On 11/3/2012 7:06 AM, Stephen P. King wrote:
On 11/3/2012 6:08 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
No, that cannot be the case since statements do not even exist if the framework or
theory that defines them does not exist, therefore there is not 'truth' for a
Brent already debunked this. The truth of a statement does not need the existence of
the statement. You confuse again the truth of 1+1=2, with a possible claim of that
truth, like "1+1=2".
Horsefeathers <http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/horsefeathers>! How is the
truth of an arithmetic statement separable from any claim of that truth? What is the
possible value of a statement that we can make no claims about?
You are causing confusion by asking how the truth of a statement is separable from any
claim of that truth. But claims and statements are the same thing - so of course they are
not seperable. Bruno is saying that the claim/statement is NOT the same as the fact that
makes it true. "1+1=2" is a claim; it's the claim that 1+1=2. And that's a true claim;
it's true that 1+1=2 whether you claim it or not.
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