On Mon, Jan 6, 2014 at 2:36 PM, meekerdb <meeke...@verizon.net> wrote:
> Bell derived his inequality assuming QM with collapse > No he did not, Bell makes no such assumption or interpretation, in fact not one word about Quantum Mechanics is needed in his entire derivation. None zero zilch goose egg. And that is why even if Quantum Mechanics turns out to be wrong and is succeeded with a newer and better theory it would still be true that if things are realistic and local then Bell's inequality can NEVER BE VIOLATED, provided that high school algebra and trigonometry are valid. And that is exactly why the experimental discovery that Bell's inequality WAS VIOLATED was so fundamental and profound. John K Clark -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Everything List" group. To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com. To post to this group, send email to firstname.lastname@example.org. Visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list. For more options, visit https://groups.google.com/groups/opt_out.