Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-07-04 Thread Craig Weinberg
Hi John,

As far as anthropocentricity, I think that it is escapable only
through the anthropocentric notion that we can de-anthropocentricize
our perspective. The world has limitlessness, but it also has
innumerable limits. Our experiences, ideas, logic, etc are limited by
the perception and cognition of the human nervous system, yet our
faculties are able to connect us with what convincingly appears to be
an external world in which we participate as agents on an individual
level.

To explain that, I propose that our experience is seamlessly
integrated fact and fiction, transparent and solipsistic. Our wiring
gives us the best transparency it can within the constraints of what
is physically is, but it must also deliver the signature qualities of
human awareness in it's every subjective function. Free will is part
of that software package, but if we go looking for it in that
software's native 'hardware analyzer', we're not going to see anything
because that viewer is only a command line text editor. Nothing looks
like it has free will when you use that.

On Jul 2, 10:52 am, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:
 Deqr Craig,

 it makes a lot of sense what you expressed in (too many?) words. May I add
 some more?
 In general you take most of our 'human' concepts as final, fixed, defined
 FACTS (?) and look at the world through them. Such anthropocentric position
 denigrates the limitlessness of the world. There are innumerable aspects we
 did not (yet?) meet and so omit their influence on our thinking, behavior,
 emotions, events, whatever.
 Our 'mind' (undefined) is part of the totality (unlimited complexity) and so
 whatever we 'feel' as our own decision is a product of the combined
 influences we receive - including the input of our mental built. (That
 includes the felling of a falsifiability as well).

 In our 'ways' we may have choices and that adds to our 'free' feeling.

 An interesting idea for a singularity to have no space and time, the
 base-coordinates of *our *physical system* inside our universe*. It may also
 mean the destruction of ALL outgoing information that could disclose the
 (physically perceived?) existence of the universe, a condition I take
 important for (my term) singularity.

 Regards
 John Mikes

 On Sat, Jul 2, 2011 at 10:20 AM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.comwrote:







  Here is a different take on free will vs. determinism.

  They are the same thing. We only perceive them to be different because
  our subjectivity warps our perspective for us. Free will is ultimately
  a feeling that it is us who is making the decision, while determinism
  is ultimately a thought that free agency must be defined in terms of
  objective facts. Whether or not that feeling or thought corresponds to
  a universal reality is not falsifiable or relevant once we re-frame
  the phenomenon as a single relation which has objective and subjective
  topologies.

  What I'm saying is that the existence of the feeling of free will,
  illusion or not, is sufficient to negate the argument of pure
  determinism. A mechanistic universe would have no conceivable method
  of, or benefit by conjuring such an illusion. There is no function
  that would serve an evolutionary machine to develop a fictional sense
  of teleology were there not such a possibility already inherent in the
  mechanics themselves. Not only would it be superfluous and
  counterproductive from an efficiency standpoint, but there really is
  no aspect of physics or biochemistry which could serve as a toolbox
  for creating some kind of simulation of participation and agency. You
  can make a machine seem like it has free will, but unless the machine
  feels like it has free will - feels the risks of consequences of it's
  words and actions to it's own survival - feels it's own survival with
  visceral, overwhelming significance, then there is only the reflection
  of our own free will.

  When I look at another human being who is similar to myself, I
  subconsciously qualify their agency with a shared sense of volition.
  Someone much older or younger, from a radically different culture,
  even someone with different physical characteristics are presented
  with a narrower bandwidth of free will to me. I have to consciously
  fight the default prejudice that steers me into stereotypical
  associations, otherwise I tend to think that what I see of a person
  and what I assume about them based on their appearance is what is
  influencing their behavior. I think This is how children behave.,
  but I can still realize that any individual child has some capacity to
  deviate from my generic expectations. The closer I get to a person,
  the more that I know them, the deeper the subjective connection and
  the higher quality of individuality I can resolve in my perception of
  them, their life, etc.

  Take that interpersonal phenomenon of prejudice and magnify it
  exponentially to other species of animal, biology, and finally
  physical 

Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-07-04 Thread John Mikes
Hi, Craig (and I still would appreciate your signing the end of your post,
as several of us list-members do - for easier reading)
you sound like e thinking 'mind' (what is mind?) - with limitations of
course (as you implied).
*Wiring?*
I changed the fundamental 'wiring' of my mental pattern (belief system?)
several times - maybe every 20-30 years or so and still 'feel' the same
solipsistic self. I think our nervous system is tissue-related, part of the
physical world equipment while our mentality grows in unrestricted domains
over the millennia. I believe we are more than 'nerves'. I consider the
brain a TOOL we use in our mentality of which science knows precious
little.

I don't find a 'software package' applicable, just as the 250years ago used
'steam engine' and the electric drive of the 20th c. became obsolete. Free
will was very effective in the hands of religious despots to make the
faithful obedient for fear of punishment thereafter.
Without such there would be hell, greed, brutality, etc. - a reason why
'uncle Lenin' reneged on announcing his communistic society - the heavens of
happiness - before that new type of humans (the Communist Man) can be
developed - described in religious scripts as 'angels'. His merciful death
prevented him to see all that vanish.

It is comforting to sit in anthropocentric lukewarmness, it is time to do
more. And we can.
The model of the so far acquired knowledge base is expanding, yet we think
within. OK, but that does not have to restrict our potentials.

Happy 4th of July
John




On Mon, Jul 4, 2011 at 11:47 AM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.comwrote:

 Hi John,

 As far as anthropocentricity, I think that it is escapable only
 through the anthropocentric notion that we can de-anthropocentricize
 our perspective. The world has limitlessness, but it also has
 innumerable limits. Our experiences, ideas, logic, etc are limited by
 the perception and cognition of the human nervous system, yet our
 faculties are able to connect us with what convincingly appears to be
 an external world in which we participate as agents on an individual
 level.

 To explain that, I propose that our experience is seamlessly
 integrated fact and fiction, transparent and solipsistic. Our wiring
 gives us the best transparency it can within the constraints of what
 is physically is, but it must also deliver the signature qualities of
 human awareness in it's every subjective function. Free will is part
 of that software package, but if we go looking for it in that
 software's native 'hardware analyzer', we're not going to see anything
 because that viewer is only a command line text editor. Nothing looks
 like it has free will when you use that.

 On Jul 2, 10:52 am, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:
  Deqr Craig,
 
  it makes a lot of sense what you expressed in (too many?) words. May I
 add
  some more?
  In general you take most of our 'human' concepts as final, fixed, defined
  FACTS (?) and look at the world through them. Such anthropocentric
 position
  denigrates the limitlessness of the world. There are innumerable aspects
 we
  did not (yet?) meet and so omit their influence on our thinking,
 behavior,
  emotions, events, whatever.
  Our 'mind' (undefined) is part of the totality (unlimited complexity) and
 so
  whatever we 'feel' as our own decision is a product of the combined
  influences we receive - including the input of our mental built. (That
  includes the felling of a falsifiability as well).
 
  In our 'ways' we may have choices and that adds to our 'free' feeling.
 
  An interesting idea for a singularity to have no space and time, the
  base-coordinates of *our *physical system* inside our universe*. It may
 also
  mean the destruction of ALL outgoing information that could disclose the
  (physically perceived?) existence of the universe, a condition I take
  important for (my term) singularity.
 
  Regards
  John Mikes
 
  On Sat, Jul 2, 2011 at 10:20 AM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com
 wrote:
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
   Here is a different take on free will vs. determinism.
 
   They are the same thing. We only perceive them to be different because
   our subjectivity warps our perspective for us. Free will is ultimately
   a feeling that it is us who is making the decision, while determinism
   is ultimately a thought that free agency must be defined in terms of
   objective facts. Whether or not that feeling or thought corresponds to
   a universal reality is not falsifiable or relevant once we re-frame
   the phenomenon as a single relation which has objective and subjective
   topologies.
 
   What I'm saying is that the existence of the feeling of free will,
   illusion or not, is sufficient to negate the argument of pure
   determinism. A mechanistic universe would have no conceivable method
   of, or benefit by conjuring such an illusion. There is no function
   that would serve an evolutionary machine to develop a fictional sense
   of teleology were there 

Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-07-02 Thread Craig Weinberg
Here is a different take on free will vs. determinism.

They are the same thing. We only perceive them to be different because
our subjectivity warps our perspective for us. Free will is ultimately
a feeling that it is us who is making the decision, while determinism
is ultimately a thought that free agency must be defined in terms of
objective facts. Whether or not that feeling or thought corresponds to
a universal reality is not falsifiable or relevant once we re-frame
the phenomenon as a single relation which has objective and subjective
topologies.

What I'm saying is that the existence of the feeling of free will,
illusion or not, is sufficient to negate the argument of pure
determinism. A mechanistic universe would have no conceivable method
of, or benefit by conjuring such an illusion. There is no function
that would serve an evolutionary machine to develop a fictional sense
of teleology were there not such a possibility already inherent in the
mechanics themselves. Not only would it be superfluous and
counterproductive from an efficiency standpoint, but there really is
no aspect of physics or biochemistry which could serve as a toolbox
for creating some kind of simulation of participation and agency. You
can make a machine seem like it has free will, but unless the machine
feels like it has free will - feels the risks of consequences of it's
words and actions to it's own survival - feels it's own survival with
visceral, overwhelming significance, then there is only the reflection
of our own free will.

When I look at another human being who is similar to myself, I
subconsciously qualify their agency with a shared sense of volition.
Someone much older or younger, from a radically different culture,
even someone with different physical characteristics are presented
with a narrower bandwidth of free will to me. I have to consciously
fight the default prejudice that steers me into stereotypical
associations, otherwise I tend to think that what I see of a person
and what I assume about them based on their appearance is what is
influencing their behavior. I think This is how children behave.,
but I can still realize that any individual child has some capacity to
deviate from my generic expectations. The closer I get to a person,
the more that I know them, the deeper the subjective connection and
the higher quality of individuality I can resolve in my perception of
them, their life, etc.

Take that interpersonal phenomenon of prejudice and magnify it
exponentially to other species of animal, biology, and finally
physical phenomena of a vastly different scale such as planet or
molecule. I'm not suggesting that we should consider atoms to be
'people just like us' or something, I'm trying to explain how self-
similarity functions as an elemental principle which unites Perception
with General Relativity. Free will is a feature of subjective
perception, while determinism is how free will appears when it is
reflected through existential aperture as relativity.

Probability is the external view of Feeling or Mood. It's the same
thing, only probability is distanced as an a-signifying, generic,
automatic, unconscious phenomenon while mood is a sensorimotive
experience of the same thing. It is reflected through the essential
aperture as signifying, proprietary, volitional, sentient phenomenon.

As for trying to conceive of Many Worlds or a grand consciousness, I
prefer to think of the singularity as what you get when you suck out
all of the space and time from the cosmos. Once you realize that size
and distance have no meaning outside of their perceptual-relativism of
one phenomena to another, then the idea of a singularity from which
the big bang 'emerges' as an event in time becomes a phenomena outside
of timespace and embracing all matter-energy changes. It is a
phenomenon which is, therefore, always occurring and never occurring.
It is absolutely unconscious-deterministic and sentient-volitional at
the same time - but probably much more and much less than that. We can
only describe it as an ant might describe the workings of a microwave
oven... and yet we can understand fully it by not describing it at
all. Being. Doing. Feeling. Experiencing.


On May 16, 10:49 am, selva selvakr1...@gmail.com wrote:
 Considering only our world in the many world interpretation,it is a
 separate causal domain..
 there is no domain shear between the different domains(different
 parallel worlds)..i.e.there is decoherence..
 It is known that in our causal domain,there is cause and effect
 relationships..
 everything is happening because of a cause..everything is as it is
 because it ought to be such.
 There is a grand flow in the varying positions of atoms constituting
 the universe..
 If this is right,then how can we say ,we have free will ?
 why is there binary state at all ?
 if there is free will,how can we say everything affects everything ?
 why is the 50-50 probability arises ?
 why is there probability functions at all ?
 

Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-07-02 Thread John Mikes
Deqr Craig,

it makes a lot of sense what you expressed in (too many?) words. May I add
some more?
In general you take most of our 'human' concepts as final, fixed, defined
FACTS (?) and look at the world through them. Such anthropocentric position
denigrates the limitlessness of the world. There are innumerable aspects we
did not (yet?) meet and so omit their influence on our thinking, behavior,
emotions, events, whatever.
Our 'mind' (undefined) is part of the totality (unlimited complexity) and so
whatever we 'feel' as our own decision is a product of the combined
influences we receive - including the input of our mental built. (That
includes the felling of a falsifiability as well).

In our 'ways' we may have choices and that adds to our 'free' feeling.

An interesting idea for a singularity to have no space and time, the
base-coordinates of *our *physical system* inside our universe*. It may also
mean the destruction of ALL outgoing information that could disclose the
(physically perceived?) existence of the universe, a condition I take
important for (my term) singularity.

Regards
John Mikes

On Sat, Jul 2, 2011 at 10:20 AM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.comwrote:

 Here is a different take on free will vs. determinism.

 They are the same thing. We only perceive them to be different because
 our subjectivity warps our perspective for us. Free will is ultimately
 a feeling that it is us who is making the decision, while determinism
 is ultimately a thought that free agency must be defined in terms of
 objective facts. Whether or not that feeling or thought corresponds to
 a universal reality is not falsifiable or relevant once we re-frame
 the phenomenon as a single relation which has objective and subjective
 topologies.

 What I'm saying is that the existence of the feeling of free will,
 illusion or not, is sufficient to negate the argument of pure
 determinism. A mechanistic universe would have no conceivable method
 of, or benefit by conjuring such an illusion. There is no function
 that would serve an evolutionary machine to develop a fictional sense
 of teleology were there not such a possibility already inherent in the
 mechanics themselves. Not only would it be superfluous and
 counterproductive from an efficiency standpoint, but there really is
 no aspect of physics or biochemistry which could serve as a toolbox
 for creating some kind of simulation of participation and agency. You
 can make a machine seem like it has free will, but unless the machine
 feels like it has free will - feels the risks of consequences of it's
 words and actions to it's own survival - feels it's own survival with
 visceral, overwhelming significance, then there is only the reflection
 of our own free will.

 When I look at another human being who is similar to myself, I
 subconsciously qualify their agency with a shared sense of volition.
 Someone much older or younger, from a radically different culture,
 even someone with different physical characteristics are presented
 with a narrower bandwidth of free will to me. I have to consciously
 fight the default prejudice that steers me into stereotypical
 associations, otherwise I tend to think that what I see of a person
 and what I assume about them based on their appearance is what is
 influencing their behavior. I think This is how children behave.,
 but I can still realize that any individual child has some capacity to
 deviate from my generic expectations. The closer I get to a person,
 the more that I know them, the deeper the subjective connection and
 the higher quality of individuality I can resolve in my perception of
 them, their life, etc.

 Take that interpersonal phenomenon of prejudice and magnify it
 exponentially to other species of animal, biology, and finally
 physical phenomena of a vastly different scale such as planet or
 molecule. I'm not suggesting that we should consider atoms to be
 'people just like us' or something, I'm trying to explain how self-
 similarity functions as an elemental principle which unites Perception
 with General Relativity. Free will is a feature of subjective
 perception, while determinism is how free will appears when it is
 reflected through existential aperture as relativity.

 Probability is the external view of Feeling or Mood. It's the same
 thing, only probability is distanced as an a-signifying, generic,
 automatic, unconscious phenomenon while mood is a sensorimotive
 experience of the same thing. It is reflected through the essential
 aperture as signifying, proprietary, volitional, sentient phenomenon.

 As for trying to conceive of Many Worlds or a grand consciousness, I
 prefer to think of the singularity as what you get when you suck out
 all of the space and time from the cosmos. Once you realize that size
 and distance have no meaning outside of their perceptual-relativism of
 one phenomena to another, then the idea of a singularity from which
 the big bang 'emerges' as an event in time becomes a 

Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-07-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Jul 2011, at 09:06, Constantine Pseudonymous wrote:


all is number? but was there not all before number? numbers need their
objects.


Why. It looks to me I need numbers to distinguish object, even to  
distinguish them form myself. I can easily conceive numbers without  
object, but not vice versa.


Not also, that no one said that all is numbers. Indeed we know to day,  
that if 3-all is number then 1-all is vasltly greater than all the  
numbers.



numbers must refer to something...


Why? I got the ffeliong that you assume a primitive physical reality.  
I do not. (nor do I assume there is no such physical reality). But I  
do show such a reality emerge from the numbers, once you assume that  
the brain function like a machine.




the symbol must have its
substaces, even if that substaces is relatively indeterminate
independent of the symbol, or only visible via the symbol. Numbers are
a relationship between thinker and something else which encompasses
and differentiates from it. There is an interaction going on and
number is the intermediary.

It seems to me that you are trying to resurrect some possibility of a
theosophical mysticism which is predicated on immortality or it
has no substance at all, and immortality is further predicated on some
kind of Other World that is the sum of all positive attributes.


I just show that mechanism is incompatible with (weak) materialism.





Not that I criticize your attempt, anything that complicates a simple
common sense realism I am in favor of but I don't see how reading
Platos Republic or Timeaus or Parmenides is gonna help us move
forward neither do I see how mathematics equals what is


It does not. If my body is a machine, then neither mind nor matter are  
completely mathematical (unless you enlarge the sense of mathematics).  
The main point is that neither mind, nor matter are primitively  
physical. I just show that mechanism does not solve the mind-body  
problem per se, but on the contrary that it can help going to a  
mathematical formulation of the problem.





and only
equals what is. neither do I see how Pythagorean Tektraktys or
source of nature in eternal motion or Indianism is gonna help us
move forward?

you seem to optimistic about spiritualistic possibilities.

It seems that you Bruno, are trying to covertly resurrect a kind of
Platonism


Have you study the UD Argument? It shows that if we assume that the  
brain works like a universal machine at some description level, then  
Aristotle theology get falsified. Not Plato's one.


I am a logician. I don't try to find some truth. I just show that if  
you believe in this theory, then you have to believe in that theory. I  
assume a minimal amount of rationality, which is made eventually  
precise.
And yes, I do argue that comp, (not me) resurrect Plato and Plotinus.  
I provide a clear arithmetical interpretation of those discourses. You  
might take a look on my paper on Plotinus (on my url front page).


Bruno





On May 29, 12:15 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 29 May 2011, at 20:22, selva kumar wrote:












On Tue, May 17, 2011 at 6:36 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be
wrote:
Hi selva,



On 16 May 2011, at 16:49, selva wrote:



Considering only our world in the many world interpretation,it is a
separate causal domain..
there is no domain shear between the different domains(different
parallel worlds)..i.e.there is decoherence..
It is known that in our causal domain,there is cause and effect
relationships..
everything is happening because of a cause..everything is as it is
because it ought to be such.
There is a grand flow in the varying positions of atoms constituting
the universe..
If this is right,



This can't be right, if we assume that the brain (or whatever
capable of sustaining consciousness) can be emulated by a Turing
machine, as most people believe.



then how can we say ,we have free will ?



A determinist theory of free will is possible. What counts is that
no machine can determine itself completely, so that the determinism
of his/her behavior is known only by God, not by the machine, nor
by machine of equivalent complexity.
Now, if you mean that free will is the capacity to disobey to
arithmetic, then it does not exist, most probably.



why is there binary state at all ?



OK. You could have asked equivalently: why is there natural numbers?
Logicians have shown last century that this is impossible to answer.
Actually we need the natural numbers to ask why natural numbers.
They cannot be recover from any simpler theory. So we have to have
some faith in them. It is part of the initial postulates.



if there is free will,how can we say everything affects everything ?
why is the 50-50 probability arises ?



Such a probability can be explained by self-duplication. If you are
a machine, I can scan you (in principle) and duplicate you in two
different places. You cannot predict in advance what will be your
subjective 

Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-05-29 Thread selva kumar
On Tue, May 17, 2011 at 6:36 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Hi selva,


 On 16 May 2011, at 16:49, selva wrote:

  Considering only our world in the many world interpretation,it is a
 separate causal domain..
 there is no domain shear between the different domains(different
 parallel worlds)..i.e.there is decoherence..
 It is known that in our causal domain,there is cause and effect
 relationships..
 everything is happening because of a cause..everything is as it is
 because it ought to be such.
 There is a grand flow in the varying positions of atoms constituting
 the universe..
 If this is right,


 This can't be right, if we assume that the brain (or whatever capable of
 sustaining consciousness) can be emulated by a Turing machine, as most
 people believe.





  then how can we say ,we have free will ?


 A determinist theory of free will is possible. What counts is that no
 machine can determine itself completely, so that the determinism of his/her
 behavior is known only by God, not by the machine, nor by machine of
 equivalent complexity.
 Now, if you mean that free will is the capacity to disobey to arithmetic,
 then it does not exist, most probably.





  why is there binary state at all ?


 OK. You could have asked equivalently: why is there natural numbers?
 Logicians have shown last century that this is impossible to answer.
 Actually we need the natural numbers to ask why natural numbers. They
 cannot be recover from any simpler theory. So we have to have some faith in
 them. It is part of the initial postulates.




  if there is free will,how can we say everything affects everything ?
 why is the 50-50 probability arises ?


 Such a probability can be explained by self-duplication. If you are a
 machine, I can scan you (in principle) and duplicate you in two different
 places. You cannot predict in advance what will be your subjective
 experience after the duplication. BTW, this can be used to explain that
 free-will is not explainable by the use of indeterminacy.




  why is there probability functions at all ?


 Assuming we are digital machines, the answer is that the reality of
 realities is very huge. There is an infinity of computations going through
 your actual state of mind, and computer science explains why no machine can
 know which computations, nor even which sheaf of computations support it.
 There is automatically a statistics for the observable.




  If the positions of the atoms in my mind(my thoughts) now affect the
 positions of the atoms in your brain(your thoughts) ,then does it mean
 you don't have a free will ?


 Why? On the contrary. To have free will you must have some ability to make
 change around you. You certainly need some amount of determinacy.

 can i argue that the my ability to make change around me arises from the
 changes around me..

you are now thinking what you are thinking only because i asked you
thisthat is,with your so called ability i am changing some thing,and
that changed things gives you the ability to change things around you..so
going backwards..(events are affected only by the past occurences in the
cone).wont we come to a single cause?



  Is our consciousness part of the grand consciousness (the universe).


 If by universe you mean physical universe, it is not clear if that exist.
 Strictly speaking it is an open problem. With mechanism we can say that
 there are many dreams, and we can say that some dreams glue well together to
 form shared dreams. But it is not known if they glue so well as to define a
 singular physical universe, or even just a singular physical multiverse.
 Extremely hard question.




  Are we like the white cells(individually conscious) in our body,to the
 universe..?


 You might be naive about we, body and universe. No problem, it is a
 tradition since theology has been abandon to politics 1500 years ago, in
 Occident. (Closure of Plato Academy in Athena, about 525 after JC).



  Then above all,the real question is why is there parallel worlds at
 all ?


 If you accept the idea that your brain can be simulated at some correct
 level of substitution (so that you would survive a digital brain
 substitution), then the additive and multiplicative structure of numbers
 defines a vast block mindscape, containing many dreams (as seen from
 inside). Some dreams glue and generate sharable (among collectivities of
 universal numbers) deep histories, which are seen as universe appearance
 from their points views. The physical realm does not disappear, but is
 secondary to the numbers dreams. The physical realm is still fundamental,
 but it is epistemological, not ontological.
 You might read the shortest paper(*) I wrote to sum up the consequences of
 taking seriously the *assumption* that we are Turing emulable. We discussed
 it a lot. Some have not yet seen the point, I'm afraid. I sum up it
 provocatively sometimes by saying that if we are rational machine, then we
 have to abandon the theology 

Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-05-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 May 2011, at 20:22, selva kumar wrote:




On Tue, May 17, 2011 at 6:36 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:

Hi selva,


On 16 May 2011, at 16:49, selva wrote:

Considering only our world in the many world interpretation,it is a
separate causal domain..
there is no domain shear between the different domains(different
parallel worlds)..i.e.there is decoherence..
It is known that in our causal domain,there is cause and effect
relationships..
everything is happening because of a cause..everything is as it is
because it ought to be such.
There is a grand flow in the varying positions of atoms constituting
the universe..
If this is right,

This can't be right, if we assume that the brain (or whatever  
capable of sustaining consciousness) can be emulated by a Turing  
machine, as most people believe.






then how can we say ,we have free will ?

A determinist theory of free will is possible. What counts is that  
no machine can determine itself completely, so that the determinism  
of his/her behavior is known only by God, not by the machine, nor  
by machine of equivalent complexity.
Now, if you mean that free will is the capacity to disobey to  
arithmetic, then it does not exist, most probably.






why is there binary state at all ?

OK. You could have asked equivalently: why is there natural numbers?  
Logicians have shown last century that this is impossible to answer.  
Actually we need the natural numbers to ask why natural numbers.  
They cannot be recover from any simpler theory. So we have to have  
some faith in them. It is part of the initial postulates.





if there is free will,how can we say everything affects everything ?
why is the 50-50 probability arises ?

Such a probability can be explained by self-duplication. If you are  
a machine, I can scan you (in principle) and duplicate you in two  
different places. You cannot predict in advance what will be your  
subjective experience after the duplication. BTW, this can be used  
to explain that free-will is not explainable by the use of  
indeterminacy.





why is there probability functions at all ?

Assuming we are digital machines, the answer is that the reality of  
realities is very huge. There is an infinity of computations going  
through your actual state of mind, and computer science explains why  
no machine can know which computations, nor even which sheaf of  
computations support it. There is automatically a statistics for the  
observable.





If the positions of the atoms in my mind(my thoughts) now affect the
positions of the atoms in your brain(your thoughts) ,then does it mean
you don't have a free will ?

Why? On the contrary. To have free will you must have some ability  
to make change around you. You certainly need some amount of  
determinacy.


can i argue that the my ability to make change around me arises from  
the changes around me..
you are now thinking what you are thinking only because i asked you  
thisthat is,with your so called ability i am changing some  
thing,and that changed things gives you the ability to change things  
around you..so going backwards..(events are affected only by the  
past occurences in the cone).wont we come to a single cause?


Yes. Assuming we are machine, elementary arithmetic is enough. And we  
cannot justify this with less than arithmetic, making it a theory of  
everything. The Pythagoreans were right, after all. They are redeemed  
by Church thesis.








Is our consciousness part of the grand consciousness (the universe).

If by universe you mean physical universe, it is not clear if that  
exist. Strictly speaking it is an open problem. With mechanism we  
can say that there are many dreams, and we can say that some dreams  
glue well together to form shared dreams. But it is not known if  
they glue so well as to define a singular physical universe, or even  
just a singular physical multiverse. Extremely hard question.





Are we like the white cells(individually conscious) in our body,to the
universe..?

You might be naive about we, body and universe. No problem, it  
is a tradition since theology has been abandon to politics 1500  
years ago, in Occident. (Closure of Plato Academy in Athena, about  
525 after JC).




Then above all,the real question is why is there parallel worlds at
all ?

If you accept the idea that your brain can be simulated at some  
correct level of substitution (so that you would survive a digital  
brain substitution), then the additive and multiplicative structure  
of numbers defines a vast block mindscape, containing many dreams  
(as seen from inside). Some dreams glue and generate sharable (among  
collectivities of universal numbers) deep histories, which are seen  
as universe appearance from their points views. The physical realm  
does not disappear, but is secondary to the numbers dreams. The  
physical realm is still fundamental, but it is epistemological, not  
ontological.
You might read the shortest 

Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-05-29 Thread meekerdb




On 29 May 2011, at 20:22, selva kumar wrote:




On Tue, May 17, 2011 at 6:36 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be 
mailto:marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


Hi selva,


On 16 May 2011, at 16:49, selva wrote:


If the positions of the atoms in my mind(my thoughts) now
affect the
positions of the atoms in your brain(your thoughts) ,then
does it mean
you don't have a free will ?


Why? On the contrary. To have free will you must have some
ability to make change around you. You certainly need some amount
of determinacy.

can i argue that the my ability to make change around me arises
from the changes around me..

you are now thinking what you are thinking only because i asked you 
thisthat is,with your so called ability i am changing some 
thing,and that changed things gives you the ability to change things 
around you..so going backwards..(events are affected only by the past 
occurences in the cone).wont we come to a single cause?


Not if there is quantum randomness; in which case there will be multiple 
causes.  But if you subscribe to the multiple worlds interpretation then 
the evolution will be deterministic but what is meant by you will be 
uncertain.


Brent

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Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-05-22 Thread John Mikes
Quentin,
good question. My agnostic thinking asks first: can you define death? I
think it is something like the opposite of life - begging the question:
how would you define LIFE? \
Our terms are subsets for the figment physical world and I would not go
along with the medical definition of death without an adequate term of
'life' pointing to the *end* of which.
I 'think' life is much more than a biologic process - especially restricted
to carbon-based physical constructs (molecules?) and borderlines as e.g.
'cell-membranes' etc.
The closest I came up death calls for a disintegration of complexity (at
least its functional(?) substantial parts) in relations we can characterize
in our biosphere as *LIFE*, notable as exercising Metabolism and Repair
('MR' after: Robert Rosen).
If life is not a noun, rather a process, the discontinuation of it also may
be a process with different parameters.
John M

On Sat, May 21, 2011 at 7:38 PM, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:

 Isn't all of this a denial of death ? Is it possible to ascribe a meaning
 to the end of consciousness ?

 Quentin

 2011/5/21 John Mikes jami...@gmail.com

 Brent: I mostly agree (if it is of any value...).

 I am FOR an idea of MWI (maybe not as the 'classic' goes: in my view ALL
 of them may be potentially different) but appreciate the power of hearsay
 (absorbed as FACT) - you may include other sensory/mental  domains as well.
 What I take exception to is the *world building role* of an assumption
 of a deterministic evolution of THE(?) wave function. -
 Of what???

 John

 On Thu, May 19, 2011 at 8:39 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 5/19/2011 4:31 PM, Stephen Paul King wrote:

  Hi Scerir and Friends,

 Thank you for posting this link to N. Gisin’s paper. In it Gisin
 makes a very eloquent and forceful argument against MWI based on the
 experience of free will.


 Doesn't seem very forceful to me.  There's a contradiction between the
 MWI and free will because the MWI assumes deterministic evolution of the
 wave function.  But that doesn't show that there is a contradiction between
 MWI and the *experience* of free-will.  You could as well say that the
 feeling to time passage is a forceful argument for physical time.

 Brent



 You can find a talk that he gave on the subject here:
 http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9WnV7zUR9UA


 I think that Gisin's argument is stunted by the fact that he does not
 consider the effects of multiple entities having free will and instead only
 considers a single entity having free will in the MWI picture. His point in
 the paper that if a specific interaction with one possible state of affair
 produce a desired effect, this very same specific interaction with most of
 the other - equally real according to many-worlds - state of affairs would
 produce uncontrolled random effects. Hence, it seems that there is no way to
 maintain a possible window for free will in the many-worlds view is correct
 but the uncontrolled randomness is only random because we can only resort
 to an equiprobable ensemble to do calculations of the effects of the
 interaction in that context.
 If we consider multiple observers within the MWI, it seems to me that
 in order for some measure of coherent communications to obtain between them
 there must be something like a super-selection rule on the branches of the
 superpositions such that only those mutually compatible observables are able
 to form a set of mutually true (in the bivalent Boolean sense) in the sense
 of relative commutativity of observables on each time-like (not just
 space-like) hypersurface of a foliation of space-time for those observers. I
 think that this is something that decoherence is pointing toward.

 Free will follows from the lack of a priori determinateness of the
 members of that set of observables. Just as we cannot demonstrate a
 computation that can compute whether or not a given computation will halt,
 we can similarly not demonstrate a finite Cauchy hypersurface of initial
 conditions that can uniquely determine both the order of measurements nor
 the mutual results of those measurements. Free Will is the freedom to chose
 the basis of a measurement.

 Onward!

 Stephen

 -Original Message-
 From: scerir
 Sent: Tuesday, May 17, 2011 2:15 AM
 To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Subject: Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

 Are There Quantum Effects Coming from Outside Space-time?
 Nonlocality, free will and no many-worlds
 -Nicolas Gisin
 http://arxiv.org/abs/1011.3440
 Abstract: Observing the violation of Bell's inequality tells us something
 about all
 possible future theories: they must all predict nonlocal correlations.
 Hence Nature is
 nonlocal. After an elementary introduction to nonlocality and a brief
 review of some
 recent experiments, I argue that Nature's nonlocality together with the
 existence of free
 will is incompatible with the many-worlds view of quantum physics.


 --
 You received

Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-05-21 Thread Rex Allen
By coincidence, I recently came across the following quote from Roger
Penrose's paper “Beyond the Doubting of a Shadow - A Reply to
Commentaries on Shadows of the Mind”.

Offered without comment.  I just thought it was interesting:

==
What kind of a theory might it be that determines these choices? Many
people who are unhappy with computationalism would be just as unhappy
with any other type of mathematical scheme for determining them. For
they might argue that it is here that free will makes its entry, and
they would be unhappy that their free-will choices could be determined
by any kind of mathematics. My own view would be to wait and see what
kind of non-computable scheme ultimately emerges. Perhaps a
sophisticated enough mathematical scheme will turn out not to be so
incompatible with our (feelings of) free will. However, McCarthy takes
the view that I am quite confused about free will, and that my ideas
are not repairable. I am not really clear about which of my confused
ideas McCarthy is referring to. In Shadows, I did not say much about
the issue of free will, except to raise certain issues. Indeed, I am
not at all sure what my views on the subject actually are. Perhaps
that means that I am confused, but I do not see that these ideas are
remotely well enough defined to be irreparable!
==

Rex

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Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-05-21 Thread Quentin Anciaux
Isn't all of this a denial of death ? Is it possible to ascribe a meaning to
the end of consciousness ?

Quentin

2011/5/21 John Mikes jami...@gmail.com

 Brent: I mostly agree (if it is of any value...).

 I am FOR an idea of MWI (maybe not as the 'classic' goes: in my view ALL of
 them may be potentially different) but appreciate the power of hearsay
 (absorbed as FACT) - you may include other sensory/mental  domains as well.
 What I take exception to is the *world building role* of an assumption of
 a deterministic evolution of THE(?) wave function. -
 Of what???

 John

 On Thu, May 19, 2011 at 8:39 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 5/19/2011 4:31 PM, Stephen Paul King wrote:

  Hi Scerir and Friends,

 Thank you for posting this link to N. Gisin’s paper. In it Gisin makes
 a very eloquent and forceful argument against MWI based on the experience of
 free will.


 Doesn't seem very forceful to me.  There's a contradiction between the MWI
 and free will because the MWI assumes deterministic evolution of the wave
 function.  But that doesn't show that there is a contradiction between MWI
 and the *experience* of free-will.  You could as well say that the feeling
 to time passage is a forceful argument for physical time.

 Brent



 You can find a talk that he gave on the subject here:
 http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9WnV7zUR9UA


 I think that Gisin's argument is stunted by the fact that he does not
 consider the effects of multiple entities having free will and instead only
 considers a single entity having free will in the MWI picture. His point in
 the paper that if a specific interaction with one possible state of affair
 produce a desired effect, this very same specific interaction with most of
 the other - equally real according to many-worlds - state of affairs would
 produce uncontrolled random effects. Hence, it seems that there is no way to
 maintain a possible window for free will in the many-worlds view is correct
 but the uncontrolled randomness is only random because we can only resort
 to an equiprobable ensemble to do calculations of the effects of the
 interaction in that context.
 If we consider multiple observers within the MWI, it seems to me that
 in order for some measure of coherent communications to obtain between them
 there must be something like a super-selection rule on the branches of the
 superpositions such that only those mutually compatible observables are able
 to form a set of mutually true (in the bivalent Boolean sense) in the sense
 of relative commutativity of observables on each time-like (not just
 space-like) hypersurface of a foliation of space-time for those observers. I
 think that this is something that decoherence is pointing toward.

 Free will follows from the lack of a priori determinateness of the
 members of that set of observables. Just as we cannot demonstrate a
 computation that can compute whether or not a given computation will halt,
 we can similarly not demonstrate a finite Cauchy hypersurface of initial
 conditions that can uniquely determine both the order of measurements nor
 the mutual results of those measurements. Free Will is the freedom to chose
 the basis of a measurement.

 Onward!

 Stephen

 -Original Message-
 From: scerir
 Sent: Tuesday, May 17, 2011 2:15 AM
 To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Subject: Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

 Are There Quantum Effects Coming from Outside Space-time?
 Nonlocality, free will and no many-worlds
 -Nicolas Gisin
 http://arxiv.org/abs/1011.3440
 Abstract: Observing the violation of Bell's inequality tells us something
 about all
 possible future theories: they must all predict nonlocal correlations.
 Hence Nature is
 nonlocal. After an elementary introduction to nonlocality and a brief
 review of some
 recent experiments, I argue that Nature's nonlocality together with the
 existence of free
 will is incompatible with the many-worlds view of quantum physics.


 --
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 For more

Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-05-19 Thread Stephen Paul King
Hi Scerir and Friends,

Thank you for posting this link to N. Gisin’s paper. In it Gisin makes a 
very eloquent and forceful argument against MWI based on the experience of free 
will. 

You can find a talk that he gave on the subject here: 
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9WnV7zUR9UA


I think that Gisin's argument is stunted by the fact that he does not 
consider the effects of multiple entities having free will and instead only 
considers a single entity having free will in the MWI picture. His point in the 
paper that if a specific interaction with one possible state of affair produce 
a desired effect, this very same specific interaction with most of the other - 
equally real according to many-worlds - state of affairs would produce 
uncontrolled random effects. Hence, it seems that there is no way to maintain a 
possible window for free will in the many-worlds view is correct but the 
uncontrolled randomness is only random because we can only resort to an 
equiprobable ensemble to do calculations of the effects of the interaction in 
that context.
If we consider multiple observers within the MWI, it seems to me that in 
order for some measure of coherent communications to obtain between them there 
must be something like a super-selection rule on the branches of the 
superpositions such that only those mutually compatible observables are able to 
form a set of mutually true (in the bivalent Boolean sense) in the sense of 
relative commutativity of observables on each time-like (not just space-like) 
hypersurface of a foliation of space-time for those observers. I think that 
this is something that decoherence is pointing toward.

Free will follows from the lack of a priori determinateness of the members 
of that set of observables. Just as we cannot demonstrate a computation that 
can compute whether or not a given computation will halt, we can similarly not 
demonstrate a finite Cauchy hypersurface of initial conditions that can 
uniquely determine both the order of measurements nor the mutual results of 
those measurements. Free Will is the freedom to chose the basis of a 
measurement.

Onward!

Stephen

-Original Message- 
From: scerir 
Sent: Tuesday, May 17, 2011 2:15 AM 
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com 
Subject: Re: FREE WILL--is it really free? 

Are There Quantum Effects Coming from Outside Space-time?
Nonlocality, free will and no many-worlds
-Nicolas Gisin
http://arxiv.org/abs/1011.3440
Abstract: Observing the violation of Bell's inequality tells us something about 
all
possible future theories: they must all predict nonlocal correlations. Hence 
Nature is
nonlocal. After an elementary introduction to nonlocality and a brief review of 
some
recent experiments, I argue that Nature's nonlocality together with the 
existence of free
will is incompatible with the many-worlds view of quantum physics.


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Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-05-19 Thread meekerdb

On 5/19/2011 4:31 PM, Stephen Paul King wrote:

Hi Scerir and Friends,
Thank you for posting this link to N. Gisin’s paper. In it Gisin 
makes a very eloquent and forceful argument against MWI based on the 
experience of free will.


Doesn't seem very forceful to me.  There's a contradiction between the 
MWI and free will because the MWI assumes deterministic evolution of the 
wave function.  But that doesn't show that there is a contradiction 
between MWI and the *experience* of free-will.  You could as well say 
that the feeling to time passage is a forceful argument for physical time.


Brent

You can find a talk that he gave on the subject here: 
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9WnV7zUR9UA
I think that Gisin's argument is stunted by the fact that he does 
not consider the effects of multiple entities having free will and 
instead only considers a single entity having free will in the MWI 
picture. His point in the paper that if a specific interaction with 
one possible state of affair produce a desired effect, this very same 
specific interaction with most of the other - equally real according 
to many-worlds - state of affairs would produce uncontrolled random 
effects. Hence, it seems that there is no way to maintain a possible 
window for free will in the many-worlds view is correct but the 
uncontrolled randomness is only random because we can only resort to 
an equiprobable ensemble to do calculations of the effects of the 
interaction in that context.
If we consider multiple observers within the MWI, it seems to me 
that in order for some measure of coherent communications to obtain 
between them there must be something like a super-selection rule on 
the branches of the superpositions such that only those mutually 
compatible observables are able to form a set of mutually true (in the 
bivalent Boolean sense) in the sense of relative commutativity of 
observables on each time-like (not just space-like) hypersurface of a 
foliation of space-time for those observers. I think that this is 
something that decoherence is pointing toward.
Free will follows from the lack of a priori determinateness of the 
members of that set of observables. Just as we cannot demonstrate a 
computation that can compute whether or not a given computation will 
halt, we can similarly not demonstrate a finite Cauchy hypersurface of 
initial conditions that can uniquely determine both the order of 
measurements nor the mutual results of those measurements. Free Will 
is the freedom to chose the basis of a measurement.

Onward!
Stephen
-Original Message-
From: scerir
Sent: Tuesday, May 17, 2011 2:15 AM
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?
Are There Quantum Effects Coming from Outside Space-time?
Nonlocality, free will and no many-worlds
-Nicolas Gisin
http://arxiv.org/abs/1011.3440
Abstract: Observing the violation of Bell's inequality tells us 
something about all
possible future theories: they must all predict nonlocal correlations. 
Hence Nature is
nonlocal. After an elementary introduction to nonlocality and a brief 
review of some
recent experiments, I argue that Nature's nonlocality together with 
the existence of free

will is incompatible with the many-worlds view of quantum physics.
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Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-05-17 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

Recently there was discussion on this list about this question

Love and free will
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list/t/8ab31552cd18561c

Some citations you will find in my blog

http://blog.rudnyi.ru/2011/04/love-and-free-will.html

You might be interested in Rex's

Intelligence and Nomologicalism
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list/t/5ab5303cdb696ef5




On 16.05.2011 16:49 selva said the following:

Considering only our world in the many world interpretation,it is a
separate causal domain..
there is no domain shear between the different domains(different
parallel worlds)..i.e.there is decoherence..
It is known that in our causal domain,there is cause and effect
relationships..
everything is happening because of a cause..everything is as it is
because it ought to be such.
There is a grand flow in the varying positions of atoms constituting
the universe..
If this is right,then how can we say ,we have free will ?
why is there binary state at all ?
if there is free will,how can we say everything affects everything ?
why is the 50-50 probability arises ?
why is there probability functions at all ?
If the positions of the atoms in my mind(my thoughts) now affect the
positions of the atoms in your brain(your thoughts) ,then does it mean
you don't have a free will ?
Is our consciousness part of the grand consciousness (the universe).
Are we like the white cells(individually conscious) in our body,to the
universe..?
Then above all,the real question is why is there parallel worlds at
all ?
everything affects everything or not ?



P.S : i am just a student and i don't have real technical knowledge in
all these fields..i am just curious..what is these universe and why
does it exists at all..
so please bear with my ignorance.



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Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-05-17 Thread scerir

Are There Quantum Effects Coming from Outside Space-time?
Nonlocality, free will and no many-worlds
-Nicolas Gisin
http://arxiv.org/abs/1011.3440
Abstract: Observing the violation of Bell's inequality tells us something about 
all
possible future theories: they must all predict nonlocal correlations. Hence 
Nature is
nonlocal. After an elementary introduction to nonlocality and a brief review of 
some
recent experiments, I argue that Nature's nonlocality together with the 
existence of free
will is incompatible with the many-worlds view of quantum physics.


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Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-05-17 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi
Could you please tell me if this paper will help me for example to earn 
more money? Or, according to this paper, does it make sense even try to 
earn more money?


On 17.05.2011 08:15 scerir said the following:

Are There Quantum Effects Coming from Outside Space-time?
Nonlocality, free will and no many-worlds
-Nicolas Gisin
http://arxiv.org/abs/1011.3440
Abstract: Observing the violation of Bell's inequality tells us
something about all
possible future theories: they must all predict nonlocal correlations.
Hence Nature is
nonlocal. After an elementary introduction to nonlocality and a brief
review of some
recent experiments, I argue that Nature's nonlocality together with the
existence of free
will is incompatible with the many-worlds view of quantum physics.




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Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-05-17 Thread Bruno Marchal

Hi selva,

On 16 May 2011, at 16:49, selva wrote:


Considering only our world in the many world interpretation,it is a
separate causal domain..
there is no domain shear between the different domains(different
parallel worlds)..i.e.there is decoherence..
It is known that in our causal domain,there is cause and effect
relationships..
everything is happening because of a cause..everything is as it is
because it ought to be such.
There is a grand flow in the varying positions of atoms constituting
the universe..
If this is right,


This can't be right, if we assume that the brain (or whatever capable  
of sustaining consciousness) can be emulated by a Turing machine, as  
most people believe.






then how can we say ,we have free will ?


A determinist theory of free will is possible. What counts is that no  
machine can determine itself completely, so that the determinism of  
his/her behavior is known only by God, not by the machine, nor by  
machine of equivalent complexity.
Now, if you mean that free will is the capacity to disobey to  
arithmetic, then it does not exist, most probably.






why is there binary state at all ?


OK. You could have asked equivalently: why is there natural numbers?  
Logicians have shown last century that this is impossible to answer.  
Actually we need the natural numbers to ask why natural numbers.  
They cannot be recover from any simpler theory. So we have to have  
some faith in them. It is part of the initial postulates.





if there is free will,how can we say everything affects everything ?
why is the 50-50 probability arises ?


Such a probability can be explained by self-duplication. If you are a  
machine, I can scan you (in principle) and duplicate you in two  
different places. You cannot predict in advance what will be your  
subjective experience after the duplication. BTW, this can be used to  
explain that free-will is not explainable by the use of indeterminacy.





why is there probability functions at all ?


Assuming we are digital machines, the answer is that the reality of  
realities is very huge. There is an infinity of computations going  
through your actual state of mind, and computer science explains why  
no machine can know which computations, nor even which sheaf of  
computations support it. There is automatically a statistics for the  
observable.





If the positions of the atoms in my mind(my thoughts) now affect the
positions of the atoms in your brain(your thoughts) ,then does it mean
you don't have a free will ?


Why? On the contrary. To have free will you must have some ability to  
make change around you. You certainly need some amount of determinacy.





Is our consciousness part of the grand consciousness (the universe).


If by universe you mean physical universe, it is not clear if that  
exist. Strictly speaking it is an open problem. With mechanism we can  
say that there are many dreams, and we can say that some dreams glue  
well together to form shared dreams. But it is not known if they glue  
so well as to define a singular physical universe, or even just a  
singular physical multiverse. Extremely hard question.





Are we like the white cells(individually conscious) in our body,to the
universe..?


You might be naive about we, body and universe. No problem, it  
is a tradition since theology has been abandon to politics 1500 years  
ago, in Occident. (Closure of Plato Academy in Athena, about 525 after  
JC).




Then above all,the real question is why is there parallel worlds at
all ?


If you accept the idea that your brain can be simulated at some  
correct level of substitution (so that you would survive a digital  
brain substitution), then the additive and multiplicative structure of  
numbers defines a vast block mindscape, containing many dreams (as  
seen from inside). Some dreams glue and generate sharable (among  
collectivities of universal numbers) deep histories, which are seen  
as universe appearance from their points views. The physical realm  
does not disappear, but is secondary to the numbers dreams. The  
physical realm is still fundamental, but it is epistemological, not  
ontological.
You might read the shortest paper(*) I wrote to sum up the  
consequences of taking seriously the *assumption* that we are Turing  
emulable. We discussed it a lot. Some have not yet seen the point, I'm  
afraid. I sum up it provocatively sometimes by saying that if we are  
rational machine, then we have to abandon the theology of Aristotle  
(atheism christianism etc.) for the theology of Plato (objective  
idealism, Pythagorism, some budhist and indian school or thought). In  
the first one there is an emphasis on the 'creation'. In the second  
one the creation is a sign of something else (actually arithmetic).

(*) http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/publications/SANE2004MARCHALAbstract.html



everything affects everything or not ?


In which sense? In our local physical realm even a big supernova  

Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-05-17 Thread Bruno Marchal

Evgenii ,

I appreciate Nicolas Gisin, like I appreciate a lot Conway and Kochen,  
but they have in common that once they talk on free will they utter  
non sense. I will probably read Gisin's paper, but I have not really  
the time right now.
Let me says tell you why I doubt on the interest on this, from reading  
just the abstract: the MWI has been invented notably for making  
physics local, as Everett and Tipler have already explained, and as  
Deutsch and Hayden have made even more clear. So I guess there is  
either an error in Gisin, or that he has made a very interesting  
discovery. But I doubt, especially that he might have a non  
compatibilist theory of free will, which makes almost non sense for  
me. You have already to postulate non-comp to get it. Hmm...


Of course if the goal is to make money, that can be a road. People  
like wishful non-sense. But you might make more money with astrology  
or with pseudo-religion.


Bruno


On 17 May 2011, at 10:40, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

Could you please tell me if this paper will help me for example to  
earn more money? Or, according to this paper, does it make sense  
even try to earn more money?


On 17.05.2011 08:15 scerir said the following:

Are There Quantum Effects Coming from Outside Space-time?
Nonlocality, free will and no many-worlds
-Nicolas Gisin
http://arxiv.org/abs/1011.3440
Abstract: Observing the violation of Bell's inequality tells us
something about all
possible future theories: they must all predict nonlocal  
correlations.

Hence Nature is
nonlocal. After an elementary introduction to nonlocality and a brief
review of some
recent experiments, I argue that Nature's nonlocality together with  
the

existence of free
will is incompatible with the many-worlds view of quantum physics.




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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-05-17 Thread scerir

http://arxiv.org/abs/1011.3440


Evgenii writes:
Could you please tell me if this paper will help me for example to earn 
more money? Or, according to this paper, does it make sense even try to 
earn more money?


Did you see The Sting (1973, Paul Newman and Robert Redford)?
I think that something like that is possible coupling Renninger's paradox 
(null measurement) and MWI. Not so easy though.


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FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-05-16 Thread selva
Considering only our world in the many world interpretation,it is a
separate causal domain..
there is no domain shear between the different domains(different
parallel worlds)..i.e.there is decoherence..
It is known that in our causal domain,there is cause and effect
relationships..
everything is happening because of a cause..everything is as it is
because it ought to be such.
There is a grand flow in the varying positions of atoms constituting
the universe..
If this is right,then how can we say ,we have free will ?
why is there binary state at all ?
if there is free will,how can we say everything affects everything ?
why is the 50-50 probability arises ?
why is there probability functions at all ?
If the positions of the atoms in my mind(my thoughts) now affect the
positions of the atoms in your brain(your thoughts) ,then does it mean
you don't have a free will ?
Is our consciousness part of the grand consciousness (the universe).
Are we like the white cells(individually conscious) in our body,to the
universe..?
Then above all,the real question is why is there parallel worlds at
all ?
everything affects everything or not ?



P.S : i am just a student and i don't have real technical knowledge in
all these fields..i am just curious..what is these universe and why
does it exists at all..
so please bear with my ignorance.

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Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-05-16 Thread Stephen Paul King

Hi selva,

   We are actively exploring exactly those kinds of questions. Please feel 
free to jump in, the water is warm. ;-)


Onward!

Stephen

-Original Message- 
From: selva

Sent: Monday, May 16, 2011 10:49 AM
To: Everything List
Subject: FREE WILL--is it really free?

Considering only our world in the many world interpretation,it is a
separate causal domain..
there is no domain shear between the different domains(different
parallel worlds)..i.e.there is decoherence..
It is known that in our causal domain,there is cause and effect
relationships..
everything is happening because of a cause..everything is as it is
because it ought to be such.
There is a grand flow in the varying positions of atoms constituting
the universe..
If this is right,then how can we say ,we have free will ?
why is there binary state at all ?
if there is free will,how can we say everything affects everything ?
why is the 50-50 probability arises ?
why is there probability functions at all ?
If the positions of the atoms in my mind(my thoughts) now affect the
positions of the atoms in your brain(your thoughts) ,then does it mean
you don't have a free will ?
Is our consciousness part of the grand consciousness (the universe).
Are we like the white cells(individually conscious) in our body,to the
universe..?
Then above all,the real question is why is there parallel worlds at
all ?
everything affects everything or not ?



P.S : i am just a student and i don't have real technical knowledge in
all these fields..i am just curious..what is these universe and why
does it exists at all..
so please bear with my ignorance.

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Re: FREE WILL--is it really free?

2011-05-16 Thread meekerdb

On 5/16/2011 7:49 AM, selva wrote:

Considering only our world in the many world interpretation,it is a
separate causal domain..
there is no domain shear between the different domains(different
parallel worlds)..i.e.there is decoherence..
It is known that in our causal domain,there is cause and effect
relationships..
everything is happening because of a cause..everything is as it is
because it ought to be such.
There is a grand flow in the varying positions of atoms constituting
the universe..
If this is right,then how can we say ,we have free will ?
   


See Daniel Dennett's book Elbow Room for a good exposition of 
compatibilist free will.



why is there binary state at all ?
   


I don't understand that question?  Computers use binary representations 
because it physically more efficient, although there have been computers 
that used base three, and of course analog computers.



if there is free will,how can we say everything affects everything ?
   


That depends on what you mean by free will and whether you think the 
world is deterministic.  By affects do you mean determines or could 
it mean change the probability of?



why is the 50-50 probability arises ?
why is there probability functions at all ?
   


Probability is a mathematical model.  It can be used to model events 
where we are ignorant of the causes, although we assume they exist.  
That's how it was invented, by game players.  But it isn't necessary to 
assume there are unknown causes.  The same model then describes inherent 
randomness.



If the positions of the atoms in my mind(my thoughts) now affect the
positions of the atoms in your brain(your thoughts) ,then does it mean
you don't have a free will ?
   

No.


Is our consciousness part of the grand consciousness (the universe).
Are we like the white cells(individually conscious) in our body,to the
universe..?
   


I have no reason to believe the premise of that question.


Then above all,the real question is why is there parallel worlds at
all ?
   


It's convenient model of measurement in quantum mechanics to avoid the 
question of why measurements need to be described by a physical process 
(projection) different from all other physical processes (unitary 
evolution by the Hamiltonian).  Whether such worlds are real is 
controversial.



everything affects everything or not ?
   


In physics, things can only affect events in their future light cone and 
events are only affected by events in their past light cone.  There are 
some theories, such as Bohm's quantum mechanics, which violate this 
rule, but none that are accepted.






P.S : i am just a student and i don't have real technical knowledge in
all these fields..i am just curious..what is these universe and why
does it exists at all..
so please bear with my ignorance.
   


Brent
Why is there something rather than nothing?  Because nothing is unstable
--- Frank Wilczek, Nobel Laureate 2004

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