On Tue, May 13, 2014 at 10:29 AM, Bruno Marchal <[email protected]> wrote:

>
> On 12 May 2014, at 16:12, Telmo Menezes wrote:
>
>
>
>
> On Sun, May 11, 2014 at 9:46 AM, Bruno Marchal <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>>
>> On 10 May 2014, at 12:12, Telmo Menezes wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> On Sat, May 10, 2014 at 8:30 AM, LizR <[email protected]> wrote:
>>
>>> On 10 May 2014 17:30, Stathis Papaioannou <[email protected]> wrote:
>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> On Saturday, May 10, 2014, LizR <[email protected]> wrote:
>>>>
>>>>>  I guess one could start from "is physics computable?" (As Max Tegmark
>>>>> discusses in his book, but I haven't yet read what his conclusions are, if
>>>>> any). If physics is computable and consciousness arises somehow in a
>>>>> "materialist-type way" from the operation of the brain, then consciousness
>>>>> will be computable by definition.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Is that trivially obvious to you? The anti-comp crowd claim that even
>>>> if brain behaviour is computable that does not mean that a computer
>>>> could be conscious, since it may require the actual brain matter, and not
>>>> just a simulation, to generate the consciousness.
>>>>
>>>> If physics is computable, and consciousness arises from physics with
>>> nothing extra (supernatural or whatever) then yes. Am I missing something
>>> obvious?
>>>
>>
>> Yeah, I always feel the same about this sort of argument. It seems so
>> trivial to disprove:
>>
>> "even if brain behaviour is computable that does not mean that a computer
>> could be conscious, since it may require the actual brain matter, and not
>> just a simulation, to generate the consciousness."
>>
>> 1. If brain behaviour is computable and (let's say comp)
>> 2. brain generates consciousness but
>> 3. it requires actual brain matter to do so then
>> 4. brain behaviour is not computable (~comp)
>>
>> so comp = ~comp
>>
>> I also wonder if I'm missing something, since I hear this one a lot.
>>
>>
>> I guess other might have answer this, but as it is important I am not
>> afraid of repetition. O lost again the connection yesterday so apology for
>> participating to the discussion with a shift.
>>
>> What you miss is, I think, Peter Jones (1Z) argument. He is OK with comp
>> (say "yes" to the doctor), but only because he attributes consciousness to
>> a computer implemented in a primitive physical reality. Physics might be
>> computable, in the sense that we can predict the physical behavior, but IF
>> primitive matter is necessary for consciousness, then, although a virtual
>> emulation would do (with different matter), an abstract or arithmetical
>> computation would not do, by the lack of the primitive matter.
>> I agree that such an argument is weak, as it does not explain what is the
>> role of primitive matter, except as a criteria of existence, which seems
>> here to have a magical role. (Then the movie-graph argument, or Maudlin's
>> argument, give an idea that how much a primitive matter use here becomes
>> magical: almost like saying that a computation is conscious if there is
>> primitive matter and if God is willing to make it so. We can always reify
>> some "mystery" to block an application of a theory to reality.
>>
>
> Ok, I tried to think about this for a while. It appears that it also
> connects with the issue "can there be computation without a substrate?".
>
> Please see what you think of my thoughts, sorry if they are a bit rough
> and confusing:
>
> In a purely mathematical sense, it seems to me that computation is simply
> a mapping from one value to another.
>
>
>
> Well, it is a special sort of mapping. There are 2^aleph_0 mapping in
> general, but only aleph_0 computational mapping. So it is a bit more than a
> mapping.
>
>
>
>
>
> Any computer program p can be represented as a value under some syntax.
>
>
> Any program + some data,
>

Why "+ some data"? Any additional data can be made part of the program, no?


> and don't forget that the universality requirements makes obligatory that
> some programs will not stop, without us knowing this in advance. Non
> termination entails a lack of value, here. yet, a non stopping programs
> might access computational states not met by terminating programs.
>

This doesn't seem true to me. Trivially, whatever computational state a non
stopping program accesses can also be accessed by a variation of that
program that simply stops at iteration n. What am I missing?


> So the notion of "value" is a bit too much extensional, and miss
> intensional reality (related to code and means of computation).
>

Because of my objections above, I'm still unconvinced of that...


>
>
> So, taking Lisp as an example, there is a function L such that:
>
> L( (+ 1 1) ) = 2
>
> By doing the computation, we in the 1p can know the value of L(p) for a
> certain p. If p is:
>
> (fact 472834723947)
>
> Then we cannot do it in our heads. We have to have some powerful computer,
> spend a lot of energy and so on.
>
> Of course, due to the halting problem, the mapping is not guaranteed to
> exist, and so on.
>
>
> OK.
>
>
>
>
> These mappings already exist in Platonia. Why do we have to spend so much
> energy and effort to obtain some of them? This only seems to make sense if
> we are embedded in the computation ourselves and, somehow, we have to
> attain a position in the multiverse where the mapping is known. Once the
> mapping is known, I can communicate it to you without any further
> computational effort or energy spending.
>
>
> I am not sure you are taking into account the FPI. "we" are embedded in
> infinities of computations, and we cannot know which one. We cannot use a
> god or a matter to select a reality, without betraying the comp assumption.
>

But empirically, I can use my laptop to select a subset of realities where
I know the outcome of some computation. I cannot be sure that I will be
successful because I might be assassinated by ninjas while waiting, but it
seems possible to steer things a certain way.


>
>
>
>
> So according to Peter Jones, consciousness is generated by the effort of
> moving from one observer position to another. (even rejecting the MWI, even
> in the classical world, the thing can be seen as a tree of possible future
> states).
>
>
> But Peter Jones point is that there must be primitive matter for both the
> computation and consciousness existing "really".
>
>
>
> The result of the computation does not change depending on when I started
> it, who started it and so on.
>
>
> Peter Jones would say that it does matter.  There are diophantine equation
> which emulate you in our galaxy, but this will count for zero in the
> measure because they are immaterial and not really existing, according to
> Jones.
>

I understand that distinction, but it still seems to me that it increases
the explanation gap without adding anything.


>
>
>
>
> This seems, as you say, as an appeal to magic. The main questions that
> occur to me are: how can such an hypothesis be falsified, and if it is
> true, where is the ontological difference?
>
>
>
> By comparing the measure of computation going through my state in
> arithmetic, and the measure of computations going through my states
> according to the theory infered from observation.
>
> Unfortunatelmy we cannot compute such measure, as we cannot know which
> machine we are. but we can compare the logic obeyed by such measure, and
> the math shows or suggests that the comp measure obeys a quantum
> probability calculus, like nature seems to confirm. This makes the quantum
> explained by digitalness + internalization of the views.
>
>
>
>
> If you accept comp but then make such a move, you are proposing something
> that is fundamentally untestable and that leads to the exact same
> consequences of its opposite.
>
>
> See above.
>

So in fact you're saying that Peter Jones' hypothesis is already falsified
if you assume comp?


>
>
>
> It feels to me a bit like the "free will" discussion which, in my view, is
> solved by the simple realisation that the question does not make sense in
> the first place (here I agree with John Clark).
>
>
>
> I have no problem with free-will. With Clark's definition, it does not
> exist, but with a slight weakening of that definition, it makes sense. Not
> sure free-will is related to this topics, though.
>

I just gave it as an example of an open question that I consider
non-sensical to begin with. My view is not that we have free will or don't
have free will, it's that the question doesn't actually mean anything.


>
> Tell me if my short explanation did work.  My hole point is that the
> immaterial consequences of comp are testable, by the indirect impact on the
> structure of physical reality when the laws of physics emerge from
> arithmetic. Roughly speaking, we can use the arithmetical hypostases to
> measure experimentally our degree of computationalism.
>

I believe I understand you, but "unfortunately we cannot compute such
measure" still makes me suspicious. I have a Popperian view of science, and
this still smells of an unfalsifiable claim because we cannot compute such
measures.

Best,
Telmo.


>
> Bruno
>
>
>
>
>
>
> Best,
> Telmo.
>
>
>> Bruno
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> Telmo.
>>
>>
>>>
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>>  http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
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