Hi Bruno

>> ou cannot say something like this. It is unscientific in the extreme. You 
>> must say at which step rigor is lacking. 

I think you're missing the fact that I was poking fun at a comment you made to 
Liz. Don't worry about it.

>> You make vague negative proposition containing precise error in elementary 
>> statistics.


It wouldn't be at all unusual for me to make mistakes in sums, but that 'error 
in elementary statistics' is not seen as one by prof's at Oxford, which gives 
me great confidence that Im on to something and that the error is yours .


>> Then you omit, like Clark, the simple and obvious fact that if in H you 
>> predict P(M) = 1, then the guy in Moscow will understand that the prediction 
>> was wrong. 

The question you pose to H in step 3 is badly formed. You ask H, 'what is the 
probability that you will see M' but this question clearly presupposes the idea 
that there will be only one unique successor of H. The only question that is 
really fitting in the experimental set up is: "what is the probability that 
either of your two successors sees M". Or, if you want to keep the questions 
phrased entirely in 1p then the correct question is: "what is the probability 
that (you in M will see M) and (you in W will see W)?" And the answer to that 
*is* simple and obvious. It is 1.

It seems to me this is at the crux of your argument with Clark. The question 
you phrase in fact implies that only one successor will embody your sense of 
self, your 'I'ness. 'What is the probability that you will see x': there is no 
recognition of duplication in the question, and so pronouns become altogether 
confusing and all participants begin to wonder who in fact is who.

>> ike Clark, you confine yourself in the 3-1 views, without ever listening to 
>> what the duplicated persons say.

Not at all. Its just that when you ask the right question it doesn't make any 
difference whether you look at it from the objective or subjective view. The 
probabilities work out the same either way.

And in fact, you can only 'listen to what the duplicated persons say' by 
adopting some kind of 3p view in my opinion. H has to fly out of his body into 
a birds eye view of the process, swoop down on both W and M guys, dream their 
1p views, fly back and integrate their answers into his own sums. Whats that? 
1-3-1-3-1-3-1p? If we're going to be serious about 3-1 confusions then thats a 
hugely contorted confusion of the lot. 

>> So if you have a refutation of the point made, you have still to provide it.

On the contrary, the refutation is there and you haven't yet understood it, 
less still rebutted it.

All the best

Chris.

From: chris_peck...@hotmail.com
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: RE: Tegmark and UDA step 3
Date: Thu, 6 Mar 2014 23:33:15 +0000




Hi Bruno

>>Refuting means to the satisfaction of everyone.

pfft! let me put it this way. There are a bunch of perspectives on subjective 
uncertainty available. Yours and Greave's to mention just two. They are 
mutually incompatible and neither of them has been refuted to the 'satisfaction 
of everyone'; consequently whether something has or hasn't been doesn't tells 
us much. Refuting something to the 'satisfaction of everyone' is 
extraordinarily rare in the scientific and philosophical community; less still 
the wider community. Has Astrology been refuted to the satisfaction of 
everyone? 

You're also aware, im sure, that even Darwin's theory, strictly speaking, has 
been refuted. That the theory of inheritance he employed was in conflict with 
his wider principles of selection. His theory was internally incoherent and he 
never spotted it. What does that tell us? That theories have extraordinary 
value even when they ought to have been 'refuted to the satisfaction of 
everyone'.

This is a good and bad thing. Even if I hadn't refuted your theory to my own 
satisfaction, it wouldn't lead me to accept it. On the other hand, just because 
a theory has been (or ought to have been) refuted by everyone wouldn't lead me 
to reject it entirely either. It means I can have refuted your conclusions in 
step 3 to my own satisfaction, and still be interested in comp. Hurray! Surely 
that will make you happy?

Have you ever read Putnam's 'on the corroboration of theories'? It was pivotal 
in my extremely stunted intellectual growth. In it he discusses the 
impossibility of ever refuting any theory. You're talking to someone who hasn't 
placed any currency in refutation for over twenty years.

All the best

Chris.

From: marc...@ulb.ac.be
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: Tegmark and UDA step 3
Date: Thu, 6 Mar 2014 19:32:32 +0100


On 06 Mar 2014, at 16:40, Gabriel Bodeen wrote:On Thursday, March 6, 2014 
1:52:56 AM UTC-6, Bruno Marchal wrote:
On 05 Mar 2014, at 18:45, Gabriel Bodeen wrote:
Brent was right but the explanation could use some examples to show you what's 
happening.  The strangeness that you noticed occurs because you're looking at 
cases where the proportion is *exactly* 50%.  

binopdf(2,4,0.5)=0.375
binopdf(3,6,0.5)=0.3125
binopdf(4,8,0.5)=0.2374
binopdf(8,16,0.5)=0.1964
binopdf(1000,2000,0.5)=0.0178
binopdf(1e6,2e6,0.5)=0.0006

Instead let's look at cases which are in some range close to 50%.

binocdf(5,8,0.5)-binocdf(3,8,0.5)=0.4922
binocdf(10,16,0.5)-binocdf(6,16,0.5)=0.6677
binocdf(520,1000,0.5)-binocdf(480,1000,0.5)=0.7939
binocdf(1001000,2e6,0.5)-binocdf(999000,2e6,0.5)=0.8427
binocdf(1000050000,2e9,0.5)-binocdf(999950000,2e9,0.5)=0.9747

Basically, as you flip a coin more and more times, you get a growing number of 
distinct proportions of heads and tails that can come up, so any exact 
proportion becomes less likely.  But at the same time, as you flip the coin 
more and more times, the distribution of proportions starts to cluster more and 
more tightly around the expected value.  So for tests when you do two million 
flips of a fair coin, only about 0.06% of the tests come up exactly 50% heads 
and 50% tails, but 84.27% of the tests come up between 49.95% and 50.05%.


Good. So you agree with step 3? What about step 4? (*). I am interested to know.
the FPI is just the elementary statistics of the "bernouilly épreuve" (in 
french statistics), and that is pretty obvious when you grasp the definitions 
given of 1p and 3p.
Bruno
(*) http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/publications/SANE2004MARCHALAbstract.html

Did you mean to address me, or did you mean to address Chris? 

I don't object to any step in UDA.  It seems internally consistent and 
plausible to me.  I'm unsure what level of confidence I would assign to it 
being actually true, although my gut feeling is in the vicinity of 25%.  
A reasoning is 100% valid, or invalid. Do you mean that the truth of the 
premise, comp, is in the vicinity of 25%. making perhaps its neoplatonist 
consequences in the vicinity of 25% ?
I will make a confession: for me comp only oscillates between the false and the 
unbelievable.


I have much formal logic to learn before I have any meaningful opinion about 
AUDA.

OK. Fair enough to say. I often come back to zero, so you might enjoy a ride 
eventually :)
Bruno


-Gabe
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