On 5/29/2012 11:04 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:
On 5/29/2012 11:52 PM, meekerdb wrote:
On 5/29/2012 8:11 PM, Aleksandr Lokshin wrote:
The original poster introduces what free will means.
1) Every choice which is allowed in physics is a random choice or a determinate 
2) If human free will choice exists, it is agreed that it is not determined by some law and is not a random process. 3)We have agfeed that the choice of "an arbitrary element" is not a random chaice and is not a choice determinate by some law.

We haven't even agreed that it is a choice. It's just using a function, as in (. is an element of X) so (x is an element of X)->true and (y is an element of X)->false. (all x |x an element of X) doesn't involve choosing an element x, just specifying a function that defines X. Then it is a "choice determinate by some law." And whether X is infinite or finite is a red herring. Suppose I said,"Consider an arbitrary person with no feet. Then he has no toenails." This is a perfectly valid inference whether there are finitely many or infinitely many persons in the multiverse.



You are assuming that there is no difference between an known and an unknown quantity. A big mistake!

Can you quote where I have made this assumption?


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