Re: Interesting Feynman Quote

2012-02-25 Thread Stephen P. King

On 2/26/2012 12:26 AM, Stephen P. King wrote:

Hi Folks,

As I was reading an interesting paper, I ran across an equally 
interesting quote from Richard Feynman:


‘It always bothers me that, according to the laws as we
understand them today, it takes a computing machine an infinite number 
of logical operations
to figure out what goes on in no matter how tiny a region of spaces, 
and no matter how tiny
a region of time. How can all that be going on in that tiny space? Why 
should it take an
infinite amount of logic to figure out what one tiny piece of space/time 
is going to do?’


Bruno's idea explains this by showing that an infinite number of 
computations "run" though each and every event in space-time (please 
correct my wording!). Would Feynman be happy with this answer?


Onward!

Stephen

Adding to my question: Could we equally say that an infinite number of 
physical processes are running each and every instance of a computation?


Onward!

Stephen

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Interesting Feynman Quote

2012-02-25 Thread Stephen P. King

Hi Folks,

As I was reading an interesting paper, I ran across an interesting quote 
from Richard Feynman:


‘It always bothers me that, according to the laws as we
understand them today, it takes a computing machine an infinite number of 
logical operations
to figure out what goes on in no matter how tiny a region of spaces, and 
no matter how tiny
a region of time. How can all that be going on in that tiny space? Why 
should it take an
infinite amount of logic to figure out what one tiny piece of space/time 
is going to do?’


Bruno's idea explains this by showing that an infinite number of 
computations "run" though each and every event in space-time (please 
correct my wording!). Would Feynman be happy with this answer?


Onward!

Stephen

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Re: Support for Panexperientialism

2012-02-25 Thread 1Z


On Feb 24, 11:13 pm, Craig Weinberg  wrote:

> Of course. They are the particular sense of epistemology which 'seems
> like' the opposite of 'seems like'. Phenomena are reduced to their
> wireframe invariance - a skeleton which seems as if it 'simply is'
> because it represents the most common overlap and discards all nuanced
> underlap.

Didn;t understand that.

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Re: Yes Doctor circularity

2012-02-25 Thread 1Z


On Feb 24, 11:02 pm, Craig Weinberg  wrote:
> On Feb 24, 7:40 am, 1Z  wrote:
>
>

> Which only underscores how different consciousness is from
> computation. We can't share the exact same software, but computers
> can. We can't re-run our experiences, but computers can. By default
> humans cannot help but generate their own unique software, but the
> reverse is true with computers. We have to work to write each update
> to the code, which is then distributed uniformly to every (nearly)
> identical client machine.

AIs can generate their own software. That is the point of AI.

> > > By default,
> > > everything that a computer does is mechanistic. We have to go out of
> > > our way to generate sophisticated algorithms to emulate naturalistic
> > > human patterns.
>
> > which could mean humans transcend computation, or
> > could mean humans are more complex than current computers
>
> Complexity is the deus ex anima of comp. There is no reason to imagine
> that a complex arrangement of dumb marbles adds up to be something
> which experiences the universe in some synergistic way.

THat;s a more plausible reason for doubting CT0M.

> > >Human development proves just the contrary. We start
> > > out wild and willful and become more mechanistic through
> > > domestication.
>
> > You think mechanisms can't be random or unpredictable?
>
> That's not the same thing as wild and willful.

Isn't it? Is there any hard evidence of that?

>There is agency there.
> Intentional exuberance that can be domesticated. Babies are noisy
> alright, but they aren't noise. Randomness and unpredictability is
> mere noise.

> > > > Altenatively, they might
> > > > just be illogical...even if we are computers. It is a subtle
> > > > fallacy to say that computers run on logic: they run on rules.
>
> > > Yes! This is why they have a trivial intelligence and no true
> > > understanding.
>
> > Or current ones are too simple
>
> Again - complexity is not the magic.

Again..you can;t infer to all computers from the limitations
of some computers.

> > > Rule followers are dumb.
>
> > You have no evidence that humans are not following
> > complex rules.
>
> We are following rules too, but we also break them.

Rule-breaking might be based on rules. Adolescents are
predictably rebellious.

> > >Logic is a form of
> > > intelligence which we use to write these rules that write more rules.
> > > The more rules you have, the better the machine, but no amount of
> > > rules make the machine more (or less) logical. Humans vary widely in
> > > their preference for logic, emotion, pragmatism, leadership, etc.
> > > Computers don't vary at all in their approach. It is all the same rule
> > > follower only with different rules.
>
> > > > They have no guarantee to be rational. If the rules are
> > > > wrong, you have bugs. Humans are known to have
> > > > any number of cognitive bugs. The "jumping" thing
> > > > could be implemented by real or pseudo randomness, too.
>
> > > > > Because of 1, it is assumed that the thought experiment universe
> > > > > includes the subjective experience of personal value - that the
> > > > > patient has a stake, or 'money to bet'.
>
> > > > What's the problem ? the experience (quale) or the value?
>
> > > The significance of the quale.
>
> > You mean apparent significance. But apparent significance *is* a
> > quale.
>
> Apparent is redundant. All qualia are apparent. Significance is a meta
> quale (appears more apparent - a 'signal' or 'sign').


Apparent significance, you mean.

> > > > Do you know the value to be real?
>
> > > I know it to be subjective.
>
> > Great. So it's an opinion. How does that stop the mechanistic-
> > physicalistic show?
>
> Mechanism is the opinion of things that are not us.

Says who?

> > > > Do you think a computer
> > > > could not be deluded about value?
>
> > > I think a computer can't be anything but turned off and on.
>
> > Well, you;'re wrong. It takes more than one bit (on/off) to
> > describe computation.
>
> you forgot the 'turning'.

That does't help.

> > > > > Because of 2, it is assumed
> > > > > that libertarian free will exists in the scenario
>
> > > > I don't see that FW of a specifically libertarian aort is posited
> > > > in the scenario. It just assumes you can make a choice in
> > > > some sense.
>
> > > It assumes that choice is up to you and not determined by
> > > computations.
>
> > Nope. It just assumes you can make some sort of choice.
>
> A voluntary choice.
>
> Craig

Some sort of "voluntary"

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Re: The free will function

2012-02-25 Thread 1Z


On Feb 25, 6:32 pm, Craig Weinberg  wrote:
> On Feb 24, 8:22 am, 1Z  wrote:
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
> > On Feb 23, 10:24 pm, Craig Weinberg  wrote:
>
> > > > > You are
> > > > > thinking that because you know it's a simulation it means that the
> > > > > observers within are subject to truths outside of the simulation
>
> > > > I don't know what you mean by "subject to". They may well not
> > > > be able to arrive at the actual facts beyond the simulation at all.
>
> > > Which is why they can't call them actual facts. To them, the
> > > simulation is the only facts. They do not exist outside of the
> > > simulation.
>
> > But they are wrong about all that, or there is no sense
> > to the claim that they are sims ITFP
>
> They are right about that. If I am a sim running on a computer
> somewhere, it doesn't matter to me at all where that is because I can
> never get our of this sim here to get to the world of the computer out
> there.

That certain things don'tn matter to you doesn't
change any facts.

> I am not a sim to myself of course, but if someone can pause
> the program, put horns on my head and start it again, it is because to
> them, I am a simulation.
>
>
>
> > > > But that is an observation that *depends* on truth having a
> > > > transcendent and objective nature. If truth is just what seems
> > > > to you to be true, then they have the truth, as does every lunatic.
>
> > > You could make a simulation where the simulation changes to fit the
> > > delusions of a lunatic. You could even make them all lunatics and make
> > > their consciousness completely solipsistic.
>
> > So?
>
> To in that simulated universe, lunacy would be truth.

Luncacy might be believed. Not the same thing.

> > > > I recommend using publically accessble language
> > > > to enhance communication, not to discover new
> > > > facts.
>
> > > I would rather enhance the content of the communication than the form.
>
> > If the form renders the content inaccessible, what's the point?
>
> > > > > Because comp hasn't been around long enough to have traditions.
>
> > > > That doesn't answer the question. You are proceding as if the meaning
> > > > of
> > > > a word *always* changes in different contexts.
>
> > > It does
>
> > Says who?
>
> Why do you think it doesn't?

Don't shift the burden. You are making the extraordinary claim.

> Do you mean the same thing today when you
> talk about having 'fun' as you did when you were in third grade?

I am  not disputing that some meanings change in some contexts.


>
> > > > It;s true outside the game as well. Whatever you are trying
> > > > to say. it is a poor analogy. You might try asking if you are
> > > > really the top hat in Monopoly, or Throngar the Invincible in
> > > > D&D
>
> > > Those make the same point as well. Is it true that you are the top hat
> > > in Monopoly? If not then Monopoly is not a very strong simulation -
> > > which it isn't. A full immersion virtual D&D campaign? That would be a
> > > stronger simulation and you could not so easily say that you aren't
> > > Throngar. Especially if you played him for a living...and changed your
> > > name legally...and got plastic surgery. At what point do you become
> > > Throngar?
>
> > If there is any meaning to the word "simulation", then it is never
> > actual.
>
> That's simplistic. The whole point of a simulation is that is is as if
> it were actual in some sense. A flight simulator provides an actual
> experience that can seem like flying an actual plane. If you are on a
> plane where the pilot dies, do you ask the guy who has logged 1
> hours on flight simulators to fly the plane or do you say they have no
> actual experience?

That's irrelevant.

> > The problem we keep running into is that you assume something...
> > simulations exist...and then refuse to follow throught the
> > consequences.
>
> No, you just aren't getting the overall concept of relativism.

I understand it, but don;t agree with it.

> Comp
> claims that computation is all that is required for consciousness.
> This is what opens up a nonsense thesis about simulations having
> relative reality. I understand that is not the way it works.
> Consciousness is not emulable, only extendible. There is no simulation
> of red. Red is only red. Who we are is like that. Us-ness.
>
>
>
> > > Are you 1Z? Figurative is the word to focus on. Subjectivity
> > > is figurative. Meaning, perception, sensation...all figurative.
> > > Literal is the antithesis that is objectivity.
> > > > But not actually supernatural at all, if he is a geek with BO and
> > > > dandruff.
> > > > That is the point you are missing.
>
> > > But the simulated beings can never access that information about their
> > > creator, so how can it be true for them?
>
> > It can be true because it is true.
>
> Without some way to sense it or it's true that means nothing to us.

It means something to non-relativists

> > You have already assumed
> > soemthing like that when you made the initial assumpt

Re: UD* and consciousness

2012-02-25 Thread meekerdb

On 2/25/2012 7:15 AM, Terren Suydam wrote:

On Fri, Feb 24, 2012 at 6:20 PM, acw  wrote:

Pain - immediate actions, random or not, to specific dangerous stimuli.
Aversion/avoidance in more complex organisms (such as those capable of
expecting or predicting painful stimuli).
Pleasure - reduced or repeated same actions, to specific pelasurable
stimuli. Pleasure seeking behavior in more complex organisms (such as those
capable of expecting or predicting pleasurable stimuli).
Stimuli can be both internal (emotion) or external (senses).
Obviously for beings as complex as humans the nature of certain emotions can
be much more complex than that because they are mixed in with many others,
but I think that's what the simplest behavioral characterization of
pain/pleasure that I know of.

Just a quick response acw, to say thanks for your responses. I
basically agree with everything you've said, it makes total sense to
me. And yet, I am not doing a very good job of expressing myself (to
myself even) because I'm still not satisfied. There's an intuitive
sense I have of a problem that's deeper than anything I've been able
to express so far... and it may turn out to be something else, but I
won't know until I can communicate it.


You might ask yourself, "What form would a satisfactory answer to my problem 
take?"

Brent



I also won't have much time in
the next week for anything so didn't want to leave you hanging. So I
will reflect on what you and Bruno have said... thanks again.

Terren



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Re: The free will function (errata)

2012-02-25 Thread Stephen P. King

On 2/25/2012 2:01 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:

On 2/25/2012 4:31 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 24 Feb 2012, at 22:59, acw wrote:


On 2/24/2012 12:59, David Nyman wrote:

On 24 February 2012 11:52, acw  wrote:

I look at it like this, there's 3 notions: Mind (consciousness, 
experience),

(Primitive) Matter, Mechanism.
Those 3 notions are incompatible, but we have experience of all 3, 
mind is
the sum of our experience and thus is the most direct thing 
possible, even
if non-communicable, matter is what is directly inferred from our 
experience
(but we don't know if it's the base of everything) and mechanism 
which means

our experience is lawful (following rules). By induction we build
mechanistic (mathematical) models of matter. We can't really avoid 
any of
the 3: one is primary, the other is directly sensible, the other 
can be

directly inferred.
However, there are many thought experiments that illustrate that 
these
notions are incompatible - you can have any 2 of them, but never 
all 3.
Take away mind and you have eliminative materialism - denying the 
existence
of mind to save primary matter and its mechanistic appearence. 
(This tends
to be seen as a behavioral COMP). Too bad this is hard to stomach 
because

all our theories are learned through our experiences, thus it's a bit
self-defeating.
Take away primitive matter and you have COMP and other platonic 
versions

where matter is a mathematical shadow. Mind becomes how some piece of
abstract math feels from the inside. This is disliked by those 
that wish

matter was more fundamental or that it allows too many fantasies into
reality (even if low-measure).
Take away mechanism and you get some magical form of matter which 
cannot

obey any rules - not even all possible rules


Nice summary.  You say "Mind becomes how some piece of abstract math
feels from the inside", which is essentially how Bruno puts it.
However, this must still fall short of an identity claim - i.e. it
seems obvious that mind is no more "identical" to math or computation
than it is to matter, unless that relation is to be re-defined as
"categorically different".  Math and mind are still distinct, though
correlated.  Do you think that such a duality can still be subsumed in
some sort of neutral monism?
Obviously not all computations have minds like ours associated with 
them. I'm not sure if identity is the right claim, but I'm not sure 
there's much to gain by adding extra "indirection layers" -  it's 
not that consciousness is associated with some scribbles on a piece 
of paper, it's associated with some abstract truths and we could say 
that 3p-wise those truths look like some specific structure we can 
talk about (using pen and paper or computers), but at the same time, 
that that abstract structure does have some sensory experience 
associated with it. Other structure might represent some machines 
implementing some partial local physics. In that way it's neutral 
monist. We could try to keep experience separate and supervening on 
arithmetical truth, but I'm not sure if there's anything to gain by 
introducing such a dualism - it might make epistemological sense, 
but I'm not sure it makes sense ontologically. I'm rather unsure of 
such a move myself, I wonder what Bruno's opinion is on this.


I think that we don't have to introduce an ontological dualism, 
because the dualism is unavoidable from the machine points of view, 
if you agree to


1) model belief (by ideally arithmetically and self-referentially 
correct machine) by Gödel's provability. I can provide many reason to 
do that, even if it oversimplifies the problem. The interesting 
things is that it leads to an already very complex "machine's 
theology". We might take it as a toy theology, but then all theories 
are sort of toys.


2) to accept that S4 (or T, = S4 without Bp -> BBp) provides the best 
axiomatic theories for knowledge.


Then it can be shown that the modality (Bp & p) gives a notion of 
knowledge, i.e. (Bp & p) obeys S4, even a stronger S4Grz theory.


The relevant results here are that G* proves that Bp is equivalent 
with Bp & p, but G does not prove that, and so, this is a point where 
the "divine intellect" (G*), the believer (G) and the kower (soul) Bp 
& p, will completely differ, and this will account for a variety of 
dualism, unavoidable for the machine.


So yes, this is neutral monism. The TOE is just arithmetic, and the 
definition above explains why, at the least, the machine will behaves 
as if dualism was true for her ... until she bet on comp and 
understand the talk of her own G*, without making the error of taking 
that talk for granted (because she cannot know, nor believe, nor even 
explictly express that she is correct).


Hope this might help, but if you want I can explain more on G, G*, 
S4Grz, and the Z and X logics. Those are not logic invented to solve 
problems, like in analytical philosophy, but unavoidable nuances 
brought by the provably correct self-reference logi

Re: The free will function

2012-02-25 Thread Stephen P. King

On 2/25/2012 4:31 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 24 Feb 2012, at 22:59, acw wrote:


On 2/24/2012 12:59, David Nyman wrote:

On 24 February 2012 11:52, acw  wrote:

I look at it like this, there's 3 notions: Mind (consciousness, 
experience),

(Primitive) Matter, Mechanism.
Those 3 notions are incompatible, but we have experience of all 3, 
mind is
the sum of our experience and thus is the most direct thing 
possible, even
if non-communicable, matter is what is directly inferred from our 
experience
(but we don't know if it's the base of everything) and mechanism 
which means

our experience is lawful (following rules). By induction we build
mechanistic (mathematical) models of matter. We can't really avoid 
any of
the 3: one is primary, the other is directly sensible, the other 
can be

directly inferred.
However, there are many thought experiments that illustrate that these
notions are incompatible - you can have any 2 of them, but never 
all 3.
Take away mind and you have eliminative materialism - denying the 
existence
of mind to save primary matter and its mechanistic appearence. 
(This tends
to be seen as a behavioral COMP). Too bad this is hard to stomach 
because

all our theories are learned through our experiences, thus it's a bit
self-defeating.
Take away primitive matter and you have COMP and other platonic 
versions

where matter is a mathematical shadow. Mind becomes how some piece of
abstract math feels from the inside. This is disliked by those that 
wish

matter was more fundamental or that it allows too many fantasies into
reality (even if low-measure).
Take away mechanism and you get some magical form of matter which 
cannot

obey any rules - not even all possible rules


Nice summary.  You say "Mind becomes how some piece of abstract math
feels from the inside", which is essentially how Bruno puts it.
However, this must still fall short of an identity claim - i.e. it
seems obvious that mind is no more "identical" to math or computation
than it is to matter, unless that relation is to be re-defined as
"categorically different".  Math and mind are still distinct, though
correlated.  Do you think that such a duality can still be subsumed in
some sort of neutral monism?
Obviously not all computations have minds like ours associated with 
them. I'm not sure if identity is the right claim, but I'm not sure 
there's much to gain by adding extra "indirection layers" -  it's not 
that consciousness is associated with some scribbles on a piece of 
paper, it's associated with some abstract truths and we could say 
that 3p-wise those truths look like some specific structure we can 
talk about (using pen and paper or computers), but at the same time, 
that that abstract structure does have some sensory experience 
associated with it. Other structure might represent some machines 
implementing some partial local physics. In that way it's neutral 
monist. We could try to keep experience separate and supervening on 
arithmetical truth, but I'm not sure if there's anything to gain by 
introducing such a dualism - it might make epistemological sense, but 
I'm not sure it makes sense ontologically. I'm rather unsure of such 
a move myself, I wonder what Bruno's opinion is on this.


I think that we don't have to introduce an ontological dualism, 
because the dualism is unavoidable from the machine points of view, if 
you agree to


1) model belief (by ideally arithmetically and self-referentially 
correct machine) by Gödel's provability. I can provide many reason to 
do that, even if it oversimplifies the problem. The interesting things 
is that it leads to an already very complex "machine's theology". We 
might take it as a toy theology, but then all theories are sort of toys.


2) to accept that S4 (or T, = S4 without Bp -> BBp) provides the best 
axiomatic theories for knowledge.


Then it can be shown that the modality (Bp & p) gives a notion of 
knowledge, i.e. (Bp & p) obeys S4, even a stronger S4Grz theory.


The relevant results here are that G* proves that Bp is equivalent 
with Bp & p, but G does not prove that, and so, this is a point where 
the "divine intellect" (G*), the believer (G) and the kower (soul) Bp 
& p, will completely differ, and this will account for a variety of 
dualism, unavoidable for the machine.


So yes, this is neutral monism. The TOE is just arithmetic, and the 
definition above explains why, at the least, the machine will behaves 
as if dualism was true for her ... until she bet on comp and 
understand the talk of her own G*, without making the error of taking 
that talk for granted (because she cannot know, nor believe, nor even 
explictly express that she is correct).


Hope this might help, but if you want I can explain more on G, G*, 
S4Grz, and the Z and X logics. Those are not logic invented to solve 
problems, like in analytical philosophy, but unavoidable nuances 
brought by the provably correct self-reference logic of machines in 
theoretical computer science.

Re: The free will function

2012-02-25 Thread Craig Weinberg
On Feb 24, 8:22 am, 1Z  wrote:
> On Feb 23, 10:24 pm, Craig Weinberg  wrote:
>
>
>
> > > > You are
> > > > thinking that because you know it's a simulation it means that the
> > > > observers within are subject to truths outside of the simulation
>
> > > I don't know what you mean by "subject to". They may well not
> > > be able to arrive at the actual facts beyond the simulation at all.
>
> > Which is why they can't call them actual facts. To them, the
> > simulation is the only facts. They do not exist outside of the
> > simulation.
>
> But they are wrong about all that, or there is no sense
> to the claim that they are sims ITFP

They are right about that. If I am a sim running on a computer
somewhere, it doesn't matter to me at all where that is because I can
never get our of this sim here to get to the world of the computer out
there. I am not a sim to myself of course, but if someone can pause
the program, put horns on my head and start it again, it is because to
them, I am a simulation.

>
> > > But that is an observation that *depends* on truth having a
> > > transcendent and objective nature. If truth is just what seems
> > > to you to be true, then they have the truth, as does every lunatic.
>
> > You could make a simulation where the simulation changes to fit the
> > delusions of a lunatic. You could even make them all lunatics and make
> > their consciousness completely solipsistic.
>
> So?

To in that simulated universe, lunacy would be truth.

>
> > > I recommend using publically accessble language
> > > to enhance communication, not to discover new
> > > facts.
>
> > I would rather enhance the content of the communication than the form.
>
> If the form renders the content inaccessible, what's the point?
>
> > > > Because comp hasn't been around long enough to have traditions.
>
> > > That doesn't answer the question. You are proceding as if the meaning
> > > of
> > > a word *always* changes in different contexts.
>
> > It does
>
> Says who?

Why do you think it doesn't? Do you mean the same thing today when you
talk about having 'fun' as you did when you were in third grade? Did
that meaning change specifically at some point? Are meanings hovering
around somewhere unchanging until some dictionary is updated?

>
> > > > Not a bad thing, just not my thing. I don't do word definitions. I
> > > > don't believe in them.
>
> > > Have you never seen a dictionary?
>
> > I believe in dictionaries, but not definitions. I believe in movie
> > critics but I don't believe that their opinions about movies are
> > objectively true. I might agree with them, but that doesn't mean that
> > it is possible for an opinion to be authoritatively definitive.
>
> Again, that is disbelief in a certain kind of definition.

That's your opinion of the definition of definition.

>
> > > It;s true outside the game as well. Whatever you are trying
> > > to say. it is a poor analogy. You might try asking if you are
> > > really the top hat in Monopoly, or Throngar the Invincible in
> > > D&D
>
> > Those make the same point as well. Is it true that you are the top hat
> > in Monopoly? If not then Monopoly is not a very strong simulation -
> > which it isn't. A full immersion virtual D&D campaign? That would be a
> > stronger simulation and you could not so easily say that you aren't
> > Throngar. Especially if you played him for a living...and changed your
> > name legally...and got plastic surgery. At what point do you become
> > Throngar?
>
> If there is any meaning to the word "simulation", then it is never
> actual.

That's simplistic. The whole point of a simulation is that is is as if
it were actual in some sense. A flight simulator provides an actual
experience that can seem like flying an actual plane. If you are on a
plane where the pilot dies, do you ask the guy who has logged 1
hours on flight simulators to fly the plane or do you say they have no
actual experience?

> The problem we keep running into is that you assume something...
> simulations exist...and then refuse to follow throught the
> consequences.

No, you just aren't getting the overall concept of relativism. Comp
claims that computation is all that is required for consciousness.
This is what opens up a nonsense thesis about simulations having
relative reality. I understand that is not the way it works.
Consciousness is not emulable, only extendible. There is no simulation
of red. Red is only red. Who we are is like that. Us-ness.

>
> > Are you 1Z? Figurative is the word to focus on. Subjectivity
> > is figurative. Meaning, perception, sensation...all figurative.
> > Literal is the antithesis that is objectivity.
> > > But not actually supernatural at all, if he is a geek with BO and
> > > dandruff.
> > > That is the point you are missing.
>
> > But the simulated beings can never access that information about their
> > creator, so how can it be true for them?
>
> It can be true because it is true.

Without some way to sense it or it's truth, that 

Re: UD* and consciousness

2012-02-25 Thread Terren Suydam
On Sat, Feb 25, 2012 at 4:17 AM, Bruno Marchal  wrote:
>
> On 24 Feb 2012, at 21:51, Terren Suydam wrote:
>
>> On Fri, Feb 24, 2012 at 3:30 PM, Terren Suydam 
>> wrote:
>>>
>>> On Fri, Feb 24, 2012 at 2:27 PM, meekerdb  wrote:

 On 2/24/2012 10:26 AM, Terren Suydam wrote:

 I certainly will. In the meantime, do you have an example from Damasio
 (or any other source) that could shed light on the pain/pleasure
 phenomenon?

 Terren

 http://www.hedweb.com/bgcharlton/damasioreview.html
>>>
>>>
>>> I think emotions represent something above and beyond the more
>>> fundamental feelings of pleasure and pain. Fear, for example, is
>>> explainable using Damasio's framework as such, and I can translate it
>>> to the way I am asking the question as above:
>>>
>>> Question: What kind of organization arose during the evolutionary
>>> process that led directly to the subjective experience of fear?
>>> Answer: A cognitive architecture in which internal body states are
>>> modeled and integrated using the same representational apparatus that
>>> models the external world, so that one's adaptive responses
>>> (fight/flight/freeze) to threatening stimuli become integrated into
>>> the organism's cognitive state of affairs.  In short, fear is what it
>>> feels like to have a fear response (as manifest in the body by various
>>> hormonal responses) to some real or imagined stimuli.
>>>
>>> You can substitute any emotion for fear, so long as you can identify
>>> the way that emotion manifests in the body/brain in terms of hormonal
>>> or other mechanisms. But when it comes to pain and pleasure, I don't
>>> think that it is necessary to have such an advanced cognitive
>>> architecture, I think. So on a more fundamental level, the question
>>> remains:
>>>
>>> What kind of organization arose during the evolutionary process that
>>> led directly to the subjective experience of pain and pleasure?
>>>
>>> Or put another way, what kind of mechanism feels pleasurable or
>>> painful from the inside?
>>>
>>> Presumably the answer to this question occurred earlier in the
>>> evolutionary process than the emergence of fear, surprise, hunger, and
>>> so on.
>>>
>>> Terren
>>
>>
>> To go a little further with this, take sexual orgasm. What is
>> happening during orgasm that makes it so pleasurable?
>>
>> Presumably there are special circuits in the brain that get activated,
>> which correlate to the flush of orgasmic pleasure. But what is special
>> about those circuits?  From a 3p perspective, how is one brain circuit
>> differentiated from another?  It can't be as simple as the
>> neurotransmitters involved; what would make one neurotransmitter be
>> causative of pain and another of pleasure?  It's shape?  That seems
>> absurd.
>>
>> It seems that the consequence of that neural circuit firing would have
>> to achieve some kind of systemic effect that is characterized... how?
>>
>> Pain is just as mysterious. It's not as simple as "what it feels like
>> for a system to become damaged". Phantom limbs, for example, are often
>> excruciatingly painful. Pain is clearly in the mind. What cognitive
>> mechanism could you characterize as feeling painful from the inside?
>>
>> Failure to account for this in mechanistic terms, for me, is a direct
>> threat to the legitimacy of mechanism.
>
>
> Failure to account for this in *any* 3p sense would be a direct threat to
> the legitimacy of science.
>
> I am not sure only mechanism is in difficulty here, unless you have a reason
> to believe that "infinities" could explain the pain quale.
>
> On the contrary mechanism explains that there is an unavoidable clash
> between the 1p view and the 3p view. The 1p view (Bp & p, say) is the same
> as the 3p view (Bp), but this is only "known" by the divine intellect (G*).
> It cannot be known by the correct machine itself. So mechanism (or weaker)
> *can* explain why the 1p seems non mechanical, and in some sense is not
> 1p-mechanical, which explains why we feel something like a dualism. This
> dualism really exist epistemologically, even if the divine intellect (G*)
> knows that is an illusion. It is a real self-referentially correct
> "illusion".
>
> Bruno
>

Hi Bruno,

I'm with you... See my response to acw... I need to think some more on
it. Thanks for your replies.

Terren

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Re: UD* and consciousness

2012-02-25 Thread Terren Suydam
On Fri, Feb 24, 2012 at 6:20 PM, acw  wrote:
> Pain - immediate actions, random or not, to specific dangerous stimuli.
> Aversion/avoidance in more complex organisms (such as those capable of
> expecting or predicting painful stimuli).
> Pleasure - reduced or repeated same actions, to specific pelasurable
> stimuli. Pleasure seeking behavior in more complex organisms (such as those
> capable of expecting or predicting pleasurable stimuli).
> Stimuli can be both internal (emotion) or external (senses).
> Obviously for beings as complex as humans the nature of certain emotions can
> be much more complex than that because they are mixed in with many others,
> but I think that's what the simplest behavioral characterization of
> pain/pleasure that I know of.

Just a quick response acw, to say thanks for your responses. I
basically agree with everything you've said, it makes total sense to
me. And yet, I am not doing a very good job of expressing myself (to
myself even) because I'm still not satisfied. There's an intuitive
sense I have of a problem that's deeper than anything I've been able
to express so far... and it may turn out to be something else, but I
won't know until I can communicate it. I also won't have much time in
the next week for anything so didn't want to leave you hanging. So I
will reflect on what you and Bruno have said... thanks again.

Terren

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Re: The free will function

2012-02-25 Thread marty684
Thanks, I'll give it another shot. All the best,   marty a.





From: Bruno Marchal 
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Sat, February 25, 2012 5:05:35 AM
Subject: Re: The free will function

Hi Marty, 



On 25 Feb 2012, at 01:51, marty684 wrote:

>>
>>Why should probability depend on us; on what we 'know or cannot know' ? On 
>>what 
>>is 'observable' to us? It seems to me that you are defining probability by 
>>that 
>>which is relative to our 'actual states'. Why can't we 
>>inhabit a seeminglyprobablistic part of an infinite, determined universe ?

But that is the case. If you define the reality by a tiny part of arithmetic 
(equivalent with the UD), you have a deterministic structure, which from our 
points of view will look indeterministic.

The probability are relative to us, because we are the one doing the 
experience. 
Suppose you decide to throw a coin. To predict what will happen to you you have 
to look at all the computation accessing the computational state you have when 
throwing the coin, and infer what will happen from a measure on the 
continuations.

  
  I'm delighted to learn that I understood you after all. Thanks for this 
further clarification.


You are welcome.



>
>
>
>  Read UDA, and ask question for each step, in case of 
>problem, so we might single out the precise point where you don't succeed to 
>grasp why comp put probabilities, or credibilities, uncertainties,  in front 
>of 
>everything. UDA1-7 is enough to get this. UDA-8 is needed only for the more 
>subtle immateriality point implied by computationalism.
>
>>
>>
>>
>>My attempts to read UDA were never successful. Sorry.
>>
>>May be you have a problem with my english. Please, begin by the step one, on 
>>page 4 of sane04, read it, and tell me precisely what you don't understand in 
>>the step 1.  I might need to re-explain comp to you, or you can glance its 
>>definition on page 2. 

When you will grasp step 1, we will be able to go to the 2th step, and so one. 

Bruno
  
   I don't have a problem with your english. I have a problem with 
the logical complexity of your work. 


It is not simple, but not *that* difficult either (I mean UDA, AUDA needs a 
background in logic which is not so well taught).




Also I no longer remember where to find the text you're referring to. Warmest 
wishes,   marty

You can find the paper, and the unique slide to easily remember the different 
steps here:

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/publications/SANE2004MARCHALAbstract.html

Best,

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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Re: The free will function

2012-02-25 Thread Bruno Marchal

Hi Marty,


On 25 Feb 2012, at 01:51, marty684 wrote:


Why should probability depend on us; on what we 'know or cannot  
know' ? On what is 'observable' to us? It seems to me that you are  
defining probability by that which is relative to our 'actual  
states'. Why can't we inhabit a seeminglyprobablistic part of an  
infinite, determined universe ?


But that is the case. If you define the reality by a tiny part of  
arithmetic (equivalent with the UD), you have a deterministic  
structure, which from our points of view will look indeterministic.


The probability are relative to us, because we are the one doing the  
experience. Suppose you decide to throw a coin. To predict what will  
happen to you you have to look at all the computation accessing the  
computational state you have when throwing the coin, and infer what  
will happen from a measure on the continuations.



  I'm delighted to learn that I understood you after all. Thanks  
for this further clarification.




You are welcome.





  Read UDA, and ask question for each step, in  
case of problem, so we might single out the precise point where you  
don't succeed to grasp why comp put probabilities, or credibilities,  
uncertainties,  in front of everything. UDA1-7 is enough to get  
this. UDA-8 is needed only for the more subtle immateriality point  
implied by computationalism.




My attempts to read UDA were never successful. Sorry.

May be you have a problem with my english. Please, begin by the  
step one, on page 4 of sane04, read it, and tell me precisely what  
you don't understand in the step 1.  I might need to re-explain  
comp to you, or you can glance its definition on page 2.


When you will grasp step 1, we will be able to go to the 2th step,  
and so one.


Bruno

   I don't have a problem with your english. I have a  
problem with the logical complexity of your work.


It is not simple, but not *that* difficult either (I mean UDA, AUDA  
needs a background in logic which is not so well taught).





Also I no longer remember where to find the text you're referring  
to. Warmest wishes,   marty


You can find the paper, and the unique slide to easily remember the  
different steps here:


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/publications/SANE2004MARCHALAbstract.html

Best,

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Yes Doctor circularity

2012-02-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 25 Feb 2012, at 01:21, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/24/2012 3:05 PM, John Mikes wrote:


People have too much time on their hand to argue back and forth.
Whatever (theory) we talk about has been born from human mind(s)
consequently only HALF _ TRUE max (if at all).


Almost all our theories are not only probably false, they are  
*known* to be false.  But that doesn't mean they should be discarded  
or they are not useful.  It means they have limited accuracy and  
limited domains of validity.




"I" imagine te doctor, "I" imagine the numbers (there are none in  
Nature)

"I" imagine controversies and matches, arithemtics, calculus and bio.
Project the "I"-s into 3rd person "I"-s and FEEL justified to BELIEVE
that it is   T R U E  .


"True" means different things in different theories.


Yes. Unlike computability, truth, but also probability, definability,  
etc. is highly dependent of the theory or machine used.
With Church thesis, computability is the same for machines, alines,  
Gods, every possible "one". All the rest is relative.



In ordinary, declarative speech it means correspondence with a  
fact.  In science it's the goal of predictive accuracy over the  
whole range of applications and consilience with other all other  
'true' theories.  In logic it's an attribute "t" of propositions  
that are axioms and that's preserved by the rules of inference.




How 'universal' is a universal machine (number)? it extends its  
universality

till our imagination's end. Can we imagine what we cannot imagine?


We have to build on what we have.


Exactly.




Brent
You have to make the good out of the bad because that is all you have
got to make it out of.
   --- Robert Penn Warren


Not bad :)

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Yes Doctor circularity

2012-02-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 25 Feb 2012, at 00:05, John Mikes wrote:


People have too much time on their hand to argue back and forth.
Whatever (theory) we talk about has been born from human mind(s)
consequently only HALF _ TRUE max (if at all).

"I" imagine te doctor, "I" imagine the numbers (there are none in  
Nature)

"I" imagine controversies and matches, arithemtics, calculus and bio.
Project the "I"-s into 3rd person "I"-s and FEEL justified to BELIEVE
that it is   T R U E  .

How 'universal' is a universal machine (number)? it extends its  
universality

till our imagination's end. Can we imagine what we cannot imagine?


Yes. Universal machine can do that by using implicitly or explicitly  
the diagonalization technic. That is why the closure of the UMs for  
diagonalization is a very strong evidence for their universality. If  
you doubt about Church thesis, it is up to you to give an argument  
against it.


We never "know" any truth in science. Only philosophers argue for the  
truth and falsity of proposition. In science we build theories, with  
the hope to see them wrong one day. That's the only way we can learn.


Bruno





JM



On Wed, Feb 22, 2012 at 2:42 AM, Craig Weinberg  
 wrote:

Has someone already mentioned this?

I woke up in the middle of the night with this, so it might not make
sense...or...

The idea of saying yes to the doctor presumes that we, in the thought
experiment, bring to the thought experiment universe:

1. our sense of own significance (we have to be able to care about
ourselves and our fate in the first place)
2. our perceptual capacity to jump to conclusions without logic (we
have to be able feel what it seems like rather than know what it
simply is.)

Because of 1, it is assumed that the thought experiment universe
includes the subjective experience of personal value - that the
patient has a stake, or 'money to bet'. Because of 2, it is assumed
that libertarian free will exists in the scenario - we have to be able
to 'bet' in the first place. As far as I know, comp can only answer
'True, doctor', 'False, doctor', or 'I don't know, or I can't answer,
doctor.'

So, what this means is that in the scenario, while not precluding that
a form of comp based consciousness could exist, does preclude that it
is the only form of consciousness that exists, so therefore does not
prove that in comp consciousness must arise from comp since it relies
on non-comp to prove it. The same goes for the Turing Test, which
after all is only about betting on imitation. Does the robot seem real
to me? Bruno adds another layer to this by forcing our thought
experimenter to care whether they are or not.

What say ye, mighty logicians? Both of these tests succeed
unintentionally at revealing the essentials of consciousness, not in
front of our eyes with the thought experiment, but behind our backs.
The sleight of hand is hidden innocently in the assumption of free
will (and significance). In any universe where consciousness arises
from comp, consciousness may be able to pass or fail the test as the
tested object, but it cannot receive the test as a testing subject
unless free will and significance are already presumed to be comp.

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Re: The thermodynamics of computation

2012-02-25 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

On 20.02.2012 19:54 meekerdb said the following:

...


I'm beginning to think you have never taken a class in statistical
mechanics. There's a good online course here:

http://farside.ph.utexas.edu/teaching/sm1/lectures/lectures.html

Those particularly relevant to this thread start at

http://farside.ph.utexas.edu/teaching/sm1/lectures/node61.html

and go through the next six or seven.



I wanted to study this text to understand the relationship between the 
entropy and information better. However, I cannot find information in 
there, say I guess


"How can we obtain some information about the statistical properties of 
the molecules which make up air?"


you do not mean the term information in this sentence.

It seems that this is a normal course on statistical thermodynamics as I 
get used to where there is no notion of information in thermodynamics.


Have I missed something? How this link helps us in our discussion from 
your viewpoint?


Evgenii

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Re: Yes Doctor circularity

2012-02-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 24 Feb 2012, at 23:40, Craig Weinberg wrote:


On Feb 23, 9:41 pm, Pierz  wrote:
Let us suppose you're right and... but hold on! We can't do that.  
That

would be "circular". That would be sneaking in the assumption that
you're right from the outset. That would be "shifty', "fishy", etc
etc. You just don't seem to grasp the rudiments of philosophical
reasoning.


I understand that it seems that way to you.


'Yes doctor' is not an underhand move.


Not intentionally.


It asks you up-front
to assume that comp is true in order then to examine the implications
of that, whilst acknowledging (by calling it a 'bet') that this is
just a hypothesis, an unprovable leap of faith.


I think that asking for an unprovable leap of faith in this context is
philosophically problematic since the purpose of computation is to
make unprovable leaps of faith unnecessary.


This is were you are the most wrong from a theoretical computer  
science pov.

It is just an Aristotelian myth than science can avoid leap of faith.
Doubly so for a (meta) theory like comp, where we bet on a form of  
reincarnation.
Betting on a reality or on self-consistency gives a tremendous  
selective advantage, but it can never be 100% justified rationally.
Comp meta-justifies the need of going beyond pure reason. Correct  
betting mechanism cannot be 100% rational. That'swhat is cute with  
incompleteness-like phenomena, they show that reason *can* see beyond  
reason, and indeed 99,9% of the self-referential truth belongs to the  
unjustifiable.







You complain that
using the term 'bet' assumes non-comp (I suppose because computers
can't bet, or care about their bets), but that is just daft.


Saying 'that is just daft' to something which is clearly the honest
truth in my estimation doesn't persuade me in the slightest.


You might
as well argue that the UDA is invalid because it is couched in  
natural

language, which no computer can (or according to you, could ever)
understand. If we accepted such arguments, we'd be incapable of
debating comp at all.


That would be ok with me. I don't see anything to debate with comp,
because I understand why it seems like it could be true but actually
isn't.


But, as you seem to believe yourself, it is just the case that the 1p  
cannot feel like comp is true. It is due to the clash between Bp and  
Bp & p I have just been talking about in my previous mail.









Saying 'no' to the doctor is anyone's right - nobody forces you to
accept that first step or tries to pull the wool over your eyes if  
you

choose to say 'yes'. Having said no you can then either say "I don't
believe in comp because (I just don't like it, it doesn't feel right,
it's against my religion etc)" or you can present a rational argument
against it.


Or you can be rationally skeptical about it and say "It has not been
proved" or "I see through the logic and understand the error in its
assumptions".


I will never been proved, for purely logical reason. Comp can only be  
refuted, or hoped. Comp remains science, at the meta-level, but saying  
"yes" to a doctor asks for a leap of faith.







That is to say, if asked to justify why you say no, you
can either provide no reason and say simply that you choose to bet
against it - which is OK but uninteresting - or you can present some
reasoning which attempts to refute comp. You've made many such
attempts, though to be honest all I've ever really been able to glean
from your arguments is a sort of impressionistic revulsion at the  
idea

of humans being computers,


That is your impressionistic revulsion at the idea of stepping outside
the entrenched positions of the argument. I have no revulsion
whatsoever at the idea of humans being computers. As I have mentioned
several times, I have believed in comp for most of my life, for the
same reasons that you do. I am fine with being uploaded and digitized,
but I know now why that won't work. I know exactly why.


Then you are not a machine. That's possible, but up to now, it is just  
a begging type of argument, given that you don't succeed to provide an  
argument for how and why you know that.
The very fact that you feel obliged to mention that you know that can  
only make us suspicious that actually you don't have an argument, but  
only a feeling. Then such feeling are already explainable by machine.
Machine also said that they (1p) knows that they are not any machine  
we could describe to them, and later, by deepening the introspection  
and the study of comp, they can understand that such a knowledge  
proves nothing.


Bruno






yet one which seems founded in a
fundamental misunderstanding about what a computer is.


I have been using and programming computers almost every day for the
last 30 years. I know exactly what a computer is.


You repeatedly
mistake the mathematical construct for the concrete, known object you
use to type up your posts. This has been pointed out many times, but
you still make arguments like that

Re: The free will function

2012-02-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 24 Feb 2012, at 22:59, acw wrote:


On 2/24/2012 12:59, David Nyman wrote:

On 24 February 2012 11:52, acw  wrote:

I look at it like this, there's 3 notions: Mind (consciousness,  
experience),

(Primitive) Matter, Mechanism.
Those 3 notions are incompatible, but we have experience of all 3,  
mind is
the sum of our experience and thus is the most direct thing  
possible, even
if non-communicable, matter is what is directly inferred from our  
experience
(but we don't know if it's the base of everything) and mechanism  
which means

our experience is lawful (following rules). By induction we build
mechanistic (mathematical) models of matter. We can't really avoid  
any of
the 3: one is primary, the other is directly sensible, the other  
can be

directly inferred.
However, there are many thought experiments that illustrate that  
these
notions are incompatible - you can have any 2 of them, but never  
all 3.
Take away mind and you have eliminative materialism - denying the  
existence
of mind to save primary matter and its mechanistic appearence.  
(This tends
to be seen as a behavioral COMP). Too bad this is hard to stomach  
because
all our theories are learned through our experiences, thus it's a  
bit

self-defeating.
Take away primitive matter and you have COMP and other platonic  
versions
where matter is a mathematical shadow. Mind becomes how some piece  
of
abstract math feels from the inside. This is disliked by those  
that wish
matter was more fundamental or that it allows too many fantasies  
into

reality (even if low-measure).
Take away mechanism and you get some magical form of matter which  
cannot

obey any rules - not even all possible rules


Nice summary.  You say "Mind becomes how some piece of abstract math
feels from the inside", which is essentially how Bruno puts it.
However, this must still fall short of an identity claim - i.e. it
seems obvious that mind is no more "identical" to math or computation
than it is to matter, unless that relation is to be re-defined as
"categorically different".  Math and mind are still distinct, though
correlated.  Do you think that such a duality can still be subsumed  
in

some sort of neutral monism?
Obviously not all computations have minds like ours associated with  
them. I'm not sure if identity is the right claim, but I'm not sure  
there's much to gain by adding extra "indirection layers" -  it's  
not that consciousness is associated with some scribbles on a piece  
of paper, it's associated with some abstract truths and we could say  
that 3p-wise those truths look like some specific structure we can  
talk about (using pen and paper or computers), but at the same time,  
that that abstract structure does have some sensory experience  
associated with it. Other structure might represent some machines  
implementing some partial local physics. In that way it's neutral  
monist. We could try to keep experience separate and supervening on  
arithmetical truth, but I'm not sure if there's anything to gain by  
introducing such a dualism - it might make epistemological sense,  
but I'm not sure it makes sense ontologically. I'm rather unsure of  
such a move myself, I wonder what Bruno's opinion is on this.


I think that we don't have to introduce an ontological dualism,  
because the dualism is unavoidable from the machine points of view, if  
you agree to


1) model belief (by ideally arithmetically and self-referentially  
correct machine) by Gödel's provability. I can provide many reason to  
do that, even if it oversimplifies the problem. The interesting things  
is that it leads to an already very complex "machine's theology". We  
might take it as a toy theology, but then all theories are sort of toys.


2) to accept that S4 (or T, = S4 without Bp -> BBp) provides the best  
axiomatic theories for knowledge.


Then it can be shown that the modality (Bp & p) gives a notion of  
knowledge, i.e. (Bp & p) obeys S4, even a stronger S4Grz theory.


The relevant results here are that G* proves that Bp is equivalent  
with Bp & p, but G does not prove that, and so, this is a point where  
the "divine intellect" (G*), the believer (G) and the kower (soul) Bp  
& p, will completely differ, and this will account for a variety of  
dualism, unavoidable for the machine.


So yes, this is neutral monism. The TOE is just arithmetic, and the  
definition above explains why, at the least, the machine will behaves  
as if dualism was true for her ... until she bet on comp and  
understand the talk of her own G*, without making the error of taking  
that talk for granted (because she cannot know, nor believe, nor even  
explictly express that she is correct).


Hope this might help, but if you want I can explain more on G, G*,  
S4Grz, and the Z and X logics. Those are not logic invented to solve  
problems, like in analytical philosophy, but unavoidable nuances  
brought by the provably correct self-reference logic of machines in  
theoretical com

Re: UD* and consciousness

2012-02-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 24 Feb 2012, at 21:51, Terren Suydam wrote:

On Fri, Feb 24, 2012 at 3:30 PM, Terren Suydam > wrote:
On Fri, Feb 24, 2012 at 2:27 PM, meekerdb   
wrote:

On 2/24/2012 10:26 AM, Terren Suydam wrote:

I certainly will. In the meantime, do you have an example from  
Damasio

(or any other source) that could shed light on the pain/pleasure
phenomenon?

Terren

http://www.hedweb.com/bgcharlton/damasioreview.html


I think emotions represent something above and beyond the more
fundamental feelings of pleasure and pain. Fear, for example, is
explainable using Damasio's framework as such, and I can translate it
to the way I am asking the question as above:

Question: What kind of organization arose during the evolutionary
process that led directly to the subjective experience of fear?
Answer: A cognitive architecture in which internal body states are
modeled and integrated using the same representational apparatus that
models the external world, so that one's adaptive responses
(fight/flight/freeze) to threatening stimuli become integrated into
the organism's cognitive state of affairs.  In short, fear is what it
feels like to have a fear response (as manifest in the body by  
various

hormonal responses) to some real or imagined stimuli.

You can substitute any emotion for fear, so long as you can identify
the way that emotion manifests in the body/brain in terms of hormonal
or other mechanisms. But when it comes to pain and pleasure, I don't
think that it is necessary to have such an advanced cognitive
architecture, I think. So on a more fundamental level, the question
remains:

What kind of organization arose during the evolutionary process that
led directly to the subjective experience of pain and pleasure?

Or put another way, what kind of mechanism feels pleasurable or
painful from the inside?

Presumably the answer to this question occurred earlier in the
evolutionary process than the emergence of fear, surprise, hunger,  
and

so on.

Terren


To go a little further with this, take sexual orgasm. What is
happening during orgasm that makes it so pleasurable?

Presumably there are special circuits in the brain that get activated,
which correlate to the flush of orgasmic pleasure. But what is special
about those circuits?  From a 3p perspective, how is one brain circuit
differentiated from another?  It can't be as simple as the
neurotransmitters involved; what would make one neurotransmitter be
causative of pain and another of pleasure?  It's shape?  That seems
absurd.

It seems that the consequence of that neural circuit firing would have
to achieve some kind of systemic effect that is characterized... how?

Pain is just as mysterious. It's not as simple as "what it feels like
for a system to become damaged". Phantom limbs, for example, are often
excruciatingly painful. Pain is clearly in the mind. What cognitive
mechanism could you characterize as feeling painful from the inside?

Failure to account for this in mechanistic terms, for me, is a direct
threat to the legitimacy of mechanism.


Failure to account for this in *any* 3p sense would be a direct threat  
to the legitimacy of science.


I am not sure only mechanism is in difficulty here, unless you have a  
reason to believe that "infinities" could explain the pain quale.


On the contrary mechanism explains that there is an unavoidable clash  
between the 1p view and the 3p view. The 1p view (Bp & p, say) is the  
same as the 3p view (Bp), but this is only "known" by the divine  
intellect (G*). It cannot be known by the correct machine itself. So  
mechanism (or weaker) *can* explain why the 1p seems non mechanical,  
and in some sense is not 1p-mechanical, which explains why we feel  
something like a dualism. This dualism really exist epistemologically,  
even if the divine intellect (G*) knows that is an illusion. It is a  
real self-referentially correct "illusion".


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: COMP theology

2012-02-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 24 Feb 2012, at 18:26, 1Z wrote:




On Feb 22, 2:14 pm, Bruno Marchal  wrote:


Contrarily to what Peter Jones (1Z) asserts frequently, we don't
suppose Platonism, nor immateriality, we just suppose that we can use
the excluded middle principle for the Sigma_1 arithmetical sentences.



If you want to say I am being simulated on a UD, you need an existing
UD.


Yes, but elementary arithmetic prove that UDs exist, in the sense that  
the truth of Ex(x is a UD) does not depend of you, like the truth of  
Ex(x is prime) does not depend of you.





It isn't in the material universe.


Well, this confirms again that you have a problem only in UDA-step 8.  
Here you are just begging the question by defining existence by  
material existence.


Let me ask you two questions. First I define a big-robust physical  
universe, by a universe which run some UD. Do you agree that comp 
+robust-universe entails the complete reduction of physics to computer  
science. If you say no, can you pinpoint the step in UDA1-6 you  
disagree with. If you say yes, then we might have to come back on MGA.


Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: UD* and consciousness

2012-02-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 24 Feb 2012, at 06:20, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/23/2012 6:00 PM, Terren Suydam wrote:
On Thu, Feb 23, 2012 at 7:21 PM, meekerdb   
wrote:

On 2/23/2012 2:49 PM, Terren Suydam wrote:

As wild or counter-intuitive as it may be though, it really has no
consequences to speak of in the ordinary, mundane living of life. To
paraphrase Eliezer Yudkowsky, "it has to add up to normal". On the
other hand, once AGIs start to appear, or we begin to merge more
explicitly with machines, then the theories become more important.
Perhaps then comp will be made illegal, so as to constrain freedoms
given to machines.  I could certainly see there being significant
resistance to humans augmenting their brains with computers... maybe
that would be illegal too, in the interest of control or keeping a
level playing field. Is that what you mean?


There will be legal and ethical questions about how we and  
machines should
treat one another. Just being conscious won't mean much though.   
As Jeremy
Bentham said of animals, "It's not whether they can think, it's  
whether they

can suffer."

Brent
That brings up the interesting question of how you could explain  
which

conscious beings are capable of suffering and which ones aren't. I'm
sure some people would make the argument that anything we might call
conscious would be capable of suffering. One way or the other it  
would

seem to require a theory of consciousness in which the character of
experience can be mapped somehow to 3p processes.

For instance, pain I can make sense of in terms of what it feels like
for a being's structure to become "less organized" though I'm not  
sure

how to formalize that, and I'm not completely comfortable with that
characterization. However, the reverse idea that pleasure might be
what it feels like for one's structure to become "more organized"
seems like a stretch and hard to connect with the reality of, for
example, a nice massage.


I don't think becoming more or less organized has any direct bearing  
on pain or pleasure. Physical pain and pleasure are reactions built- 
in by evolution for survival benefits. If a fire makes you too hot,  
you move away from it, even though it's not "disorganizing" you.  On  
the other hand, cancer is generally painless in its early stages.   
And psychological suffering can be very bad without any physical  
damage.  I don't think suffering requires consciousness,


?
Suffering is a conscious experience, I would say by definition.





at least not human-like consciousness,


All right then. Humans, I guess, add a strong emotional response to  
suffering, because its self-referential means allow them to interpret  
them as integrity and life threat.





but psychological suffering might require consciousness in the form  
of self-reflection.


Pain, and direct suffering, is only a build-in message, making an  
animal avoiding something threatening its life. This has to be  
unconscious and non voluntary. If not the animal response would not  
been made. But the integrated organism will be conscious of something  
global and easy to remember, so that it can anticipate it in similar  
situation. Basically, I think the difference between low level direct  
pain and high level reflexive emotions might occur at the threshold  
between non Löbianity and Löbianity, which technically is the  
difference between a six length program and an 8 length program. For  
the first pain is a sensation to avoid, here and now; for the later  
pain is a sensation to avoid in general.
This difference might have appeared a very long time ago, with the  
invertebrates like octopi and spider, but perhaps earlier.


This does not solve the question of the quale of pain, but this  
question needs a better understanding of consciousness, and will  
differ in the case we agree that a UMs is already conscious or not. I  
am not yet quite sure about this. I have thought for a long time that  
consciousness begin with Löbianity and is always related with a  
duration sensation, but I have changed my mind on this. I tend to  
think now that all UMs are conscious, and that Löbianity is needed  
only for the higher duration feelings and emotions. For UMs, shit can  
happen, but only LUMs makes it into a long term problem, eventually a  
religious/philosophical one.


Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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