Edwina, List: ET: Are the Platonic worlds BEFORE or AFTER the so-called Big Bang?
I guess that depends how one understands the Big Bang. You take it to be the beginning of *everything*; before the Big Bang, there was *nothing*. The real question is, what would *Peirce *have taken it to be? I think that the much more likely answer is when "this Universe of Actual Existence" emerged from "the whole universe of true and real possibilities" as "a discontinuous mark--like a line figure drawn on the area of the blackboard" (NEM 4:345, RLT 162). So the Platonic worlds must have been *before *the Big Bang, because they come *before *the existence of our *particular *universe, and all of them but one have *no connection* with the latter whatsoever. ET: But after, there were multiple 'chalk marks' - but only ONE set began to take habits and became dominant, while the others dissipated. Where do you find this in CP 6.203-208? Where in that passage does it say that only *one *set of chalk marks began to take habits? On the contrary, it states quite plainly, "Many such reacting systems may spring up," and that we are "to conceive that there are many" Platonic worlds. Where does it say that one of these "became dominant" over the others? Where does it suggest that *any *merged aggregation of chalk marks, having developed the habit of persistence, would have--or even could have--"dissipated"? This is not a legitimate *reading *of the text, it is the imposition of a predetermined conceptual framework on it. ET: I don't think that this dispute can be 'settled' because we do read the texts differently ... We should not block the way of inquiry by assuming that, just because we read the texts differently, there is no correct (or incorrect) way to read the texts. ET: ... but I do think that we on the list should be aware that there are different views on this issue Do you really think that anyone on the List is *not *aware of this by now? Regards, Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA Professional Engineer, Amateur Philosopher, Lutheran Layman www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt - twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt On Fri, Nov 4, 2016 at 6:26 PM, Edwina Taborsky <tabor...@primus.ca> wrote: > Gary R, Helmut: > > The question is: Are the Platonic worlds BEFORE or AFTER the so-called Big > Bang? I read them as AFTER while Gary R and Jon S read them as BEFORE. In > my reading, before the BigBang, there was Nothing, not even Platonic > worlds. But after, there were multiple 'chalk marks' - but only ONE set > began to take habits and became dominant, while the others dissipated. > > I don't think that this dispute can be 'settled' because we do read the > texts differently, but I do think that we on the list should be aware that > there are different views on this issue. > > Edwina >
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