On 22 Jul 2015, at 03:18, John Clark wrote:
On Tue, Jul 21, 2015 chris peck <chris_peck...@hotmail.com> wrote:
> Obviously. if I could experience M and W simultaneously they
would not be exclusive by definition .
I agree that it all depends on definitions, in this case the
definition of "I". If the definition of "I" is "somebody who
remembers being John Clark in Helsinki before the duplication" then
it's obvious how many cities "I" will see. Bruno wants "I" to see
only one city but the only way to do that is to change the meaning
of "I".
Not at all. "I" is and remains the guy who remember Helsinki. Both
copies verifies that definition, and both can see only once city after
the duplication. So P(W v M) = 1, and P(W & M) = 0; once you
distinguish the 1-I and the 3-I related to that same I. You agree that
the guy is in both city, but you forget to interview them about their
experience. If you do, both "I", after the duplication, confirms that
(W & M) was pure nonsense.
> I argued that in worlds with duplication machines I can
expect my future to involve numerous mutually exclusive perspectives.
Exactly.
Nonsense. Nobody will ever experience exclusive experiences in the
setting described. They can believe intellectually in those exclusive
experience, but not experience them (unless telepathy or other non
computationalist magic).
> There is 1 person and then that person in each city.
Correct again.
So no person can experience the exclusive alternative.
Sometimes the language in dealing with this sort of thing can sound
a bit awkward, but English was not made to be used in a world with
people duplicating machines; once these devices become common
personal pronouns are going to need major revisions.
The 1p/ 3p distinction is the "major revision". When we are
duplicated, it is rather obvious that this distinction transforms an
"and" into an exclusive "or". The guy could say: I will be in W and M,
but I will feel to be in W, or in M, as I will never *experience*, no
matter what, to be in "W and M".
Bruno
John K Clark
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