On 2/7/2013 3:15 PM, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:
On Thu, Feb 7, 2013 at 10:53 PM, meekerdb <[email protected]
<mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
On 2/7/2013 12:01 PM, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:
“A secular purpose” is a nice ruse, because it is “theology-free”,
right?
Yes it is. It's not dependent on any ultimate foundation of the universe
(per
Bruno's definition of 'theology') or even any agreement about what that
might be.
It only depends on the public subjective non-religious values of society as
expressed in their laws. That's what 'secular' means.
By what mechanism does a value become "non-religious"? How did "marriage" become secular
for instance?
Can you define non-religious values?
I can where religions are certified by the state.
Brent
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