On 8 February 2014 07:48, Bruno Marchal <[email protected]> wrote:

>
> On 06 Feb 2014, at 21:43, LizR wrote:
>
> Because Turing universality is a mathematical notion.
>>
>> It has nothing to do with physics.
>>
>> I must admit I was quite surprised by this. I thought you generally argue
> that physics can be extracted from comp, and TU is part of comp (isn't it?)
>
> Ys, but that is why it is meaningfull to say that we derive physics from
> zero physical assumption.
>
>  We derive physics from TU, which is defined in pure arithmetic, and has
> indeed no relation at all with physics *in his definition*. It involves
> only 0, successor, and the * and + laws, nothing else.
>
> Of course arithmetic and TU has something to do with physics, *at some
> level*, assuming comp, and well, in the psychology or theology of the TUs,
> which is itself derived from arithmetical self-reference.
>
> But this means that physics has some plausible relation with the UT. The
> UT itself, at his definition level, is a purely arithmetical notion.
>
> OK?
>

Yes, of course. I was getting the cart before the horse, as they say. TU
has nothing to do with physics but physics may have something to do with TU.

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