
+x/Bp), never as a stand-alone perspective.


So what does stand alone?










Instead of seeing it in terms of Bp  p, I see it as something like  
Bp  Bp^e (where e is Euler's number).


???

Yes. My view is that there is no p other than as a representation  
within some Bp.


That is a form of solipsism.



Truth is a measure of the length of the trail of experiences leading  
back closer and closer to the capacity for sense itself. Short  
trails present the truth of superficial, disconnected sensations.  
Long trails present profoundly unifying states of consciousness.


To do science, we have to bet on something on which we can agree, and  
which is supposed to be independent on us.


Keep in mind that I have no problem with your theory, especially that  
it is consistent with the machine's 1-view. I have a problem only with  
you using your theory to refute computationalism. It is non valid, if  
only because your theory is, basically, equivalent to the machine's 1- 
view.










There is no p, only a tendency toward stability across nested  
histories of experience as the accumulate.


If there is no p, there is no truth, and we waste our time when  
doing research.


No, there is truth, but it is not a separate perfect thing, it's  
more like the mass of experience. Truth is a measure of how much  
sense is made of what makes sense already.


This is a solipsistic vision of truth. You really talk like the  
machines universal soul (S4Grz).






I begin to think I waste my time trying to get you back to research  
instead of your hopelessly negative and destructive quasi-racist  
personal reification.


I can see your research as hopelessly naive and potentially  
destructive as well, as to me, it conflates the personal with a  
reified impersonal and presents a quasi-racist arithmetic supremacy.  
I wouldn't hold that against you though. You could still be right, I  
just happen to think that my view makes more sense in defining the  
basic points.


I have yet to see a theory. You assume sense, you assume some  
physicalness (at least your refer to it a lot without explaining what  
is when you assume only sense), so you assume what I estimate (and  
argue) that we have to explain.


You are not trying to make a scientific theory. You just seem to  
defend a personal opinion, which is negative on a class of entities,  
without us ever being able to get a reason why, except your opinion.



Edgar,

In this list we are open minded and basically agnostic, we don't a  
priori assume god, matter, universe, numbers, or whatever, and then  
try theories by making clear the assumptions.



The a priori assumption is that you can have a sensible strategy to  
deflate your assumptions by making a priori explicit sense of them.


That is accepted at the meta-level for *any* scientific theory. You do  
the same with the term sense.  The difference is that many people  
actually agree on the assumptions, in the case of comp, and they are  
clear enough to learn from them.




In all cases, the first implicit assumption is sense itself. Sense  
of arithmetic, sense of machines, sense of sense, sense of  
self...all of that comes later.



Sense is not an assumption. That does not make sense. If you complain  
about toothache to your dentist, 

Max and FPI

2014-03-04 Thread meekerdb

Here's Max! http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=PC0zHIf2Gkw

Brent

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Re: If it's all math, then where does math come from?

2014-03-04 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 04 Mar 2014, at 20:14, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


I only insult people who insult me first,


No. You have insulted many people a long time before they react to the  
insult. You arrive in a list, and you don't seem to have follow any  
previous thread. people suggested you to read the UDA, which makes  
your statement incompatible with computationalism, but it remains  
unclear if your statements fit or not with computationalism, as you  
don't define the term computation that you are using.




which you and Liz did earlier today and yesterday by referring to me  
as a Troll.


That was not an insult, but a question related to your way to insult  
people, and of never addressing their question, except by mocking them  
with an insulting tone.





If you insult someone you should expect to receive the same.

If you don't I certainly won't. OK?


Tell us your assumption clearly. Tell us what you mean by  
computational, and this without invoking some reality, as  
computation, like most usable concept, is defined independently of any  
ontology, except for some infinite set of finitely specifiable objects  
(like strings, numbers, combinators, programs, ...).


A computation is what a computer do. You said that reality computes.  
Are you saying that reality is a computer? Is it a mathematical  
computer, or is it implemented in some physical reality. If it is  
mathematical, can you tell us what you assume in math. You said  
information, but that term was not defined, and is typically used in  
many senses.


I don't see any theory up to now. If you can clarify, it is up to you  
to provide the clarification.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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