On 18 January 2014 19:51, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:
> On 1/17/2014 10:18 PM, LizR wrote:
> On 18 January 2014 19:12, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:
>> But where does it exist? X has to be conscious of a location, a
>> physics, etc. If all this is the same as where I exist, then it is just
>> a translation of this world into arithmetic. It's the flip side of "A
>> perfect description of X is the same as X", i.e. "X is the perfect
>> description of X". If every perfect description is realized somewhere in
>> arithmetic (and I think it probably is) nothing is gained by saying we may
>> be in arithmetic.
>> Don't we gain less entities, making Occam a bit happier? If we can get
> the appearance of a universe without having to actually have one, can't we
> "retire the universe" and just stick with the
> "appearance-of-one-with-equal-explanatory-value" ? (Not an original idea,
> of course, I'm fairly sure Max Tegmark said something along those lines
> regarding his mathematical universe hypothesis -- that if the maths was
> isomorphic to the universe, why bother to assume the universe was
> physically there?).
> I'm asking why have the maths?
Well (putting on my AR hat) we have it because the maths is
*necessarily*existent, while the universe isn't.
> Of course there's an answer - we can manipulate the maths - but then
> doesn't that proves that the maths aren't the universe. They wouldn't be
> any use as predictive and descriptive tools if they WERE the things
> described. They are only useful because they are abstractions, i.e. they
> leave stuff out (like existence?).
Well .... the maths does have that "unreasonable effectiveness" (that
you're probably bored to death hearing about). And one reason for that
could be because it is - in the guise of some yet-to-be-discovered TOE -
isomorphic to the universe.
In which case - should it ever prove to be the case - see above.
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