On Saturday, October 26, 2019 at 8:33:13 PM UTC-6, Alan Grayson wrote:
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> On Saturday, October 26, 2019 at 8:09:57 PM UTC-6, Alan Grayson wrote:
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>> On Saturday, October 26, 2019 at 7:09:19 PM UTC-6, Alan Grayson wrote:
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>>> On Saturday, October 26, 2019 at 5:57:57 PM UTC-6, Philip Thrift wrote:
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>>>> On Saturday, October 26, 2019 at 4:19:06 PM UTC-5, Alan Grayson wrote:
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>>>>> On Saturday, October 26, 2019 at 3:15:21 PM UTC-6, Philip Thrift wrote:
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>>>>>> On Saturday, October 26, 2019 at 4:09:08 PM UTC-5, Alan Grayson wrote:
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>>>>>>> On Saturday, October 26, 2019 at 3:03:20 PM UTC-6, Philip Thrift 
>>>>>>> wrote:
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>>>>>>>> On Saturday, October 26, 2019 at 3:42:58 PM UTC-5, Alan Grayson 
>>>>>>>> wrote:
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>>>>>>>>> Why not make your point with waves so at least it's intelligible? 
>>>>>>>>> You can get the same results in the Heisenberg Picture, but to 
>>>>>>>>> understand 
>>>>>>>>> "interference" you need to at least start with waves. AG 
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> But that premise (*to understand "interference" you need to at 
>>>>>>>> least start with waves*) is simply wrong, and perhaps is the root 
>>>>>>>> of your misunderstanding.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> @philipthrift 
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> No, it's just a convenient, intuitive starting pont. That's all. I 
>>>>>>> conclude you can't do it. Thanks for the effort. AG 
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> I conclude you will never understand any answer to your question: 
>>>>>> "what does *interference* mean".
>>>>>>
>>>>>> @philipthrift
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> You could start with S's equation and use waves in your explanation, 
>>>>> and then generalize it. But the fact that you refuse to do so, and 
>>>>> instead 
>>>>> rely on other interpretations, such as Heisenberg's, suggests you don't 
>>>>> understand "interference". AG 
>>>>>
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>>>> *You could start with S's equation and use waves in your explanation, 
>>>> and then generalize it.*
>>>>
>>>> OK. When you find an explanation in these terms, let us know.
>>>>
>>>> @philipthrift
>>>>
>>>
>>> I don't have one. That's why I asked. One can show that Heisenberg's 
>>> Picture, which doesn't use waves, gives the same results as Schroedinger's 
>>> Picture, which uses waves, but that's no explanation of "interference". AG 
>>>
>>
>> Maybe this will work as a definition of "interference". Imagine an 
>> electron impinges on a screen in a double slit experiment, and at a 
>> particular location on the screen, called "the Event", through either of 
>> two slits. Suppose it has a probability amplitude of phi1 through slit1. 
>> Now imagine another electron, at a later time, impinging on a screen with 
>> probability amplitude of phi2 for the same event, but through slit2. If 
>> phi1 and phi2 represent different amplitudes or paths for the same Event, 
>> we must imagine the waves "interfering" even though they are not 
>> simultaneous, and the probability of that event with two possible paths, is 
>> the absolute value squared of the sum of phi1 and phi2.  AG 
>>
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> Or maybe it's easier to think of two simultaneous waves on different 
> paths, having the same outcome, with the probability as stated above. One 
> can imagine "interference" changing the probability outcome if only one 
> path is considered. AG
>

My point above is to show that interference can't be defined by simply the 
existence of probabilities of outcomes, which is what Phil was doing. One 
needs interacting waves, and in the case of QM the calculation of the 
probability is different than classically, which is just the sum of the 
probability of each path, properly normalized. QM does suggest a particle 
can be in several paths simultaneously, but we don't have a concept to 
understand how that can be. AG  

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