On Tue, Jan 7, 2014 at 12:03 PM, John Clark <johnkcl...@gmail.com> wrote:
> On Tue, Jan 7, 2014 at 11:53 AM, Jason Resch <jasonre...@gmail.com> wrote:
> > Read Bell's paper and you will see it is rife with QM language:
> I never said Bell didn't know Quantum Mechanics, I said Bell's inequality
> can be derived without making the slightest use of it, and in fact I did so
> on this very list.
> John K Clark
You can prove it without quantum mechanics, but the proof does have some
implicit commonsense assumptions which might be violated in various
interpretations of QM. For example, the proof assumes that choice by each
experimenter of what property to measure is sufficiently "random" that the
emitter of the things to be measured (particles or whatever) can't know in
advance what they will choose--this might be violated if you assumed some
idea of information traveling back in time (although it seems to me that
allowing information to travel both backward and forward in time is
equivalent to a violation of locality in relativity, since information
could travel backward and forward on a zigzag path between two events with
a spacelike separation). The proof also assumes that each measurement
yields a single definite result--if you instead assume that on measurement
each experimenter splits into multiple parallel versions that get different
results (as in the many-worlds interpretation), and the universe doesn't
have to decide which copy of experimenter #1 gets matched to which copy of
experimenter #2 until there's been time for a classical signal to pass from
one to the other, then you can have experimental results that consistently
violate Bell's inequality without violating locality.
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