No.

2014-05-18 18:47 GMT+02:00, Telmo Menezes <[email protected]>:
> On Fri, May 16, 2014 at 9:12 PM, Bruno Marchal <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>>
>> On 16 May 2014, at 16:52, Telmo Menezes wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> On Thu, May 15, 2014 at 8:05 PM, Bruno Marchal <[email protected]> wrote:
>>
>>>
>>> On 15 May 2014, at 14:12, Telmo Menezes wrote:
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> On Wed, May 14, 2014 at 8:31 PM, Bruno Marchal <[email protected]>
>>> wrote:
>>>
>>>>
>>>> On 14 May 2014, at 09:36, Telmo Menezes wrote:
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> On Tue, May 13, 2014 at 10:29 AM, Bruno Marchal
>>>> <[email protected]>wrote:
>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> On 12 May 2014, at 16:12, Telmo Menezes wrote:
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> On Sun, May 11, 2014 at 9:46 AM, Bruno Marchal
>>>>> <[email protected]>wrote:
>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> On 10 May 2014, at 12:12, Telmo Menezes wrote:
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> On Sat, May 10, 2014 at 8:30 AM, LizR <[email protected]> wrote:
>>>>>>
>>>>>>> On 10 May 2014 17:30, Stathis Papaioannou <[email protected]>
>>>>>>> wrote:
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> On Saturday, May 10, 2014, LizR <[email protected]> wrote:
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>  I guess one could start from "is physics computable?" (As Max
>>>>>>>>> Tegmark discusses in his book, but I haven't yet read what his
>>>>>>>>> conclusions
>>>>>>>>> are, if any). If physics is computable and consciousness arises
>>>>>>>>> somehow in
>>>>>>>>> a "materialist-type way" from the operation of the brain, then
>>>>>>>>> consciousness will be computable by definition.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> Is that trivially obvious to you? The anti-comp crowd claim that
>>>>>>>> even if brain behaviour is computable that does not mean that a
>>>>>>>> computer
>>>>>>>> could be conscious, since it may require the actual brain matter,
>>>>>>>> and not
>>>>>>>> just a simulation, to generate the consciousness.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> If physics is computable, and consciousness arises from physics
>>>>>>>> with
>>>>>>> nothing extra (supernatural or whatever) then yes. Am I missing
>>>>>>> something
>>>>>>> obvious?
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Yeah, I always feel the same about this sort of argument. It seems so
>>>>>> trivial to disprove:
>>>>>>
>>>>>> "even if brain behaviour is computable that does not mean that a
>>>>>> computer could be conscious, since it may require the actual brain
>>>>>> matter,
>>>>>> and not just a simulation, to generate the consciousness."
>>>>>>
>>>>>> 1. If brain behaviour is computable and (let's say comp)
>>>>>> 2. brain generates consciousness but
>>>>>> 3. it requires actual brain matter to do so then
>>>>>> 4. brain behaviour is not computable (~comp)
>>>>>>
>>>>>> so comp = ~comp
>>>>>>
>>>>>> I also wonder if I'm missing something, since I hear this one a lot.
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> I guess other might have answer this, but as it is important I am not
>>>>>> afraid of repetition. O lost again the connection yesterday so apology
>>>>>> for
>>>>>> participating to the discussion with a shift.
>>>>>>
>>>>>> What you miss is, I think, Peter Jones (1Z) argument. He is OK with
>>>>>> comp (say "yes" to the doctor), but only because he attributes
>>>>>> consciousness to a computer implemented in a primitive physical
>>>>>> reality.
>>>>>> Physics might be computable, in the sense that we can predict the
>>>>>> physical
>>>>>> behavior, but IF primitive matter is necessary for consciousness,
>>>>>> then,
>>>>>> although a virtual emulation would do (with different matter), an
>>>>>> abstract
>>>>>> or arithmetical computation would not do, by the lack of the
>>>>>> primitive
>>>>>> matter.
>>>>>> I agree that such an argument is weak, as it does not explain what is
>>>>>> the role of primitive matter, except as a criteria of existence,
>>>>>> which
>>>>>> seems here to have a magical role. (Then the movie-graph argument, or
>>>>>> Maudlin's argument, give an idea that how much a primitive matter use
>>>>>> here
>>>>>> becomes magical: almost like saying that a computation is conscious
>>>>>> if
>>>>>> there is primitive matter and if God is willing to make it so. We can
>>>>>> always reify some "mystery" to block an application of a theory to
>>>>>> reality.
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Ok, I tried to think about this for a while. It appears that it also
>>>>> connects with the issue "can there be computation without a
>>>>> substrate?".
>>>>>
>>>>> Please see what you think of my thoughts, sorry if they are a bit
>>>>> rough
>>>>> and confusing:
>>>>>
>>>>> In a purely mathematical sense, it seems to me that computation is
>>>>> simply a mapping from one value to another.
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Well, it is a special sort of mapping. There are 2^aleph_0 mapping in
>>>>> general, but only aleph_0 computational mapping. So it is a bit more
>>>>> than a
>>>>> mapping.
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Any computer program p can be represented as a value under some
>>>>> syntax.
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Any program + some data,
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Why "+ some data"? Any additional data can be made part of the program,
>>>> no?
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Sure. But it helps to think in both ways.
>>>>
>>>
>>> Yes, especially if one actually has to write computer programs :)
>>> I am not trying to be pedantic, I am just trying to remove the
>>> incidental
>>> to examine the "matter is fundamental" claim. I'm aware that you're kind
>>> of
>>> playing devil's advocate here, which is part of the serious scientific
>>> stance, of course.
>>>
>>>
>>> And then what is matter? What obeys this or that equations? Known one
>>> are
>>> Turing emulable, and it is like saying it is this universal numbers and
>>> no
>>> other one, where comp asks "OK, shows it wins the computation of the
>>> infinitely many computations of basically all universal machine to get
>>> your
>>> "here and now" computational states".
>>>
>>> It is a problem for comp. It has to justify the laws of stable
>>> observation from the invariance for the universal machine.
>>>
>>> With UDA, at first sight physical can be approximated by []p, with p
>>> sigma_1 (UD accessible), and "[]" sigma_complete or even Löbian (proves
>>> p
>>> -> []p for all sigma_1 sentences).
>>>
>>> But that does not work, nor even make sense, as you need at least a
>>> reality  <>t (by Gödel completeness, from outside, consistency is
>>> equivalent with having a model/Interpretation/sense), and this
>>> explicitly,
>>> as required by incompleteness: thus matter (in the FPI sense by UDA)
>>> becomes []p & <>t, or stronger []p & <><>t, or .... the strongest one:
>>> []p
>>> & p.
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>>  and don't forget that the universality requirements makes obligatory
>>>>> that some programs will not stop, without us knowing this in advance.
>>>>> Non
>>>>> termination entails a lack of value, here. yet, a non stopping
>>>>> programs
>>>>> might access computational states not met by terminating programs.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> This doesn't seem true to me. Trivially, whatever computational state a
>>>> non stopping program accesses can also be accessed by a variation of
>>>> that
>>>> program that simply stops at iteration n. What am I missing?
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> You are right, for the relative asteroids reason. But the FPI forces us
>>>> to consider the universal winner(s) whose measure might depend on
>>>> infinite
>>>> histories. We have to reason on all computations, and the infinite one
>>>> just
>>>> exists and play a role, even if the infinite sequence of finite
>>>> approximations plays the same role. That is what make universal
>>>> dovetailing
>>>> possible, and it dovetails on N^omega_1^CK.
>>>>
>>>
>>> Ok, I think I understand this part of your work. But if we are exploring
>>> the hypothesis that computations have to be realised in matter to
>>> generate
>>> consciousness, then I would say that we have to reject infinities.
>>>
>>>
>>> No problem. On the contrary, my point is that we can test this, or at
>>> least the arithmetical interpretation of this, which makes sense by the
>>> comp assumption.
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> Otherwise infinite matter is necessary to make us conscious, with all
>>> the
>>> paradoxes that this leads to.
>>>
>>>
>>> In all case we are confronted with infinities. A priori to much, but
>>> then
>>> with comp that is what recursion theory is all about.
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>> So the notion of "value" is a bit too much extensional, and miss
>>>>> intensional reality (related to code and means of computation).
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Because of my objections above, I'm still unconvinced of that...
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Which objection?
>>>>
>>>
>>> I was objecting to the idea that computations cannot be ultimately seen
>>> as mappings between integers (with the possibility of undefined values).
>>>
>>>
>>> But only the computable mappings, which are enumerable. Not *all*
>>> mappings, which are non enumerable.
>>>
>>
>> Ok!
>>
>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>>  With the arithmetical FPI we are in all computations. It makes sense
>>>> that the infinite one are the winners, as the finite one are of measure
>>>> zero.
>>>>
>>>
>>> I agree that it makes sense, but not if the computations are realised in
>>> mater. I think this only makes sense if we do the psychology->physics
>>> reversal that you propose. Under Peter Jones' assumption, I don't think
>>> we
>>> can accept infinities. Do you disagree?
>>>
>>>
>>> I think that with comp we cannot avoid them. We don't need more than {0,
>>> 1, 2, ...}, from the average machine in the neighborhoods of infinity,
>>> the
>>> machines are confronted to the transfinite and the continuum. Just
>>> taking
>>> seriously the FPI on a sigma_1 complete set (later structured by the
>>> intensional nuances).
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>>
>>>> A computation is a sequence of mapping done by or in a universal
>>>> machine.
>>>>
>>>> The starting one is not important, and it happens that elementary
>>>> arithmetic is already sigma_1 complete, and thus Turing universal.
>>>>
>>>> But once I started from the combinators, K, S, (K, K), (K, S), ... ((S,
>>>> K) (K K)), etc. Then basically we can do the all thing with some
>>>> equality
>>>> rules and ((K, x) y) = x and (((S x) y) z) = ((x z) (y z)).
>>>>
>>>> That's Turing universal too. You get Löbianity when you add an
>>>> induction
>>>> principle on the combinators.
>>>>
>>>
>>> No problem.
>>>
>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> So, taking Lisp as an example, there is a function L such that:
>>>>>
>>>>> L( (+ 1 1) ) = 2
>>>>>
>>>>> By doing the computation, we in the 1p can know the value of L(p) for
>>>>> a
>>>>> certain p. If p is:
>>>>>
>>>>> (fact 472834723947)
>>>>>
>>>>> Then we cannot do it in our heads. We have to have some powerful
>>>>> computer, spend a lot of energy and so on.
>>>>>
>>>>> Of course, due to the halting problem, the mapping is not guaranteed
>>>>> to
>>>>> exist, and so on.
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> OK.
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> These mappings already exist in Platonia. Why do we have to spend so
>>>>> much energy and effort to obtain some of them? This only seems to make
>>>>> sense if we are embedded in the computation ourselves and, somehow, we
>>>>> have
>>>>> to attain a position in the multiverse where the mapping is known. Once
>>>>> the
>>>>> mapping is known, I can communicate it to you without any further
>>>>> computational effort or energy spending.
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> I am not sure you are taking into account the FPI. "we" are embedded
>>>>> in
>>>>> infinities of computations, and we cannot know which one. We cannot use
>>>>> a
>>>>> god or a matter to select a reality, without betraying the comp
>>>>> assumption.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> But empirically, I can use my laptop to select a subset of realities
>>>> where I know the outcome of some computation. I cannot be sure that I
>>>> will
>>>> be successful because I might be assassinated by ninjas while waiting,
>>>> but
>>>> it seems possible to steer things a certain way.
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Sure! I mean you are lucky. I don't even know if you will get this
>>>> post!
>>>>
>>>
>>> I believe I did, but I'm not sure if I'm the same person you sent it to.
>>>
>>>
>>> But then tell me who sends this post! If it is not you, either you have
>>> an impostor, or you are an impostor.
>>>
>>
>>> May be you believe we are always our own impostor?
>>>
>>
>> I always felt like and impostor, but then Alan Watts made me relax about
>> it.
>>
>>
>> Alan Watts relaxed me on many things.
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>> And person comes from persona, the mask.
>>> No one behind the mask?
>>>
>>
>> No one / everyone behind the mask. Or maybe the humble amoeba :)
>>
>>
>> Or the humble bacteria.
>>
>> But the solution of phi_x = x are not enough for universality, and my
>> feeling is that it makes sense to talk about a person when there is a
>> universal machine. The humble amoeba succeeded to send some of its
>> colonies
>> to the moon, you know.
>>
>> In the very long run we will come back to bacteria, again to ease
>> colonization of the solar system and beyond.This does not mean we will
>> abandon our values, nor even our images, it is as you want.
>>
>
> I have similar hopes, but the "big filter" argument gets to me. Basically
> the idea is to self-apply the anthropic principle. If a future civilisation
> succeeds in colonising the galaxy and further, surely they will generate
> millions of years times quadrillions of post-human's worth of observer
> moments. So why do I find myself in this young and civilisation, still
> stuck to its original planet? It seems like a very low probability event.
> Of course, there's the possibility that the super-advanced civilisations
> are offset by a long tail of low-tech civilisations.
>
>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>>
>>>> But it is that lawful normality that we have to justify on some measure
>>>> on the sigma_1 closed sentences.
>>>>
>>>> Of course, I bet there is a stable physical reality. But comp explains
>>>> that reality in term of measure on computations which somehow try to
>>>> satisfy you. It is a continuum.
>>>>
>>>
>>> No problem with that. I make the same bet, of course.
>>>
>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> So according to Peter Jones, consciousness is generated by the effort
>>>>> of moving from one observer position to another. (even rejecting the
>>>>> MWI,
>>>>> even in the classical world, the thing can be seen as a tree of
>>>>> possible
>>>>> future states).
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> But Peter Jones point is that there must be primitive matter for both
>>>>> the computation and consciousness existing "really".
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> The result of the computation does not change depending on when I
>>>>> started it, who started it and so on.
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Peter Jones would say that it does matter.  There are diophantine
>>>>> equation which emulate you in our galaxy, but this will count for zero
>>>>> in
>>>>> the measure because they are immaterial and not really existing,
>>>>> according
>>>>> to Jones.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> I understand that distinction, but it still seems to me that it
>>>> increases the explanation gap without adding anything.
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> I agree. It is basically equivalent to "don't try to search an
>>>> explanation".  But that is a normal reaction for those taken Aristotle
>>>> for
>>>> granted.
>>>>
>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> This seems, as you say, as an appeal to magic. The main questions that
>>>>> occur to me are: how can such an hypothesis be falsified, and if it is
>>>>> true, where is the ontological difference?
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> By comparing the measure of computation going through my state in
>>>>> arithmetic, and the measure of computations going through my states
>>>>> according to the theory infered from observation.
>>>>>
>>>>> Unfortunatelmy we cannot compute such measure, as we cannot know which
>>>>> machine we are. but we can compare the logic obeyed by such measure,
>>>>> and
>>>>> the math shows or suggests that the comp measure obeys a quantum
>>>>> probability calculus, like nature seems to confirm. This makes the
>>>>> quantum
>>>>> explained by digitalness + internalization of the views.
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> If you accept comp but then make such a move, you are proposing
>>>>> something that is fundamentally untestable and that leads to the exact
>>>>> same
>>>>> consequences of its opposite.
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> See above.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> So in fact you're saying that Peter Jones' hypothesis is already
>>>> falsified if you assume comp?
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Not falsified. But naked. It is an act of introducing something unclear
>>>> and unseen (primitive matter) to freeze a conception of reality.
>>>>
>>>
>>> Ok.
>>>
>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> It feels to me a bit like the "free will" discussion which, in my
>>>>> view,
>>>>> is solved by the simple realisation that the question does not make
>>>>> sense
>>>>> in the first place (here I agree with John Clark).
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> I have no problem with free-will. With Clark's definition, it does not
>>>>> exist, but with a slight weakening of that definition, it makes sense.
>>>>> Not
>>>>> sure free-will is related to this topics, though.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> I just gave it as an example of an open question that I consider
>>>> non-sensical to begin with. My view is not that we have free will or
>>>> don't
>>>> have free will, it's that the question doesn't actually mean anything.
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> I believe in responsibility, and in my theory of responsibility there
>>>> is
>>>> a need for a theory of free will, and a simple one, even mentioned by
>>>> John
>>>> Clark, is that free-will is the ability to be ignorant on cluster on
>>>> alternatives and aware we have partial local control on this.
>>>>
>>>
>>> Sorry if this is going off topic but I don't understand the above
>>> sentence. Could you expand?
>>>
>>>
>>> Free-will is just will with the necessary degrees of freedom, and it
>>> gives you the command between cooperate or not in your relation with
>>> universal and non universal neighbors/data/environments.
>>>
>>> Free will needs more determinacy than randomness, because free will is
>>> self-determinacy in a neighborhood offering  possibilities.
>>>
>>
>> Ok, but then it's just part of the structure of reality no? Sure, I can
>> chose to go grab a coffee now, but am I not just observing? Maybe there
>> is
>> another realisation of me that avoid caffeine. Maybe I can observe that,
>> but then...
>>
>>
>>
>> You observe, but you participate too. With or without coffee. With sugar,
>> or without sugar. Your choice.
>>
>> You can intellectually believe it is determinate, but you can't compute
>> yourself the result,
>>
>
> Ok, it seems to me that this is more "indeterminacy" than "free will". In
> any case, indeterminacy is good enough for me. At a local level we feel
> like we have free will, and that is the same as having it (the question
> becomes silly when dropping locality, that's all I mean).
>
>
>> yet solve the problem most the time rather easily. Not always that
>> simple,
>> like talking or not under torture to denounce people.
>>
>> Free will is for me not much more than a right. Free will is a right as
>> long as it is not inconsistent with the free will of the neighbors.
>>
>
> I strongly agree with this. In fact, I believe that the whole of morality
> can be reduced to "do not initiate the use of force against someone else".
> In my view self-defence is fine and jailing a rapist is fine (he initiated
> the use of force). Having an army is fine as long as you don't use it to
> initiate a war. Taxation is immoral, unless you can opt out. The only moral
> laws are the ones that prohibit the initiation of the use of force in some
> for or another.
>
>
>> Free will is the right to cross the ocean with a sieve.
>>
>> It is not the right to disobey the gravitation laws.
>>
>> I am OK that is part of the structure of reality, that is not a problem.
>> I
>> believe only on elementary arithmetic, the rest is arithmetic seen from
>> inside from different views and angles.
>>
>
> Ok!
>
>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Tell me if my short explanation did work.  My hole point is that the
>>>>> immaterial consequences of comp are testable, by the indirect impact on
>>>>> the
>>>>> structure of physical reality when the laws of physics emerge from
>>>>> arithmetic. Roughly speaking, we can use the arithmetical hypostases
>>>>> to
>>>>> measure experimentally our degree of computationalism.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> I believe I understand you, but "unfortunately we cannot compute such
>>>> measure" still makes me suspicious. I have a Popperian view of science,
>>>> and
>>>> this still smells of an unfalsifiable claim because we cannot compute
>>>> such
>>>> measures.
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> The theory is eminently testable, and not yet refuted, despite its
>>>> simple propositional forms.
>>>>
>>>> I am Popperian in that way too. But the whole point of Platonism is
>>>> that
>>>> reality is not what you wish, but the truth, which what you know + what
>>>> you
>>>> don't know. Then assuming comp, we can use mathematical logic to
>>>> measure
>>>> the gap between both, it has mathematical structures.
>>>>
>>>> The measure is not computable, like the knower is not definable, but
>>>> the
>>>> logic of the measure one can be known, and it is a decidable quantum
>>>> like
>>>> logic, and the logic of the knower can be derived, it is S4Grz, and
>>>> provide
>>>> an arithmetical interpretation of an intuitionist knower.  S4Grz1, that
>>>> is
>>>> S4Grz but where the arithmetical interpretation is restricted on the
>>>> sigma_1 sentences, gives already a quantization. If we follow literally
>>>> the
>>>> arithmetical interpretation of Plotinus, this means that the physics of
>>>> heaven is also quantum.
>>>>
>>>
>>> Ok, this requires more study on my part.
>>>
>>>
>>> It is technical. I try to explain a bit in the "modal" or "math" thread.
>>> The key is that we can defined provable in a language understandable by
>>> the
>>> prover itself. And we can't prove that we can't define a knower in that
>>> way, but platonistically we can recognize or identify, like Theaetetus,
>>> the
>>> knower with the believer/prover when what is proved happens to be also
>>> true
>>> (by definition).
>>>
>>
>> Ok, I think I understand this at a general level but will continue to
>> study the necessary concepts as time permits. I made some advances in
>> modal
>> logic, but still have to dive in some of its weirder worlds...
>>
>>
>> Thanks for the efforts.
>>
>
> The benefit is all mine!
>
> Telmo.
>
>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>>
>>> By incompleteness, that definition works, and associate a non
>>> identifiable (by the machine)  knower to a prover/believer.
>>>
>>> Like modal logicians define sometimes the sense of a proposition by the
>>> set of worlds in which that proposition is true, with computationalism
>>> (and
>>> classical knowledge theory) the first person is related to the set of
>>> computations which realize that first person states in the (sigma_1
>>> complete) part of arithmetic.
>>>
>>
>> I have no problem with this. It seems to match well my way of thinking.
>>
>>
>>
>> Nice. Then comp imposes some structuring from theoretical computer
>> science.
>>
>> Best,
>>
>> Bruno
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> Cheers,
>> Telmo.
>>
>>
>>>
>>> Best,
>>>
>>> Bruno
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> Cheers
>>> Telmo.
>>>
>>>
>>>>
>>>> If we believe in the Peano Arithmetic theorems, and if we say yes to
>>>> the
>>>> doctor, I think this concerns us.
>>>>
>>>> Best,
>>>>
>>>> Bruno
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Best,
>>>> Telmo.
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Bruno
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Best,
>>>>> Telmo.
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>> Bruno
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Telmo.
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
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>>>>>>
>>>>>>
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>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>  http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
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>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
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>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>  http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
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>>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
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>>>>
>>>>  http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>>
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>>>
>>>
>>> --
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>>>
>>>  http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
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>>>
>>>
>>>
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>>
>>
>> --
>> You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups
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>> http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
>>
>>
>>
>>  --
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>
> --
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>


-- 
Alberto.

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