Re: AUDA and pronouns

2013-10-07 Thread meekerdb

On 10/6/2013 10:36 PM, Russell Standish wrote:

Unfortunately, the thread about AUDA and its relation to pronouncs got
mixed up with another thread, and thus got delete on my computer.

Picking up from where we left off, I'm still trying to see the
relationship between Bp, Bpp, 1-I, 3-I and the plain ordinary I
pronoun in English.

I understand Bp can be read as I can prove p, and Bpp as I know
p. But in the case, the difference between Bp and Bpp is entirely in
the verb, the pronoun I stays the same, AFAICT.

Also, switching viewpoints, one could equally say the Bp can be read
as he can prove p, and Bpp as he knows p, so the person order of
the pronoun is also not relevant.


Notice though how different I can prove the 4-color theorem. is from The 4-color 
theorem is true.


Brent

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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Oct 2013, at 19:03, meekerdb wrote:


On 10/6/2013 12:43 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 05 Oct 2013, at 19:55, John Clark wrote:

On Sat, Oct 5, 2013 at 12:28 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


 you have agreed that all bruno marchal are the original one (a  
case where Leibniz identity rule fails,


If you're talking about Leibniz Identity of indiscernibles it most  
certainly has NOT failed.


I was talking on the rule:

a = b
a = c
entails that b = c

The M-guy is the H-guy  (the M-guy remembers having been the H-guy)
The W-guy is the H-guy  (the W-guy  remembers having been the H-guy)
But the M-guy is not the W-guy (in the sense that the M-guy will  
not remember having been the W-guy, and reciprocally).


The rest are unconvincing rhetorical tricks, already answered, and  
which, btw,  can be done for the quantum indeterminacy, as many  
people showed to you. Each time we talk about the prediction the  
he refer to the guy in Helsinki before the duplication, after the  
duplication, we mention if we talk of the guy in M or in W, or of  
both, and look at their individual confirmation or refutation of  
their prediction done in Helsinki. We just look at diaries, and I  
have made those things clear, but you talk like if you don't try to  
understand.


There is nothing controversial, and you fake misunderstanding of  
the most easy part of the reasoning.
Not sure what is your agenda, but it is clear that you are not  
interested in learning.


Well there is still *some* controversy; mainly about how the  
indeterminancy is to be interpreted as a probability.  There's some  
good discussion here, http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/20802/why-is-gleasons-theorem-not-enough-to-obtain-born-rule-in-many-worlds-interpret 
  especially the last comment by Ron Maimon.


I was talking on the arithmetical FPI, or even just the local  
probability for duplication protocol. This has nothing to do with QM,  
except when using the MWI as a confirmation of the mùany dreams.


Having said that I don't agree with the preferred base problem. That  
problem comes from the fact that our computations can make sense only  
in the base where we have evolved abilities to make some distinction.  
The difficulty is for physicists believing in worlds, but there are  
only knowledge states of observer/dreamers.


But I insist, here, what I said was not controversial is that in the  
WM duplication thought experience, *with the precise protocol given*,  
we have an indeterminacy, indeed even a P = 1/2 situation. The quantum  
case is notoriously more difficult (due indeed to the lack of  
definition of world), but it seems to me that Everett use both  
Gleason theorem + a sort of FPI (more or less implicitly).


Bruno


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Re: The ultimate reason of knowledge faith power and entrophy reduction, computabilty, evolution, the universe and everithing

2013-10-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Oct 2013, at 18:08, Alberto G. Corona wrote:

Some academies are just prostituted to rotten (sometime) politics,  
often just to get enough funding to survive.


Money is not the problem. Black, obscure and grey money is the  
problem.


Wait, this is indeed the most fundamental question!

How knowledge interact with money and power in society and convert  
itself in beliefs as a system that prevent further knowledge must be  
an integral part of research.


For me this meta-knowledge about knowledge faith and power is a more  
fundamental question than knowledge itself.

---

I think that people don' t want knowledge primarily.


Ha Ha ... That reminds me when my father told me that truth is what  
humans fear the most and like the less.




What they aim at, is like any living being, and in fact, like any  
stable dynamic auto-regulated structure, is  to reduce uncertainty.


The humans oscillate between security/certainty/control and freedom/ 
uncertainty/universality. Basically that is why we vote, to have a  
sort of equilibrium in between.






That fit with many considerations at different levels, and embrace  
conclussions of evolution, game theory, computability, social  
science psychology and entropy.



 That explain how knowledge interact with power (and money and you  
wish) and faith. As I will explain:


To reduce uncertainty can be achieved adquiring pure knowledge of  
the world around in order to predict better the future.


But it can also be achieved by adquiring for themselves money or  
power, or love from other people, or commitment from tem, or  
respect, or common commintment to something or someone.


The fact is that pure knowledge is not enoug. Money is not enough,  
power is not enough, since neither of them work without a committed  
society that make use of this knowledge in an organized way, that  
respect the money value and other properties, that has fair  
mechanism for adquiring power and legitimacy, and more that that, a  
society with a  clear plan for our sibiling and generations to come.


Thinking materialistically (I´m not but for a matter of argument)  
there is no social vehicle for our genes if the society have all  
these requirements, and, more important, no people that had not  
these requirements ullfilled survived, so we have inherited this  
natural seeking for all these kinds of uncertainty reduction  
mechanism around us.


Some societies make enphasis in one kind of uncertainty reduction.  
Others rely more in other different in this equation. These  
different uncertainty reduction alternatives are one against the  
other. A strict hiearchi of power and legitimacy based on an  
enforced supernatural plan is a excellent uncertainty reduction for  
a stable society that does not need to change. In the other side,  
adquring knowledge is good, but that may challenge the structure,  
questionin legitimacies and creating civil wars, that can be pacific  
or violent. When there is no common plans nor loyaltyes, the pacific  
disputes become violent almos by defintion.


A lot of philosophy on all their branches can be extracted from this  
starting point.


The US constitution is very good, but is not really followed, and  
things like prohibition have put bandits into power, who have broken  
the important separation of powers.


Lobbying and the role of money in politics should be revised. But we  
are a bit out of topic here, I think.


Bruno








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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Oct 2013, at 19:48, John Clark wrote:

On Sun, Oct 6, 2013 at 3:43 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


 The M-guy is the H-guy  (the M-guy remembers having been the H-guy)

The  H-guy turns into the M-guy, but they are not identical just as  
you are not identical with the Bruno Marchal of yesterday.


 The W-guy is the H-guy  (the W-guy  remembers having been the H-guy)

The  H-guy turns into the W-guy, but they are not identical just as  
you are not identical with the Bruno Marchal of yesterday


But I am still Bruno Marchal, apparently. The FPI depends on that  
appearance.





 But the M-guy is not the W-guy

True, but the H-guy and the M-guy and the M-guy are all Bruno  
Marchal because BRUNO MARCHAL HAS BEEN DUPLICATED.


That's my point. OK.





The rest are unconvincing rhetorical tricks,

Rhetorical tricks my ass! These are details of profound importance   
simply glossed over with the slapdash use of personal pronouns. And  
that's pretty damn sloppy for a mathematician.


That's again an unconvincing rhetorical tricks. Be specific please.




 and which, btw,  can be done for the quantum indeterminacy,

The criticism some have with Quantum Mechanics is that what it says  
is very very odd, but odd or not and love it or hate it what Quantum  
Mechanics says is crystal clear


This is simply false. Look at the debate in the literature. See the  
link given just now by Brent.  In this list most believe that QM is  
slightly more understandable with the MWI. Not all problems are  
solved. Anyway, it is simpler in the first six steps of the UDA, where  
the situation is utterly transparent, given the protocol, and the  
definition of 1-I and 3-I.




and it gets the job done; in contrast when your ideas are not opaque  
they are logically inconsistent.


You should prove statement like that, with specific quote and  
references.






 Each time we talk about the prediction the he refer to the guy  
in Helsinki before the duplication,


If he refers to Bruno Marchal the Helsinki guy then the correct  
prediction  he would make is that he will see Helsinki and only  
Helsinki;



You can apply that idea to the guy who throw a coin. You would say  
that such a guy can only predict that he will throw a coin. This is  
ridiculous, frankly.





not that predictions, good or bad, have the slightest thing to do  
with a feeling of continuity or feeling of self.


If that did not exist, no probabilities at all would ever make sense.
(Note that formally your remark is met by the  Dt in the formal  
approach, but it is met by simple common sense in UDA).





And if you want to say that Bruno Marchal the Helsinki guy is dead  
then fine, but then you must also say that Bruno Marchal of  
yesterday is dead and personally I don't want to torture the  
language more that I have to under these very odd circumstances of  
self duplication.


And we can't do that, because it would make comp false.





 you fake misunderstanding

Why on earth would I, or anyone, pretend not to understand something  
when they really did?


Because you would ask question, instead of asserting that there is  
something false, without being able to say what.



Bruno




 of the most easy part of the reasoning.

If this is the clearest reasoning in your proof then I'm doubly  
glad I didn't read anymore.


  John K Clark




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Re: A challenge for Craig

2013-10-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Oct 2013, at 22:00, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Sunday, October 6, 2013 5:06:31 AM UTC-4, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 06 Oct 2013, at 03:17, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

 On 5 October 2013 00:40, Bruno Marchal mar...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 The argument is simply summarised thus: it is impossible even for
 God
 to make a brain prosthesis that reproduces the I/O behaviour but  
has

 different qualia. This is a proof of comp,


 Hmm... I can agree, but eventually no God can make such a
 prothesis, only
 because the qualia is an attribute of the immaterial person, and
 not of
 the brain, body, or computer.  Then the prosthesis will manifest
 the person
 if it emulates the correct level.

 But if the qualia are attributed to the substance of the physical
 brain then where is the problem making a prosthesis that replicates
 the behaviour but not the qualia?
 The problem is that it would allow
 one to make a partial zombie, which I think is absurd. Therefore,  
the

 qualia cannot be attributed to the substance of the physical brain.

I agree.

Note that in that case the qualia is no more attributed to an
immaterial person, but to a piece of primary matter.
In that case, both comp and functionalism (in your sense, not in
Putnam's usual sense of functionalism which is a particular case of
comp) are wrong.

Then, it is almost obvious that an immaterial being cannot distinguish
between a primarily material incarnation, and an immaterial one, as it
would need some magic (non Turing emulable) ability to make the
difference.  People agreeing with this do no more need the UDA step 8
(which is an attempt to make this more rigorous or clear).

I might criticize, as a devil's advocate, a little bit the partial-
zombie argument. Very often some people pretend that they feel less
conscious after some drink of vodka, but that they are still able to
behave normally. Of course those people are notoriously wrong. It is
just that alcohol augments a fake self-confidence feeling, which
typically is not verified (in the laboratory, or more sadly on the
roads). Also, they confuse less conscious with blurred
consciousness,

Why wouldn't less consciousness have the effect of seeming blurred?  
If your battery is dying in a device, the device might begin to fail  
in numerous ways, but those are all symptoms of the battery dying -  
of the device becoming less reliable as different parts are  
unavailable at different times.


Think of qualia as a character in a long story, which is divided  
into episodes. If, for instance, someone starts watching a show like  
Breaking Bad only in the last season, they have no explicit  
understanding of who Walter White is or why he behaves like he does,  
where Jesse came from, etc. They can only pick up what is presented  
directly in that episode, so his character is relatively flat. The  
difference between the appreciation of the last episode by someone  
who has seen the entire series on HDTV and someone who has only read  
the closed captioning of the last episode on Twitter is like the  
difference between a human being's qualia and the qualia which is  
available through a logical imitation of a human bring.


Qualia is experience which contains the felt relation to all other  
experiences; specific experiences which directly relate, and  
extended experiential contexts which extent to eternity (totality of  
manifested events so far relative to the participant plus semi- 
potential events which relate to higher octaves of their  
participation...the bigger picture with the larger now.)


Then qualia are infinite. This contradict some of your previous  
statement.







Human psychology is not a monolith. Blindsight already *proves* that  
'we can be a partial zombie' from our 1p perspective. I have tried  
to make my solution to the combination problem here: http://multisenserealism.com/thesis/6-panpsychism/eigenmorphism/


What it means is that it is a mistake to say we can be a partial  
zombie - rather the evidence of brain injuries and surgeries  
demonstrate that the extent to which we are who we expect ourselves  
to be, or that others expect a person to be, can be changed in many  
quantitative and qualitative ways. We may not be less conscious  
after a massive debilitating stroke, but what is conscious after  
that is less of us.


OK.
As Chardin said, we are not human beings having from time to time some  
divine experiences, but we are divine beings having from time to time  
human experiences ...





This is because consciousness is not a function or a process,


OK



it is the sole source of presence.

Qualia is what we are made of. As human beings at this stage of  
human civilization, our direct qualia is primarily cognitive-logical- 
verbal. We identify with our ability to describe with words - to  
qualify other qualia as verbal qualia. We name our perceptions and  
name our naming power 'mind', but that is not consciousness. Logic  
and intellect can only name 

Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 07 Oct 2013, at 06:24, chris peck wrote:


Hi Brent

 This is true, but it's also something Bruno has said many times.  
If comp is correct (to the extent that the mind is a computation, at  
least) then this is happening all the time. Heraclitus was right,  
you aren't the same person even from one second to the next.


I think Heraclitus meant that it is through change that some things  
remain the same. Thus the river stops being the river if it doesn't  
flow. Or the human body has an underlying form and structure that  
gets maintained as the constituent matter comes and goes. It is the  
abstract relationship between elements that constitutes identity  
rather than the elements themselves. I would think this reading of  
Heraclitus is more palatable to Bruno given he is a neo-patonist. I  
would have thought Bruno would want identity between successive  
steps of 'the program' to be maintained, otherwise, as you do, he  
would really be denying a role to an underlying form in the natural  
numbers from which 'shadows of us' are derived.


In any case Bruno really asserts that identity is maintained in  
comp. This is the essence of the 'yes doctor' axiom which he  
violates in step 3.


Are you saying that the step 3 would provide a logical reason to say  
no to the doctor, and thus abandoning comp?


Bruno






 I think he's resisting Bruno's point because he sees it as  
assigning a probability.


Well he would be right to. This is from Bruno's step 3 where he  
explicitly assigns probability:


This is what I call the first person comp indeterminacy, or just 1- 
indeterminacy. Giving that Moscow and Washington are permutable  
without any noticeable changes for the experiencer, it is reasonable  
to ascribe a probability of ½ to the event “I will be in Moscow  
(resp. Washington).”


All the best

Date: Sun, 6 Oct 2013 17:45:48 -0700
From: meeke...@verizon.net
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

On 10/6/2013 1:48 PM, LizR wrote:
On 7 October 2013 06:48, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:
On Sun, Oct 6, 2013 at 3:43 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


 The M-guy is the H-guy  (the M-guy remembers having been the H-guy)

The  H-guy turns into the M-guy, but they are not identical just as  
you are not identical with the Bruno Marchal of yesterday.


This is true, but it's also something Bruno has said many times. If  
comp is correct (to the extent that the mind is a computation, at  
least) then this is happening all the time. Heraclitus was right,  
you aren't the same person even from one second to the next. I  
thought that was partly the point that Bruno's step 3 was making. If  
comp, then we exist as steps in a computation, and hence, at least  
in a sense, cease to exist and come back into existence constantly.  
Hence (if comp) we are at any given moment digital states can be  
duplicated, at least in principle, and could also be duplicated  
inside a computer (again in theory. The computer MAY have to be the  
size of a galaxy, or it may not - however the point is only to show  
what is possible in principle. Or is in principle itself  
objectionable?)



JC should read this: 
http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/20802/why-is-gleasons-theorem-not-enough-to-obtain-born-rule-in-many-worlds-interpret

I think he's resisting Bruno's point because he sees it as assigning  
a probability.


Brent

Arguing about which man is which or who thinks what seems a bit  
pointless. The question is, do you agree that if consciousness is  
computation, a duplicator of this sort is at least a theoretical  
possibility? (I can accept it, despite no-cloning, because the  
multiverse itself is apparently doing it constantly.)


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Re: AUDA and pronouns

2013-10-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 07 Oct 2013, at 07:36, Russell Standish wrote:


Unfortunately, the thread about AUDA and its relation to pronouncs got
mixed up with another thread, and thus got delete on my computer.

Picking up from where we left off, I'm still trying to see the
relationship between Bp, Bpp, 1-I, 3-I and the plain ordinary I
pronoun in English.


As I said, in natural language we usually mix 1-I (Bp) and 3-I (Bp  p).
The reason is that we think we have only one body, and so, in all  
practical situation it does not matter. (That's also why some people  
will say I am my body, or I am my brain, like Searles, which used that  
against comp, but if that was valid, the math shows that machines can  
validly shows that they are not machine, which is absurd).


The difference 1-I/3-I is felt sometimes by people looking at a video  
of themselves. The objective situation can describe many people, and  
you feel bizarre that you are one of them. That video lacks of course  
the first person perspective.


The distinction is brought when we study the mind body problem. You  
might red the best text ever on this: the Theaetetus of Plato. But the  
indians have written many texts on this, and some are chef-d'oeuvre  
(rigorous).






I understand Bp can be read as I can prove p, and Bpp as I know
p. But in the case, the difference between Bp and Bpp is entirely in
the verb, the pronoun I stays the same, AFAICT.


Correct. Only the perspective change. Bp is Toto proves p, said by  
Toto.
Bp  p is Toto proves p and p is true, as said by Toto (or not),  
and the math shows that this behaves like a knowledge opertaor (but  
not arithmetical predicate). So, the ideally correct machine will  
never been able to ascribe a name or a description to it. Intuitively,  
for the machine, that I is not assertable, and indeed such opertair  
refer to something without a name.






Also, switching viewpoints, one could equally say the Bp can be read
as he can prove p,


but the point is that it is asserted by he, in the language of he.




and Bpp as he knows p, so the person order of
the pronoun is also not relevant.


Yes, you can read that in that way, but you get only the 3-view of the  
1-view.


Let us define [o]p by Bp  p

I am just pointing on the difference between B([o]p) and [o]([o]p).

Best,

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Oct 2013, at 22:48, LizR wrote:


On 7 October 2013 06:48, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:
On Sun, Oct 6, 2013 at 3:43 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


 The M-guy is the H-guy  (the M-guy remembers having been the H-guy)

The  H-guy turns into the M-guy, but they are not identical just as  
you are not identical with the Bruno Marchal of yesterday.


This is true, but it's also something Bruno has said many times.


Thanks for noticing.


If comp is correct (to the extent that the mind is a computation, at  
least) then this is happening all the time. Heraclitus was right,  
you aren't the same person even from one second to the next. I  
thought that was partly the point that Bruno's step 3 was making. If  
comp, then we exist as steps in a computation,


Well we exists at each step, but we are not step. Also, mind is not a  
computation, but a mind can be attached to a computation. I know it is  
simpler sometimes to abuse a little bit of the language, to be shorter  
and get to the point, but those simple nuance have to be taken into  
account at some points so it is important to be careful (even more so  
with pick-nickers)



and hence, at least in a sense, cease to exist and come back into  
existence constantly. Hence (if comp) we are at any given moment  
digital states can be duplicated, at least in principle, and could  
also be duplicated inside a computer (again in theory. The computer  
MAY have to be the size of a galaxy, or it may not - however the  
point is only to show what is possible in principle. Or is in  
principle itself objectionable?)


Arguing about which man is which or who thinks what seems a bit  
pointless. The question is, do you agree that if consciousness is  
computation,


In fact when you say that consciousness is computation, you identify a  
1p notion with a 3p notion, and this is ... possible only for God:
G* proves (Bp  p) - Bp, but no machine can proves this correctly  
about herself.


That is why it is preferable to say that comp postulates only that my  
consciousness is invariant for a digital physical susbtitution.




a duplicator of this sort is at least a theoretical possibility?


I think John Clark made clear that he agrees with the theoretical  
possibility. he seems only to disagree with the indeterminacy.
Except that even this is not clear, as he agrees that this is  
phenomenologically equivalent with a throw of a coin, but then he is  
unclear why he does not proceed to step 4. He contradicts himself from  
post to post, like saying that such an indeterminacy is so trivial and  
not deep enough to proceed (like if understanding a step of a  
reasoning was a reason to stop), or that it is nonsense. So is it  
trivial or is it nonsense? We still don't know what John Clark is  
thinking.



(I can accept it, despite no-cloning, because the multiverse itself  
is apparently doing it constantly.)


Yes, without Everett, I would not have dared to explain that the  
physical reality emerges from the many dreams by (relative) numbers.
People accepting the consistency of Everett and stopping at step 3 are  
very rare. I know only one: Clark.


Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: AUDA and pronouns

2013-10-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 07 Oct 2013, at 10:20, Bruno Marchal wrote (to Russell):

Yes, you can read that in that way, but you get only the 3-view of  
the 1-view.


I meant:  you get only the 3-view ON the 1-view.

Not of.

Sorry,

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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RE: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-07 Thread chris peck
Hi Bruno

 Are you saying that the step 3 would provide a logical reason to say no to 
 the doctor, and thus abandoning comp?

I'm saying only the suicidal would expect a 50/50 chance of experiencing Moscow 
(or Washington) after teleportation and then say yes to the doctor.

regards

From: marc...@ulb.ac.be
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?
Date: Mon, 7 Oct 2013 10:34:19 +0200


On 06 Oct 2013, at 22:48, LizR wrote:On 7 October 2013 06:48, John Clark 
johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Sun, Oct 6, 2013 at 3:43 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 
  The M-guy is the H-guy  (the M-guy remembers having been the H-guy)
  The  H-guy turns into the M-guy, but they are not identical just as you are 
not identical with the Bruno Marchal of yesterday.

 This is true, but it's also something Bruno has said many times. 
Thanks for noticing.

If comp is correct (to the extent that the mind is a computation, at least) 
then this is happening all the time. Heraclitus was right, you aren't the same 
person even from one second to the next. I thought that was partly the point 
that Bruno's step 3 was making. If comp, then we exist as steps in a 
computation, 
Well we exists at each step, but we are not step. Also, mind is not a 
computation, but a mind can be attached to a computation. I know it is simpler 
sometimes to abuse a little bit of the language, to be shorter and get to the 
point, but those simple nuance have to be taken into account at some points so 
it is important to be careful (even more so with pick-nickers) 

and hence, at least in a sense, cease to exist and come back into existence 
constantly. Hence (if comp) we are at any given moment digital states can be 
duplicated, at least in principle, and could also be duplicated inside a 
computer (again in theory. The computer MAY have to be the size of a galaxy, or 
it may not - however the point is only to show what is possible in principle. 
Or is in principle itself objectionable?)
 
Arguing about which man is which or who thinks what seems a bit pointless. The 
question is, do you agree that if consciousness is computation, 
In fact when you say that consciousness is computation, you identify a 1p 
notion with a 3p notion, and this is ... possible only for God:G* proves (Bp  
p) - Bp, but no machine can proves this correctly about herself. 
That is why it is preferable to say that comp postulates only that my 
consciousness is invariant for a digital physical susbtitution.

a duplicator of this sort is at least a theoretical possibility? 
I think John Clark made clear that he agrees with the theoretical possibility. 
he seems only to disagree with the indeterminacy.Except that even this is not 
clear, as he agrees that this is phenomenologically equivalent with a throw of 
a coin, but then he is unclear why he does not proceed to step 4. He 
contradicts himself from post to post, like saying that such an indeterminacy 
is so trivial and not deep enough to proceed (like if understanding a step of a 
reasoning was a reason to stop), or that it is nonsense. So is it trivial or is 
it nonsense? We still don't know what John Clark is thinking.

(I can accept it, despite no-cloning, because the multiverse itself is 
apparently doing it constantly.)

Yes, without Everett, I would not have dared to explain that the physical 
reality emerges from the many dreams by (relative) numbers.People accepting the 
consistency of Everett and stopping at step 3 are very rare. I know only one: 
Clark.
Bruno


 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ 





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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-07 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2013/10/7 chris peck chris_peck...@hotmail.com

 Hi Bruno


 * Are you saying that the step 3 would provide a logical reason to say
 no to the doctor, and thus abandoning comp?*

 I'm saying only the suicidal would expect a 50/50 chance of experiencing
 Moscow (or Washington) after teleportation and then say yes to the doctor.

 regards



It makes no sense, in the comp settings it is 100% sure you'll experience a
next moment... the thing is, it's that there is two of you after
duplication, both experience something M o W, the 50/50 is a probability
expectation before duplication... it has the *exact same sense* as
probability in MWI setting... it's the same.

Either you should say probability are non sensical in the MWI or if you
accept them with the MWI, you should accept them the same way with the comp
duplication experience.

Quentin




 --
 From: marc...@ulb.ac.be

 To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Subject: Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?
 Date: Mon, 7 Oct 2013 10:34:19 +0200



 On 06 Oct 2013, at 22:48, LizR wrote:

 On 7 October 2013 06:48, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Sun, Oct 6, 2013 at 3:43 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  The M-guy is the H-guy  (the M-guy remembers having been the H-guy)


 The  H-guy turns into the M-guy, but they are not identical just as you
 are not identical with the Bruno Marchal of yesterday.


 This is true, but it's also something Bruno has said many times.


 Thanks for noticing.


 If comp is correct (to the extent that the mind is a computation, at
 least) then this is happening all the time. Heraclitus was right, you
 aren't the same person even from one second to the next. I thought that was
 partly the point that Bruno's step 3 was making. If comp, then we exist as
 steps in a computation,


 Well we exists at each step, but we are not step. Also, mind is not a
 computation, but a mind can be attached to a computation. I know it is
 simpler sometimes to abuse a little bit of the language, to be shorter and
 get to the point, but those simple nuance have to be taken into account at
 some points so it is important to be careful (even more so with
 pick-nickers)


 and hence, at least in a sense, cease to exist and come back into
 existence constantly. Hence (if comp) we are at any given moment digital
 states can be duplicated, at least in principle, and could also be
 duplicated inside a computer (again in theory. The computer MAY have to be
 the size of a galaxy, or it may not - however the point is only to show
 what is possible in principle. Or is in principle itself objectionable?)

 Arguing about which man is which or who thinks what seems a bit pointless.
 The question is, do you agree that if consciousness is computation,


 In fact when you say that consciousness is computation, you identify a 1p
 notion with a 3p notion, and this is ... possible only for God:
 G* proves (Bp  p) - Bp, but no machine can proves this correctly about
 herself.

 That is why it is preferable to say that comp postulates only that my
 consciousness is invariant for a digital physical susbtitution.


 a duplicator of this sort is at least a theoretical possibility?


 I think John Clark made clear that he agrees with the theoretical
 possibility. he seems only to disagree with the indeterminacy.
 Except that even this is not clear, as he agrees that this is
 phenomenologically equivalent with a throw of a coin, but then he is
 unclear why he does not proceed to step 4. He contradicts himself from post
 to post, like saying that such an indeterminacy is so trivial and not deep
 enough to proceed (like if understanding a step of a reasoning was a reason
 to stop), or that it is nonsense. So is it trivial or is it nonsense? We
 still don't know what John Clark is thinking.


 (I can accept it, despite no-cloning, because the multiverse itself is
 apparently doing it constantly.)


 Yes, without Everett, I would not have dared to explain that the physical
 reality emerges from the many dreams by (relative) numbers.
 People accepting the consistency of Everett and stopping at step 3 are
 very rare. I know only one: Clark.

 Bruno



  http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/




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 Visit 

RE: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-07 Thread chris peck
Quentin

 Either you should say probability are non sensical in the MWI or if you 
 accept them with the MWI, you should accept them the same way with the comp 
 duplication experience.

But MWI does have a problem when it comes to probabilities and it is taken very 
seriously by Everetians and their critics.

In MWI any probabilities are a measure of ignorance rather than genuine chance, 
because all outcomes are realised. Any theory of everything will, I suspect, be 
similar in that regard.

So what sense does it make in MWI to ask of the probabilities associated with 
one of two outcomes, if both are certain? It doesn't really make sense at all.

It seems particularly acute to me for Bruno's experiment because at least in 
MWI worlds split on the basis of things we can not predict. There is no 
equivalent 'roll of the die' in Bruno's step 3. I know I am going to be 
duplicated. I know where I am going to be sent. I know by 'yes doctor' I will 
survive. Why shouldn't I expect to see both outcomes? After all, there is not 
two of me yet ...

But I think you are right. In general it would be inconsistent to regard 
Bruno's theory, but not MWI, of having issues here.

From: allco...@gmail.com
Date: Mon, 7 Oct 2013 14:03:53 +0200
Subject: Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com




2013/10/7 chris peck chris_peck...@hotmail.com






Hi Bruno

 Are you saying that the step 3 would provide a logical reason to say no to 
 the doctor, and thus abandoning comp?

I'm saying only the suicidal would expect a 50/50 chance of experiencing Moscow 
(or Washington) after teleportation and then say yes to the doctor.




regards


It makes no sense, in the comp settings it is 100% sure you'll experience a 
next moment... the thing is, it's that there is two of you after duplication, 
both experience something M o W, the 50/50 is a probability expectation before 
duplication... it has the *exact same sense* as probability in MWI setting... 
it's the same.




Either you should say probability are non sensical in the MWI or if you accept 
them with the MWI, you should accept them the same way with the comp 
duplication experience.

Quentin



 


From: marc...@ulb.ac.be



To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?
Date: Mon, 7 Oct 2013 10:34:19 +0200



On 06 Oct 2013, at 22:48, LizR wrote:
On 7 October 2013 06:48, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Sun, Oct 6, 2013 at 3:43 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:



 
  The M-guy is the H-guy  (the M-guy remembers having been the H-guy)
 


 The  H-guy turns into the M-guy, but they are not identical just as you are 
not identical with the Bruno Marchal of yesterday.

 This is true, but it's also something Bruno has said many times. 



Thanks for noticing.

If comp is correct (to the extent that the mind is a computation, at least) 
then this is happening all the time. Heraclitus was right, you aren't the same 
person even from one second to the next. I thought that was partly the point 
that Bruno's step 3 was making. If comp, then we exist as steps in a 
computation, 



Well we exists at each step, but we are not step. Also, mind is not a 
computation, but a mind can be attached to a computation. I know it is simpler 
sometimes to abuse a little bit of the language, to be shorter and get to the 
point, but those simple nuance have to be taken into account at some points so 
it is important to be careful (even more so with pick-nickers) 




and hence, at least in a sense, cease to exist and come back into existence 
constantly. Hence (if comp) we are at any given moment digital states can be 
duplicated, at least in principle, and could also be duplicated inside a 
computer (again in theory. The computer MAY have to be the size of a galaxy, or 
it may not - however the point is only to show what is possible in principle. 
Or is in principle itself objectionable?)



 
Arguing about which man is which or who thinks what seems a bit pointless. The 
question is, do you agree that if consciousness is computation, 
In fact when you say that consciousness is computation, you identify a 1p 
notion with a 3p notion, and this is ... possible only for God:


G* proves (Bp  p) - Bp, but no machine can proves this correctly about 
herself. 
That is why it is preferable to say that comp postulates only that my 
consciousness is invariant for a digital physical susbtitution.




a duplicator of this sort is at least a theoretical possibility? 
I think John Clark made clear that he agrees with the theoretical possibility. 
he seems only to disagree with the indeterminacy.


Except that even this is not clear, as he agrees that this is 
phenomenologically equivalent with a throw of a coin, but then he is unclear 
why he does not proceed to step 4. He contradicts himself from post to post, 
like saying that such an indeterminacy is so trivial and not deep enough to 
proceed (like if 

Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-07 Thread Telmo Menezes
On Mon, Oct 7, 2013 at 3:20 PM, chris peck chris_peck...@hotmail.com wrote:
 Quentin


 Either you should say probability are non sensical in the MWI or if you
 accept them with the MWI, you should accept them the same way with the comp
 duplication experience.

 But MWI does have a problem when it comes to probabilities and it is taken
 very seriously by Everetians and their critics.

 In MWI any probabilities are a measure of ignorance rather than genuine
 chance, because all outcomes are realised. Any theory of everything will, I
 suspect, be similar in that regard.

 So what sense does it make in MWI to ask of the probabilities associated
 with one of two outcomes, if both are certain? It doesn't really make sense
 at all.

 It seems particularly acute to me for Bruno's experiment because at least in
 MWI worlds split on the basis of things we can not predict. There is no
 equivalent 'roll of the die' in Bruno's step 3. I know I am going to be
 duplicated. I know where I am going to be sent. I know by 'yes doctor' I
 will survive. Why shouldn't I expect to see both outcomes? After all, there
 is not two of me yet ...

 But I think you are right. In general it would be inconsistent to regard
 Bruno's theory, but not MWI, of having issues here.

I propose that the main insight that is necessary here is that, when
there is some split (quantum choice, duplication machine, whatever),
_both_ copies are conscious and _both_ feel that they are a real
continuation of the original. But looking at it from the first person,
each copy has no way of accessing the point of view of the other copy.
Uncertainty arises from the lack of information that each first person
perspective has about the entire picture. This, in fact, explains
probabilities in a more convincing way than the more conventional
models, because in more conventional models you have to live with this
weird idea of randomness that seems to defy explanation.

So when you make a statement about the probability of something
happening, you are always making a statement about a possible
continuation of your first person experience and nothing more. In
fact, happening becomes an entirely 1p concept. This does not prove
anything but it does fit what we observe without the need for a
mysterious property called randomness.

You don't have to be suicidal to say yes to the doctor because what
the doctor is going to do to you happens all the time anyway.

I think.

Telmo.

 
 From: allco...@gmail.com
 Date: Mon, 7 Oct 2013 14:03:53 +0200

 Subject: Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?
 To: everything-list@googlegroups.com





 2013/10/7 chris peck chris_peck...@hotmail.com

 Hi Bruno


 Are you saying that the step 3 would provide a logical reason to say no
 to the doctor, and thus abandoning comp?

 I'm saying only the suicidal would expect a 50/50 chance of experiencing
 Moscow (or Washington) after teleportation and then say yes to the doctor.

 regards



 It makes no sense, in the comp settings it is 100% sure you'll experience a
 next moment... the thing is, it's that there is two of you after
 duplication, both experience something M o W, the 50/50 is a probability
 expectation before duplication... it has the *exact same sense* as
 probability in MWI setting... it's the same.

 Either you should say probability are non sensical in the MWI or if you
 accept them with the MWI, you should accept them the same way with the comp
 duplication experience.

 Quentin




 
 From: marc...@ulb.ac.be

 To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Subject: Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?
 Date: Mon, 7 Oct 2013 10:34:19 +0200



 On 06 Oct 2013, at 22:48, LizR wrote:

 On 7 October 2013 06:48, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Sun, Oct 6, 2013 at 3:43 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 The M-guy is the H-guy  (the M-guy remembers having been the H-guy)


 The  H-guy turns into the M-guy, but they are not identical just as you are
 not identical with the Bruno Marchal of yesterday.


 This is true, but it's also something Bruno has said many times.


 Thanks for noticing.


 If comp is correct (to the extent that the mind is a computation, at least)
 then this is happening all the time. Heraclitus was right, you aren't the
 same person even from one second to the next. I thought that was partly the
 point that Bruno's step 3 was making. If comp, then we exist as steps in a
 computation,


 Well we exists at each step, but we are not step. Also, mind is not a
 computation, but a mind can be attached to a computation. I know it is
 simpler sometimes to abuse a little bit of the language, to be shorter and
 get to the point, but those simple nuance have to be taken into account at
 some points so it is important to be careful (even more so with
 pick-nickers)


 and hence, at least in a sense, cease to exist and come back into existence
 constantly. Hence (if comp) we are at any given 

Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-07 Thread Bruno Marchal

Hi Chris,

On 07 Oct 2013, at 13:39, chris peck wrote:


 Are you saying that the step 3 would provide a logical reason to  
say no to the doctor, and thus abandoning comp?


I'm saying only the suicidal would expect a 50/50 chance of  
experiencing Moscow (or Washington) after teleportation and then say  
yes to the doctor.


I don't see why. There is a chance of 1/2 to feel oneself in M, and of  
1/2 to feel oneself in W, but the probability is 1 (assuming comp, the  
protocol, etc.) to find oneself alive. P(W v M) = P(W) + P(M) as W and  
M are disjoint incompatible (first person) events.


Yet, the idea that using teleportation, or just saying yes to the  
doctor, is suicidal, is a reasonable argument against comp. This can  
be made clearer by allowing an overlapping of the original and the  
copy. That is, the copy is reconstituted before, and perhaps in  
front of the original, and then the original is annihilated. Here  
comp implies that you will still survive such an experiment, yet there  
is (before the duplication) a probability 1/2 that you will be  
annihilated.

I can imagine that some policy will forbid such overlapping.
I can imagine some policy enforcing them, as it is the only case where  
the original can be sure that the reconstitution is done.


This can be used to realize that we are probably all the same person,  
and so we survive anyway, with different forms of amnesia. But we  
don't need any of this for the UD Argument, and I do not allow  
amnesia, nor personal identity concerns (above what we need to say  
yes to the doctor) in the reasoning.


In a sense, I agree with the idea that the comp idea itself is a bit  
suicidal, but then, assuming comp is correct, we die in such sense at  
each instant, and here is another common point with some talk given by  
people having introspective experiences.


Best regards,

Bruno





regards

From: marc...@ulb.ac.be
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?
Date: Mon, 7 Oct 2013 10:34:19 +0200


On 06 Oct 2013, at 22:48, LizR wrote:

On 7 October 2013 06:48, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:
On Sun, Oct 6, 2013 at 3:43 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


 The M-guy is the H-guy  (the M-guy remembers having been the H-guy)

The  H-guy turns into the M-guy, but they are not identical just as  
you are not identical with the Bruno Marchal of yesterday.


This is true, but it's also something Bruno has said many times.

Thanks for noticing.


If comp is correct (to the extent that the mind is a computation, at  
least) then this is happening all the time. Heraclitus was right,  
you aren't the same person even from one second to the next. I  
thought that was partly the point that Bruno's step 3 was making. If  
comp, then we exist as steps in a computation,


Well we exists at each step, but we are not step. Also, mind is not  
a computation, but a mind can be attached to a computation. I know  
it is simpler sometimes to abuse a little bit of the language, to be  
shorter and get to the point, but those simple nuance have to be  
taken into account at some points so it is important to be careful  
(even more so with pick-nickers)



and hence, at least in a sense, cease to exist and come back into  
existence constantly. Hence (if comp) we are at any given moment  
digital states can be duplicated, at least in principle, and could  
also be duplicated inside a computer (again in theory. The computer  
MAY have to be the size of a galaxy, or it may not - however the  
point is only to show what is possible in principle. Or is in  
principle itself objectionable?)


Arguing about which man is which or who thinks what seems a bit  
pointless. The question is, do you agree that if consciousness is  
computation,


In fact when you say that consciousness is computation, you identify  
a 1p notion with a 3p notion, and this is ... possible only for God:
G* proves (Bp  p) - Bp, but no machine can proves this correctly  
about herself.


That is why it is preferable to say that comp postulates only that  
my consciousness is invariant for a digital physical susbtitution.



a duplicator of this sort is at least a theoretical possibility?

I think John Clark made clear that he agrees with the theoretical  
possibility. he seems only to disagree with the indeterminacy.
Except that even this is not clear, as he agrees that this is  
phenomenologically equivalent with a throw of a coin, but then he is  
unclear why he does not proceed to step 4. He contradicts himself  
from post to post, like saying that such an indeterminacy is so  
trivial and not deep enough to proceed (like if understanding a step  
of a reasoning was a reason to stop), or that it is nonsense. So is  
it trivial or is it nonsense? We still don't know what John Clark is  
thinking.



(I can accept it, despite no-cloning, because the multiverse itself  
is apparently doing it constantly.)


Yes, without Everett, I 

Re: A challenge for Craig

2013-10-07 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Monday, October 7, 2013 3:56:55 AM UTC-4, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 06 Oct 2013, at 22:00, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Sunday, October 6, 2013 5:06:31 AM UTC-4, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 06 Oct 2013, at 03:17, Stathis Papaioannou wrote: 

  On 5 October 2013 00:40, Bruno Marchal mar...@ulb.ac.be wrote: 
  
  The argument is simply summarised thus: it is impossible even for   
  God 
  to make a brain prosthesis that reproduces the I/O behaviour but has 
  different qualia. This is a proof of comp, 
  
  
  Hmm... I can agree, but eventually no God can make such a   
  prothesis, only 
  because the qualia is an attribute of the immaterial person, and   
  not of 
  the brain, body, or computer.  Then the prosthesis will manifest   
  the person 
  if it emulates the correct level. 
  
  But if the qualia are attributed to the substance of the physical 
  brain then where is the problem making a prosthesis that replicates 
  the behaviour but not the qualia? 
  The problem is that it would allow 
  one to make a partial zombie, which I think is absurd. Therefore, the 
  qualia cannot be attributed to the substance of the physical brain. 

 I agree. 

 Note that in that case the qualia is no more attributed to an   
 immaterial person, but to a piece of primary matter. 
 In that case, both comp and functionalism (in your sense, not in   
 Putnam's usual sense of functionalism which is a particular case of   
 comp) are wrong. 

 Then, it is almost obvious that an immaterial being cannot distinguish   
 between a primarily material incarnation, and an immaterial one, as it   
 would need some magic (non Turing emulable) ability to make the   
 difference.  People agreeing with this do no more need the UDA step 8   
 (which is an attempt to make this more rigorous or clear). 

 I might criticize, as a devil's advocate, a little bit the partial- 
 zombie argument. Very often some people pretend that they feel less   
 conscious after some drink of vodka, but that they are still able to   
 behave normally. Of course those people are notoriously wrong. It is   
 just that alcohol augments a fake self-confidence feeling, which   
 typically is not verified (in the laboratory, or more sadly on the   
 roads). Also, they confuse less conscious with blurred   
 consciousness,


 Why wouldn't less consciousness have the effect of seeming blurred? If 
 your battery is dying in a device, the device might begin to fail in 
 numerous ways, but those are all symptoms of the battery dying - of the 
 device becoming less reliable as different parts are unavailable at 
 different times.

 Think of qualia as a character in a long story, which is divided into 
 episodes. If, for instance, someone starts watching a show like Breaking 
 Bad only in the last season, they have no explicit understanding of who 
 Walter White is or why he behaves like he does, where Jesse came from, etc. 
 They can only pick up what is presented directly in that episode, so his 
 character is relatively flat. The difference between the appreciation of 
 the last episode by someone who has seen the entire series on HDTV and 
 someone who has only read the closed captioning of the last episode on 
 Twitter is like the difference between a human being's qualia and the 
 qualia which is available through a logical imitation of a human bring. 

 Qualia is experience which contains the felt relation to all other 
 experiences; specific experiences which directly relate, and extended 
 experiential contexts which extent to eternity (totality of manifested 
 events so far relative to the participant plus semi-potential events which 
 relate to higher octaves of their participation...the bigger picture with 
 the larger now.)


 Then qualia are infinite. This contradict some of your previous statement. 


It's not qualia that is finite or infinite, it is finity-infinity itself 
that is an intellectual quale. Quanta is derived from qualia, so 
quantitative characteristics have ambiguous application outside of quanta.
 






 Human psychology is not a monolith. Blindsight already *proves* that 'we 
 can be a partial zombie' from our 1p perspective. I have tried to make my 
 solution to the combination problem here: 
 http://multisenserealism.com/thesis/6-panpsychism/eigenmorphism/ 

 What it means is that it is a mistake to say we can be a partial zombie 
 - rather the evidence of brain injuries and surgeries demonstrate that the 
 extent to which we are who we expect ourselves to be, or that others expect 
 a person to be, can be changed in many quantitative and qualitative ways. 
 We may not be less conscious after a massive debilitating stroke, but what 
 is conscious after that is less of us. 


 OK.
 As Chardin said, we are not human beings having from time to time some 
 divine experiences, but we are divine beings having from time to time human 
 experiences ...


Right, although I would go further to say that 'here' are experiences which 

Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-07 Thread John Clark
On Sun, Oct 6, 2013 at 4:48 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

The  H-guy turns into the M-guy, but they are not identical just as you
 are not identical with the Bruno Marchal of yesterday.


  This is true, but it's also something Bruno has said many times.


Then Bruno is not always wrong.

 If comp is correct (to the extent that the mind is a computation, at
 least) then this is happening all the time.


And if comp (whatever that means) is not correct then it is STILL happening
all the time.

 we exist as steps in a computation, and hence, at least in a sense, cease
 to exist and come back into existence constantly.


Yes.

 we are at any given moment digital states can be duplicated, at least in
 principle, and could also be duplicated inside a computer


Yes.

 The question is, do you agree that if consciousness is computation, a
 duplicator of this sort is at least a theoretical possibility?


Obviously!

 Arguing about which man is which or who thinks what seems a bit pointless.


Pointless unless you think it is a virtue to quite literally know what you
are talking about. Bruno keeps throwing around words like I and you and
he and it is very clear that Bruno doesn't know what those words mean in
a world with duplicating chambers. Bruno says he has been duplicated, so
now there are TWO, but then Bruno demands to know the ONE thing and only
the ONE thing that he will do; and this is nonsense.

  John k Clark

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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-07 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2013/10/7 John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com

 On Sun, Oct 6, 2013 at 4:48 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

  The  H-guy turns into the M-guy, but they are not identical just as
 you are not identical with the Bruno Marchal of yesterday.


  This is true, but it's also something Bruno has said many times.


 Then Bruno is not always wrong.

  If comp is correct (to the extent that the mind is a computation, at
 least) then this is happening all the time.


 And if comp (whatever that means) is not correct then it is STILL
 happening all the time.

  we exist as steps in a computation, and hence, at least in a sense,
 cease to exist and come back into existence constantly.


 Yes.

  we are at any given moment digital states can be duplicated, at least in
 principle, and could also be duplicated inside a computer


 Yes.

   The question is, do you agree that if consciousness is computation, a
 duplicator of this sort is at least a theoretical possibility?


 Obviously!

  Arguing about which man is which or who thinks what seems a bit
 pointless.


 Pointless unless you think it is a virtue to quite literally know what you
 are talking about. Bruno keeps throwing around words like I and you and
 he and it is very clear that Bruno doesn't know what those words mean in
 a world with duplicating chambers. Bruno says he has been duplicated, so
 now there are TWO, but then Bruno demands to know the ONE thing and only
 the ONE thing that he will do; and this is nonsense.


You are spitting non-sense... that's not what is asked. He will do *both*
from a 3rd POV but each Bruno can only live *ONE* stream of
consciousness which is *either* M or W, it's not both. So before
duplication, the probability (or measure of you prefer) is 50/50 for the
destinations from the POV if the guy standing in H. *IT'S THE SAME THING IN
MWI SETTING AND I DON'T HEAR YOU CRYING NONSENSE ABOUT IT ON EVERY POST*.
Be consistant and reject MWI as an obvious BS crap.

Quentin




   John k Clark



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Re: A challenge for Craig

2013-10-07 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
On Craig’s use of the term “Aesthetic”.

One of the hindrances preventing me from understanding Craig’s statements
is the pluralistic use of the term “aesthetics”. Sorry for not being able
to produce a proper account but the following conflicts will just be stream
of consciousness for 15 minutes:

Often you use aesthetics in a pre 19th century enlightenment way, as in
rigorous theory of sense, beauty, and harmony in nature and art. At the
same time you use the term as synonymous for qualifying taste, which is
reflected in everyday language use, but has little relation, if any, to
aesthetics as theory.

At other times you use it in Kantian way of transcendental, implying it to
be a source for knowledge (“Ästhetische Erkenntnis” in German) about
ourselves; but then at the same time you ditch distinguishing between form,
existing a priori as transcendental structure which theory studies, and the
impressions created for Kant a posteriori as experience, which is limited
by contexts of time, space, language, and perceptual apparatus in its
potential for us to grasp and study.

So you take the Kantian transcendental idea in part, but make experience by
perceptual apparatus primary to which Kant would reply: “without study and
evolution of timeless form, the arts and our ability to engage new forms of
transcendental experience with the sensory apparatus would stagnate.”

In other words, his objection would be: if we reduce sensory experience to
be the primary aesthetic mode, instead of the bonus and fruits of labors
and histories of theory, then we’d all be waiting for the next movie to be
projected in a theater, but nobody would produce new movies anymore. I’ve
never seen you address this quagmire convincingly. Where does novelty or
its appearance come from if everything makes sense? Why are some aesthetic
objects and presences more self-evident than others?

Then another use you make is aesthetics in semiotic interpretation, i.e.
that we can only sense what is pre-ordained by symbolic systems. This
however robs your use of aesthetics of the primary status you often assert
it to have via sense.

Further, it is not clear whether your use of the term corresponds to
mystical traditions of antique (Beauty as expression of universality,
divinity, or spirituality) or if it is the secular version including and
post Baumgarten.

Then, if sense is universal with aesthetic experience in primary tow, how
do you explain the unique contributions of a Beethoven or Bach? Why can’t
anybody write/find such well crafted triple fuges if sense and aesthetic
experience are universal and give rise to the whole thing in the first
place: everybody should be at least as good as Bach because all engage the
world via sense. So you have to struggle with the 19th century genius
problem, if you reject the primacy of forms beyond sense.

It is also unclear where your model stands in more modern contexts, such as
psychological aesthetics or the route of Fiedler. Sometimes you oppose
aesthetics and rationality (maths and music) but when convenient this is
unified when talking “sense primary”, which produces further obscurity.

Would you agree with G. T. Fechner’s distinctions of “from above” and “from
below” in your approach? If sense and material world experience have
primary status, then you have to accept that we can hone in on the
beautiful via experiment and study beauty empirically. Your model suggests
sense is primary, but I have no way of studying and verifying your claims
other than believing you. Your model is full of explanations, but I find no
avenues for inquiry when I read you, other than that you have your
positions sorted and they are correct.

These are the kind of of conflicts that bar me from understanding your use
of aesthetics. The list isn’t exhaustive and I don’t demand you explain
these. They’re just illustrative of some difficulties I have with
understanding your use. So when you throw around sense, qualia, aesthetic
experience; I have difficulty following because of the jungle of possible
complex interpretations. Which ones Craig? - is what this boils down to
somewhere, I guess. PGC


On Mon, Oct 7, 2013 at 5:20 PM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.comwrote:



 On Monday, October 7, 2013 3:56:55 AM UTC-4, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 06 Oct 2013, at 22:00, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Sunday, October 6, 2013 5:06:31 AM UTC-4, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 06 Oct 2013, at 03:17, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

  On 5 October 2013 00:40, Bruno Marchal mar...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 
  The argument is simply summarised thus: it is impossible even for
  God
  to make a brain prosthesis that reproduces the I/O behaviour but has
  different qualia. This is a proof of comp,
 
 
  Hmm... I can agree, but eventually no God can make such a
  prothesis, only
  because the qualia is an attribute of the immaterial person, and
  not of
  the brain, body, or computer.  Then the prosthesis will manifest
  the person
  if it emulates the correct 

Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-07 Thread John Clark
On Mon, Oct 7, 2013 at 3:50 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  Rhetorical tricks my ass! These are details of profound importance
 simply glossed over with the slapdash use of personal pronouns. And that's
 pretty damn sloppy for a mathematician.


  That's again an unconvincing rhetorical tricks. Be specific please.


Bruno, are you trying to convince people that I haven't made DOZENS of
specific complaints about your sloppy use of personal pronouns that is
unacceptable in a world with duplicating chambers? Are you saying I've
never asked Who the hell is he ? and gotten no reply? Are you really
saying that?!

 The criticism some have with Quantum Mechanics is that what it says is
 very very odd, but odd or not and love it or hate it what Quantum Mechanics
 says is crystal clear



  This is simply false.


What is false, that what Quantum Mechanics says is clear or that what
Quantum Mechanics says is very very odd? I believe both things are true.

  In this list most believe that QM is slightly more understandable with
 the MWI.


And I am a big MWI fan too, I think it's correct and who knows it might
even be correct; but Evolution didn't build my monkey brain for this sort
of thing so I'm not going to pretend I don't find it odd. And as I said
before, whatever the correct interpretation of Quantum Mechanics turns out
to be it's going to be odd.

 If he refers to Bruno Marchal the Helsinki guy then the correct
 prediction  he would make is that he will see Helsinki and only
 Helsinki;



 You can apply that idea to the guy who throw a coin. You would say that
 such a guy can only predict that he will throw a coin. This is ridiculous,
 frankly.


If duplicating chambers were not involved then it would indeed be
ridiculous nit picking, but NOT if they do exist. In your thought
experiments typically the guy is duplicated so now there are TWO, and
then the guy flips a coin and you demand to know what the ONE and only
ONE result that the guy will see. And this is not just ridiculous it is
logically inconsistent.

 your remark is met by the  Dt in the formal approach


Well I'm glad you cleared that up.

 but it is met by simple common sense in UDA.


Common sense will be just as useful in understanding how things work in a
world with duplication chambers in it as it is in understanding how Quantum
Mechanics or your Universal Dance Association proof works. Not very.

  John K Clark

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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-07 Thread meekerdb

On 10/7/2013 7:02 AM, Telmo Menezes wrote:

On Mon, Oct 7, 2013 at 3:20 PM, chris peck chris_peck...@hotmail.com wrote:

Quentin



Either you should say probability are non sensical in the MWI or if you
accept them with the MWI, you should accept them the same way with the comp
duplication experience.

But MWI does have a problem when it comes to probabilities and it is taken
very seriously by Everetians and their critics.

In MWI any probabilities are a measure of ignorance rather than genuine
chance, because all outcomes are realised. Any theory of everything will, I
suspect, be similar in that regard.

So what sense does it make in MWI to ask of the probabilities associated
with one of two outcomes, if both are certain? It doesn't really make sense
at all.

It seems particularly acute to me for Bruno's experiment because at least in
MWI worlds split on the basis of things we can not predict. There is no
equivalent 'roll of the die' in Bruno's step 3. I know I am going to be
duplicated. I know where I am going to be sent. I know by 'yes doctor' I
will survive. Why shouldn't I expect to see both outcomes? After all, there
is not two of me yet ...

But I think you are right. In general it would be inconsistent to regard
Bruno's theory, but not MWI, of having issues here.

I propose that the main insight that is necessary here is that, when
there is some split (quantum choice, duplication machine, whatever),
_both_ copies are conscious and _both_ feel that they are a real
continuation of the original. But looking at it from the first person,
each copy has no way of accessing the point of view of the other copy.
Uncertainty arises from the lack of information that each first person
perspective has about the entire picture. This, in fact, explains
probabilities in a more convincing way than the more conventional
models, because in more conventional models you have to live with this
weird idea of randomness that seems to defy explanation.


But the complete symmetry of the duplication makes it too easy.  If the probabilities are 
1/3 and 2/3 are three worlds instantiated in MWI or only two worlds with different 
weights.  What if the probabilities are 1/pi and (1-1/pi)?  Or (1-epsilon) and epsilon, 
where epsilon is just to account for all those things you haven't thought of, but are 
really improbable?




So when you make a statement about the probability of something
happening, you are always making a statement about a possible


There's where the problem comes in - what does possible cover?

Brent


continuation of your first person experience and nothing more. In
fact, happening becomes an entirely 1p concept. This does not prove
anything but it does fit what we observe without the need for a
mysterious property called randomness.

You don't have to be suicidal to say yes to the doctor because what
the doctor is going to do to you happens all the time anyway.

I think.

Telmo.



From: allco...@gmail.com
Date: Mon, 7 Oct 2013 14:03:53 +0200

Subject: Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com





2013/10/7 chris peck chris_peck...@hotmail.com

Hi Bruno



Are you saying that the step 3 would provide a logical reason to say no
to the doctor, and thus abandoning comp?

I'm saying only the suicidal would expect a 50/50 chance of experiencing
Moscow (or Washington) after teleportation and then say yes to the doctor.

regards



It makes no sense, in the comp settings it is 100% sure you'll experience a
next moment... the thing is, it's that there is two of you after
duplication, both experience something M o W, the 50/50 is a probability
expectation before duplication... it has the *exact same sense* as
probability in MWI setting... it's the same.

Either you should say probability are non sensical in the MWI or if you
accept them with the MWI, you should accept them the same way with the comp
duplication experience.

Quentin





From: marc...@ulb.ac.be

To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?
Date: Mon, 7 Oct 2013 10:34:19 +0200



On 06 Oct 2013, at 22:48, LizR wrote:

On 7 October 2013 06:48, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

On Sun, Oct 6, 2013 at 3:43 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


The M-guy is the H-guy  (the M-guy remembers having been the H-guy)


The  H-guy turns into the M-guy, but they are not identical just as you are
not identical with the Bruno Marchal of yesterday.


This is true, but it's also something Bruno has said many times.


Thanks for noticing.


If comp is correct (to the extent that the mind is a computation, at least)
then this is happening all the time. Heraclitus was right, you aren't the
same person even from one second to the next. I thought that was partly the
point that Bruno's step 3 was making. If comp, then we exist as steps in a
computation,


Well we exists at each step, but we are not step. Also, mind is 

Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-07 Thread John Mikes
Bruno, I tried to control my mouse for a long time

The M guy is NOT the Y guy, when he remembers having been the Y guy.
Yes, you said it many times, but NOW again! Has this list no consequential
resolution?
Some people seem to have inexhaustible patience!

It was in the past and in the meantime lots happened to 'M that probably
did (not? or quite differently?) happen to 'Y' and you are not that
youngster who went to school, no matter how identical you 'feel' to be.
That argument (taking thousands times more on this list than it deserves)
is false:
it leaves out the CHANGING of the world we LIVE IN (considered usually as
time???)

So I try to stay in the reality where 'panta rhei'.
...and I am not identical to the guy I WAS. (Some accused people use such
arguments as well in court, but that is another table.)

John M


On Mon, Oct 7, 2013 at 3:31 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 06 Oct 2013, at 19:03, meekerdb wrote:

  On 10/6/2013 12:43 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


  On 05 Oct 2013, at 19:55, John Clark wrote:

  On Sat, Oct 5, 2013 at 12:28 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

you have agreed that all bruno marchal are the original one (a case
 where Leibniz identity rule fails,


 If you're talking about Leibniz Identity of indiscernibles it most
 certainly has NOT failed.


  I was talking on the rule:

  a = b
 a = c
 entails that b = c

  The M-guy is the H-guy  (the M-guy remembers having been the H-guy)
 The W-guy is the H-guy  (the W-guy  remembers having been the H-guy)
 But the M-guy is not the W-guy (in the sense that the M-guy will not
 remember having been the W-guy, and reciprocally).

  The rest are unconvincing rhetorical tricks, already answered, and
 which, btw,  can be done for the quantum indeterminacy, as many people
 showed to you. Each time we talk about the prediction the he refer to the
 guy in Helsinki before the duplication, after the duplication, we mention
 if we talk of the guy in M or in W, or of both, and look at their
 individual confirmation or refutation of their prediction done in Helsinki.
 We just look at diaries, and I have made those things clear, but you talk
 like if you don't try to understand.

  There is nothing controversial, and you fake misunderstanding of the
 most easy part of the reasoning.
 Not sure what is your agenda, but it is clear that you are not interested
 in learning.


 Well there is still *some* controversy; mainly about how the
 indeterminancy is to be interpreted as a probability.  There's some good
 discussion here,
 http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/20802/why-is-gleasons-theorem-not-enough-to-obtain-born-rule-in-many-worlds-interpret
 especially the last comment by Ron Maimon.


 I was talking on the arithmetical FPI, or even just the local probability
 for duplication protocol. This has nothing to do with QM, except when using
 the MWI as a confirmation of the mùany dreams.

 Having said that I don't agree with the preferred base problem. That
 problem comes from the fact that our computations can make sense only in
 the base where we have evolved abilities to make some distinction. The
 difficulty is for physicists believing in worlds, but there are only
 knowledge states of observer/dreamers.

 But I insist, here, what I said was not controversial is that in the WM
 duplication thought experience, *with the precise protocol given*, we have
 an indeterminacy, indeed even a P = 1/2 situation. The quantum case is
 notoriously more difficult (due indeed to the lack of definition of
 world), but it seems to me that Everett use both Gleason theorem + a sort
 of FPI (more or less implicitly).

 Bruno


 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-07 Thread meekerdb

On 10/7/2013 1:32 PM, John Mikes wrote:

Bruno, I tried to control my mouse for a long time

The M guy is NOT the Y guy, when he remembers having been the Y guy.
Yes, you said it many times, but NOW again! Has this list no consequential 
resolution?
Some people seem to have inexhaustible patience!

It was in the past and in the meantime lots happened to 'M that probably did (not? or 
quite differently?) happen to 'Y' and you are not that youngster who went to school, no 
matter how identical you 'feel' to be.

That argument (taking thousands times more on this list than it deserves) is 
false:
it leaves out the CHANGING of the world we LIVE IN (considered usually as 
time???)

So I try to stay in the reality where 'panta rhei'.
...and I am not identical to the guy I WAS. (Some accused people use such arguments as 
well in court, but that is another table.)


Who wrote that?  :-)

Brent

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Re: The ultimate reason of knowledge faith power and entrophy reduction, computabilty, evolution, the universe and everithing

2013-10-07 Thread John Mikes
Bruno: you wrote:

*The US constitution is very good, but is not really followed, and things
like prohibition have put bandits into power, who have broken the important
separation of powers.*
*Lobbying and the role of money in politics should be revised. But we are a
bit out of topic here, I think.*
*
*
Out of topic of everything? OK, OK, I know. But the US Constitution (IMO)
HAS BEEN very good in a 300+ year old societal view - drawn by duelling,
pipe-smoking, hunting male chauvinist slave-owner despots to organize the
'colonies' NOT TO PAY taxes to the King of England. Now, the Supreme
Court's oldies (probably younger than me) valuate the 18th c. language
for the 21st c. life in a many times skewed sense.
*Lobbying *I call buying votes for a special interest, *money* is not
talk and *corporation* is not a 'person' (as e.g. a citizen). And so on.
JM


On Mon, Oct 7, 2013 at 3:39 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 06 Oct 2013, at 18:08, Alberto G. Corona wrote:

 Some academies are just prostituted to rotten (sometime) politics, often
 just to get enough funding to survive.

 Money is not the problem. Black, obscure and grey money is the problem.

 Wait, this is indeed the most fundamental question!

 *How knowledge interact with money and power in society and convert
 itself in beliefs as a system that prevent further knowledge must be an
 integral part of research. *
 *
 *
 *For me this meta-knowledge about knowledge faith and power is a more
 fundamental question than knowledge itself.*

 ---

 I think that people don' t want knowledge primarily.


 Ha Ha ... That reminds me when my father told me that truth is what humans
 fear the most and like the less.



 What they aim at, is like any living being, and in fact, like any stable
 dynamic auto-regulated structure, is * to reduce uncertainty*.


 The humans oscillate between security/certainty/control and
 freedom/uncertainty/universality. Basically that is why we vote, to have a
 sort of equilibrium in between.




 That fit with many considerations at different levels, and embrace
 conclussions of evolution, game theory, computability, social science
 psychology and entropy.


  That explain how knowledge interact with power (and money and you wish)
 and faith. As I will explain:

 To reduce uncertainty can be achieved adquiring pure knowledge of the
 world around in order to predict better the future.

 But it can also be achieved by adquiring for themselves money or power, or
 love from other people, or commitment from tem, or respect, or common
 commintment to something or someone.

 The fact is that pure knowledge is not enoug. Money is not enough, power
 is not enough, since neither of them work without a committed society that
 make use of this knowledge in an organized way, that respect the money
 value and other properties, that has fair mechanism for adquiring power and
 legitimacy, and more that that, a society with a  clear plan for our
 sibiling and generations to come.

 Thinking materialistically (I´m not but for a matter of argument) there is
 no social vehicle for our genes if the society have all these requirements,
 and, more important, no people that had not these requirements ullfilled
 survived, so we have inherited this natural seeking for all these kinds of
 uncertainty reduction mechanism around us.

 Some societies make enphasis in one kind of uncertainty reduction. Others
 rely more in other different in this equation. These different uncertainty
 reduction alternatives are one against the other. A strict hiearchi of
 power and legitimacy based on an enforced supernatural plan is a excellent
 uncertainty reduction for a stable society that does not need to change. In
 the other side, adquring knowledge is good, but that may challenge the
 structure, questionin legitimacies and creating civil wars, that can be
 pacific or violent. When there is no common plans nor loyaltyes, the
 pacific disputes become violent almos by defintion.

 A lot of philosophy on all their branches can be extracted from this
 starting point.


 The US constitution is very good, but is not really followed, and things
 like prohibition have put bandits into power, who have broken the important
 separation of powers.

 Lobbying and the role of money in politics should be revised. But we are a
 bit out of topic here, I think.

 Bruno







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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-07 Thread John Mikes
M


On Mon, Oct 7, 2013 at 4:38 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 10/7/2013 1:32 PM, John Mikes wrote:

 Bruno, I tried to control my mouse for a long time

 The M guy is NOT the Y guy, when he remembers having been the Y guy.
 Yes, you said it many times, but NOW again! Has this list no consequential
 resolution?
 Some people seem to have inexhaustible patience!

  It was in the past and in the meantime lots happened to 'M that
 probably did (not? or quite differently?) happen to 'Y' and you are not
 that youngster who went to school, no matter how identical you 'feel' to
 be.
 That argument (taking thousands times more on this list than it deserves)
 is false:
 it leaves out the CHANGING of the world we LIVE IN (considered usually as
 time???)

  So I try to stay in the reality where 'panta rhei'.
 ...and I am not identical to the guy I WAS. (Some accused people use such
 arguments as well in court, but that is another table.)


 Who wrote that?  :-)

 Brent

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Re: The ultimate reason of knowledge faith power and entrophy reduction, computabilty, evolution, the universe and everithing

2013-10-07 Thread LizR
One thing wrong with the US constitution is that the right to bear arms
meant muskets and flintlock pistols at the time, but has been extended to,
for example, semi-automatic weapons. The people who wrote it were only
aware of single-shot weapons, even the colt revolver hadn't been invented!
If they're so keen to extend the original meaning to what are in effect
weapons of mass destruction, why not, say, let citizens build nuclear bombs
if they want to?


On 8 October 2013 09:58, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:

 Bruno: you wrote:

 *The US constitution is very good, but is not really followed, and things
 like prohibition have put bandits into power, who have broken the important
 separation of powers.*
 *Lobbying and the role of money in politics should be revised. But we are
 a bit out of topic here, I think.*
 *
 *
 Out of topic of everything? OK, OK, I know. But the US Constitution
 (IMO) HAS BEEN very good in a 300+ year old societal view - drawn by
 duelling, pipe-smoking, hunting male chauvinist slave-owner despots to
 organize the 'colonies' NOT TO PAY taxes to the King of England. Now, the
 Supreme Court's oldies (probably younger than me) valuate the 18th c.
 language for the 21st c. life in a many times skewed sense.
 *Lobbying *I call buying votes for a special interest, *money* is not
 talk and *corporation* is not a 'person' (as e.g. a citizen). And so on.
 JM


 On Mon, Oct 7, 2013 at 3:39 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 06 Oct 2013, at 18:08, Alberto G. Corona wrote:

 Some academies are just prostituted to rotten (sometime) politics, often
 just to get enough funding to survive.

 Money is not the problem. Black, obscure and grey money is the problem.

 Wait, this is indeed the most fundamental question!

 *How knowledge interact with money and power in society and convert
 itself in beliefs as a system that prevent further knowledge must be an
 integral part of research. *
 *
 *
 *For me this meta-knowledge about knowledge faith and power is a more
 fundamental question than knowledge itself.*

 ---

 I think that people don' t want knowledge primarily.


 Ha Ha ... That reminds me when my father told me that truth is what
 humans fear the most and like the less.



 What they aim at, is like any living being, and in fact, like any stable
 dynamic auto-regulated structure, is * to reduce uncertainty*.


 The humans oscillate between security/certainty/control and
 freedom/uncertainty/universality. Basically that is why we vote, to have a
 sort of equilibrium in between.




 That fit with many considerations at different levels, and embrace
 conclussions of evolution, game theory, computability, social science
 psychology and entropy.


  That explain how knowledge interact with power (and money and you wish)
 and faith. As I will explain:

 To reduce uncertainty can be achieved adquiring pure knowledge of the
 world around in order to predict better the future.

 But it can also be achieved by adquiring for themselves money or power,
 or love from other people, or commitment from tem, or respect, or common
 commintment to something or someone.

 The fact is that pure knowledge is not enoug. Money is not enough, power
 is not enough, since neither of them work without a committed society that
 make use of this knowledge in an organized way, that respect the money
 value and other properties, that has fair mechanism for adquiring power and
 legitimacy, and more that that, a society with a  clear plan for our
 sibiling and generations to come.

 Thinking materialistically (I´m not but for a matter of argument) there
 is no social vehicle for our genes if the society have all these
 requirements, and, more important, no people that had not these
 requirements ullfilled survived, so we have inherited this natural seeking
 for all these kinds of uncertainty reduction mechanism around us.

 Some societies make enphasis in one kind of uncertainty reduction. Others
 rely more in other different in this equation. These different uncertainty
 reduction alternatives are one against the other. A strict hiearchi of
 power and legitimacy based on an enforced supernatural plan is a excellent
 uncertainty reduction for a stable society that does not need to change. In
 the other side, adquring knowledge is good, but that may challenge the
 structure, questionin legitimacies and creating civil wars, that can be
 pacific or violent. When there is no common plans nor loyaltyes, the
 pacific disputes become violent almos by defintion.

 A lot of philosophy on all their branches can be extracted from this
 starting point.


 The US constitution is very good, but is not really followed, and things
 like prohibition have put bandits into power, who have broken the important
 separation of powers.

 Lobbying and the role of money in politics should be revised. But we are
 a bit out of topic here, I think.

 Bruno







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Re: What gives philosophers a bad name?

2013-10-07 Thread LizR
Why is there such a huge argument about this duplication chamber business?
It seems to be not getting anywhere. Could you perhaps go back to the
original statement of step 3 and use that to point out what is wrong?

From memory step 3 was - Helsinki man is teleported to both Washington and
Moscow. From his perspective, what is his chance of arriving in Moscow (or
Washington) ?

This strikes me as analogous to Schrodinger's Cat. The experimenter asks
what is the chance that he will see a live cat? He is talking in a folk
sense I suppose, because in reality he will split into two people and see
both. But like Moscow man, after the split it will seem as though he had a
50-50 chance of seeing either, so there is at least a sense of 1p
indeterminacy which is clealy, to anyone else 3p certainty - that he
will see both a live and a dead cat, or that H-man will see both W and M.
This is just Everett's explanation for quantum indeterminacy applied to a
mind, assumed to be duplicable (as comp assumes it is just the current
state of an ongoing computation).

Seems fairly straightforward to me, is there a problem with any of that?

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Re: The ultimate reason of knowledge faith power and entrophy reduction, computabilty, evolution, the universe and everithing

2013-10-07 Thread meekerdb

On 10/7/2013 3:01 PM, LizR wrote:
One thing wrong with the US constitution is that the right to bear arms meant muskets 
and flintlock pistols at the time, but has been extended to, for example, semi-automatic 
weapons. The people who wrote it were only aware of single-shot weapons, even the colt 
revolver hadn't been invented! If they're so keen to extend the original meaning to what 
are in effect weapons of mass destruction, why not, say, let citizens build nuclear 
bombs if they want to?


The second amendment was adopted by people who had just fought as rebels against the army 
of an oppressive government.  So their intent was plainly to ensure that any new central 
government could be overthrown as well should it become oppressive.  So the arms an 
individual should have a right to bear would be the same as those issued to individual 
soldiers in the military, i.e. assault rifles (which are issued to everyone in 
Switzerland).  Because of the media coverage of rare multiple shootings and because 
assault rifles look scarier, most people don't realize that 97% of gun deaths in the U.S. 
involve handguns. The Supreme Court could easily uphold a ban on handguns and still 
support the intent of the 2nd amendment and not interfere with hunting; but no state has 
tried such a ban.


I think that the examples of Poland, South Africa, the USSR, India, and Egypt indicate 
that overthrow of oppressive governments can be done by unarmed citizens, and if so that's 
the better way.  But it's clearly not the example the authors of the U.S. constitution had 
before them.


Brent

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Re: The ultimate reason of knowledge faith power and entrophy reduction, computabilty, evolution, the universe and everithing

2013-10-07 Thread LizR
Yes of course it's mostly handguns, just as most deaths aren't due to mass
shootings. Handguns are more common (cheaper, and easier to conceal if you
intend to commit a crime). Firearms cause around 30,000 deaths/year in the
US, apparently (plus about 70,000 injuries) - about the same number as car
accidents - yet the budget for research into preventing gun deaths is,
guess what, only one 20th of the budget for preventing car accidents. It's
almost as though there's a conspiracy ... oh, wait, there is!

Apparently there are 315 million people living in the US, who between them
own 300 million guns, and 260 million cars.



On 8 October 2013 11:25, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 On 10/7/2013 3:01 PM, LizR wrote:

 One thing wrong with the US constitution is that the right to bear arms
 meant muskets and flintlock pistols at the time, but has been extended to,
 for example, semi-automatic weapons. The people who wrote it were only
 aware of single-shot weapons, even the colt revolver hadn't been invented!
 If they're so keen to extend the original meaning to what are in effect
 weapons of mass destruction, why not, say, let citizens build nuclear bombs
 if they want to?


 The second amendment was adopted by people who had just fought as rebels
 against the army of an oppressive government.  So their intent was plainly
 to ensure that any new central government could be overthrown as well
 should it become oppressive.  So the arms an individual should have a right
 to bear would be the same as those issued to individual soldiers in the
 military, i.e. assault rifles (which are issued to everyone in
 Switzerland).  Because of the media coverage of rare multiple shootings and
 because assault rifles look scarier, most people don't realize that 97% of
 gun deaths in the U.S. involve handguns. The Supreme Court could easily
 uphold a ban on handguns and still support the intent of the 2nd amendment
 and not interfere with hunting; but no state has tried such a ban.

 I think that the examples of Poland, South Africa, the USSR, India, and
 Egypt indicate that overthrow of oppressive governments can be done by
 unarmed citizens, and if so that's the better way.  But it's clearly not
 the example the authors of the U.S. constitution had before them.

 Brent


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Re: The ultimate reason of knowledge faith power and entrophy reduction, computabilty, evolution, the universe and everithing

2013-10-07 Thread meekerdb

On 10/7/2013 4:14 PM, LizR wrote:
Yes of course it's mostly handguns, just as most deaths aren't due to mass shootings. 
Handguns are more common (cheaper, and easier to conceal if you intend to commit a 
crime). Firearms cause around 30,000 deaths/year in the US,


Of which 2/3 were suicides.  I don't think the government has a right to 
prevent suicides.

apparently (plus about 70,000 injuries) - about the same number as car accidents - yet 
the budget for research into preventing gun deaths is, guess what, only one 20th of the 
budget for preventing car accidents.


That would depend a lot on the accounting.  You could say that all police budgets are for 
preventing gun deaths due to homicide.  And exactly what would you expect such research to 
do; conclude that guns that wouldn't fire would prevent gun deaths.  It's kinda the point 
of guns that they can kill things.  With cars it's an accident.  And car accidents kill 
six times as many people as guns, 18 times as many if you discount suicides.



It's almost as though there's a conspiracy ... oh, wait, there is!

Apparently there are 315 million people living in the US, who between them own 300 
million guns, and 260 million cars.


And about two billion pairs of shoes and 250 million TV sets.  So what?  Is there some 
prescribed, right number for these things?


Brent





On 8 October 2013 11:25, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
wrote:


On 10/7/2013 3:01 PM, LizR wrote:

One thing wrong with the US constitution is that the right to bear 
arms meant
muskets and flintlock pistols at the time, but has been extended to, for
example, semi-automatic weapons. The people who wrote it were only 
aware of
single-shot weapons, even the colt revolver hadn't been invented! If 
they're so
keen to extend the original meaning to what are in effect weapons of 
mass
destruction, why not, say, let citizens build nuclear bombs if they 
want to?


The second amendment was adopted by people who had just fought as rebels 
against the
army of an oppressive government.  So their intent was plainly to ensure 
that any
new central government could be overthrown as well should it become 
oppressive.  So
the arms an individual should have a right to bear would be the same as 
those issued
to individual soldiers in the military, i.e. assault rifles (which are 
issued to
everyone in Switzerland).  Because of the media coverage of rare multiple 
shootings
and because assault rifles look scarier, most people don't realize that 97% 
of gun
deaths in the U.S. involve handguns. The Supreme Court could easily uphold 
a ban on
handguns and still support the intent of the 2nd amendment and not 
interfere with
hunting; but no state has tried such a ban.

I think that the examples of Poland, South Africa, the USSR, India, and 
Egypt
indicate that overthrow of oppressive governments can be done by unarmed 
citizens,
and if so that's the better way.  But it's clearly not the example the 
authors of
the U.S. constitution had before them.

Brent


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Re: A challenge for Craig

2013-10-07 Thread Craig Weinberg
I can understand why it seems that my use of 'aesthetic' (and sense) is all 
over the place, and part of that is because I am trying to prompt others to 
make a connection between all of the different uses of the word. What I 
like about aesthetic is:

Anesthetic is used to refer to both general unconsciousness and local 
numbness. This hints at a natural link between sensitivity and 
consciousness. The loss of consciousness is a general an-aesthesia.

Aesthetic also has a connotation of patterns which are intended to be 
appreciated artistically or decoratively rather than for function. For 
example, there is a specific difference between red and green that is not 
reflected in the difference between wavelength measurements. We might 
explain the fact *that* there seem to be X number of functional breakpoints 
within the E-M continuum because of the function of our optical system, but 
there is no functional accounting for the the aesthetic presence of red or 
green. The aesthetic of red or green is far more than a recognition that 
there is a functional difference between E-M wavelengths associated with 
one part of the continuum or another.

Aesthetic then is a synonym for qualia, but without the nebulous baggage of 
that term. It just means something that is experienced directly as a 
presentation of sight, sound, touch, taste, etc - whether as a dream or 
imagined shape or a public object. When we hook up a video monitor to a 
computer, we are giving ourselves an aesthetic interface with which to 
display the anesthetic functions of software. Of course, I think that the 
entire cosmos is aesthetic, so that the functions of software are not 
absolutely anesthetic, but whatever aesthetic dimensions they have arise at 
the level of physics, not on the logical level that we have abstracted on 
top of it. A computer made of gears and pumps has no common aesthetic with 
an electronic computer, even though they may be running what we think is 
the same program, the program itself is an expectation, not a presence. 

There are common aesthetic themes within physics which give computation a 
ready medium in any group of rigid bodies that can be controlled reliably, 
but they cannot be made to scale up qualitatively from the outside in. If 
they could, we might expect the pixels of a video screen to realize that 
they are all contributing to a coherent image and merge into a more 
intelligent unified pixel-less screen. The fact that we can take a set of 
data in a computer and make it play as music or an image or text output is 
evidence that computation is blind to of higher aesthetic qualities.


On Monday, October 7, 2013 1:24:58 PM UTC-4, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:

 On Craig’s use of the term “Aesthetic”.

 One of the hindrances preventing me from understanding Craig’s statements 
 is the pluralistic use of the term “aesthetics”. Sorry for not being able 
 to produce a proper account but the following conflicts will just be stream 
 of consciousness for 15 minutes:

 Often you use aesthetics in a pre 19th century enlightenment way, as in 
 rigorous theory of sense, beauty, and harmony in nature and art. At the 
 same time you use the term as synonymous for qualifying taste, which is 
 reflected in everyday language use, but has little relation, if any, to 
 aesthetics as theory. 

 At other times you use it in Kantian way of transcendental, implying it to 
 be a source for knowledge (“Ästhetische Erkenntnis” in German) about 
 ourselves; but then at the same time you ditch distinguishing between form, 
 existing a priori as transcendental structure which theory studies, and the 
 impressions created for Kant a posteriori as experience, which is limited 
 by contexts of time, space, language, and perceptual apparatus in its 
 potential for us to grasp and study.

 So you take the Kantian transcendental idea in part, but make experience 
 by perceptual apparatus primary to which Kant would reply: “without study 
 and evolution of timeless form, the arts and our ability to engage new 
 forms of transcendental experience with the sensory apparatus would 
 stagnate.” 

 In other words, his objection would be: if we reduce sensory experience to 
 be the primary aesthetic mode, instead of the bonus and fruits of labors 
 and histories of theory, then we’d all be waiting for the next movie to be 
 projected in a theater, but nobody would produce new movies anymore. I’ve 
 never seen you address this quagmire convincingly. Where does novelty or 
 its appearance come from if everything makes sense? Why are some aesthetic 
 objects and presences more self-evident than others?

 Then another use you make is aesthetics in semiotic interpretation, i.e. 
 that we can only sense what is pre-ordained by symbolic systems. This 
 however robs your use of aesthetics of the primary status you often assert 
 it to have via sense.

 Further, it is not clear whether your use of the term corresponds to 
 mystical traditions 

Re: The ultimate reason of knowledge faith power and entrophy reduction, computabilty, evolution, the universe and everithing

2013-10-07 Thread LizR
On 8 October 2013 12:57, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 10/7/2013 4:14 PM, LizR wrote:

  Yes of course it's mostly handguns, just as most deaths aren't due to
 mass shootings. Handguns are more common (cheaper, and easier to conceal if
 you intend to commit a crime). Firearms cause around 30,000 deaths/year in
 the US,


 Of which 2/3 were suicides.  I don't think the government has a right to
 prevent suicides.


Good point, I didn't realise that. I agree with you there, although I would
be interested to know how the suicide rate compares to countries with less
easily available (or certain) methods. Perhaps some suicides wouldn't have
carried it through without it being so easy, and would have gone on to
overcome their suicidal depression and live happy and fulfilling lives (I
managed it. I wonder how I would have fared if there had been a firearm
handy...)

 apparently (plus about 70,000 injuries) - about the same number as car
accidents - yet the budget for research into preventing gun deaths is,
guess what, only one 20th of the budget for preventing car accidents.


That would depend a lot on the accounting.  You could say that all police
 budgets are for preventing gun deaths due to homicide.  And exactly what
 would you expect such research to do; conclude that guns that wouldn't fire
 would prevent gun deaths.  It's kinda the point of guns that they can kill
 things.  With cars it's an accident.  And car accidents kill six times as
 many people as guns, 18 times as many if you discount suicides.

 I guess this Wintemute guy in New Scientist got his stats wrong, then.
(He's some sort of researcher into this field, too, so a surprising
mistake.) He placed the numbers at about equal.

Yes, why guns kill people is a no-brainer, which is why most countries
don't allow them to be available to everyone in apparently unlimited
quantities. But apparently the US doesn't agree with that, and requires
people to do research on the subject (and then makes publishing their
results illegal, or so I'm told).

 It's almost as though there's a conspiracy ... oh, wait, there is!
 Apparently there are 315 million people living in the US, who between them
own 300 million guns, and 260 million cars.


And about two billion pairs of shoes and 250 million TV sets.  So what?  Is
 there some prescribed, right number for these things?


That's a strange comment. Given that the topic under discussion is guns in
the US, and a comparison was made with cars, it seems reasonable to fill in
a few extra pieces of gun and car related background information. And
obviously these both relate to the population - a million guns in a
population of 100,000 would seem more significant than if the population
was 1 billion - don't you think?

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Re: The ultimate reason of knowledge faith power and entrophy reduction, computabilty, evolution, the universe and everithing

2013-10-07 Thread meekerdb

On 10/7/2013 5:29 PM, LizR wrote:
On 8 October 2013 12:57, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
wrote:


On 10/7/2013 4:14 PM, LizR wrote:

Yes of course it's mostly handguns, just as most deaths aren't due to mass
shootings. Handguns are more common (cheaper, and easier to conceal if you 
intend
to commit a crime). Firearms cause around 30,000 deaths/year in the US,


Of which 2/3 were suicides.  I don't think the government has a right to 
prevent
suicides.


Good point, I didn't realise that. I agree with you there, although I would be 
interested to know how the suicide rate compares to countries with less easily available 
(or certain) methods. Perhaps some suicides wouldn't have carried it through without it 
being so easy, and would have gone on to overcome their suicidal depression and live 
happy and fulfilling lives (I managed it. I wonder how I would have fared if there had 
been a firearm handy...)


Yes, I'm sure availability has an effect.  Switzerland which has a very low homicide rate 
but high gun availability, has a higher suicide rate by gun than the U.S.  But Finland has 
an even higher one - suicide rate seems to go with low population density and lack of 
sunshine.


apparently (plus about 70,000 injuries) - about the same number as car accidents - yet 
the budget for research into preventing gun deaths is, guess what, only one 20th of the 
budget for preventing car accidents.


That would depend a lot on the accounting.  You could say that all police 
budgets
are for preventing gun deaths due to homicide. And exactly what would you 
expect
such research to do; conclude that guns that wouldn't fire would prevent gun
deaths.  It's kinda the point of guns that they can kill things.  With cars 
it's an
accident.  And car accidents kill six times as many people as guns, 18 
times as many
if you discount suicides.

I guess this Wintemute guy in New Scientist got his stats wrong, then. (He's some sort 
of researcher into this field, too, so a surprising mistake.) He placed the numbers at 
about equal.


No, he was right and I was wrong.  I checked and I had inadvertently compared gun deaths 
(about 30,000) to all injury deaths (180,000). Auto deaths are about (33,000).




Yes, why guns kill people is a no-brainer, which is why most countries don't allow them 
to be available to everyone in apparently unlimited quantities. But apparently the US 
doesn't agree with that, and requires people to do research on the subject (and then 
makes publishing their results illegal, or so I'm told).


Not exactly.  Congress just stopped funding the CDC to study gun violence; no doubt due to 
various lobbying pressures.  But I think they still include gun death and injury in their 
statistical summaries.  Anyone who wants to can study and publish whatever they want.



It's almost as though there's a conspiracy ... oh, wait, there is!
Apparently there are 315 million people living in the US, who between them own 300 
million guns, and 260 million cars.


And about two billion pairs of shoes and 250 million TV sets.  So what?  Is 
there
some prescribed, right number for these things?


That's a strange comment. Given that the topic under discussion is guns in the US, and a 
comparison was made with cars, it seems reasonable to fill in a few extra pieces of gun 
and car related background information. And obviously these both relate to the 
population - a million guns in a population of 100,000 would seem more significant than 
if the population was 1 billion - don't you think?


I guess.  But my point is that people decided to have three television sets and seven 
pairs of shoes and three guns and two cars and...  So who is to say, No, you can decide 
how many shoes and TVs and cars you want, but you can't decide how many guns you want.  I 
own six guns, only two of which I bought (I inherited the others).


Brent

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Re: The ultimate reason of knowledge faith power and entrophy reduction, computabilty, evolution, the universe and everithing

2013-10-07 Thread LizR
I've found the article I read...

http://www.slate.com/articles/health_and_science/new_scientist/2013/10/gun_violence_epidemiology_garen_wintemute_on_mental_illness_and_background.html

Unfortunately I haven't been able to find where I read that there would be
restrictions on what research into gun control would be allowed to say.
Whatever it was implied that it would be illegal to draw certain
conclusions, but until I come across it again I will have to leave that one
aside.

By the way, here is the main reason I object to gun cultures...

http://readersupportednews.org/off-site-news-section/417-gun-control-/19650-children-and-guns-the-hidden-toll

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Re: The ultimate reason of knowledge faith power and entrophy reduction, computabilty, evolution, the universe and everithing

2013-10-07 Thread LizR
Oops, silly me, it was in the very same article. I missed it when I skimmed
through to check...

*TO: After recent mass shootings, hasn't funding for gun violence research
 received more attention?*
 *GM:* There is a proposal in Congress to allow for $10 million in
 research funding. But I suspect it essentially has no chance of making it.
 Even if it did, our Department of Health and Human Services prohibits any
 of the funds from being 
 usedhttp://www.slate.com/articles/health_and_science/science/2012/12/gun_violence_research_nra_and_congress_blocked_gun_control_studies_at_cdc.html,
 and I'm quoting directly here, “to advocate or promote gun 
 controlhttp://grants.nih.gov/grants/guide/rfa-files/RFA-CE-07-001.html.”
 That means even if I had money to do the research, it would be a crime to
 talk about the policy implications.


Here's the article he links to:

http://www.slate.com/articles/health_and_science/science/2012/12/gun_violence_research_nra_and_congress_blocked_gun_control_studies_at_cdc.html

And here is the grant, with the prohibition mentioned:

http://grants.nih.gov/grants/guide/rfa-files/RFA-CE-07-001.html

I assume this is the relevant bit:

 *Prohibition on Use of CDC Funds for Certain Gun Control Activities*
 The Departments of Labor, Health and Human Services, and Education, and
 Related Agencies Appropriations Act specifies that: None of the funds
 made available for injury prevention and control at the Centers for Disease
 Control and Prevention may be used to advocate or promote gun control.

 Anti-Lobbying Act requirements prohibit lobbying Congress with
 appropriated Federal monies. Specifically, this Act prohibits the use of
 Federal funds for direct or indirect communications intended or designed to
 influence a member of Congress with regard to specific Federal legislation.
 This prohibition includes the funding and assistance of public grassroots
 campaigns intended or designed to influence members of Congress with regard
 to specific legislation or appropriation by Congress.

 In addition to the restrictions in the Anti-Lobbying Act, CDC interprets
 the language in the CDC's Appropriations Act to mean that CDC's funds may
 not be spent on political action or other activities designed to affect the
 passage of specific Federal, State, or local legislation intended to
 restrict or control the purchase or use of firearms.

So the implication *seems *to be that if the research discovered that the
best way to stop people being killed and injured by guns was gun control,
it wouldn't be allowed to say so.

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Re: The ultimate reason of knowledge faith power and entrophy reduction, computabilty, evolution, the universe and everithing

2013-10-07 Thread meekerdb

On 10/7/2013 8:15 PM, LizR wrote:
Oops, silly me, it was in the very same article. I missed it when I skimmed through to 
check...


*TO: After recent mass shootings, hasn't funding for gun violence research 
received
more attention?*
*GM:* There is a proposal in Congress to allow for $10 million in research 
funding.
But I suspect it essentially has no chance of making it. Even if it did, our
Department of Health and Human Services prohibits any of the funds from 
being used

http://www.slate.com/articles/health_and_science/science/2012/12/gun_violence_research_nra_and_congress_blocked_gun_control_studies_at_cdc.html,
and I'm quoting directly here, “to advocate or promote gun control
http://grants.nih.gov/grants/guide/rfa-files/RFA-CE-07-001.html.” That 
means even
if I had money to do the research, it would be a crime to talk about the 
policy
implications.



That assumes the result of the research would imply gun control. Would the research 
consider the possibility of armed revolt against and oppressive government which was the 
original motivation for the 2nd amendment?  Would he consider the value of recreational 
hunting?  I think not.  I think the researcher had already assumed his conclusion.  Just 
because a certain device results in people being killed and injured is not sufficient 
reason for banning it. I'm sure there would be fewer deaths per year if motorcycles were 
banned, ditto for sky diving, swimming, skiing, and drinking beer.




Here's the article he links to:

http://www.slate.com/articles/health_and_science/science/2012/12/gun_violence_research_nra_and_congress_blocked_gun_control_studies_at_cdc.html

And here is the grant, with the prohibition mentioned:

http://grants.nih.gov/grants/guide/rfa-files/RFA-CE-07-001.html

I assume this is the relevant bit:

*Prohibition on Use of CDC Funds for Certain Gun Control Activities*
The Departments of Labor, Health and Human Services, and Education, and 
Related
Agencies Appropriations Act specifies that:None of the funds made 
available for
injury prevention and control at the Centers for Disease Control and 
Prevention may
be used to advocate or promote gun control.

Anti-Lobbying Act requirements prohibit lobbying Congress with appropriated 
Federal
monies. Specifically, this Act prohibits the use of Federal funds for 
direct or
indirect communications intended or designed to influence a member of 
Congress with
regard to specific Federal legislation. This prohibition includes the 
funding and
assistance of public grassroots campaigns intended or designed to influence 
members
of Congress with regard to specific legislation or appropriation by 
Congress.

In addition to the restrictions in the Anti-Lobbying Act, CDC interprets the
language in the CDC's Appropriations Act to mean that CDC's funds may not 
be spent
on political action or other activities designed to affect the passage of 
specific
Federal, State, or local legislation intended to restrict or control the 
purchase or
use of firearms.

So the implication /seems /to be that if the research discovered that the best way to 
stop people being killed and injured by guns was gun control, it wouldn't be allowed to 
say so.


I'm not sure whether a technical report of research would count as advocacy or political 
action or not.  But the reason is obvious. Congress doesn't want the CDC going around them 
to advocate for legislation.  And in any case the Supreme court has ruled that owning a 
gun is a Constitutionally guaranteed individual right, subject only to reasonable 
restrictions.


The Anti-Lobbying rule has been around a long time and wasn't motivated by gun 
control issues.

Brent

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Re: The ultimate reason of knowledge faith power and entrophy reduction, computabilty, evolution, the universe and everithing

2013-10-07 Thread LizR
On 8 October 2013 16:36, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 10/7/2013 8:15 PM, LizR wrote:

   Oops, silly me, it was in the very same article. I missed it when I
 skimmed through to check...

  *TO: After recent mass shootings, hasn't funding for gun violence
 research received more attention?*
 *GM:* There is a proposal in Congress to allow for $10 million in
 research funding. But I suspect it essentially has no chance of making it.
 Even if it did, our Department of Health and Human Services prohibits
 any of the funds from being 
 usedhttp://www.slate.com/articles/health_and_science/science/2012/12/gun_violence_research_nra_and_congress_blocked_gun_control_studies_at_cdc.html,
 and I'm quoting directly here, “to advocate or promote gun 
 controlhttp://grants.nih.gov/grants/guide/rfa-files/RFA-CE-07-001.html.”
 That means even if I had money to do the research, it would be a crime to
 talk about the policy implications.


 That assumes the result of the research would imply gun control.  Would
 the research consider the possibility of armed revolt against and
 oppressive government which was the original motivation for the 2nd
 amendment?  Would he consider the value of recreational hunting?  I think
 not.  I think the researcher had already assumed his conclusion.  Just
 because a certain device results in people being killed and injured is not
 sufficient reason for banning it.  I'm sure there would be fewer deaths per
 year if motorcycles were banned, ditto for sky diving, swimming, skiing,
 and drinking beer.

 That wasn't the impression I got. I assumed he was saying that *if* that
was the case, then he'd be gagged. (But anyway, this does show that there
are legal constraints on reporting some possible results, which is all he
said, and wha I quoted.)

 I'm not sure whether a technical report of research would count as
 advocacy or political action or not.  But the reason is obvious.  Congress
 doesn't want the CDC going around them to advocate for legislation.  And in
 any case the Supreme court has ruled that owning a gun is a
 Constitutionally guaranteed individual right, subject only to reasonable
 restrictions.

 Well, if it wouldn't be advocacy then he's OK to report whatever he sees
fit. Personally I would think it shouldn't be considered advocacy, but he's
closer to the whole thing and he seems to think it would.

 The Anti-Lobbying rule has been around a long time and wasn't motivated by
 gun control issues.

 You're telling me *no one* is allowed to lobby the US govt???

Oh well, anyway  I suppose I shouldn't make so much fuss, although as I
said I find the child deaths horrifying (as I do the millions of
unnecessary child deaths worldwide, most caused by diseases even more
preventable than US firearm deaths). But if adult Americans want to shoot
one another, I guess that's their business. I don't live there, thank God!

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Re: The ultimate reason of knowledge faith power and entrophy reduction, computabilty, evolution, the universe and everithing

2013-10-07 Thread meekerdb

On 10/7/2013 9:08 PM, LizR wrote:
On 8 October 2013 16:36, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
wrote:


On 10/7/2013 8:15 PM, LizR wrote:

Oops, silly me, it was in the very same article. I missed it when I skimmed 
through
to check...

*TO: After recent mass shootings, hasn't funding for gun violence 
research
received more attention?*
*GM:* There is a proposal in Congress to allow for $10 million in 
research
funding. But I suspect it essentially has no chance of making it. Even 
if it
did, our Department of Health and Human Services prohibits any of the 
funds
from being used

http://www.slate.com/articles/health_and_science/science/2012/12/gun_violence_research_nra_and_congress_blocked_gun_control_studies_at_cdc.html,
and I'm quoting directly here, “to advocate or promote gun control
http://grants.nih.gov/grants/guide/rfa-files/RFA-CE-07-001.html.” 
That means
even if I had money to do the research, it would be a crime to talk 
about the
policy implications.



That assumes the result of the research would imply gun control.  Would the 
research
consider the possibility of armed revolt against and oppressive government 
which was
the original motivation for the 2nd amendment?  Would he consider the value 
of
recreational hunting?  I think not.  I think the researcher had already 
assumed his
conclusion.  Just because a certain device results in people being killed 
and
injured is not sufficient reason for banning it.  I'm sure there would be 
fewer
deaths per year if motorcycles were banned, ditto for sky diving, swimming, 
skiing,
and drinking beer.

That wasn't the impression I got. I assumed he was saying that /if/ that was the case, 
then he'd be gagged.


Suppose his research showed that liberalized concealed carry laws reduced gun violence (a 
popular argument among gun-rights advocates).  Then he wouldn't be gagged.  So he was 
assuming the opposite conclusion in order to infer reporting the study would be a crime.


(But anyway, this does show that there are legal constraints on reporting some possible 
results, which is all he said, and wha I quoted.)



I'm not sure whether a technical report of research would count as advocacy 
or
political action or not.  But the reason is obvious.  Congress doesn't want 
the CDC
going around them to advocate for legislation.  And in any case the Supreme 
court
has ruled that owning a gun is a Constitutionally guaranteed individual 
right,
subject only to reasonable restrictions.


Well, if it wouldn't be advocacy then he's OK to report whatever he sees fit. Personally 
I would think it shouldn't be considered advocacy, but he's closer to the whole thing 
and he seems to think it would.


Bureaucrats tend to be timid about offending Congress and may self-censor.


The Anti-Lobbying rule has been around a long time and wasn't motivated by 
gun
control issues.

You're telling me /no one/ is allowed to lobby the US govt???


No, nobody who is an employee of the U.S. government is allowed to lobby it.  Civil 
service employees and uniformed military are not allowed to campaign for any partisan 
candidates either (even in local elections if they are partisan).




Oh well, anyway  I suppose I shouldn't make so much fuss, although as I said I find 
the child deaths horrifying (as I do the millions of unnecessary child deaths worldwide, 
most caused by diseases even more preventable than US firearm deaths). But if adult 
Americans want to shoot one another, I guess that's their business. I don't live there, 
thank God!




Yes, it's unfortunate that the psychology seems to be It's dangerous out there.  So I 
should be able to have a gun to protect myself.  That's what defeated a gun ban in 
Brazil, which has even more shootings than the U.S., in spite of requirements to register 
and license all guns.


Brent

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