On Sun, Dec 15, 2013 at 2:53 PM, LizR <lizj...@gmail.com> wrote:
> On 16 December 2013 05:04, John Clark <johnkcl...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
>> On Sun, Dec 15, 2013 at 4:04 AM, Bruno Marchal <marc...@ulb.ac.be> wrote:
>>
>> > As I said you confuse "indeterminacy" (the general vague concept) with
>>> the many different sort of indeterminacy:
>>> 1) by ignorance on initial conditions (example: the coin), that is a 3p
>>> indeterminacy.
>>> 2) Turing form of indeterminacy (example: the halting problem), that is
>>> again a 3p indeterminacy.
>>> 3) quantum indeterminacy in copenhague (3p indeterminacy, if that
>>> exists)
>>> 4) quantum indeterminacy in Everett (1p indeterminacy, which needs the
>>> quantum SWE assumption)
>>> 5) computationalist 1p-indeterminacy (similar to Everett, except that
>>> it does not need to assume the SWE or Everett-QM). It is the one we get
>>> in step 3, and it is part of the derivation of physics from comp.
>>>
>>
>> Only the first 3 make any sense, and even there all those peas are
>> unnecessary.
>>
>
> What doesn't make sense about number 4 (the MWI explanation of
> indeterminacy) ?
>

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