Re: Comp

2011-03-07 Thread Bruno Marchal

John,


On 06 Mar 2011, at 22:10, John Mikes wrote:


Andrew and Bruno:

(Re:  Andrew's discussion below): according to what I pretend to  
understand of Bruno's position, the math' universe (numbers and  
what they 'build' as the 'world') is more fundamental than the  
application we call physics.
I wrote more because the real fundamental is based on the rel  
everything, still hidden from our knowledge and only parts transpire  
continually (since many millennia ago).
We arrived at a stage, different from the one 1000 or 3000 years ago  
and devised a logic (or more) which is different from those applied  
earlier. Yet it is not the ultimate - or should I say not all of  
them. There may be different logical ways in our future development  
(you may call it evolution, I don't) just as different arithmetics  
as well of which we state today impossible.

So was the spherical Earth or molecular genetics.

A problem (in my mind) about compute: does 'computing' include an  
evaluation of the result automatically, by the device itself, or  
does it need a thinking mind to valuate the computation? Does  
'comp' act upon the result of its own computation?  ( H O W ? )


The abstract entity or person, which is associated to computation,  
within our comp model (as you would say, but a logician would say  
here within our comp theory) is the one doing the interpretation. So  
the (relevant) evaluation is included in the computing itself. I would  
not add by the device itself, because the term device denotes more  
the body or hird person description, (which does not really exist,  
and is itself a creation of the person). The person's consciousness  
and body is somehow attached to infinite class of equivalence  
extracted from *all* the computations. The term all is itself  
justified by the miracle (Gödel's term) of the thesis of church, which  
makes such self-reference arithmetically definable.








Also the word  automatically raises the question whether it  
requires some homunculus(?) - (call it a factor or any presently  
unknown dynamics?) instigating it for us rather than - or even BUILT  
IN as - a not-yet discovered intrinsic part of the functionality to  
be discovered?


It is has been discovered, I would say. It is a fixed point of self- 
observation. It is the one who will be described by all the  
arithmetical hypostases. It is built-in in all rich (Löbian)  
universal entities. You might call it an homunculus, but it is just  
a universal number that knows that it is universal.





With my agnosticism (ignorance about the not-yet disclosed parts of  
the wholeness) it is hard to agree with any proof, truth, or  
evidence. The most I can do is a potentially possible.


The question, in science, is never about agreeing or disagreeing. But  
of understanding the theory and its deductive rules, and to see if a  
derivation of a conclusion is valid or not. The question of the truth  
of our assumption is a matter of personal opinion, and can be  
discussed in philosophy.


Unfortunately, this is not very well know, and some scientist believes  
that in science we know some truth. But this is a confusion between  
science and philosophy. I appreciate philosophy and philosophical  
discussions, but to progress, it is useful to distinguish science from  
the philosophies which can be developed around it. Eventually that  
distinction is, in the comp theory (within the comp model) somewhat  
captured by the splitting between G and G*. G playing the role of  
science, and G* playing the role of philosophy. Many philosophical  
statement can become scientific by just adding an interrogative mark  
like ?.


In our setting, a difficulty comes from the fact that we study  
scientifically (this really means without the pretension of truth)  
both the science by the machine and the philosophy by the machine.


Best,

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: causes (was:ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper)

2011-03-07 Thread Bruno Marchal

Hi John,

On 06 Mar 2011, at 22:27, John Mikes wrote:




On Sun, Mar 6, 2011 at 3:53 PM, Stephen Paul King stephe...@charter.net 
 wrote:


  Is the causes word even necessary? Would it not be accurate to  
say that a change in information = a change in our description,  
unless you are assuming some sort of pluralistic 1st person view,  
i.e. from the point of view of many (a fixed set of observers):  
'collapse' is nothing but a change in the information common to all  
that causes' (or necessitates!) a change in the description of each  
individual to remain a viable member of the 'many'?

Onward!
Stephen

Thanks, Stephen, for standing up against the verb 'causes'. In our  
limited views of the totality (the unlimited complexity of the  
wholeness) we can only search for factors contributing to changes we  
experience WITHIN the model of our knowledge. If we find such, we  
are tempted to call it THE cause - while many more (from the  
unknown) may also play in.


You are right. The term cause is very tricky. They are as many  
notion of cause than there exists modal logics (infinities). We can  
say that a causes b, if B(a - b), in some context/theory defining  
locally modality B. It *is* a vague notion.







Information is also a tricky term, maybe: knowledge of relations we  
(lately?) acquired in our topical model of yesterday's knowledge,  
but definitely also WITHIN our knowable model.
(Please forgive me for using yesterday's: nobody can think in  
terms of all the ongoing news of today).


Information has to be distinguished from true information, consistent  
information, true consistent information, etc. In comp, the modalities  
of the self-reference forces us to introduce those distinction.  
Eventually this shows that machines have an incredibly rich canonical  
theology (scientifically testable, because it contains the machine's  
physic).


Here, the theology of a machine is defined by the truth *about* the  
machine. Nobody can know it, but a machine can study its logic  
(independently of its content) for a simpler (in term of the  
strongness of its provability predicate (the B in the hypostases)).


Have a good day,

Bruno



-Original Message-
From: Brent Meeker Sent: Sunday, March 06, 2011 3:09 PM To: everything-list@googlegroups.com 
 Subject: Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper


On 3/6/2011 7:18 AM, 1Z wrote:

On Mar 4, 7:10 pm, Brent Meekermeeke...@dslextreme.com  wrote:

Collapse appears to instruments as well as people - that's why we  
can

shared records of experiments and agree on them. I'm not sure what you
mean by account for collapse.  At least one interpretation of QM,
advocated by Peres, Fuchs, and Omnes for example, is that the  
collapse

is purely epistemological.  All that changes is our knowledge or model
of the state and QM merely predicts probabilities for this change.

Such epistemological theories need to be carefully distinguished from
consciousness causes
collapse theories.


Right.  Epistemological collapse is nothing but a change in
information that causes us to change our description.
**

  Is the causes word even necessary? Would it not be accurate to  
say that a change in information = a change in our description,  
unless you are assuming some sort of pluralistic 1st person view,  
i.e. from the point of view of many (a fixed set of observers):  
'collapse' is nothing but a change in the information common to all  
that causes' (or necessitates!) a change in the description of each  
individual to remain a viable member of the 'many'?


Onward!

Stephen


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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Reversal without primary matter elimination (step 7)

2011-03-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Mar 2011, at 20:21, Brent Meeker wrote:


On 3/6/2011 5:07 AM, 1Z wrote:



The way I see it the MG consciousness would not be conscious of any
 world except the virtual world of the MG, which is to say not  
conscious
 at all in our terms.  It could, provided enough environment and  
Bruno
 emphasizes the UD will provide an arbitrarily large environment,  
be

 conscious *in this other universe*.  But I think that's Stathis's
 example of the conscious rock.  It's conscious modulo some
 interpretation, but that's a reductio against saying it's  
conscious at all.


 Brent


I am not a fan of the MG specifically, but I don't see why
you need a world to have consciousness as if of a world.
The BIV argument indicates that you only need to simulate
incoming data on peripheral nerves



But how much of the world do you need to simulate to produce  
consistent incoming data?  and to allow the MG to act?  I think a  
lot. And in any case it is within and relative to this simulated  
world that consciousness exists (if it does).  The MGA tends to  
obscure this because it helps itself to our intuition about this  
world and that we are simulating it and so we know what the  
simulation means, i.e. we have an interpretation.  That's why I  
referred to the rock that computes everything paradox; it's the same  
situation except we *don't* have a ready made intuitive  
interpretation.  Stathis, as I recall, defended the idea that the  
rock could, by instantiating consciousness, provide it's own  
interpretation.  I agreed with the inference, but I regard it as a  
reductio against the rock that computes everything.


The brain-in-a-vat is somewhat different in that it is usually  
supposed it is connected to our world for perception and action.  So  
it can have real (our kind of) consciousness.


What about a disconnected dreaming 'brain-in-a-vat'?

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Mar 2011, at 16:16, 1Z wrote:




On Mar 4, 5:49 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 04 Mar 2011, at 17:31, 1Z wrote:




On Mar 4, 2:20 pm, Andrew Soltau andrewsol...@gmail.com wrote:

I suspect we all may.



Wong states that, important as a grand unified theory might be,
... it
is lacking in one important fundamental aspect, viz., the role of
consciousness [which] could in fact be considered the most
fundamental
aspect of physics.



How does he know consciousness is fundamental?


Consciousness has been put under the rug by physicists since about
1500 years.


Really? Have daffodils and shopping centres likewise? Physicists
cannot  be accused of neglecting something unless it can be
shown to be something they should prima facie be dealing with.


They do use it all the time. They have just use the primary matter (as  
simplifying assumption), and the identity thesis (as simplig-fying  
assumption), so that they can correlated observation with predictive  
theories. This leads to problem with respect to the new physics  
(quantum physics), and with respect to the computationalist  
hypothesis. But the Platonist were aware of this (mainly by the dream  
argument), and kept us vigilant of not reifying matter.






Physics is the science of the fundamental.


Then I am a physicist.




If consciousness
is another high level phenomenon, like shopping centres,
it is no business of the physicist.


IF consciousness emerges ...
That might be a big IF.




If you think cosnc. is
fundamental, you are making an extraordinary claim and the
burden of proof is on you.


I am not making any claim about the fact that consciousness is  
fundamental or not. I just try to understand that phenomenon, among  
other phenomenon. And I show that if we suppose that consciousness can  
be related to some computation, then matter is not fundamental. Matter  
emerges as a modality of self-reference (the material hypostases).  
And the point is that it makes comp + the classical theory of  
knowledge testable.





It has come back through the doubtful idea of the collapse of the  
wave

packet. It is a way to avoid the literal many-worlds aspect of the
linear quantum evolution. This has been debunked by many since. See
the work of Abner Shimony, for example.
I remind you that we are in the everything list which is based on the
idea that everything is simpler than something.
Of course Everett has given a comp phenomenological account of the
collapse with the linear equation, so that if consciousness collapse
physically the wave, you need a non-comp theory of consciousness.
Then comp by itself is a theory of consciousness, and does provide a
transparent (I mean testable) link with consciousness, not by
identifying the mystery of consciousness with a non linear and non
mechanical phenomenon (the collapse) but by providing an explanation
of the quantum and the linear from the computationalist hypothesis.




Given that conciousness seems all too clearly to be centrally
involved
in quantum mechanics,



That isn't clear at all


It is. In the collapse theory, it has to be the collapser (the other
theories are too vague, or refuted).


Not at all. Objective collapse theories such as GRW have not been
refuted,
and spiritual interpretations, like von Neumann's are the vagues of
the lot


I refer you to Shimony for a refutation that consciousness can  
collapse the Q wave.
And GRW proposes a new theory, which they admit themselves to be ad  
hoc, and makes no sense in QM+relativity. I am not sure at all it  
works even for non relativistic QM. It would reduce Quantum  
computation to classical probabilistic computation, in particular.  
That might still be possible (forgetting relativity). I can imagine  
that it could lead to the collapse of many comp complexity classes,  
including P and NP.



Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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RE: first person indeterminacy vs predictability

2011-03-07 Thread Digital Physics

But if most histories are equally likely, and most of them are random and 
unpredictable
and weird in the sense that suddenly crocodiles fly by, then why can we predict 
rather 
reliably that none of those weird histories will happen?

 From: marc...@ulb.ac.be
 To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Subject: Re: first person indeterminacy
 Date: Sun, 6 Mar 2011 19:47:20 +0100
 You can also consider the iteration of self-duplication. If you  
 iterate 64 times, there will be 2^64 versions of you. First person  
 indeterminacy is the fact that most of the 2^64 versions of you will  
 agree that they were unable to predict in advance what was the next  
 outcome at each iteration. Most will consider that their histories  
 (like:
 WMMMWWMWWWWMMWMMWM ... (length 64)
 are random, even Chaitin-incompressible.

  

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Re: first person indeterminacy vs predictability

2011-03-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 07 Mar 2011, at 10:47, Digital Physics wrote:

But if most histories are equally likely, and most of them are  
random and unpredictable
and weird in the sense that suddenly crocodiles fly by, then why can  
we predict rather

reliably that none of those weird histories will happen?

 From: marc...@ulb.ac.be
 To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Subject: Re: first person indeterminacy
 Date: Sun, 6 Mar 2011 19:47:20 +0100
 You can also consider the iteration of self-duplication. If you
 iterate 64 times, there will be 2^64 versions of you. First person
 indeterminacy is the fact that most of the 2^64 versions of you will
 agree that they were unable to predict in advance what was the next
 outcome at each iteration. Most will consider that their histories
 (like:
 WMMMWWMWWWWMMWMMWM ... (length 64)
 are random, even Chaitin-incompressible.



Nobody said that the histories are generated by the iterated self- 
duplication. The iterated self-duplication is used here only to  
understand what is the first person indeterminacy in a very simple  
context (the context of pure iterated self-duplication).


Assuming comp, the 3-histories(*) are generated by the UD, which is a  
non trivial mathematical object, and 1-histories(*) appears in the  
relative 1-person way by a highly complex mixing of computable  
histories and oracles (which can be handled mathematically with the  
logics of self-reference).
There is no reason for making all relative histories equally likely.  
It is not easy to prevent white rabbits and flying crocodile, but  
computer science and mathematical logic shows that it is not easy  
either to prove that comp and first person indeterminacy implies them.  
And if we prove comp implies them, then observation and induction  
makes comp false or very non plausible.


Note also that, as Russell Standish recalled recently, white rabbits  
(flying crocodiles) are not random structures. They are aberrant  
consistent extensions, a bit like in our nocturnal dreams.


Bruno

(*) the suffix 1 and 3, in 1-x and 3-x, means x as seen by the first  
person or the third person respectively, as defined for example in the  
sane04 paper:

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/publications/SANE2004MARCHALAbstract.html

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Reversal without primary matter elimination (step 7)

2011-03-07 Thread 1Z


On Mar 6, 7:21 pm, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
 On 3/6/2011 5:07 AM, 1Z wrote:

  The way I see it the MG consciousness would not be conscious of any
    world except the virtual world of the MG, which is to say not conscious
    at all in our terms.  It could, provided enough environment and Bruno
    emphasizes the UD will provide an arbitrarily large environment, be
    conscious*in this other universe*.  But I think that's Stathis's
    example of the conscious rock.  It's conscious modulo some
    interpretation, but that's a reductio against saying it's conscious at 
   all.

    Brent

  I am not a fan of the MG specifically, but I don't see why
  you need a world to have consciousness as if of a world.
  The BIV argument indicates that you only need to simulate
  incoming data on peripheral nerves

 But how much of the world do you need to simulate to produce consistent
 incoming data?  

Presumably not that much, since we are not aware of that much

and to allow the MG to act?  I think a lot. And in any
 case it is within and relative to this simulated world that
 consciousness exists (if it does).  The MGA tends to obscure this
 because it helps itself to our intuition about this world and that we
 are simulating it and so we know what the simulation means, i.e. we
 have an interpretation.  That's why I referred to the rock that computes
 everything paradox; it's the same situation except we *don't* have a
 ready made intuitive interpretation.  Stathis, as I recall, defended the
 idea that the rock could, by instantiating consciousness, provide it's
 own interpretation.  I agreed with the inference, but I regard it as a
 reductio against the rock that computes everything.

 The brain-in-a-vat is somewhat different in that it is usually supposed
 it is connected to our world for perception and action.

No, it usually isn't. It is usually supposed to  have falsified inputs

 So it can have
 real (our kind of) consciousness.

 Brent

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-07 Thread 1Z


On Mar 7, 9:30 am, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 06 Mar 2011, at 16:16, 1Z wrote:





  On Mar 4, 5:49 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 04 Mar 2011, at 17:31, 1Z wrote:

  On Mar 4, 2:20 pm, Andrew Soltau andrewsol...@gmail.com wrote:
  I suspect we all may.

  Wong states that, important as a grand unified theory might be,
  ... it
  is lacking in one important fundamental aspect, viz., the role of
  consciousness [which] could in fact be considered the most
  fundamental
  aspect of physics.

  How does he know consciousness is fundamental?

  Consciousness has been put under the rug by physicists since about
  1500 years.

  Really? Have daffodils and shopping centres likewise? Physicists
  cannot  be accused of neglecting something unless it can be
  shown to be something they should prima facie be dealing with.

 They do use it all the time. They have just use the primary matter (as  
 simplifying assumption), and the identity thesis (as simplig-fying  
 assumption), so that they can correlated observation with predictive  
 theories.

You haven;t explained why they should be dealing with
consc. in the first place. Surely it is prima facie psychology.

This leads to problem with respect to the new physics  
 (quantum physics),

So you say. Many think QM problems have nothing
to do with consc.

 and with respect to the computationalist  
 hypothesis. But the Platonist were aware of this (mainly by the dream  
 argument), and kept us vigilant of not reifying matter.

  Physics is the science of the fundamental.

 Then I am a physicist.

Physics is the empirical sciencce of the fundamental.

  If consciousness
  is another high level phenomenon, like shopping centres,
  it is no business of the physicist.

 IF consciousness emerges ...
 That might be a big IF.

You need to show that it *is* a big
if before accusing physicists of
neglecting comp.

  If you think cosnc. is
  fundamental, you are making an extraordinary claim and the
  burden of proof is on you.

 I am not making any claim about the fact that consciousness is  
 fundamental or not

Implicitly you are. To say that physics has failed
to deal with it is to imply that it should be dealing with it,
which is to imply that it is fundamental

. I just try to understand that phenomenon, among  
 other phenomenon. And I show that if we suppose that consciousness can  
 be related to some computation, then matter is not fundamental. Matter  
 emerges as a modality of self-reference (the material hypostases).  
 And the point is that it makes comp + the classical theory of  
 knowledge testable.





  It has come back through the doubtful idea of the collapse of the  
  wave
  packet. It is a way to avoid the literal many-worlds aspect of the
  linear quantum evolution. This has been debunked by many since. See
  the work of Abner Shimony, for example.
  I remind you that we are in the everything list which is based on the
  idea that everything is simpler than something.
  Of course Everett has given a comp phenomenological account of the
  collapse with the linear equation, so that if consciousness collapse
  physically the wave, you need a non-comp theory of consciousness.
  Then comp by itself is a theory of consciousness, and does provide a
  transparent (I mean testable) link with consciousness, not by
  identifying the mystery of consciousness with a non linear and non
  mechanical phenomenon (the collapse) but by providing an explanation
  of the quantum and the linear from the computationalist hypothesis.

  Given that conciousness seems all too clearly to be centrally
  involved
  in quantum mechanics,

  That isn't clear at all

  It is. In the collapse theory, it has to be the collapser (the other
  theories are too vague, or refuted).

  Not at all. Objective collapse theories such as GRW have not been
  refuted,
  and spiritual interpretations, like von Neumann's are the vagues of
  the lot

 I refer you to Shimony for a refutation that consciousness can  
 collapse the Q wave.
 And GRW proposes a new theory, which they admit themselves to be ad  
 hoc, and makes no sense in QM+relativity. I am not sure at all it  
 works even for non relativistic QM.

So? conscisouness does it by magic is not better.

It would reduce Quantum  
 computation to classical probabilistic computation, in particular.  
 That might still be possible (forgetting relativity). I can imagine  
 that it could lead to the collapse of many comp complexity classes,  
 including P and NP.

 Bruno

 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/

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RE: first person indeterminacy vs predictability

2011-03-07 Thread Digital Physics

You write white rabbits (flying crocodiles) are not random structures. They 
are aberrant 
consistent extensions, a bit like in our nocturnal dreams. I agree that white 
rabbits have programs much shorter than those of random structures. But you 
also claim that most will consider their histories ... 
Chaitin-incompressible. This means long programs and no predictability at all, 
contradicting daily experience. Then you say but computer science and 
mathematical logic shows that it is not easy either to prove that comp and 
first person indeterminacy implies [flying rabbits]. I don't understand - it 
has been shown it's not easy to prove that? How has it been shown it's not easy 
to prove that?  And you say: There is no reason for making all relative 
histories equally likely. But then what's the alternative?


From: marc...@ulb.ac.be
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: first person indeterminacy vs predictability
Date: Mon, 7 Mar 2011 14:58:15 +0100


On 07 Mar 2011, at 10:47, Digital Physics wrote:But if most histories are 
equally likely, and most of them are random and unpredictable and weird in the 
sense that suddenly crocodiles fly by, then why can we predict rather reliably 
that none of those weird histories will happen?

 From: marc...@ulb.ac.be
 To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Subject: Re: first person indeterminacy
 Date: Sun, 6 Mar 2011 19:47:20 +0100
 You can also consider the iteration of self-duplication. If you 
 iterate 64 times, there will be 2^64 versions of you. First person 
 indeterminacy is the fact that most of the 2^64 versions of you will 
 agree that they were unable to predict in advance what was the next 
 outcome at each iteration. Most will consider that their histories 
 (like:
 WMMMWWMWWWWMMWMMWM ... (length 64)
 are random, even Chaitin-incompressible.


Nobody said that the histories are generated by the iterated self-duplication. 
The iterated self-duplication is used here only to understand what is the first 
person indeterminacy in a very simple context (the context of pure iterated 
self-duplication).
Assuming comp, the 3-histories(*) are generated by the UD, which is a non 
trivial mathematical object, and 1-histories(*) appears in the relative 
1-person way by a highly complex mixing of computable histories and oracles 
(which can be handled mathematically with the logics of self-reference). There 
is no reason for making all relative histories equally likely. It is not easy 
to prevent white rabbits and flying crocodile, but computer science and 
mathematical logic shows that it is not easy either to prove that comp and 
first person indeterminacy implies them. And if we prove comp implies them, 
then observation and induction makes comp false or very non plausible.
Note also that, as Russell Standish recalled recently, white rabbits (flying 
crocodiles) are not random structures. They are aberrant consistent extensions, 
a bit like in our nocturnal dreams.
Bruno
(*) the suffix 1 and 3, in 1-x and 3-x, means x as seen by the first person or 
the third person respectively, as defined for example in the sane04 
paper:http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/publications/SANE2004MARCHALAbstract.html 
http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ 

  

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 07 Mar 2011, at 15:10, 1Z wrote:




On Mar 7, 9:30 am, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 06 Mar 2011, at 16:16, 1Z wrote:






On Mar 4, 5:49 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 04 Mar 2011, at 17:31, 1Z wrote:



On Mar 4, 2:20 pm, Andrew Soltau andrewsol...@gmail.com wrote:

I suspect we all may.



Wong states that, important as a grand unified theory might be,
... it
is lacking in one important fundamental aspect, viz., the role of
consciousness [which] could in fact be considered the most
fundamental
aspect of physics.



How does he know consciousness is fundamental?



Consciousness has been put under the rug by physicists since about
1500 years.



Really? Have daffodils and shopping centres likewise? Physicists
cannot  be accused of neglecting something unless it can be
shown to be something they should prima facie be dealing with.


They do use it all the time. They have just use the primary matter  
(as

simplifying assumption), and the identity thesis (as simplig-fying
assumption), so that they can correlated observation with predictive
theories.


You haven;t explained why they should be dealing with
consc. in the first place. Surely it is prima facie psychology.


There is no human observation without consciousness. We can use  
physical equation to predict where a planet can be, not where a planet  
can be seen, but we usually link the two. The greeks were aware that  
link necessitate a theory which unify knowledge and escape the dream  
problem. Aristotle was aware of that too, but its followers took his  
primary matter for granted, and this had made easier the separation of  
theology from the science, with the result of making physics a  
theology which ignores itself.








This leads to problem with respect to the new physics
(quantum physics),


So you say. Many think QM problems have nothing
to do with consc.


QM has just dingle out the more general problem of the existence of  
consciousness in a physical world. I am not saying that consciousness  
is related per se with the quantum. On the contrary, as you know, I  
defend Everett, and Everett use the less magical theory of  
consciousness: comp (or weakening).


Consciousness plays a role in physics because we have to link being  
and seeing. All physical theories uses an implicit theory of  
consciousness (the identity thesis, or what is is what I see).







and with respect to the computationalist
hypothesis. But the Platonist were aware of this (mainly by the dream
argument), and kept us vigilant of not reifying matter.


Physics is the science of the fundamental.


Then I am a physicist.


Physics is the empirical sciencce of the fundamental.


Then I am even more a physicist. Indeed I show that the comp theory of  
consciousness (computationalism) is empirically falsifiable (accepting  
the greek classical theory of knowledge).







If consciousness
is another high level phenomenon, like shopping centres,
it is no business of the physicist.


IF consciousness emerges ...
That might be a big IF.


You need to show that it *is* a big
if before accusing physicists of
neglecting comp.


They do not neglect comp. They use it implicitly ever since Aristotle,  
and explicitly since Everett. They neglect the consciousness, or the  
mind-body problem.







If you think cosnc. is
fundamental, you are making an extraordinary claim and the
burden of proof is on you.


I am not making any claim about the fact that consciousness is
fundamental or not


Implicitly you are. To say that physics has failed
to deal with it is to imply that it should be dealing with it,
which is to imply that it is fundamental


It was fundamental for the greek. Science is born from an  
understanding that the physical reality might hide something, notably  
mathematical truth (Xeuxippes), or just 'truth', the original god of  
the Platonists. But you can do physics without working on the mind- 
body problem. But fundamental physics is more demanding. To solve the  
mind-body problem in a monist theory, you have to sacrify, at the  
ontological level, either mind or matter (provably so assuming comp).







. I just try to understand that phenomenon, among
other phenomenon. And I show that if we suppose that consciousness  
can
be related to some computation, then matter is not fundamental.  
Matter

emerges as a modality of self-reference (the material hypostases).
And the point is that it makes comp + the classical theory of
knowledge testable.






It has come back through the doubtful idea of the collapse of the
wave
packet. It is a way to avoid the literal many-worlds aspect of the
linear quantum evolution. This has been debunked by many since. See
the work of Abner Shimony, for example.
I remind you that we are in the everything list which is based on  
the

idea that everything is simpler than something.
Of course Everett has given a comp phenomenological account of the
collapse with the linear equation, so that if 

Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-07 Thread 1Z


On Mar 7, 2:52 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  You haven;t explained why they should be dealing with
  consc. in the first place. Surely it is prima facie psychology.

 There is no human observation without consciousness.

There can be no observations without sense organs,
but it is not the job of physics to study sense organs


  Implicitly you are. To say that physics has failed
  to deal with it is to imply that it should be dealing with it,
  which is to imply that it is fundamental

 It was fundamental for the greek. Science is born from an  
 understanding that the physical reality might hide something, notably  
 mathematical truth (Xeuxippes), or just 'truth', the original god of  
 the Platonists. But you can do physics without working on the mind-
 body problem. But fundamental physics is more demanding. To solve the  
 mind-body problem in a monist theory, you have to sacrify, at the  
 ontological level, either mind or matter (provably so assuming comp).

Reduction is not elimination

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Re: first person indeterminacy vs predictability

2011-03-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 07 Mar 2011, at 15:26, Digital Physics wrote:



You write white rabbits (flying crocodiles) are not random  
structures. They are aberrant
consistent extensions, a bit like in our nocturnal dreams. I agree  
that white rabbits have programs much shorter than those of random  
structures.


It depends. Very short programs can generate all random structures.  
White rabbits have intrinsically very deep (in Bennett's sense)  
programs. They are relatively costly. But technically this is not  
enough for eliminating them from the first person appearance, unless  
we use the self-referential logics.





But you also claim that most will consider their histories ...  
Chaitin-incompressible.


In the case of you being duplicated in W and M iteratively. Not in  
case of you in the UD's work.




This means long programs and no predictability at all, contradicting  
daily experience.


Not at all. If you agree with Everett, and send a beam of particles  
prepared in the state (up + down) on a {up, down}-mirror, you see  
the splitting of the beam. If you label the left and right electrons  
by W and M, you can bet the strings will be incompressible, and this  
is a quantum analog of iterated self-duplication. This gives an hint  
for the vanishing of the WR: computable histories about the  
substitution level, and randomness below. That justifies in part the  
quantum appearance from the digitalness of the mind (not of matter).





Then you say but computer science and mathematical logic shows that  
it is not easy either to prove that comp and first person  
indeterminacy implies [flying rabbits]. I don't understand - it has  
been shown it's not easy to prove that? How has it been shown it's  
not easy to prove that?


That is actually rather obvious, if you know just a bit of computer  
science. To get all the computational histories, you need Church  
thesis and the enumeration of all partial computable function. By the  
padding theorem, this is a highly redundant and fractal (and complex)  
structure, and by the theorem of Rice, the set of codes corresponding  
to any non trivial functions is not recursive (making our substitution  
level) unknowable. So it is rather highly complex to derive the  
possibility of white rabbits from that. In this list we discuss  
alternate manner to approach that measure problem.






  And you say: There is no reason for making all relative histories  
equally likely. But then what's the alternative?


To study the math of the universal dovetailing, and of what machine  
can say about themselves and about they consistent extension  
relatively to it.
Accepting the comp theory, together with the classical theory of  
knowledge, although we don't have the measure, we can extract the  
logic obeyed by the particular case of the measure one. I have  
succeeded in showing that it obeys already a quantum-like logic. This  
needs a bit of advanced computer science/mathematical logic. See my  
paper for details and references.


I have to say that I am a bit astonished that some people seems to  
have difficulties to grasp that once we assume comp, theoretical  
computer science becomes *the* key tool to progress on the fundamental  
question. The beam example above suggests empirically that we are  
physically duplicated in the iterative way. But obviously we are not  
just duplicated iteratively, we are also obeying computational laws,  
and arithmetical laws, etc. If that was not the case, comp would imply  
white noise and would fall immediately in Russell's Occam catastrophe.  
But, thanks to God, universal numbers does not put only mess in  
Platonia, they generate also a lot of order.


-- Bruno Marchal






From: marc...@ulb.ac.be
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: first person indeterminacy vs predictability
Date: Mon, 7 Mar 2011 14:58:15 +0100


On 07 Mar 2011, at 10:47, Digital Physics wrote:But if most  
histories are equally likely, and most of them are random and  
unpredictable and weird in the sense that suddenly crocodiles fly  
by, then why can we predict rather reliably that none of those weird  
histories will happen?



From: marc...@ulb.ac.be
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: first person indeterminacy
Date: Sun, 6 Mar 2011 19:47:20 +0100
You can also consider the iteration of self-duplication. If you
iterate 64 times, there will be 2^64 versions of you. First person
indeterminacy is the fact that most of the 2^64 versions of you will
agree that they were unable to predict in advance what was the next
outcome at each iteration. Most will consider that their histories
(like:
WMMMWWMWWWWMMWMMWM ... (length 64)
are random, even Chaitin-incompressible.



Nobody said that the histories are generated by the iterated self- 
duplication. The iterated self-duplication is used here only to  
understand what is the first person indeterminacy in a very simple  
context (the context of pure iterated self-duplication).

Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 07 Mar 2011, at 16:12, 1Z wrote:




On Mar 7, 2:52 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


You haven;t explained why they should be dealing with
consc. in the first place. Surely it is prima facie psychology.


There is no human observation without consciousness.


There can be no observations without sense organs,
but it is not the job of physics to study sense organs


Sense organs are usually conceived, both in MEC and in MAT, as  
measuring apparatus. When physics embraces monistic views and embed  
the physicist *in* in the world they are studying, they do study sense  
organ, even if they can simplify them in a lot of ways. The carbon  
nature of those sense organs might be not fundamental.
Anyway, since Everett, we are back to normal, the physicist and his  
consciousness (through the comp theory of consciousness) is back in  
the picture. Now comp asks for extending that picture to the whole  
sigma_1 truth.






Implicitly you are. To say that physics has failed
to deal with it is to imply that it should be dealing with it,
which is to imply that it is fundamental


It was fundamental for the greek. Science is born from an
understanding that the physical reality might hide something, notably
mathematical truth (Xeuxippes), or just 'truth', the original god  
of

the Platonists. But you can do physics without working on the mind-
body problem. But fundamental physics is more demanding. To solve the
mind-body problem in a monist theory, you have to sacrify, at the
ontological level, either mind or matter (provably so assuming comp).


Reduction is not elimination


Ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological  
reduction, but it does entail ontological reduction.


That explains why a lot of honest materialist are keen to try to  
eliminate consciousness, like the Churchland, even Dennett.
Now, as I said often, even before comp, uda, auda, it is easier to  
explain the illusion of matter to a consciousness than an illusion of  
consciousness to matter; if only because the notion of illusionary  
consciousness is a non sense at the start.


Bruno





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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 07 Mar 2011, at 16:41, Bruno Marchal wrote:



On 07 Mar 2011, at 16:12, 1Z wrote:


Reduction is not elimination


Ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological  
reduction, but it does entail ontological reduction.


Please read:

Ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological  
*elimination*, but it does entail ontological *elimination*.


---
I think I wrote about instead of above in my preceding mail to  
'digital physics'.


---
And I apologize for my random use of the s, and my fuzzy use of the  
past tense for some verbs.


I am very sorry. Don't hesitate to ask precision when you find my  
english ambiguous.


Bruno





That explains why a lot of honest materialist are keen to try to  
eliminate consciousness, like the Churchland, even Dennett.
Now, as I said often, even before comp, uda, auda, it is easier to  
explain the illusion of matter to a consciousness than an illusion  
of consciousness to matter; if only because the notion of  
illusionary consciousness is a non sense at the start.


Bruno





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RE: first person indeterminacy vs predictability

2011-03-07 Thread Digital Physics


  I agree that white rabbits have programs much shorter than those of random 
  structures.
 It depends. Very short programs can generate all random structures.

You mean the short program that computes the entire set! But this is irrelevant 
here: to predict a concrete individual history, we must consider the 
probability of the program that computes this concrete individual history, and 
nothing else. The description of the entire set is much shorter than the 
description of most of its individual elements. But it is useless as it has no 
predictive power. Schmidhuber has a lots of papers on this: 
http://www.idsia.ch/~juergen/computeruniverse.html

 White rabbits have intrinsically very deep (in Bennett's sense) programs. 

No, because many programs making white rabbits for video games are both short 
and fast, that is, those rabbits are not deep in Bennett's sense.

  But you also claim that most will consider their histories ...
  Chaitin-incompressible.

 In the case of you being duplicated in W and M iteratively. Not in
 case of you in the UD's work.

This seems very unclear. What's the difference?

  This means long programs and no predictability at all, contradicting
  daily experience.

 Not at all. If you agree with Everett, and send a beam of particles
 prepared in the state (up + down) on a {up, down}-mirror, you see
 the splitting of the beam. If you label the left and right electrons
 by W and M, you can bet the strings will be incompressible, 

sure, this still makes sense

 and this is a quantum analog of iterated self-duplication. This gives an hint
 for the vanishing of the WR: computable histories about the
 substitution level, and randomness below. That justifies in part the
 quantum appearance from the digitalness of the mind (not of matter).

Well, to me this sounds a bit like jargon used to hide the lack of substance. 
Or can you explain this clearly? Excuse me for skipping the remainder of this 
message.


  

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Re: first person indeterminacy vs predictability

2011-03-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 07 Mar 2011, at 17:26, Digital Physics wrote:




I agree that white rabbits have programs much shorter than those  
of random structures.

It depends. Very short programs can generate all random structures.


You mean the short program that computes the entire set! But this is  
irrelevant here: to predict a concrete individual history, we must  
consider the probability of the program that computes this concrete  
individual history, and nothing else. The description of the entire  
set is much shorter than the description of most of its individual  
elements. But it is useless as it has no predictive power.  
Schmidhuber has a lots of papers on this:

http://www.idsia.ch/~juergen/computeruniverse.html


The entire set of random string is useful to illustrate the first  
person indeterminacy, and that was its role in my reply to Andrew and  
1Z. So your remark is unfounded.
We have discussed this a lot with Juergen on this list. To keep its  
position he was obliged to assume that finite strings can never be  
said random, even form a first person point of view. You might take a  
look in the archive.  To sum up, Schmidhuber missed the first person  
indeterminacy.
You have to understand that the point here consists not in solving the  
mind-body problem, but in formulating it in the computationalist  
theory of the mind.






White rabbits have intrinsically very deep (in Bennett's sense)  
programs.


No, because many programs making white rabbits for video games are  
both short and fast, that is, those rabbits are not deep in  
Bennett's sense.


But a sustaining white rabbit human hallucination is another matter.  
And this is what we have to take into account in the measure problem  
when we are confronted with the universal dovetailing.







But you also claim that most will consider their histories ...
Chaitin-incompressible.


In the case of you being duplicated in W and M iteratively. Not in
case of you in the UD's work.


This seems very unclear. What's the difference?


It is the difference between a counting algorithm, and a universal  
algorithm. You might identify numbers and programs, and in that case  
the difference is the difference between a list of programs, and a  
list of the executions of the programs. If you have read enough in the  
archive or in my paper to understand the first person indeterminacy  
notion, you might understand that, from the first person points of  
view, such a distinction does matter.







This means long programs and no predictability at all, contradicting
daily experience.


Not at all. If you agree with Everett, and send a beam of particles
prepared in the state (up + down) on a {up, down}-mirror, you see
the splitting of the beam. If you label the left and right electrons
by W and M, you can bet the strings will be incompressible,


sure, this still makes sense

and this is a quantum analog of iterated self-duplication. This  
gives an hint

for the vanishing of the WR: computable histories about the
substitution level, and randomness below. That justifies in part the
quantum appearance from the digitalness of the mind (not of matter).


Well, to me this sounds a bit like jargon used to hide the lack of  
substance.


 I meant computable histories *above* the substitution level, and  
randomness below. More precisely the randomness pertains on the set  
of all computations going through my current relative states. This is  
a consequence of the UD Argument. I refer you to my sane04 paper:

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/publications/SANE2004MARCHALAbstract.html




Or can you explain this clearly? Excuse me for skipping the  
remainder of this message.


I suggest you read the paper sane04(*). If you have a (real precise,  
not philosophical) problem, just ask a precise question. We were  
discussing the seventh step of the UD Argument. It would already be  
easier if you can acknowledge the understanding of the first six  
steps.  Note that the skipped message was alluding to the more  
technical part of the work, where the measure one is given by a  
variant of Gödel-Löb self-reference logics, which I name arithmetical  
hypostases, because I have used them to provide an arithmetical  
interpretation of Plotinus theology, including his notion of matter.  
The whole result is that comp, with the classical theory of knowledge,  
is an empirically testable theory.


Bruno Marchal

(*)
http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/publications/SANE2004MARCHALAbstract.html


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Reversal without primary matter elimination (step 7)

2011-03-07 Thread Brent Meeker

On 3/7/2011 1:11 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 06 Mar 2011, at 20:21, Brent Meeker wrote:


On 3/6/2011 5:07 AM, 1Z wrote:

The way I see it the MG consciousness would not be conscious of any
  world except the virtual world of the MG, which is to say not conscious
  at all in our terms.  It could, provided enough environment and Bruno
  emphasizes the UD will provide an arbitrarily large environment, be
  conscious*in this other universe*.  But I think that's Stathis's
  example of the conscious rock.  It's conscious modulo some
  interpretation, but that's a reductio against saying it's conscious at all.

  Brent
 

I am not a fan of the MG specifically, but I don't see why
you need a world to have consciousness as if of a world.
The BIV argument indicates that you only need to simulate
incoming data on peripheral nerves
   


But how much of the world do you need to simulate to produce 
consistent incoming data?  and to allow the MG to act?  I think a 
lot. And in any case it is within and relative to this simulated 
world that consciousness exists (if it does).  The MGA tends to 
obscure this because it helps itself to our intuition about this 
world and that we are simulating it and so we know what the 
simulation means, i.e. we have an interpretation.  That's why I 
referred to the rock that computes everything paradox; it's the same 
situation except we *don't* have a ready made intuitive 
interpretation.  Stathis, as I recall, defended the idea that the 
rock could, by instantiating consciousness, provide it's own 
interpretation.  I agreed with the inference, but I regard it as a 
reductio against the rock that computes everything.


The brain-in-a-vat is somewhat different in that it is usually 
supposed it is connected to our world for perception and action.  So 
it can have real (our kind of) consciousness.


What about a disconnected dreaming 'brain-in-a-vat'?

Bruno


If you actually took a human brain and put it in-a-vat I think it 
would quickly go into a loop and no longer be conscious in any 
meaningful sense.  But even that case what ever it was conscious of 
would be derivative from interaction with this world.  If you grew a 
brain in a vat, one that never had perceptual experience, you would no 
more be able to discern consciousness in it than in a rock.


Brent

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Re: Reversal without primary matter elimination (step 7)

2011-03-07 Thread 1Z


On Mar 7, 6:29 pm, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
 On 3/7/2011 1:11 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:





  On 06 Mar 2011, at 20:21, Brent Meeker wrote:

  On 3/6/2011 5:07 AM, 1Z wrote:
  The way I see it the MG consciousness would not be conscious of any
    world except the virtual world of the MG, which is to say not 
   conscious
    at all in our terms.  It could, provided enough environment and Bruno
    emphasizes the UD will provide an arbitrarily large environment, be
    conscious*in this other universe*.  But I think that's Stathis's
    example of the conscious rock.  It's conscious modulo some
    interpretation, but that's a reductio against saying it's conscious 
   at all.

    Brent

  I am not a fan of the MG specifically, but I don't see why
  you need a world to have consciousness as if of a world.
  The BIV argument indicates that you only need to simulate
  incoming data on peripheral nerves

  But how much of the world do you need to simulate to produce
  consistent incoming data?  and to allow the MG to act?  I think a
  lot. And in any case it is within and relative to this simulated
  world that consciousness exists (if it does).  The MGA tends to
  obscure this because it helps itself to our intuition about this
  world and that we are simulating it and so we know what the
  simulation means, i.e. we have an interpretation.  That's why I
  referred to the rock that computes everything paradox; it's the same
  situation except we *don't* have a ready made intuitive
  interpretation.  Stathis, as I recall, defended the idea that the
  rock could, by instantiating consciousness, provide it's own
  interpretation.  I agreed with the inference, but I regard it as a
  reductio against the rock that computes everything.

  The brain-in-a-vat is somewhat different in that it is usually
  supposed it is connected to our world for perception and action.  So
  it can have real (our kind of) consciousness.

  What about a disconnected dreaming 'brain-in-a-vat'?

  Bruno

 If you actually took a human brain and put it in-a-vat I think it
 would quickly go into a loop and no longer be conscious in any
 meaningful sense.  But even that case what ever it was conscious of
 would be derivative from interaction with this world.  If you grew a
 brain in a vat, one that never had perceptual experience, you would no
 more be able to discern consciousness in it than in a rock.

 Brent

Again , the point of BIV's is that they are fed fake sensory
information

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Re: Reversal without primary matter elimination (step 7)

2011-03-07 Thread Brent Meeker

On 3/7/2011 12:01 PM, 1Z wrote:


On Mar 7, 6:29 pm, Brent Meekermeeke...@dslextreme.com  wrote:
   

On 3/7/2011 1:11 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:





 

On 06 Mar 2011, at 20:21, Brent Meeker wrote:
   
 

On 3/6/2011 5:07 AM, 1Z wrote:
 

The way I see it the MG consciousness would not be conscious of any
 

  world except the virtual world of the MG, which is to say not conscious
  at all in our terms.  It could, provided enough environment and Bruno
  emphasizes the UD will provide an arbitrarily large environment, be
  conscious*in this other universe*.  But I think that's Stathis's
  example of the conscious rock.  It's conscious modulo some
  interpretation, but that's a reductio against saying it's conscious at all.
   
 

  Brent
   
 

I am not a fan of the MG specifically, but I don't see why
you need a world to have consciousness as if of a world.
The BIV argument indicates that you only need to simulate
incoming data on peripheral nerves
   
 

But how much of the world do you need to simulate to produce
consistent incoming data?  and to allow the MG to act?  I think a
lot. And in any case it is within and relative to this simulated
world that consciousness exists (if it does).  The MGA tends to
obscure this because it helps itself to our intuition about this
world and that we are simulating it and so we know what the
simulation means, i.e. we have an interpretation.  That's why I
referred to the rock that computes everything paradox; it's the same
situation except we *don't* have a ready made intuitive
interpretation.  Stathis, as I recall, defended the idea that the
rock could, by instantiating consciousness, provide it's own
interpretation.  I agreed with the inference, but I regard it as a
reductio against the rock that computes everything.
 
 

The brain-in-a-vat is somewhat different in that it is usually
supposed it is connected to our world for perception and action.  So
it can have real (our kind of) consciousness.
 
 

What about a disconnected dreaming 'brain-in-a-vat'?
   
 

Bruno
   

If you actually took a human brain and put it in-a-vat I think it
would quickly go into a loop and no longer be conscious in any
meaningful sense.  But even that case what ever it was conscious of
would be derivative from interaction with this world.  If you grew a
brain in a vat, one that never had perceptual experience, you would no
more be able to discern consciousness in it than in a rock.

Brent
 

Again , the point of BIV's is that they are fed fake sensory
information

   
But faking what?  Faking our kind of world - not just noise.  Then the 
BIV is conscious of our world.  If it were just fed white noise it might 
be conscious of some other world the same way a rock may be conscious.


Brent

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-07 Thread David Nyman
On 7 March 2011 15:56, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Reduction is not elimination

snip

 Ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological
 *elimination*, but it does entail ontological *elimination*.

Bruno, this is what I was trying to say some time ago to Peter.  Why
ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological
*elimination* is of course precisely the question that mustn't be
dodged or begged, which is what I'm convinced Peter is doing by
insisting dogmatically that reduction is not elimination.  The point
is that a primitive-materialist micro-physical theory is implicitly
(if not explicitly) committed to the claim that everything that exists
is *just* some arrangement of ultimate material constituents.  That's
literally *all there is*, ex hypothesi.  Despite the fact (and, a
fortiori, *because* of the fact) that this is not what any of us, as
observers, actually finds to be the case, we can nonetheless choose to
deny or ignore this inconvenient truth.  But if we do not so choose,
we can perhaps see that here we have the materialist Hard Problem in
perhaps its purest form: why should there be anything at all except an
ensemble of quarks? (or whatever this month's ultimate constituent of
everything is supposed to be).  And why should any subset of an
ensemble of quarks be localised as here or now?

Adding computation to the materialist mix can't help, because
computation is also just an arrangement of quarks, or whatever, and
talking about emergence, or logical levels etc, can achieve nothing
because after any amount of this logical gyrating *it's still all just
quarks*.  Of course, funnily enough, we manage nonetheless to talk
about all these additional things, but then to claim that this talk
can be materially identical to the quarks under some description
is just to play circular and futile games with words.  Plugging the
conclusion into the premise can of course explain nothing, and simply
begs the critical question in the most egregious way.

The crucial difference in your theory, Bruno, to the extent that I've
understood it, is that it is explicitly both analytic AND integrative.
 That is, it postulates specific arithmetical-computational ultimate
components and their relations, AND it further specifies the local
emergence of conscious first-person viewpoints, and their layers of
composite contents, through an additional subtle filtering and
synthesis of the relational ensemble.  Hence, through a kind of
duality of part and whole, it is able to avoid the monistic deathtrap,
and consequently isn't forced to deny, or sweep under the rug, the
categorical orthogonality of mind and body.  In such a schema, the
entire domain of the secondary qualities, including matter, time and
space themselves, is localised and personalised at the intersection of
these analytic and synthetic principles.

David


 On 07 Mar 2011, at 16:41, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 07 Mar 2011, at 16:12, 1Z wrote:

 Reduction is not elimination

 Ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological
 reduction, but it does entail ontological reduction.

 Please read:

 Ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological
 *elimination*, but it does entail ontological *elimination*.

 ---
 I think I wrote about instead of above in my preceding mail to 'digital
 physics'.

 ---
 And I apologize for my random use of the s, and my fuzzy use of the past
 tense for some verbs.

 I am very sorry. Don't hesitate to ask precision when you find my english
 ambiguous.

 Bruno




 That explains why a lot of honest materialist are keen to try to eliminate
 consciousness, like the Churchland, even Dennett.
 Now, as I said often, even before comp, uda, auda, it is easier to explain
 the illusion of matter to a consciousness than an illusion of consciousness
 to matter; if only because the notion of illusionary consciousness is a non
 sense at the start.

 Bruno




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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-07 Thread 1Z


On Mar 7, 8:48 pm, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:
 On 7 March 2011 15:56, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:



  Reduction is not elimination

 snip

  Ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological
  *elimination*, but it does entail ontological *elimination*.

 Bruno, this is what I was trying to say some time ago to Peter.  Why
 ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological
 *elimination* is of course precisely the question that mustn't be
 dodged or begged, which is what I'm convinced Peter is doing by
 insisting dogmatically that reduction is not elimination.

It's rather well known that reductivism and eliminativism are
not equivalent positions, for instance.

 The point
 is that a primitive-materialist micro-physical theory is implicitly
 (if not explicitly) committed to the claim that everything that exists
 is *just* some arrangement of ultimate material constituents.

Yep. And reductive identity theorists say mind is a bunch
of micro physical goings-on, whereas their eliminativist
opponents say mind Is nothing at all.

  That's
 literally *all there is*, ex hypothesi.  Despite the fact (and, a
 fortiori, *because* of the fact) that this is not what any of us, as
 observers, actually finds to be the case,

Either or neither or both  of reductivism  and eliminativism can
be judged empirically inadequate: in no case does that
make them the same

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Re: Reversal without primary matter elimination (step 7)

2011-03-07 Thread 1Z


On Mar 7, 8:28 pm, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
 On 3/7/2011 12:01 PM, 1Z wrote:



  On Mar 7, 6:29 pm, Brent Meekermeeke...@dslextreme.com  wrote:

  On 3/7/2011 1:11 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

  On 06 Mar 2011, at 20:21, Brent Meeker wrote:

  On 3/6/2011 5:07 AM, 1Z wrote:

  The way I see it the MG consciousness would not be conscious of any

    world except the virtual world of the MG, which is to say not 
  conscious
    at all in our terms.  It could, provided enough environment and 
  Bruno
    emphasizes the UD will provide an arbitrarily large environment, be
    conscious*in this other universe*.  But I think that's Stathis's
    example of the conscious rock.  It's conscious modulo some
    interpretation, but that's a reductio against saying it's conscious 
  at all.

    Brent

  I am not a fan of the MG specifically, but I don't see why
  you need a world to have consciousness as if of a world.
  The BIV argument indicates that you only need to simulate
  incoming data on peripheral nerves

  But how much of the world do you need to simulate to produce
  consistent incoming data?  and to allow the MG to act?  I think a
  lot. And in any case it is within and relative to this simulated
  world that consciousness exists (if it does).  The MGA tends to
  obscure this because it helps itself to our intuition about this
  world and that we are simulating it and so we know what the
  simulation means, i.e. we have an interpretation.  That's why I
  referred to the rock that computes everything paradox; it's the same
  situation except we *don't* have a ready made intuitive
  interpretation.  Stathis, as I recall, defended the idea that the
  rock could, by instantiating consciousness, provide it's own
  interpretation.  I agreed with the inference, but I regard it as a
  reductio against the rock that computes everything.

  The brain-in-a-vat is somewhat different in that it is usually
  supposed it is connected to our world for perception and action.  So
  it can have real (our kind of) consciousness.

  What about a disconnected dreaming 'brain-in-a-vat'?

  Bruno

  If you actually took a human brain and put it in-a-vat I think it
  would quickly go into a loop and no longer be conscious in any
  meaningful sense.  But even that case what ever it was conscious of
  would be derivative from interaction with this world.  If you grew a
  brain in a vat, one that never had perceptual experience, you would no
  more be able to discern consciousness in it than in a rock.

  Brent

  Again , the point of BIV's is that they are fed fake sensory
  information

 But faking what?  Faking our kind of world - not just noise.  Then the
 BIV is conscious of our world.

That doesn't follow at all. You could fake something that
is highly organised (not white noise) but also unrelated
to reality. As such, the BIV is not conscious of
it, where of implies some sort of real object, because there
is no such real object.

 If it were just fed white noise it might
 be conscious of some other world the same way a rock may be conscious.

 Brent

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Re: Reversal without primary matter elimination (step 7)

2011-03-07 Thread Brent Meeker

On 3/7/2011 4:15 PM, 1Z wrote:


On Mar 7, 8:28 pm, Brent Meekermeeke...@dslextreme.com  wrote:
   

On 3/7/2011 12:01 PM, 1Z wrote:



 

On Mar 7, 6:29 pm, Brent Meekermeeke...@dslextreme.comwrote:
   
 

On 3/7/2011 1:11 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 

On 06 Mar 2011, at 20:21, Brent Meeker wrote:
   
 

On 3/6/2011 5:07 AM, 1Z wrote:
 
 

The way I see it the MG consciousness would not be conscious of any
 
 

   world except the virtual world of the MG, which is to say not conscious
   at all in our terms.  It could, provided enough environment and Bruno
   emphasizes the UD will provide an arbitrarily large environment, be
   conscious*in this other universe*.  But I think that's Stathis's
   example of the conscious rock.  It's conscious modulo some
   interpretation, but that's a reductio against saying it's conscious at all.
   
 

   Brent
   
 

I am not a fan of the MG specifically, but I don't see why
you need a world to have consciousness as if of a world.
The BIV argument indicates that you only need to simulate
incoming data on peripheral nerves
   
 

But how much of the world do you need to simulate to produce
consistent incoming data?  and to allow the MG to act?  I think a
lot. And in any case it is within and relative to this simulated
world that consciousness exists (if it does).  The MGA tends to
obscure this because it helps itself to our intuition about this
world and that we are simulating it and so we know what the
simulation means, i.e. we have an interpretation.  That's why I
referred to the rock that computes everything paradox; it's the same
situation except we *don't* have a ready made intuitive
interpretation.  Stathis, as I recall, defended the idea that the
rock could, by instantiating consciousness, provide it's own
interpretation.  I agreed with the inference, but I regard it as a
reductio against the rock that computes everything.
 
 

The brain-in-a-vat is somewhat different in that it is usually
supposed it is connected to our world for perception and action.  So
it can have real (our kind of) consciousness.
 
 

What about a disconnected dreaming 'brain-in-a-vat'?
   
 

Bruno
   
 

If you actually took a human brain and put it in-a-vat I think it
would quickly go into a loop and no longer be conscious in any
meaningful sense.  But even that case what ever it was conscious of
would be derivative from interaction with this world.  If you grew a
brain in a vat, one that never had perceptual experience, you would no
more be able to discern consciousness in it than in a rock.
 
 

Brent
 
 

Again , the point of BIV's is that they are fed fake sensory
information
   

But faking what?  Faking our kind of world - not just noise.  Then the
BIV is conscious of our world.
 

That doesn't follow at all. You could fake something that
is highly organised (not white noise) but also unrelated
to reality. As such, the BIV is not conscious of
it, where of implies some sort of real object, because there
is no such real object.
   


Up to a point.  But if the faking deviated very far from perceptions of 
this world the BIV would no longer be able to process them.  We casually 
talk of white rabbits on this list, which are perfectly understandable 
things and are really of this world (e.g. in Walt Disney pictures).  But 
they are just tiny derivative, deviations from reality.  Even things as 
real as optical illusions become difficult to process (which is why they 
produce illusions).  If your BIV was a human brain and was provided the 
perceptions of, say, a bird it would probably be unable to process them 
- it would be as cut off as if you provided white noise.  My point is 
that human brains evolve and learn in this world and it's the only kind 
of world they can be conscious of.  You can fiddle a little with inputs 
to the BIV, but unless your inputs are just variants on this world, 
they'll mean nothing.


Brent

   

  If it were just fed white noise it might
be conscious of some other world the same way a rock may be conscious.

Brent
 
   


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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-07 Thread David Nyman
On 8 March 2011 00:11, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

 It's rather well known that reductivism and eliminativism are
 not equivalent positions, for instance.
snip
 And reductive identity theorists say mind is a bunch
 of micro physical goings-on, whereas their eliminativist
 opponents say mind Is nothing at all.

Yes, indeed they do, as I am very well aware, but I've said why I
think that neither of these well known positions can adequately
address the mind-body issues, which is what we are discussing.  My
claim is that they are using circular reasoning, assuming the
conclusion in the premise, or are simply ignoring the very tools they
employ to construct their case.  What specifically do you find to be
the error in this analysis?

 Either or neither or both  of reductivism  and eliminativism can
 be judged empirically inadequate: in no case does that
 make them the same

I have explained why I think any real distinction between the two in a
materialist schema is fundamentally question-begging with respect to
the mind-body problem, essentially in the terms Bruno articulated so
succinctly.  You haven't pointed out what is wrong with my argument,
merely that others disagree with it.  It would be more helpful if you
would say simply what you find to be wrong or unclear in what I have
said.

David




 On Mar 7, 8:48 pm, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:
 On 7 March 2011 15:56, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:



  Reduction is not elimination

 snip

  Ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological
  *elimination*, but it does entail ontological *elimination*.

 Bruno, this is what I was trying to say some time ago to Peter.  Why
 ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological
 *elimination* is of course precisely the question that mustn't be
 dodged or begged, which is what I'm convinced Peter is doing by
 insisting dogmatically that reduction is not elimination.

 It's rather well known that reductivism and eliminativism are
 not equivalent positions, for instance.

 The point
 is that a primitive-materialist micro-physical theory is implicitly
 (if not explicitly) committed to the claim that everything that exists
 is *just* some arrangement of ultimate material constituents.

 Yep. And reductive identity theorists say mind is a bunch
 of micro physical goings-on, whereas their eliminativist
 opponents say mind Is nothing at all.

  That's
 literally *all there is*, ex hypothesi.  Despite the fact (and, a
 fortiori, *because* of the fact) that this is not what any of us, as
 observers, actually finds to be the case,

 Either or neither or both  of reductivism  and eliminativism can
 be judged empirically inadequate: in no case does that
 make them the same

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