On Mon, Jun 25, 2018 at 09:56:46AM -0700, Brent Meeker wrote: > > I'm not using magic. I'm asking for help. Does anyone else understand how > physics is "explained by the inability of the universal machine to see the > equivalence between between []p <->([]p & p) and ([]p & <>p) and ([]p & <>p > & p) with p (p sigma-1)."
I would guess that the idea is that there are different logics applicable to different types of knowledge, and these are enumerated by his 8 hypostases. He presumes that one of these corresponds to observations, and consequently is a logic of empirical knowledge. That this is so, seems vaguely plausible, built as it were on the ideas of Theatetus. That it exhaustively captures all of empirical science is decidedly less plausible IMHO, but there you go. Cheers -- ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- Dr Russell Standish Phone 0425 253119 (mobile) Principal, High Performance Coders Visiting Senior Research Fellow [email protected] Economics, Kingston University http://www.hpcoders.com.au ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Everything List" group. To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to [email protected]. To post to this group, send email to [email protected]. Visit this group at https://groups.google.com/group/everything-list. For more options, visit https://groups.google.com/d/optout.
