On 28 Dec 2013, at 18:32, John Clark wrote:
On Fri, Dec 27, 2013 at 10:12 AM, Bruno Marchal <marc...@ulb.ac.be>
wrote
>> How many unique 1-views from 1-view are there on planet Earth
right now?
Bruno Marchal's answer: Bruno Marchal refuses to answer.
> I answered this two times already. The answer is 1.
At last ....
No, I just quoted myself there. It was my previous answer.
... a straight answer, the answer is 1. So there is only one unique
1-view from the 1-view on planet Earth right now;
In the 1-view, yes.
in the 3-view, no. There are 7 billions (assuming a mono-universe, to
simplified).
that is to say if a one to one correspondence was attempted between
the infinite set of UNIQUE integers and the set of all the UNIQUE 1-
views from the 1-view on planet Earth right now only ONE such
pairing can be made.
From each 1-view. That's right.
So the set of all UNIQUE one views of the one view has only 1
element in it. Well who is this "one", who is he, what's his name?
I'd love to meet him (or her), can you introduce me?
Look in a mirror. You know better your 1-view than anything else. I
don't need to present it!
> infinitely many 1-views are all unique from their 1-view.
Yet another straight answer, this time the answer is infinity;
unfortunately it's a very different answer to the exact same
question. So is the answer 1 or infinity or your previous answer of
7 billion?
It is 1 from the personal point of view.
It is 7 billions, in the 3-view of those 1-view.
That explains the 1-indeterminacy, but in a misleading way, as it
seems to use the ASSA, where comp needs the RSSA. The probability
makes sense only in term of relative self-duplication, and here we
might think we give sense to "what is the probablity that I am myself
among all humans", which does not make sense, or at least not in the
non controversial way when self-duplication is taken into account.
> OK?
No, that is very far from OK.
?
> So what about step 7?
I don't see why anybody should read step 7 of your "proof" when it
has already been demonstrated that you throw around terms like "the
1-view from the 1-view" that you can't put a number to.
I did it often. You have to read the posts.
If you can't put a number to it you have no clear understanding of it.
I have, so please, proceed, or explain what is wrong. You seem annoyed
by the fact that I provides always two answer (1 and รจ billions), but
that is just because I make clear the need to distinguish the 1p from
the 3p views, as the indeterminacy bears on the 1p views. If there is
no indeterminacy, provide the prediction algorithm, and show me that
it will convince everyone, which includes all possible self-copies.
Only then you can say that step 3 is refuted.
Bruno
http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
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