Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-12-03 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 30-nov.-07, à 20:00, Torgny Tholerus a écrit :

 Here I am an ultrafinitist.  I believe that the universe is strictly
 finite.  The space and time are discrete.  And the space today have a
 limit.  But the time might be without limit, that I don't know.



Then you are physicalist before being ultrafinitist.

Now ultrafinitism implies comp (OK?, 'course comp does not imply 
ultrafinitism!)

But I have already argued that comp implies the falsity of physicalism 
(UDA), so?

BTW, you often quote wiki or other standard definition of math concept. 
But few are justifiable in the ultrafinitist realm, so many of your 
statements seems contradictory to me.

Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-12-03 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 30-nov.-07, à 20:21, Torgny Tholerus a écrit :

 Why can't our universe be modelled by a cellular automata?


By UDA, this is just  a priori impossible.

What *is* still possible, is that you can modelize the emergence of 
the appearance of a universe by modelling, with a cellular automata, a 
couple observer + a quantum cellular automata, or by modelling all 
possible observers through universal dovetaling. Normally the 
appearance of the quantum will be generated as well.

If you are a machine, the physical universe (the sharable third person 
pov) is not describable in term of working machine. Unless you are the 
whole universe yourself, which I doubt.
If, you are the whole universe, and if you (the universe) exist, and if 
comp is false and ultrafinitism true, then you are right. But then, 
about the mind body problem, you are reintroducing the material bullet 
making even impossible to really addressed the question. Imo: it would 
be a regression.

This comment assumes a good understanding of the seven first steps of 
the UDA.



 Our universe
 is very complicated, but why can't it be modelled by a very complicated
 automata?


Because, by assuming comp, the (physical) universe has to emerge non 
locally from an infinity of infinite computations.


 An automata where you have models for protons and electrons
 and photons and all other elementary particles, that obey the same laws
 as the particles in our universe?


Of course I talk here on exact emulation. FAPP, you can simulate 
electron and photon. About  reality, I am not even sure there are 
photons and electrons, we have non local (in our local 
histories/branches) wavy interacting fields.
Note that Newton's law, taken seriously enough, are also not turing 
emulable, like almost everything in naïve math.


Bruno





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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-12-01 Thread Quentin Anciaux

Le Thursday 29 November 2007 19:28:05 Torgny Tholerus, vous avez écrit :
 Quentin Anciaux skrev:
  Le Thursday 29 November 2007 18:52:36 Torgny Tholerus, vous avez écrit :
  Quentin Anciaux skrev:
  What is the production rules of the noset R ?
 
  How do you define the set R?
 
  http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Construction_of_real_numbers
 
  Choose your method...

 The most important part of that definition is:

 4. The order ? is /complete/ in the following sense: every non-empty
 subset of *R* bounded above http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Upper_bound
 has a least upper bound http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Least_upper_bound.

 This definition can be translated to:

 If you have a production rule that produces rational numbers that are
 bounded above, then this production rule is producing a real number.

 This is the production rule for real numbers.

And how this render the *set R* ]-infinity,infinity[ finite/limited or even 
the set N [0,infinity[ ?

If as you say you have elements/events/... after the last element/event/... it 
is totally contradictory and meaning less to call it last... If I take it as 
a demonstration by absurd, then you've just demonstrated that there exists no 
last element/event/... How can you avoid this contradiction ?

Regards,
Quentin Anciaux


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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-30 Thread Torgny Tholerus

Bruno Marchal skrev:


 Le 29-nov.-07, à 17:22, Torgny Tholerus a écrit :

 There is a difference between unlimited and infinite. Unlimited
 just says that it has no limit, but everything is still finite. If
 you
 add something to a finite set, then the new set will always be
 finite.
 It is not possible to create an infinite set.

 Come on! Now you talk like a finitist, who accepts the idea of 
 potential infinity (like Kronecker, Brouwer and the intuitionnist) 
 and who rejects only the so called actual infinities, like ordinal and 
 cardinal numbers (or sets).

Yes, I am more like a finitist than an ultrafinitist in this respect.  I 
accept that something can be without limit.  But I don't want to use the 
word potential infinity, because infinity is a meaningless word for me.


 At the ontic level, (or ontological, I mean the minimum we have to bet 
 on at the third person pov), comp is mainly finitist. Judson Webb put 
 comp (he calls it mechanism) in Finitism. But that is no more 
 ultrafinitism. With finitism: every object of the universe is 
 finite, but the universe itself is infinite (potentially or actually). 
 With ultrafinitism, every object is finite AND the universe itself is 
 finite too.

Here I am an ultrafinitist.  I believe that the universe is strictly 
finite.  The space and time are discrete.  And the space today have a 
limit.  But the time might be without limit, that I don't know.


 Jesse wrote:

 My instinct would be to say that a well-defined criterion is one
 that, given any mathematical object, will give you a clear answer
 as to whether the object fits the criterion or not. And obviously
 this one doesn't, because it's impossible to decide where R fits
 it or not! But I'm not sure if this is the right answer, since my
 notion of well-defined criteria is just supposed to be an
 alternate way of conceptualizing the notion of a set, and I don't
 actually know why the set of all sets that are not members of
 themselves is not considered to be a valid set in ZFC set theory.

 Frege and Cantor did indeed define or identify sets with their 
 defining properties. This leads to the Russell's contradiction. (I 
 think Frege has abandoned his work in despair after that).
 One solution (among many other one) to save Cantor's work from that 
 paradox consists in formalizing set theory, which means using 
 belongness as an undefined symbol obeying some axioms. Just two 
 examples of an axiom of ZF (or its brother ZFC = ZF + axiom of 
 choice): is the extensionality axiom:
 AxAyAz ((x b z - y b z) - x = y) b is for belongs. It says that 
 two sets are equal if they have the same elements.
 AxEy(z included-in x - z b y) with z included-in x is a macro for 
 Ar(r b z - r b x). This is the power set axiom, saying that the set 
 of all subsets of some set is also a set).

For me belongness is not a problem, because everything is finite.  For 
me the axiom of choice always is true, because you can always do a 
chioce in a finite world.


 Paradoxes a-la Russell are evacuated by restricting Jesse's 
 well-defined criteria by
 1) first order formula (in the set language, that is with b as 
 unique relational symbols (+ equality) ... like the axioms just above.
 2) but such first order formula have to be applied only to an already 
 defined set.

This 2) rule is a very important restriction, and it is just this that 
my type theory is about.  When you construct new things, those things 
can only be constructed from things that are already defined.  So when 
you construct the set of all sets, then that new set will not be 
included in the new set.

 For example, you can defined the set of x such that x is in y and has 
 such property P(x). With P defined by a set formula, and y an already 
 defined set.

 Also, ZFC has the foundation axiom which forbids a set to belong to 
 itself.

This is a natural consequence of my type theory.  When you construct a 
set, that set can never belong to itself, because that set is not 
defined before it is constructed.

 In particular the informal collection of all sets which does not 
 belongs to themselves is the universe itself, which cannot be a set 
 (its power set would be bigger than the universe!).

Yes, the set of all sets which does not belongs to themselves is the 
universe itself.  But this is not a problem for me, because you can 
always extend the universe by creating new objects.  So you can create 
the power set, and the power set will then be bigger than the universe.  
But this power set will not be part of the universe.

-- 
Torgny

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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-30 Thread Torgny Tholerus

[EMAIL PROTECTED] skrev:
 On Nov 28, 9:56 pm, Torgny Tholerus [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

   
 You only need models of cellular automata.  If you have a model and
 rules for that model, then one event will follow after another event,
 according to the rules.  And after that event will follow another more
 event, and so on unlimited.  The events will follow after eachother even
 if you will not have any implementation of this model.  Any physics is
 not needed.  You don't need any geometric properties.

 In this model you may have a person called Torgny writing a message on a
 google group, and that event may be followed by a person called Marc
 writing a reply to this message.  And you don't need any implementation
 of that model.

 
 A whole lot of unproven assumptions in there.   For starters, we don't
 even know that the physical world can be modelled solely in terms of
 cellular automata at all.

Why can't our universe be modelled by a cellular automata?  Our universe 
is very complicated, but why can't it be modelled by a very complicated 
automata?  An automata where you have models for protons and electrons 
and photons and all other elementary particles, that obey the same laws 
as the particles in our universe?

   Digital physics just seems to be the latest
 'trendy' thing, but actual evidence is thin on the ground.
 Mathematics is much richer than just discrete math.  Discrete math
 deals only with finite collections, and as such is just a special case
 of algebra.

Isn't it enough with this special case?  You can do a lot with finite 
collections.  There is not any need for anything more.

   Algebraic relations extend beyond computational models.
 Finally, the introduction of complex analysis, infinite sets and
 category theory extends mathematics even further, beyond even
 algebraic relations.  So you see that cellular automata are only a
 small part of mathematics as a whole.  There is no reason for thinking
 for that space is discrete and in fact physics as it stands deals in
 continuous differential equations, not cellular automata.
   

The reason why physics deals in continuous differential equations is 
that they are a very good approximation to a world where the distance 
between the space points and the time points are very, very small.  And 
if you read a book in Quantum Field Theory, they often start from a 
discrete model, and then take the limit when the distances go to zero.

 Further, the essential point I was making is that an informational
 model of something is not neccesserily the same as the thing itself.
 An informational model of a person called Marc would capture only my
 mind, not my body.  The information has to be super-imposed upon the
 physical, or embodied in the physical world.
   
If the model models every atom in your body, then that model will 
describe your body.  That model will describe how the atoms in your body 
react with eachother, and they will describe all your actions.

-- 
Torgny

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RE: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-30 Thread Jesse Mazer




 Date: Fri, 30 Nov 2007 09:00:17 +0100
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 Subject: Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi
 
 
 Jesse Mazer skrev:


   
 Date: Thu, 29 Nov 2007 19:55:20 +0100
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]

 
 As soon as you say the set of ALL numbers, then you are forced to 
 define the word ALL here.  And for every definition, you are forced to 
 introduce a limit.  It is not possible to define the word ALL without 
 introducing a limit.  (Or making an illegal circular definition...)
 

 Why can't you say If it can be generated by the production rule/fits the 
 criterion, then it's a member of the set? I haven't used the word all 
 there, and I don't see any circularity either.
 
 What do you mean by a well-defined criterion?  Is this a well-defined 
 criterion? :
 
 The set R is defined by:
 
 (x belongs to R) if and only if (x does not belong to x).
 
 If it fits the criterion (x does not belong to x), then it's a member of 
 the set R.
 
 Then we ask the question: Is R a member of the set R?.  How shall we 
 use the criterion to answer that question?
 
 If we substitute R for x in the criterion, we will get:
 
 (R belongs to R) if and only if (R does not belong to R)...
 
 What is wrong with this?

My instinct would be to say that a well-defined criterion is one that, given 
any mathematical object, will give you a clear answer as to whether the object 
fits the criterion or not. And obviously this one doesn't, because it's 
impossible to decide where R fits it or not! But I'm not sure if this is the 
right answer, since my notion of well-defined criteria is just supposed to be 
an alternate way of conceptualizing the notion of a set, and I don't actually 
know why the set of all sets that are not members of themselves is not 
considered to be a valid set in ZFC set theory.

Jesse
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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-30 Thread Torgny Tholerus

Jesse Mazer skrev:


   
 Date: Thu, 29 Nov 2007 19:55:20 +0100
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]

 
 As soon as you say the set of ALL numbers, then you are forced to 
 define the word ALL here.  And for every definition, you are forced to 
 introduce a limit.  It is not possible to define the word ALL without 
 introducing a limit.  (Or making an illegal circular definition...)
 

 Why can't you say If it can be generated by the production rule/fits the 
 criterion, then it's a member of the set? I haven't used the word all 
 there, and I don't see any circularity either.

What do you mean by a well-defined criterion?  Is this a well-defined 
criterion? :

The set R is defined by:

(x belongs to R) if and only if (x does not belong to x).

If it fits the criterion (x does not belong to x), then it's a member of 
the set R.

Then we ask the question: Is R a member of the set R?.  How shall we 
use the criterion to answer that question?

If we substitute R for x in the criterion, we will get:

(R belongs to R) if and only if (R does not belong to R)...

What is wrong with this?

-- 
Torgny

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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-29 Thread Torgny Tholerus

Quentin Anciaux skrev:
 Hi,

 Le Wednesday 28 November 2007 09:56:17 Torgny Tholerus, vous avez écrit :
   

 You only need models of cellular automata.  If you have a model and
 rules for that model, then one event will follow after another event,
 according to the rules.  And after that event will follow another more
 event, and so on unlimited.  The events will follow after eachother even
 if you will not have any implementation of this model.  Any physics is
 not needed.  You don't need any geometric properties.

 
 Sure, but you can't be ultrafinitist and saying things like And after that 
 event will follow another more event, and so on unlimited.
   


There is a difference between unlimited and infinite.  Unlimited 
just says that it has no limit, but everything is still finite.  If you 
add something to a finite set, then the new set will always be finite.  
It is not possible to create an infinite set.

So it is OK to use the word unlimited.  But it is not OK to use the 
word infinite.  Is this clear?

Another important word is the word all.  You can talk about all 
events.  But in that case the number of events will be finite, and you 
can then talk about the last event.  But you can't deduce any 
contradiction from that, because that is forbidden by the type theory.  
And there will be more events after the last event, because the number 
of events is unlimited.  As soon as you use the word all, you will 
introduce a limit - all up to this limit.  And you must then think of 
only doing conclusions that are legal according to type theory.

So the best thing is to avoid the word all (and all synonyms of that 
word).

-- 
Torgny


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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-29 Thread Quentin Anciaux

Le Thursday 29 November 2007 17:22:59 Torgny Tholerus, vous avez écrit :
 Quentin Anciaux skrev:
  Hi,
 
  Le Wednesday 28 November 2007 09:56:17 Torgny Tholerus, vous avez écrit :
  You only need models of cellular automata.  If you have a model and
  rules for that model, then one event will follow after another event,
  according to the rules.  And after that event will follow another more
  event, and so on unlimited.  The events will follow after eachother even
  if you will not have any implementation of this model.  Any physics is
  not needed.  You don't need any geometric properties.
 
  Sure, but you can't be ultrafinitist and saying things like And after
  that event will follow another more event, and so on unlimited.

 There is a difference between unlimited and infinite.  Unlimited
 just says that it has no limit, but everything is still finite.  If you
 add something to a finite set, then the new set will always be finite.
 It is not possible to create an infinite set.

I'm sorry I don't get it... The set N as an infinite numbers of elements still 
every element in the set is finite. Maybe it is an english subtility that I'm 
not aware of... but in french I don't see a clear difference between infini 
and illimité.


 So it is OK to use the word unlimited.  But it is not OK to use the
 word infinite.  Is this clear?

No, I don't see how a set which have not limit get a finite number of 
elements.

 Another important word is the word all.  You can talk about all
 events.  But in that case the number of events will be finite, and you
 can then talk about the last event.  But you can't deduce any
 contradiction from that, because that is forbidden by the type theory.
 And there will be more events after the last event, because the number
 of events is unlimited.  

If there are events after the last one, how can the last one be the last ?

 As soon as you use the word all, you will 
 introduce a limit - all up to this limit.  And you must then think of
 only doing conclusions that are legal according to type theory.

o_O... could you explain what is type theory ?

 So the best thing is to avoid the word all (and all synonyms of that
 word).

like everything ?

Regards,
Quentin Anciaux

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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-29 Thread Torgny Tholerus

Quentin Anciaux skrev:
 Le Thursday 29 November 2007 17:22:59 Torgny Tholerus, vous avez écrit :
   

 There is a difference between unlimited and infinite.  Unlimited
 just says that it has no limit, but everything is still finite.  If you
 add something to a finite set, then the new set will always be finite.
 It is not possible to create an infinite set.
 

 I'm sorry I don't get it... The set N as an infinite numbers of elements 
 still 
 every element in the set is finite. Maybe it is an english subtility that I'm 
 not aware of... but in french I don't see a clear difference between infini 
 and illimité.
   

As soon as you talk about the set N, then you are making a closure 
and making that set finite.  The only possible way to talk about 
something without limit, such as natural numbers, is to give a 
production rule, so that you can produce as many of that type of 
objects as you want.  If you have a natural number n, then you can 
produce a new number n+1, that is the successor of n.


   
 So it is OK to use the word unlimited.  But it is not OK to use the
 word infinite.  Is this clear?
 

 No, I don't see how a set which have not limit get a finite number of 
 elements.
   

It is not possible for a set to have no limit.  As soon as you 
construct a set, then that set will always have a limit.  Either you 
have to accept that the set N is finite, or you must stop talking about 
the set N.  It is enough to have a production rule for natural numbers.

   
 Another important word is the word all.  You can talk about all
 events.  But in that case the number of events will be finite, and you
 can then talk about the last event.  But you can't deduce any
 contradiction from that, because that is forbidden by the type theory.
 And there will be more events after the last event, because the number
 of events is unlimited.  
 

 If there are events after the last one, how can the last one be the last ?
   

The last event is the last event in the set of all events.  But 
because you have a production rule for the events, it is always possible 
to produce new events after the last event.  But these events do not 
belong to the set of all events.

   
 As soon as you use the word all, you will 
 introduce a limit - all up to this limit.  And you must then think of
 only doing conclusions that are legal according to type theory.
 

 o_O... could you explain what is type theory ?
   

Type theory is one of the solutions of Russel's paradox.  You have a 
hierarchy of types.  Type theory says that the all quantifiers only 
can span objects of the same type (or lower types).  When you create 
new objects, such that the set of all sets that do not belong to 
themselves, then you will get an object of a higher type, so that you 
can not say anything about if this set belongs to itself or not.  The 
same thing with the set of all sets.  You can not say anything about 
if it belongs to itself.

   
 So the best thing is to avoid the word all (and all synonyms of that
 word).
 

 like everything ?
   
Yes...   :-)

-- 
Torgny

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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-29 Thread Quentin Anciaux

Le Thursday 29 November 2007 18:25:54 Torgny Tholerus, vous avez écrit :
 Quentin Anciaux skrev:
  Le Thursday 29 November 2007 17:22:59 Torgny Tholerus, vous avez écrit :
  There is a difference between unlimited and infinite.  Unlimited
  just says that it has no limit, but everything is still finite.  If you
  add something to a finite set, then the new set will always be finite.
  It is not possible to create an infinite set.
 
  I'm sorry I don't get it... The set N as an infinite numbers of elements
  still every element in the set is finite. Maybe it is an english
  subtility that I'm not aware of... but in french I don't see a clear
  difference between infini and illimité.

 As soon as you talk about the set N, then you are making a closure
 and making that set finite.  

Ok then the set R is also finite ? 

 The only possible way to talk about 
 something without limit, such as natural numbers, is to give a
 production rule, so that you can produce as many of that type of
 objects as you want.  If you have a natural number n, then you can
 produce a new number n+1, that is the successor of n.

What is the production rules of the noset R ?

  So it is OK to use the word unlimited.  But it is not OK to use the
  word infinite.  Is this clear?
 
  No, I don't see how a set which have not limit get a finite number of
  elements.

 It is not possible for a set to have no limit.  As soon as you
 construct a set, then that set will always have a limit.  

I don't get it.

 Either you 
 have to accept that the set N is finite, or you must stop talking about
 the set N.  It is enough to have a production rule for natural numbers.

I don't accept and/or don't understand.

  Another important word is the word all.  You can talk about all
  events.  But in that case the number of events will be finite, and you
  can then talk about the last event.  But you can't deduce any
  contradiction from that, because that is forbidden by the type theory.
  And there will be more events after the last event, because the number
  of events is unlimited.
 
  If there are events after the last one, how can the last one be the last
  ?

 The last event is the last event in the set of all events.  But
 because you have a production rule for the events, it is always possible
 to produce new events after the last event.  But these events do not
 belong to the set of all events.

There exists no last element in the set N.

  As soon as you use the word all, you will
  introduce a limit - all up to this limit.  And you must then think of
  only doing conclusions that are legal according to type theory.
 
  o_O... could you explain what is type theory ?

 Type theory is one of the solutions of Russel's paradox.  You have a
 hierarchy of types.  Type theory says that the all quantifiers only
 can span objects of the same type (or lower types).  When you create
 new objects, such that the set of all sets that do not belong to
 themselves, then you will get an object of a higher type, so that you
 can not say anything about if this set belongs to itself or not.  The
 same thing with the set of all sets.  You can not say anything about
 if it belongs to itself.

  So the best thing is to avoid the word all (and all synonyms of that
  word).
 
  like everything ?

 Yes...   :-)

What you are saying seems like to me So the best thing is to avoid words at 
all (and any languages)... 

Regards,
Quentin Anciaux


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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-29 Thread Torgny Tholerus

Quentin Anciaux skrev:
 Le Thursday 29 November 2007 18:25:54 Torgny Tholerus, vous avez écrit :
   

 As soon as you talk about the set N, then you are making a closure
 and making that set finite.  
 

 Ok then the set R is also finite ? 
   

Yes.

   
 The only possible way to talk about 
 something without limit, such as natural numbers, is to give a
 production rule, so that you can produce as many of that type of
 objects as you want.  If you have a natural number n, then you can
 produce a new number n+1, that is the successor of n.
 

 What is the production rules of the noset R ?
   

How do you define the set R?

-- 
Torgny

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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-29 Thread Quentin Anciaux

Le Thursday 29 November 2007 18:52:36 Torgny Tholerus, vous avez écrit :
 Quentin Anciaux skrev:
  Le Thursday 29 November 2007 18:25:54 Torgny Tholerus, vous avez écrit :
  As soon as you talk about the set N, then you are making a closure
  and making that set finite.
 
  Ok then the set R is also finite ?

 Yes.

o_O

  The only possible way to talk about
  something without limit, such as natural numbers, is to give a
  production rule, so that you can produce as many of that type of
  objects as you want.  If you have a natural number n, then you can
  produce a new number n+1, that is the successor of n.
 
  What is the production rules of the noset R ?

 How do you define the set R?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Construction_of_real_numbers

Choose your method...

Regards,
Quentin Anciaux
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RE: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-29 Thread Jesse Mazer




 Date: Thu, 29 Nov 2007 18:25:54 +0100
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 Subject: Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi
 
 
 Quentin Anciaux skrev:
 Le Thursday 29 November 2007 17:22:59 Torgny Tholerus, vous avez écrit :
   

 There is a difference between unlimited and infinite.  Unlimited
 just says that it has no limit, but everything is still finite.  If you
 add something to a finite set, then the new set will always be finite.
 It is not possible to create an infinite set.
 

 I'm sorry I don't get it... The set N as an infinite numbers of elements 
 still 
 every element in the set is finite. Maybe it is an english subtility that 
 I'm 
 not aware of... but in french I don't see a clear difference between 
 infini 
 and illimité.
   
 
 As soon as you talk about the set N, then you are making a closure 
 and making that set finite.


Why is that? How do you define the word set? 


  The only possible way to talk about 
 something without limit, such as natural numbers, is to give a 
 production rule, so that you can produce as many of that type of 
 objects as you want.  If you have a natural number n, then you can 
 produce a new number n+1, that is the successor of n.


Why can't I say the set of all numbers which can be generated by that 
production ruler? It almost makes sense to say a set is *nothing more* than a 
criterion for deciding whether something is a member of not, although you would 
need to refine this definition to deal with problems like Russell's set of all 
sets that are not members of themselves (which could be translated as the 
criterion, 'any criterion which does not match its own criterion'--I suppose 
the problem is that this criterion is not sufficiently well-defined to decide 
whether it matches its own criterion or not).

 

   
 So it is OK to use the word unlimited.  But it is not OK to use the
 word infinite.  Is this clear?
 

 No, I don't see how a set which have not limit get a finite number of 
 elements.
   
 
 It is not possible for a set to have no limit.  As soon as you 
 construct a set, then that set will always have a limit.


Is there something intrinsic to your concept of the word set that makes this 
true? Is your concept of a set fundamentally different than my concept of 
well-defined criteria for deciding if any given object is a member or not?

Jesse
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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-29 Thread Torgny Tholerus

Quentin Anciaux skrev:
 Le Thursday 29 November 2007 18:52:36 Torgny Tholerus, vous avez écrit :
   
 Quentin Anciaux skrev:
 

 What is the production rules of the noset R ?
   
 How do you define the set R?
 

 http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Construction_of_real_numbers

 Choose your method...
   

The most important part of that definition is:

4. The order ? is /complete/ in the following sense: every non-empty 
subset of *R* bounded above http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Upper_bound 
has a least upper bound http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Least_upper_bound.

This definition can be translated to:

If you have a production rule that produces rational numbers that are 
bounded above, then this production rule is producing a real number.

This is the production rule for real numbers.

-- 
Torgny

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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-29 Thread Torgny Tholerus

Jesse Mazer skrev:

   
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]

 
 As soon as you talk about the set N, then you are making a closure 
 and making that set finite.
 


 Why is that? How do you define the word set? 


   The only possible way to talk about 
   
 something without limit, such as natural numbers, is to give a 
 production rule, so that you can produce as many of that type of 
 objects as you want.  If you have a natural number n, then you can 
 produce a new number n+1, that is the successor of n.
 


 Why can't I say the set of all numbers which can be generated by that 
 production ruler?

As soon as you say the set of ALL numbers, then you are forced to 
define the word ALL here.  And for every definition, you are forced to 
introduce a limit.  It is not possible to define the word ALL without 
introducing a limit.  (Or making an illegal circular definition...)

  It almost makes sense to say a set is *nothing more* than a criterion for 
 deciding whether something is a member of not, although you would need to 
 refine this definition to deal with problems like Russell's set of all sets 
 that are not members of themselves (which could be translated as the 
 criterion, 'any criterion which does not match its own criterion'--I suppose 
 the problem is that this criterion is not sufficiently well-defined to decide 
 whether it matches its own criterion or not).
   

A well-defined criterion is the same as what I call a production 
rule.  So you can use that, as long as the criterion is well-defined.

(What does the criterion, that decides if an object n is a natural 
number, look like?)

   

 It is not possible for a set to have no limit.  As soon as you 
 construct a set, then that set will always have a limit.
 


 Is there something intrinsic to your concept of the word set that makes 
 this true? Is your concept of a set fundamentally different than my concept 
 of well-defined criteria for deciding if any given object is a member or not?
   

Yes, the definition of the word all is intrinsic in the concept of the 
word set.

-- 
Torgny

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RE: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-29 Thread Jesse Mazer




 Date: Thu, 29 Nov 2007 19:55:20 +0100
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 Subject: Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi
 
 
 Jesse Mazer skrev:

   
 From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]

 
 As soon as you talk about the set N, then you are making a closure 
 and making that set finite.
 


 Why is that? How do you define the word set? 


   The only possible way to talk about 
   
 something without limit, such as natural numbers, is to give a 
 production rule, so that you can produce as many of that type of 
 objects as you want.  If you have a natural number n, then you can 
 produce a new number n+1, that is the successor of n.
 


 Why can't I say the set of all numbers which can be generated by that 
 production ruler?
 
 As soon as you say the set of ALL numbers, then you are forced to 
 define the word ALL here.  And for every definition, you are forced to 
 introduce a limit.  It is not possible to define the word ALL without 
 introducing a limit.  (Or making an illegal circular definition...)

Why can't you say If it can be generated by the production rule/fits the 
criterion, then it's a member of the set? I haven't used the word all there, 
and I don't see any circularity either.

 
  It almost makes sense to say a set is *nothing more* than a criterion for 
 deciding whether something is a member of not, although you would need to 
 refine this definition to deal with problems like Russell's set of all sets 
 that are not members of themselves (which could be translated as the 
 criterion, 'any criterion which does not match its own criterion'--I suppose 
 the problem is that this criterion is not sufficiently well-defined to 
 decide whether it matches its own criterion or not).
   
 
 A well-defined criterion is the same as what I call a production 
 rule.  So you can use that, as long as the criterion is well-defined.
 
 (What does the criterion, that decides if an object n is a natural 
 number, look like?)


I would just define the criterion recursively by saying 1 is a natural number, 
and given a natural number n, n+1 is also a natural number.

Jesse
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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-29 Thread John Mikes

Marc, please, allow me to write in plain language - not using those
fancy words of these threads.
Some time ago when the discussion was in commonsensically more
understandable vocabulary, I questioned something similar
to Günther, as pertaining to numbers - the alleged generators of
'everything' (physical, quality, ideation, process, you name it).
As Bruno then said: the positive integers do that - if applied in
sufficiently long expressions. (please, Bruno, correct this to a
bottom-low simplification) - I did not follow that and was promised
some more explanatory text in not so technical language. The
discussion over the past some weeks is even more technical for me.
Is not the distinction relevant what I hold, that there are two kinds
of 'number'-usage: the (pure, theoretical Math and the in sciences -
(quantity related) - applied math - that uses the formalism (the
results, even logics) of 'Math' to exercise 'math'? (Cap vs lower m)

Geometry seems to be in between() and symmetry can be both, I think.

I am no physicist AND no mathematician, (not even a logician), so I
pretend to keep an objective eye on things in which I am not
prejudiced by knowledge. (G).

John M



On Nov 27, 2007 11:40 PM,  [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:



 On Nov 28, 1:18 am, Günther Greindl [EMAIL PROTECTED]
 wrote:
  Dear Marc,
 
   Physics deals with symmetries, forces and fields.
   Mathematics deals with data types, relations and sets/categories.
 
  I'm no physicist, so please correct me but IMHO:
 
  Symmetries = relations
  Forces - could they not be seen as certain invariances, thus also
  relating to symmetries?
 
  Fields - the aggregate of forces on all spacetime points - do not see
  why this should not be mathematical relation?
 
   The mathemtical entities are informational.  The physical properties
   are geometric.  Geometric properties cannot be derived from
   informational properties.
 
  Why not? Do you have a counterexample?
 
  Regards,
  Günther
 

 Don't get me wrong.  I don't doubt that all physical things can be
 *described* by mathematics.  But this alone does not establish that
 physical things *are* mathematical.  As I understand it, for the
 examples you've given, what happens is that based on emprical
 observation, certain primatives of geometry and symmetry are *attached
 to* (connected with) mathematical relations, numbers etc which
 successfully *describe/predict* these physical properties.  But it
 does not follow from this, that the mathematical relations/numbers
 *are* the geometric properties/symmetrics.

 In order to show that the physical properties *are* the mathematical
 properties (and not just described by or connected to the physical
 properties), it has to be shown how geometric/physical properties
 emerge from/are logically derived from sets/categories/numbers alone.


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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-28 Thread Torgny Tholerus
[EMAIL PROTECTED] skrev:
   
 When I talk about pure mathematics I mean that kind of mathematics you 
 have in GameOfLife.  There you have gliders that move in the 
 GameOfLife-universe, and these gliders interact with eachother when they 
 meet.  These gliders you can see as physical objects.  These physical 
 objects are reducible to pure mathematics, they are the consequences of the 
 rules behind GameOfLife.
 

 --
 Torgny

 That kind of mathematics - models of cellular automata -  is the
 domain of the theory of computation.  These are just that - models.
 But there is no reason for thinking that the models or mathematical
 rules are identical to the physical entities themselves just because
 these rules/models can precisely predict/explain the behaviour of the
 physical objects.
   

You only need models of cellular automata.  If you have a model and 
rules for that model, then one event will follow after another event, 
according to the rules.  And after that event will follow another more 
event, and so on unlimited.  The events will follow after eachother even 
if you will not have any implementation of this model.  Any physics is 
not needed.  You don't need any geometric properties.

In this model you may have a person called Torgny writing a message on a 
google group, and that event may be followed by a person called Marc 
writing a reply to this message.  And you don't need any implementation 
of that model.

-- 
Torgny

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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-28 Thread Quentin Anciaux

Hi,

Le Wednesday 28 November 2007 09:56:17 Torgny Tholerus, vous avez écrit :
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] skrev:
  When I talk about pure mathematics I mean that kind of mathematics you
  have in GameOfLife.  There you have gliders that move in the
  GameOfLife-universe, and these gliders interact with eachother when they
  meet.  These gliders you can see as physical objects.  These physical
  objects are reducible to pure mathematics, they are the consequences of
  the rules behind GameOfLife.
 
  --
  Torgny
 
  That kind of mathematics - models of cellular automata -  is the
  domain of the theory of computation.  These are just that - models.
  But there is no reason for thinking that the models or mathematical
  rules are identical to the physical entities themselves just because
  these rules/models can precisely predict/explain the behaviour of the
  physical objects.

 You only need models of cellular automata.  If you have a model and
 rules for that model, then one event will follow after another event,
 according to the rules.  And after that event will follow another more
 event, and so on unlimited.  The events will follow after eachother even
 if you will not have any implementation of this model.  Any physics is
 not needed.  You don't need any geometric properties.

 In this model you may have a person called Torgny writing a message on a
 google group, and that event may be followed by a person called Marc
 writing a reply to this message.  And you don't need any implementation
 of that model.

Sure, but you can't be ultrafinitist and saying things like And after that 
event will follow another more event, and so on unlimited.

Also why do you limit yourself to one computational model ? Turing Machine, 
Lambda calcul, cellular automata are all equivalents.

Regards,
Quentin Anciaux


-- 
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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 28-nov.-07, à 05:48, [EMAIL PROTECTED] a écrit :




 On Nov 28, 3:16 am, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Le 27-nov.-07, à 05:47, [EMAIL PROTECTED] a écrit :

 Geometric properties cannot be derived from
 informational properties.

 I don't see why. Above all, this would make the computationalist 
 wrong,
 or at least some step in the UDA wrong (but then which one?).

 I'll find the flaw in UDA in due course ;)


Thanks.







 I recall that there is an argument (UDA) showing that if comp is true,
 then not only geometry, but physics, has to be derived exclusively 
 from
 numbers and from what numbers can prove (and know, and observe, and
 bet, ...) about themselves, that is from both extensional and
 intensional number theory.
 The UDA shows *why* physics *has to* be derived from numbers (assuming
 CT + yes doctor).
 The Lobian interview explains (or should explain, if you have not yet
 grasp the point) *how* to do that.

 Bruno


 If the UDA is sound that would certainly refute what I'm claiming
 yes.
 I want to see how physics (which as far I'm concerned *is*
 geometry - at least I think pure physics=geometry) emerges *purely*
 from theories of sets/numbers/categories.

OK. Note that UDA says only why, not how.
how is given by the lobian interview, and gives only the 
propositional physics (as part
of the propositional theology).



 I base my claims on ontological considerations (5 years of deep
 thought about ontology), which lead me to strongly suspect the
 irreducible property dualism between physical and mathematical
 properties.  Thus I'm highly skeptical of UDA but have yet to property
 study it.  Lacking resources to do proper study here at the
 moment :-(

We are in the same boat ...

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-28 Thread Bruno Marchal

Le 28-nov.-07, à 09:56, Torgny Tholerus a écrit :

 [EMAIL PROTECTED] skrev:
 When I talk about pure mathematics I mean that kind of mathematics 
 you have in GameOfLife.  There you have gliders that move in the 
 GameOfLife-universe, and these gliders interact with eachother when 
 they meet.  These gliders you can see as physical objects.  These 
 physical objects are reducible to pure mathematics, they are the 
 consequences of the rules behind GameOfLife.

 --
 Torgny

 That kind of mathematics - models of cellular automata -  is the
 domain of the theory of computation.  These are just that - models.
 But there is no reason for thinking that the models or mathematical
 rules are identical to the physical entities themselves just because
 these rules/models can precisely predict/explain the behaviour of the
 physical objects.


  You only need models of cellular automata.  If you have a model and 
 rules for that model, then one event will follow after another event, 
 according to the rules.  And after that event will follow another more 
 event, and so on unlimited.  The events will follow after eachother 
 even if you will not have any implementation of this model.  Any 
 physics is not needed.  You don't need any geometric properties.

  In this model you may have a person called Torgny writing a message 
 on a google group, and that event may be followed by a person called 
 Marc writing a reply to this message.  And you don't need any 
 implementation of that model.


OK. Do you agree now that the real Torgny, by which I mean you from 
your first person point of view, cannot known if it belongs to a state 
generated by automata 345 or automata 6756, or automata 6756690003121, 
or automata  65656700234676611084899 , and so one ...
Do you agree we have to take into account this first person 
indeterminacy when making a first person prediction?


Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/

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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-28 Thread Torgny Tholerus

Bruno Marchal skrev:


 Le 28-nov.-07, à 09:56, Torgny Tholerus a écrit :

 You only need models of cellular automata.  If you have a model
 and rules for that model, then one event will follow after another
 event, according to the rules.  And after that event will follow
 another more event, and so on unlimited.  The events will follow
 after eachother even if you will not have any implementation of
 this model.  Any physics is not needed.  You don't need any
 geometric properties.

 In this model you may have a person called Torgny writing a
 message on a google group, and that event may be followed by a
 person called Marc writing a reply to this message.  And you don't
 need any implementation of that model.



 OK. Do you agree now that the real Torgny, by which I mean you from 
 your first person point of view, cannot known if it belongs to a state 
 generated by automata 345 or automata 6756, or automata 6756690003121, 
 or automata 65656700234676611084899 , and so one ...
 Do you agree we have to take into account this first person 
 indeterminacy when making a first person prediction?

I agree that the real Torgny belongs to exactly one of those automata, 
but I don't know which one.  So I can not tell what will happen to the 
real Torgny in the future.  I can not do any prediction.

If we call the automata that the real Torgny belongs to, for automata 
X, then I can look at automata X from the outside, and I will then see 
that all that the real Torgny will do in the future is completely 
determined.  There is no indeterminacy in automata X.

-- 
Torgny

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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-28 Thread marc . geddes



On Nov 28, 9:56 pm, Torgny Tholerus [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 You only need models of cellular automata.  If you have a model and
 rules for that model, then one event will follow after another event,
 according to the rules.  And after that event will follow another more
 event, and so on unlimited.  The events will follow after eachother even
 if you will not have any implementation of this model.  Any physics is
 not needed.  You don't need any geometric properties.

 In this model you may have a person called Torgny writing a message on a
 google group, and that event may be followed by a person called Marc
 writing a reply to this message.  And you don't need any implementation
 of that model.

 --
 Torgny

A whole lot of unproven assumptions in there.   For starters, we don't
even know that the physical world can be modelled solely in terms of
cellular automata at all.  Digital physics just seems to be the latest
'trendy' thing, but actual evidence is thin on the ground.
Mathematics is much richer than just discrete math.  Discrete math
deals only with finite collections, and as such is just a special case
of algebra.  Algebraic relations extend beyond computational models.
Finally, the introduction of complex analysis, infinite sets and
category theory extends mathematics even further, beyond even
algebraic relations.  So you see that cellular automata are only a
small part of mathematics as a whole.  There is no reason for thinking
for that space is discrete and in fact physics as it stands deals in
continuous differential equations, not cellular automata.

Further, the essential point I was making is that an informational
model of something is not neccesserily the same as the thing itself.
An informational model of a person called Marc would capture only my
mind, not my body.  The information has to be super-imposed upon the
physical, or embodied in the physical world.
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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-27 Thread Günther Greindl

Dear Marc,

 Physics deals with symmetries, forces and fields.
 Mathematics deals with data types, relations and sets/categories.

I'm no physicist, so please correct me but IMHO:

Symmetries = relations
Forces - could they not be seen as certain invariances, thus also 
relating to symmetries?

Fields - the aggregate of forces on all spacetime points - do not see 
why this should not be mathematical relation?

 The mathemtical entities are informational.  The physical properties
 are geometric.  Geometric properties cannot be derived from
 informational properties.

Why not? Do you have a counterexample?

Regards,
Günther



-- 
Günther Greindl
Department of Philosophy of Science
University of Vienna
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://www.univie.ac.at/Wissenschaftstheorie/

Blog: http://dao.complexitystudies.org/
Site: http://www.complexitystudies.org

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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-27 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 27-nov.-07, à 05:47, [EMAIL PROTECTED] a écrit :


 Geometric properties cannot be derived from
 informational properties.


I don't see why. Above all, this would make the computationalist wrong, 
or at least some step in the UDA wrong (but then which one?).
I recall that there is an argument (UDA) showing that if comp is true, 
then not only geometry, but physics, has to be derived exclusively from 
numbers and from what numbers can prove (and know, and observe, and 
bet, ...) about themselves, that is from both extensional and 
intensional number theory.
The UDA shows *why* physics *has to* be derived from numbers (assuming 
CT + yes doctor).
The Lobian interview explains (or should explain, if you have not yet 
grasp the point) *how* to do that.


Bruno






 On Nov 27, 3:54 am, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 Besides which, mathematics and physics are dealing with quite
 different distinctions.  It is a 'type error' it try to reduce or
 identity one with the other.

 I don't see why.

 Physics deals with symmetries, forces and fields.
 Mathematics deals with data types, relations and sets/categories.

 The mathemtical entities are informational.  The physical properties
 are geometric.  Geometric properties cannot be derived from
 informational properties.






 Mathematics deals with logical properties,

 I guess you mean mathematical properties. Since the filure of
 logicism, we know that math is not really related to logic in any way.
 It just happens that a big part of logic appears to be a branch of
 mathemetics, among many other branches.

 I would classify logic as part of applied math - logic is a
 description of informational systems from the point of view of
 observers inside time and space.


 physics deals with spatial
 (geometric) properties.  Although geometry is thought of as math, it
 is actually a branch of physics,

 Actually I do think so. but physics, with comp, has to be the science
 of what the observer can observe, and the observer is a mathematical
 object, and observation is a mathematical object too (with comp).



 since in addition to pure logical
 axioms, all geometry involves 'extra' assumptions or axioms which are
 actually *physical* in nature (not purely mathematical) .

 Here I disagree (so I agree with your preceding post where you agree
 that we agree a lot but for not always for identical reasons).
 Arithmetic too need extra (non logical) axioms, and it is a matter of
 taste (eventually) to put them in the branch of physics or math.

 Bruno


 I don't think it's a matter of taste.  I think geoemtry is clearly
 physics, arithmetic is clearly pure math.  See above.  Geometry is
 about fields, arithmetic (in the most general sense) is about
 categories/sets.


 

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-27 Thread marc . geddes



On Nov 28, 1:18 am, Günther Greindl [EMAIL PROTECTED]
wrote:
 Dear Marc,

  Physics deals with symmetries, forces and fields.
  Mathematics deals with data types, relations and sets/categories.

 I'm no physicist, so please correct me but IMHO:

 Symmetries = relations
 Forces - could they not be seen as certain invariances, thus also
 relating to symmetries?

 Fields - the aggregate of forces on all spacetime points - do not see
 why this should not be mathematical relation?

  The mathemtical entities are informational.  The physical properties
  are geometric.  Geometric properties cannot be derived from
  informational properties.

 Why not? Do you have a counterexample?

 Regards,
 Günther


Don't get me wrong.  I don't doubt that all physical things can be
*described* by mathematics.  But this alone does not establish that
physical things *are* mathematical.  As I understand it, for the
examples you've given, what happens is that based on emprical
observation, certain primatives of geometry and symmetry are *attached
to* (connected with) mathematical relations, numbers etc which
successfully *describe/predict* these physical properties.  But it
does not follow from this, that the mathematical relations/numbers
*are* the geometric properties/symmetrics.

In order to show that the physical properties *are* the mathematical
properties (and not just described by or connected to the physical
properties), it has to be shown how geometric/physical properties
emerge from/are logically derived from sets/categories/numbers alone.
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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-27 Thread marc . geddes



On Nov 28, 3:16 am, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Le 27-nov.-07, à 05:47, [EMAIL PROTECTED] a écrit :

  Geometric properties cannot be derived from
  informational properties.

 I don't see why. Above all, this would make the computationalist wrong,
 or at least some step in the UDA wrong (but then which one?).

I'll find the flaw in UDA in due course ;)

 I recall that there is an argument (UDA) showing that if comp is true,
 then not only geometry, but physics, has to be derived exclusively from
 numbers and from what numbers can prove (and know, and observe, and
 bet, ...) about themselves, that is from both extensional and
 intensional number theory.
 The UDA shows *why* physics *has to* be derived from numbers (assuming
 CT + yes doctor).
 The Lobian interview explains (or should explain, if you have not yet
 grasp the point) *how* to do that.

 Bruno


If the UDA is sound that would certainly refute what I'm claiming
yes.  I want to see how physics (which as far I'm concerned *is*
geometry - at least I think pure physics=geometry) emerges *purely*
from theories of sets/numbers/categories.

I base my claims on ontological considerations (5 years of deep
thought about ontology), which lead me to strongly suspect the
irreducible property dualism between physical and mathematical
properties.  Thus I'm highly skeptical of UDA but have yet to property
study it.  Lacking resources to do proper study here at the
moment :-(

Time will tell.
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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-26 Thread Torgny Tholerus





rafael jimenez buendia skrev:

  Sorry, but I think Lisi's paper is fatally flawed. Adding
altogether fermions and bosons is plain wrong. Best


What is wrong with adding fermions and bosons together?  Xiao-Gang Wen
is working with a condensed string-net where the waves behave just like
bosons (fotons) and the end of the open strings behave just like
fermions (electrons).

-- 
Torgny Tholerus

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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-26 Thread Torgny Tholerus





[EMAIL PROTECTED] skrev:

  

On Nov 23, 8:49 pm, Torgny Tholerus [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
  
  
I think that everything is reducible to physical substances and
properties.  And I think that all of physics is reducible to pure
mathematics...

  
  
You can't have it both ways.  If physics was reducible to pure
mathematics, then physics could not be the 'ontological base level' of
reality and hence everything could not be expressed solely in terms of
physical substance and properties.

Besides which, mathematics and physics are dealing with quite
different distinctions.  It is a 'type error' it try to reduce or
identity one with the other.

Mathematics deals with logical properties, physics deals with spatial
(geometric) properties.  Although geometry is thought of as math, it
is actually a branch of physics, since in addition to pure logical
axioms, all geometry involves 'extra' assumptions or axioms which are
actually *physical* in nature (not purely mathematical) .
  


When I talk about "pure mathematics" I mean that kind of mathematics
you have in GameOfLife. There you have "gliders" that move in the
GameOfLife-universe, and these gliders interact with eachother when
they meet. These gliders you can see as physical objects. These
physical objects are reducible to pure mathematics, they are the
consequences of the rules behind GameOfLife.

-- 
Torgny

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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-26 Thread Bruno Marchal


Le 26-nov.-07, à 04:17, [EMAIL PROTECTED] a écrit :




 On Nov 23, 8:49 pm, Torgny Tholerus [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] skrev:



 As far as I tell tell, all of physics is ultimately
 geometry.  But as we've pointed out on this list many times, a theory
 of physics is *not* a theory of everything, since it makes the
 (probably false) assumption that everything is reducible to physical
 substances and properties.

 I think that everything is reducible to physical substances and
 properties.  And I think that all of physics is reducible to pure
 mathematics...

 You can't have it both ways.  If physics was reducible to pure
 mathematics, then physics could not be the 'ontological base level' of
 reality and hence everything could not be expressed solely in terms of
 physical substance and properties.


Are you not begging a bit the question here?




 Besides which, mathematics and physics are dealing with quite
 different distinctions.  It is a 'type error' it try to reduce or
 identity one with the other.


I don't see why.




 Mathematics deals with logical properties,

I guess you mean mathematical properties. Since the filure of 
logicism, we know that math is not really related to logic in any way. 
It just happens that a big part of logic appears to be a branch of 
mathemetics, among many other branches.


 physics deals with spatial
 (geometric) properties.  Although geometry is thought of as math, it
 is actually a branch of physics,

Actually I do think so. but physics, with comp, has to be the science 
of what the observer can observe, and the observer is a mathematical 
object, and observation is a mathematical object too (with comp).



 since in addition to pure logical
 axioms, all geometry involves 'extra' assumptions or axioms which are
 actually *physical* in nature (not purely mathematical) .

Here I disagree (so I agree with your preceding post where you agree 
that we agree a lot but for not always for identical reasons).
Arithmetic too need extra (non logical) axioms, and it is a matter of 
taste (eventually) to put them in the branch of physics or math.

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-26 Thread John Mikes

Listers, (Bruno, Torgny, et al.):

some (lay) remarks from another mindset (maybe I completely miss your
points - perhaps even my own onesG).
I go with Bruno in a lack of clear understanding what physical world
may be. It can be extended into entirely mathematical ideas beside the
likable assumption of it being 'geometrical '  as well as geometry
'completely physical'. I don't see these terms agreed upon as crystal
clearly (maybe my ignorance).
*
Then again pure(?) Math, the logical entirety, is in my views
different from the applied(?) math of the diverse sciences,
(please note the cap vs lower case distinction, as borrowed from the
late mathematician Robert Rosen)  the latter applying the former's
results to quantities. (I don't want to digress here into my views
about the restricted (topical) aspects of those sciences, omitting the
rest of the totality that, however, may have an effect of those
figments derived as 'scientific quantities' within their boundaries.
It may come up in a separate (different) thread).
To (I think) Torgny's remark
   reality and hence everything could not be expressed solely in
terms of physical substance and properties.  I would add:
also depends on a possible extension of the meaning 'physical'.
*
Then there is the reference to 'axioms'. These true postulates are
formed AFTER a theory was thought through to maintain the validity of
that theory. So I don't consider them proof, rather as a consequence
for the statement it is supposed to underlie.
I believe these are Bruno's (supporting?) words:
 Arithmetic too need extra (non logical) axioms, and it is a matter of taste 
 (eventually) to put them in the branch of physics or math.
*
Please, excuse my 'out-of-context' remarks, I wanted to illustrate a
different line of thoughts - also generated in a human mind.

John M



On Nov 26, 2007 9:54 AM, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 Le 26-nov.-07, à 04:17, [EMAIL PROTECTED] a écrit :

 
 
 
  On Nov 23, 8:49 pm, Torgny Tholerus [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
  [EMAIL PROTECTED] skrev:
 
 
 
  As far as I tell tell, all of physics is ultimately
  geometry.  But as we've pointed out on this list many times, a theory
  of physics is *not* a theory of everything, since it makes the
  (probably false) assumption that everything is reducible to physical
  substances and properties.
 
  I think that everything is reducible to physical substances and
  properties.  And I think that all of physics is reducible to pure
  mathematics...
 
  You can't have it both ways.  If physics was reducible to pure
  mathematics, then physics could not be the 'ontological base level' of
  reality and hence everything could not be expressed solely in terms of
  physical substance and properties.


 Are you not begging a bit the question here?



 
  Besides which, mathematics and physics are dealing with quite
  different distinctions.  It is a 'type error' it try to reduce or
  identity one with the other.


 I don't see why.



 
  Mathematics deals with logical properties,

 I guess you mean mathematical properties. Since the filure of
 logicism, we know that math is not really related to logic in any way.
 It just happens that a big part of logic appears to be a branch of
 mathemetics, among many other branches.


  physics deals with spatial
  (geometric) properties.  Although geometry is thought of as math, it
  is actually a branch of physics,

 Actually I do think so. but physics, with comp, has to be the science
 of what the observer can observe, and the observer is a mathematical
 object, and observation is a mathematical object too (with comp).



  since in addition to pure logical
  axioms, all geometry involves 'extra' assumptions or axioms which are
  actually *physical* in nature (not purely mathematical) .

 Here I disagree (so I agree with your preceding post where you agree
 that we agree a lot but for not always for identical reasons).
 Arithmetic too need extra (non logical) axioms, and it is a matter of
 taste (eventually) to put them in the branch of physics or math.

 Bruno

 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



 


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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-26 Thread Russell Standish

Could we have a stop to HTML-only postings please! These are hard to read.

On Mon, Nov 26, 2007 at 10:51:36AM +0100, Torgny Tholerus wrote:

-- 


A/Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Mathematics  
UNSW SYDNEY 2052 [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Australiahttp://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-26 Thread marc . geddes


When I talk about pure mathematics I mean that kind of mathematics you have 
in GameOfLife.  There you have gliders that move in the GameOfLife-universe, 
and these gliders interact with eachother when they meet.  These gliders you 
can see as physical objects.  These physical objects are reducible to pure 
mathematics, they are the consequences of the rules behind GameOfLife.

--
Torgny

That kind of mathematics - models of cellular automata -  is the
domain of the theory of computation.  These are just that - models.
But there is no reason for thinking that the models or mathematical
rules are identical to the physical entities themselves just because
these rules/models can precisely predict/explain the behaviour of the
physical objects.




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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-26 Thread marc . geddes



On Nov 27, 3:54 am, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


  Besides which, mathematics and physics are dealing with quite
  different distinctions.  It is a 'type error' it try to reduce or
  identity one with the other.

 I don't see why.

Physics deals with symmetries, forces and fields.
Mathematics deals with data types, relations and sets/categories.

The mathemtical entities are informational.  The physical properties
are geometric.  Geometric properties cannot be derived from
informational properties.






  Mathematics deals with logical properties,

 I guess you mean mathematical properties. Since the filure of
 logicism, we know that math is not really related to logic in any way.
 It just happens that a big part of logic appears to be a branch of
 mathemetics, among many other branches.

I would classify logic as part of applied math - logic is a
description of informational systems from the point of view of
observers inside time and space.


  physics deals with spatial
  (geometric) properties.  Although geometry is thought of as math, it
  is actually a branch of physics,

 Actually I do think so. but physics, with comp, has to be the science
 of what the observer can observe, and the observer is a mathematical
 object, and observation is a mathematical object too (with comp).



  since in addition to pure logical
  axioms, all geometry involves 'extra' assumptions or axioms which are
  actually *physical* in nature (not purely mathematical) .

 Here I disagree (so I agree with your preceding post where you agree
 that we agree a lot but for not always for identical reasons).
 Arithmetic too need extra (non logical) axioms, and it is a matter of
 taste (eventually) to put them in the branch of physics or math.

 Bruno


I don't think it's a matter of taste.  I think geoemtry is clearly
physics, arithmetic is clearly pure math.  See above.  Geometry is
about fields, arithmetic (in the most general sense) is about
categories/sets.


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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-25 Thread marc . geddes



On Nov 23, 8:49 pm, Torgny Tholerus [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] skrev:



  As far as I tell tell, all of physics is ultimately
  geometry.  But as we've pointed out on this list many times, a theory
  of physics is *not* a theory of everything, since it makes the
  (probably false) assumption that everything is reducible to physical
  substances and properties.

 I think that everything is reducible to physical substances and
 properties.  And I think that all of physics is reducible to pure
 mathematics...

You can't have it both ways.  If physics was reducible to pure
mathematics, then physics could not be the 'ontological base level' of
reality and hence everything could not be expressed solely in terms of
physical substance and properties.

Besides which, mathematics and physics are dealing with quite
different distinctions.  It is a 'type error' it try to reduce or
identity one with the other.

Mathematics deals with logical properties, physics deals with spatial
(geometric) properties.  Although geometry is thought of as math, it
is actually a branch of physics, since in addition to pure logical
axioms, all geometry involves 'extra' assumptions or axioms which are
actually *physical* in nature (not purely mathematical) .


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RE: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-23 Thread rafael jimenez buendia
Sorry, but I think Lisi's paper is fatally flawed. Adding altogether fermions 
and bosons is plain wrong. Best

 Date: Thu, 22 Nov 2007 18:30:03 -0800 Subject: Re: Theory of Everything 
 based on E8 by Garrett Lisi From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] To: [EMAIL PROTECTED] 
 On Nov 23, 1:10 am, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Now such work raises the remark, which I don't really want to develop  now, 
 which is that qualifiying TOE a theory explaining only forces  and 
 particles or field, is implicit physicalism, and we know (by UDA)  that 
 this is incompatible with comp.  Yes indeed Bruno. As far as I tell tell, 
 all of physics is ultimately geometry. But as we've pointed out on this list 
 many times, a theory of physics is *not* a theory of everything, since it 
 makes the (probably false) assumption that everything is reducible to 
 physical substances and properties. Thus we both are in agreement on this, 
 but for different reasons (you because, you think math is the ultimate 
 basis of everything aka COMP, me, because of my property dualism, aka the 
 need for a triple-aspect explanation of physical/teleological/ mathematical 
 properties as the basis for everything).  We keep telling mainstream 
 scients, but mainstream scients are not listening to us. *sigh*.   Yet I 
 bet Lisi is quite close to the sort of physics derivable by  machine's or 
 number's introspection. Actually, getting physics from so  few symmetries 
 is a bit weird (I have to study the paper in detail).  With comp, we have 
 to explain the symmetries *and* the geometry, and  the quantum logic, from 
 the numbers and their possible stable  discourses ... If not, it is not a 
 theory of everything, but just a  classification, a bit like the Mendeleev 
 table classifies atoms without  really explaining. But Lisi's theory seems 
 beautiful indeed ...   BrunoThere's too many people mucking 
 around with physics - I do wish more people were working on computer 
 science. Physics is the most advanced of our sciences, but computer science 
 lags behind. It just seems to be an unfortunate historical accident that 
 physical theories developed first and then lots of social status got 
 attached to theoretical physics (stemming from the glorification of Newton 
 in Europe).  As a result, physics has advanced well ahead of comp-sci, and 
 there's lots of money and status attached to physics breakthroughs. But 
 comp- sci is actually far more important to us in practical sense - 
 artificial general intelligence would be way way more valuable than any 
 fundamental physics breakthrough. We would have had real AGI long ago if 
 there was the same money and glory for comp-sci as there is for physics 
 *sigh*. 
 _
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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-22 Thread Bruno Marchal

Le 21-nov.-07, à 19:54, George Levy a écrit :


  A theory of everyting is sweeping the Physics community.


  The theory by Garrett Lisi is explained in this Wiki entry.


  A simulation of E8 can be found a the New Scientist.


  The Wiki entry on E8 is also interesting.


Thanks, very interesting indeed. Note that the original paper is 
accessible from the  New Scientist entry. Not so easy to read (need of 
differential geometry, simple groups, etc.
Quite close to the idea of the importance of 24 which I mention 
periodically ... :)

Now such work raises the remark, which I don't really want to develop 
now, which is that qualifiying TOE a theory explaining only forces 
and particles or field, is implicit physicalism, and we know (by UDA) 
that this is incompatible with comp.

Yet I bet Lisi is quite close to the sort of physics derivable by 
machine's or number's introspection. Actually, getting physics from so 
few symmetries is a bit weird (I have to study the paper in detail). 
With comp, we have to explain the symmetries *and* the geometry, and 
the quantum logic, from the numbers and their possible stable 
discourses ... If not, it is not a theory of everything, but just a 
classification, a bit like the Mendeleev table classifies atoms without 
really explaining. But Lisi's theory seems beautiful indeed ...

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/

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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-22 Thread marc . geddes



On Nov 23, 1:10 am, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 Now such work raises the remark, which I don't really want to develop
 now, which is that qualifiying TOE a theory explaining only forces
 and particles or field, is implicit physicalism, and we know (by UDA)
 that this is incompatible with comp.

Yes indeed Bruno.  As far as I tell tell, all of physics is ultimately
geometry.  But as we've pointed out on this list many times, a theory
of physics is *not* a theory of everything, since it makes the
(probably false) assumption that everything is reducible to physical
substances and properties.  Thus we both are in agreement on this, but
for different reasons (you because, you think math is the ultimate
basis of everything aka COMP, me, because of my property dualism, aka
the need for a triple-aspect explanation of physical/teleological/
mathematical properties as the basis for everything).

We keep telling mainstream scients, but mainstream scients are not
listening to us.  *sigh*.

 Yet I bet Lisi is quite close to the sort of physics derivable by
 machine's or number's introspection. Actually, getting physics from so
 few symmetries is a bit weird (I have to study the paper in detail).
 With comp, we have to explain the symmetries *and* the geometry, and
 the quantum logic, from the numbers and their possible stable
 discourses ... If not, it is not a theory of everything, but just a
 classification, a bit like the Mendeleev table classifies atoms without
 really explaining. But Lisi's theory seems beautiful indeed ...

 Bruno



There's too many people mucking around with physics - I do wish more
people were working on computer science.  Physics is the most advanced
of our sciences, but computer science lags behind.  It just seems to
be an unfortunate historical accident that physical theories developed
first and then  lots of social status got attached to theoretical
physics (stemming from the glorification of Newton in Europe).

As a result, physics has advanced well ahead of comp-sci, and there's
lots of money and status attached to physics breakthroughs.  But comp-
sci is actually far more important to us in practical sense -
artificial general intelligence would be way way more valuable than
any fundamental physics breakthrough.  We would have had real AGI long
ago if there was the same money and glory for comp-sci as there is for
physics *sigh*.




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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-22 Thread Torgny Tholerus

[EMAIL PROTECTED] skrev:

 As far as I tell tell, all of physics is ultimately
 geometry.  But as we've pointed out on this list many times, a theory
 of physics is *not* a theory of everything, since it makes the
 (probably false) assumption that everything is reducible to physical
 substances and properties.

I think that everything is reducible to physical substances and 
properties.  And I think that all of physics is reducible to pure 
mathematics...

I have now read Garrett Lisis paper.  It was interesting, but it is 
still to early to say if it is important.  There is a lot of symmetries 
in the elementary particles, and there is a lot of symmetries in the E8 
Lie group.  So it is not any suprise that they both can be mapped on 
each other.  Lisi has mapped 222 elementary particles on the 242 
elements of E8, and he has predicted that the rest of the 20 elements 
correspond to 20 yet to be discovered elementary particles.  If it is 
true, then Lisi will have the Nobel price.  If it is not, then we will 
have to look for another TOE.

But it is possible that we will never find any TOE.  Because there is 
10^500 different possiblities for our universe, and all of these 10^500 
universes exist in the same way.  By experiments we will have to decide 
which of those that is our universe, but we will never reach the correct 
answer, the number of experiments needed will be too many.

-- 
Torgny

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