Michael D: Dave H, I know you must be busy, but I would be interested in knowing your answer to the question below, i.e. Jesus' statement seems to defy any claim of the exalted man-god theory being true. What say you?
Dave <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
michael douglas wrote:
DAVEH: No Michael, I don't see it that way at all. Nor do I understand why you see it that way. Paul wrote this AFTER Jesus had become exalted. Furthermore, to quote vs 3....... Hold your horses there Dave H. , Forget hebrews for a second. When Jesus said as you quoted sabove ...he who has seen Me has seen the Father..., He was not yet exalted, can we agree on that? I think it is very plain... Now, you use this verse to say That the Father is an exalted man, and it is obvioius that that can never be what is alluded to in that verse, so that theory breaks down. It's not the exalted man proposition!!! Again, at best it's a non-exalted man....to follow your thinking.DAVEH: I did. Furthermore, there are several Biblical comments that infer his Father is an exalted man......Can you address the above for me...".......he that hath seen me hath seen the Father;......" Jn 14:9 Where in this verse does it say that The Father is an exalted man?
.......and......
"Who being the brightness of his glory, and the EXPRESS IMAGE OF HIS PERSON, and ......." Heb 1:3
The only thing that these verses can suggest in this regard is that God is a man, and that a non-exalted one, for these verses refer to Jesus in His pre/non-exalted state. He was only exalted after He ascended on high. Therefore if we are to make this kind of association this LDS theory breaks completely down... Can you see that?
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