On Jul 3, 2011, at 4:46 PM, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:

On 7/3/2011 8:56 AM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Sun, Jul 3, 2011 at 2:35 AM, selva kumar <selvakr1...@gmail.com> wrote:


On Sun, Jul 3, 2011 at 12:59 PM, Jason Resch <jasonre...@gmail.com> wrote:


On Fri, Jul 1, 2011 at 6:23 AM, selva kumar <selvakr1...@gmail.com> wrote:
Is consciousness causally effective ?


If it is not causally effective, then you must explain what caused the word "consciousness" to enter our lexicon and what caused the field of pihlosophy of mind, and all the various books on the subject of consciousness. The dirty secret of epiphenominalism (the theory that consciousness is casually inert) is that if it were a true theory, the theory of epiphenominalism would be entirely private and unsharable. The fact that a theory was generated and shared to explain consciousness proves consciousness has effects. Even the fact that we are discussing it now in this thread can be taken as evidence of its causal effects.

Jason

Then by your definition..Consciousness is our ability to think ?


No, my point is that if you are thinking about consciousness, then what else could it have been but consciousness that caused you to think about it?

That would be the material cause in Aristotles sense. But material causes don't form causal chains.

Brent


If consciousness is causually inert then history would be the same even if it were abolished throughout the universe.

To me it seems absurd that we would be endlessly debating some nonexistent thing which none of us has ever experienced, yet that is exactly the conclusion that comes from assuming consciousness has no effects.

Jason



If consciousness had no effects, then we would not think about it, talk about it, or write e-mails about it.

Jason
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