On 23 January 2014 02:22, Stephen Paul King <[email protected]>wrote:

> Dear LizR,
> On Wed, Jan 22, 2014 at 4:40 AM, LizR <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>> On 22 January 2014 17:35, Stephen Paul King 
>> <[email protected]>wrote:
>>
>>> Dear LizR,
>>>
>>>   Yes, there are many ontological assumptions. Could you list a few that
>>> seem obvious to you? It is not easy to cut and paste from a pdf. Can you
>>> open it in the Chrome browser?
>>>
>>>    In this ontology, all of the known math ideas still work, and those
>>> that become known as discovered. The key is that they do not exist as
>>> independent entities that are some how separable from the observer.
>>>
>>
>> Well, there you have an assumption right there! (Did I mention
>> Pythagoras? A million schoolchildren know that his theorem is "separable
>> from the observer" because they had to be taught it.)
>>
>
> Yes, it is an assumption. Are those schoolchildren observers? Do they
> comprehend in some small way what a^2+b^2=c^2 represents? The point is that
> a representation of a thing is not the thing unless it IS the thing. Is a
> number merely a pattern of chalk on the blackboard? What about a different
> pattern of dots on a piece of paper, could it represent the same referent?
>

Yes, it could.


>    Separability is a tricky and subtle concept...
>

Not from that example, that seems crystal clear! :-)

>
>>
>>> Representations require presentations, they must be rendered by a
>>> physical process to be perceived, understood, known, described, etc.
>>>
>>
>> I this is considered in some way significant, I assume there is some
>> confusion between the representation with the thing being represented.
>>
>
> What is the relation between the two? My proposition is that there is a
> relation between the category of Representations and the category of things
> being represented (or "objects"). This relation is an isomorphism but not
> always bijective.
>
>>
>>
>>>     Knowledge is not considered to be some thing that is projected into
>>> our minds by some mysterious process (see the allegory of the Cave).
>>>
>>
>> This sounds like a straw man. Who has claimed such a thing? (apart from
>> the afoirementioned schoolchildren, who would, I am sure, think knowledge
>> was indeed being "projected into their minds by a mysterious process" !)
>>
>
> Do you have a theory of knowledge that you use? Would this one be OK?
> http://www.marxists.org/reference/subject/philosophy/works/en/russell1.htm
>
> Russell does not really answer the question... I am trying to wade through
> the ambiguity and point out that what ever the means that knowledge comes
> to pass there is both a physical process and a logical (mental?) process
> and these are not one and the same process.
>

I would say the physical process instantiates the logical one.

>
>> I'm afraid I am generally suspicious of people whose main aim is to show
>> that some other (often imaginary) view is wrong, rather than to attempt to
>> demonstrate why their view is likely to be correct.
>>
>
> I agree. I am trying exactly not to do that...
>

Good. We've had an example of that on this very forum recently, so I may be
a bit predisposed to react against such... (or maybe doing the same thing
myself, in a meta sort of way)

>
>>
>>> It is the action of the brain to implement a mind that allows knowledge
>>> to come into being.
>>>
>>
>> So we assume, certainly. That doesn't stop us being able to hypothesise
>> that there are things "out there", though, and arguably with a certain
>> degree of success.
>>
>>
>>>   A related way of thinking is found here in a paper by Zurek on
>>> decoherence:
>>>
>>
>> I'll have a look at that, but I don't have time for reading endless
>> papers so a precis is always appreciated!
>>
>>>
>>> http://cds.cern.ch/record/640029/files/0308163.pdf
>>>
>>
> My takeaway of the paper is that it argues for a Wheelerian
> "participatory" universe concept. A plurality of observers and the
> interactions amongst them constrain the content of observation. I see this
> as a defining the process that creates realities; realities are not defined
> by a priori fiat.
>

Well this is certainly *possible*. I mean, no logical contradiction springs
to mind. But one needs (as with comp) to start with a theory of what an
observer is, I imagine...

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