On 16 December 2013 11:16, Jason Resch <jasonre...@gmail.com> wrote:
> On Sun, Dec 15, 2013 at 2:53 PM, LizR <lizj...@gmail.com> wrote:
>> On 16 December 2013 05:04, John Clark <johnkcl...@gmail.com> wrote:
>>> On Sun, Dec 15, 2013 at 4:04 AM, Bruno Marchal <marc...@ulb.ac.be>wrote:
>>> > As I said you confuse "indeterminacy" (the general vague concept)
>>>> with the many different sort of indeterminacy:
>>>> 1) by ignorance on initial conditions (example: the coin), that is a
>>>> 3p indeterminacy.
>>>> 2) Turing form of indeterminacy (example: the halting problem), that
>>>> is again a 3p indeterminacy.
>>>> 3) quantum indeterminacy in copenhague (3p indeterminacy, if that
>>>> 4) quantum indeterminacy in Everett (1p indeterminacy, which needs the
>>>> quantum SWE assumption)
>>>> 5) computationalist 1p-indeterminacy (similar to Everett, except that
>>>> it does not need to assume the SWE or Everett-QM). It is the one we get
>>>> in step 3, and it is part of the derivation of physics from comp.
>>> Only the first 3 make any sense, and even there all those peas are
>> What doesn't make sense about number 4 (the MWI explanation of
>> indeterminacy) ?
> If he admits that his jig is up.
Far be it from me to be an *agent provocateur...*
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