On Friday, February 7, 2014 7:33:28 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:
>
> On 8 February 2014 07:48, Bruno Marchal <[email protected] <javascript:>>wrote:
>
>>
>> On 06 Feb 2014, at 21:43, LizR wrote:
>>
>> Because Turing universality is a mathematical notion. 
>>>
>>> It has nothing to do with physics.
>>>
>>> I must admit I was quite surprised by this. I thought you generally 
>> argue that physics can be extracted from comp, and TU is part of comp 
>> (isn't it?)
>>
>> Ys, but that is why it is meaningfull to say that we derive physics from 
>> zero physical assumption.
>>
>>  We derive physics from TU, which is defined in pure arithmetic, and has 
>> indeed no relation at all with physics *in his definition*. It involves 
>> only 0, successor, and the * and + laws, nothing else.
>>
>> Of course arithmetic and TU has something to do with physics, *at some 
>> level*, assuming comp, and well, in the psychology or theology of the TUs, 
>> which is itself derived from arithmetical self-reference.
>>
>> But this means that physics has some plausible relation with the UT. The 
>> UT itself, at his definition level, is a purely arithmetical notion.
>>
>> OK?
>>
>
> Yes, of course. I was getting the cart before the horse, as they say. TU 
> has nothing to do with physics but physics may have something to do with TU.
>

How do you know it has nothing to do with physics? It seems clear to me 
that the behaviors of integers, memory, etc. are rooted in familiarity with 
a particular macroscopic physics. Building a Turing machine only out of 
emotions or fog or empty space is not possible.

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