Il y a quelques années , j'ai publié cette courte note qui fait un point
précis sur cette question.

https://www.academia.edu/61335079/Note_on_Signs_Types_and_Tokens

Regards,
Robert Marty


Honorary Professor ; PhD Mathematics ; PhD Philosophy
fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Robert_Marty
*https://martyrobert.academia.edu/ <https://martyrobert.academia.edu/>*



Le ven. 7 nov. 2025 à 02:10, Jon Alan Schmidt <[email protected]> a
écrit :

> Gary R., List:
>
> I changed the subject line to reflect the narrower focus of this
> discussion.
>
> I agree with you and those other scholars that even a "first-time" sign
> token is an instance of a sign type because its (definitely significant)
> *form *is capable of repetition in subsequent sign tokens, and the same
> is true of natural signs. In fact, anything that we can describe using
> words, which as sign tokens are *always *instances of sign types, must
> likewise be either a general itself or an instantiation of a general. Only
> an* entirely unique* sign token would *not *be an instance of a sign
> type--something brute, unrepeatable, and indescribable; pure 2ns, with no
> 3ns whatsoever, which of course is impossible for anything involved in
> semiosis.
>
> In a communicational context, there can be a disconnect between the
> intention of the utterer, which pertains to the object of the sign, and the
> understanding of the interpreter, which pertains to its interpretant. Put
> simply, the utterer can be *unsuccessful *in conveying his/her intention
> in the sign's *immediate *interpretant, resulting in an unexpected *dynamical
> *interpretant; everyone has experienced this. In your example, the sender
> wanted to utter an instance of the sign whose type in English is "hide,"
> but the receiver interpreted it as an instance of the sign whose type in
> English is "run." Did the receiver misinterpret, or did the sender misspeak
> (using his/her hands)?
>
> Who can say, since there was no pre-established *definition* of that
> particular gesture, corresponding to its immediate interpretant? Although
> like every sign token, it was an instance of a sign type, that type had not
> yet been associated by *both *parties with any sign *in itself*, such
> that it was capable of being translated into "hide," "run," or some other
> English word. The sender presumably *thought* something equivalent to
> "hide," which he/she translated into a certain hand signal; but when the
> interpreter saw it, he/she instead *thought *something equivalent to
> "run."
>
> I do not know how to answer your concluding question, "how wide should we
> consider 'type' and 'law' to be in Peirce's semiotic?" What does "wide"
> mean in this context? By contrast, what would "narrow" mean?
>
> Regards,
>
> Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
> Structural Engineer, Synechist Philosopher, Lutheran Christian
> www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt / twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt
>
> On Wed, Nov 5, 2025 at 8:14 PM Gary Richmond <[email protected]>
> wrote:
>
>> Jon, List,
>>
>> Is it possible that any of these -- a unique (first time) hand signal, or
>> a lightning flash, or a hiccup -- is an example of a token that is not an
>> instance of a type?
>>
>> Some Peirce scholars, including Joe Ransdell (but also Short, Liszka, and
>> Parker), wondered about 'first-time' or 'natural' signs that at "first
>> blush" (as Joe would say) look type-less. But, as I recall, these scholars,
>> each and all, concluded that such (e.g., 'natural signs') function under
>> *some* generality: a natural law, a habit, or an 'interpretive
>> generalization', even if that interpretation were formed on the spot (and
>> even, say, if that first time unique hand signal were misinterpreted to
>> mean 'run' when the signaler meant 'hide'.)
>>
>> So my own answer to the question would be that there really isn't a
>> sign-token that isn’t, in some way, an instance of a type.
>>
>> But then another question arises: how wide should we consider 'type' and
>> 'law' to be in Peirce's semiotic?
>>
>> Best,
>>
>> Gary R
>>
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