On Mon, Jan 6, 2014 at 2:36 PM, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:

> Bell derived his inequality assuming QM with collapse

No he did not, Bell makes no such assumption or interpretation, in fact not
one word about Quantum Mechanics is needed in his entire derivation. None
zero zilch goose egg. And that is why even if Quantum Mechanics turns out
to be wrong and is succeeded with a newer and better theory it would still
be true that if things are realistic and local then Bell's inequality can
NEVER  BE VIOLATED, provided that high school algebra and trigonometry are
valid. And that is exactly why the experimental discovery that Bell's
inequality WAS VIOLATED was so fundamental and profound.

  John K Clark

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