Re: Tegmark's New Book

2014-01-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 21 Jan 2014, at 19:27, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Bruno,

Again you avoid the question. You need to give everyone a clear and  
convincing reason in English.


Rhetorical trick, and you don't answer to the question that I asked  
you. I gave everyone the proof, and I told you that the UD Argument,  
which presuppose only that a brain is a machine at some relevant  
level, entails that there is no motion, only dream of motion. The  
physical reality emerges from the coherence, or co-consistence of  
infinities of dream.




Just requoting some abstract mathematical proof won't suffice unless  
you can prove it actually applies.


Read the UDA before, if only to give me one light on your theory.




If there is really a way to get motion from stasis


Like if anyone was pretending that ... (rhetorical trick again).



you should be able to simply state the core of the argument in plain  
English.


That's the UDA.



There simply is no way to get motion from non-motion, either in your  
theory or in block timeYou can look at it from any perspective  
you want to but unless something moves nothing moves...


Indeed nothing moves at the ontological level. Things move only from  
the 'dreamer's mental perspective.





Of course you can use the same 'cop out' that block time does when  
it claims that an observer in every static frame of block time  
perceives a sequence of events, but that doesn't work to move  
anything.


Indeed? So you assume primitive moving, and thus a primitive time, and  
thus UDA shows that you are implicitly using the assumption that your  
p-time is not Turing emulable.
Indeed, if we recompute Julius Caesar' brain state, with comp, he will  
live Antic-time now, which might directly show that your notion of p- 
time is inconsistent with comp. This is coherent with your absence of  
definition of your computational space.




It's still just a sequence of cartoon frames which are obviously  
completely static. A static motionless observer sees them as a  
motionless sequence. Only an ACTIVELY MOVING reader of the cartoon  
can provide the apparent sequence of the cartoon frames that makes  
them meaningful. But of course actually both observer and universe  
are actively moving as they are continually being recomputed in the  
present moment of p-time


If the sequence seems to move it's only because that cartoon reader  
is already moving himself. So without a moving observer rather than  
a static 1p observer, to use your terminology, there can be no  
motion. Unless the 1p observer is himself alive and moving there can  
be no motion in his perspective. There is simply no way around that.


You reify reality. And this without saying. That's unconvincing  
pseudo-philosophy.


Just answer the question: can we survive with an artificial brain in  
your theory?


Bruno





Edgar

On Tuesday, January 21, 2014 12:27:59 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 21 Jan 2014, at 17:34, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

Bruno,

You continue to avoid the actual question. How does a static reality  
of all true arithmetic in Platonia actually result in change and the  
flow of time? You just claim everyone knows it.


Where. I just said (see below) that everybody knows it is never an  
argument. You misread me. On the contrary I said that I can explain  
it, but then it is long. Then, I point on the literature, and  
mention that the fact that arithmetic is Turing complete is known by  
experts.


Do you agree that arithmetic emulates all computations? I guess not.



Until you can give a convincing answer to that your theory can't be  
taken seriously.


By who? I have never have any problem with that. On the contrary,  
most physicists already believe that the theory of relativity go in  
that direction (even more so in Gödel's solution of Einstein's GR  
equation, with looping time.


I can give you an answer, except I am not sure you will study it. I  
will explain it to you when you answer the questions I asked about  
your theory. What does it assume, and how do you use it to prevent  
the UD Argument to proceed?





Just claiming that different observers have different perspectives  
on that reality doesn't make those perspectives active, they would  
still be static.


Seen from the big picture (arithmetical truth) you are right. Seen  
from the perspective of the internal creatures, you are wrong, at  
least in the sense, that those creatures have all reason to infer  
time and space, etc. They will talk about that like you and me.


Do you think that a machine can distinguish being a living person  
inhabiting on Earth, and being a living person on Earth emulated  
on some computer,  or in arithmetic.



And of course block time has the exact same problem

of course is a symptom of lack of argument.

You are just looking at the 3p picture, and not at the 1p views of  
the entities in that 3p reality. You could as well say that a brain  
has no relation with consciousness, as there 

Re: Tegmark's New Book

2014-01-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 22 Jan 2014, at 02:00, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Stephen,

A lot of good stuff in your post. I'll come back to some of it later  
after I think more on it but first wanted to clarify a couple of  
your points.


You say the UDA serves a good purpose to show that there is some  
ontological merit in the idea that Numbers can serve as a  
fundamental ground for Mind as a Platonic Form. It is the timeless  
spacial case.


By timeless special case it seems like you are implying the UDA is  
not an ACTUAL case describing a reality that we agree necessarily  
must move. So it seems like you are saying that though the UDA might  
somehow shed some light on reality it is not actually describing  
reality as it actually is. Is that correct?


Another problem with the UDA is I see no way a Platonia consisting  
of pure arithmetic can possible know how to actually compute what is  
actually occurring in the universe. How does pure static arithmetic  
truth know anything about what is actually happening where and how  
to compute which particles are interacting with which particles in  
what ways? I see no way that works at all.


Can we agree on something like Bruno's UDA is not an applicable  
description of a reality we agree actually moves, that actually  
includes the notion of 'becoming'?


Second point in this post is I AGREE with you that it is a mistake  
to assume that there is only a single computation going on. for a  
number of reasons. I've never claimed that. Sorry if that wasn't  
clear before.


I think the most reasonable model is a single computational REALITY  
(not a single computation) that contains myriads of computations  
each computing the current state of reality in computational  
interaction with its information environment (environment in a  
logical sense, not a dimensional or spatial sense).


This model avoids your concurrency problem, and a single  
computational reality allows computational continuity and  
consistency across the entire computational universe (again a  
logical, not physical dimensional spatial universe).


Can we agree on something like There is a single computational  
reality


Yes. A tiny part of arithmetic contains that, with the standard  
definition of computation, and Church thesis.




which includes myriads of ongoing computations which together  
continually compute the current state of the universe?


No. It only computes infinitely often all dreams, and the FPI (the  
First Person Indeterminacy on all my states in arithmetic) generates  
the persistent illusion of a physical multiverse.


Bruno





Edgar



On Tuesday, January 21, 2014 5:17:44 PM UTC-5, Stephen Paul King  
wrote:

Dear Edgar,


On Tue, Jan 21, 2014 at 4:24 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net  
wrote:

Stephen,

OK, with these clarifications let's see what we can agree on so far.

1. Block time is a BS theory. We know we agree on that.

good!



2. Do you agree that Bruno's USA can also be discounted for the same  
reason block time can be, that there is no way to get movement out  
of it?



No, the UDA serves a good purpose to show that there is some  
ontological merit in the idea that Numbers can serve as a  
fundamental ground for Mind as a Platonic Form. It is the timeless  
spacial case.


3. Do you agree that there must be some fundamental notion of  
movement (not movement in space, but in the sense of things  
happening) at the fundamental level?


Yes, I denote this as Becoming is Fundamental.



4. Do you agree that implies some notion of time flowing?

The imposition of finite measures onto the Becoming is the creation  
of a clock. Clocks are strictly local entities. It has been  
repeatedly proven that a single clock cannot order all possible  
events of space-time. Thus a singular Present Moment is an  
oxymoron, a self-contradicting idea.




5. Do you agree that reality is fundamentally computational?

div
...

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Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 21 Jan 2014, at 21:16, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/21/2014 2:04 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 20 Jan 2014, at 18:36, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/20/2014 12:42 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 19 Jan 2014, at 22:31, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/19/2014 9:45 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

But why should that imply *existence*.


It does not. Unless we believe in the axioms, which is the case  
for elementary arithmetic.


But what does believe in the axioms mean.  Do we really  
believe we can *always* add one more?  I find it doubtful.  It's  
just a good model for most countable things.  So I can believe  
the axioms imply the theorems and that 17 is prime is a  
theorem, but I don't think that commits me to any existence in  
the normal sense of THAT exists.


Because you are chosing the physicalist ostensive definition of  
what exists, like Aristotelians, but you beg the question here.


I don't see that you've explained what question I begged.  Just  
because I define things ostensively does not entail that reject  
explanations of their existence - if that's what you are implying.


Fair enough.




The point is that, in that case,  you should not say yes to the  
doctor.


Why not.  The doctor is going install a physical prosthetic.  As  
you've agreed before, it will not be *exactly* like me - but I'm  
not exactly the same from day to day anyway.


But you overlook the UDA here. The UDA is the explanation why if  
you say yes to the doctor qua computatio, the physical must be  
recovered from arithmetic, in some special way.


But that seems me an example of the misplaced concrete.  I have a  
lot more confidence in the physical functionality of a well tested  
artificial neuron than I have in the UDA.  So I may well say yes  
to the doctor without accepting arithmetical realism, the  
mathematical definition of exists, or the running of a UD.


Of course. If you really believe in a bigger natural number (that we  
can't always add one), what you say follows.
(personally I have more confidence in the fact that all natural  
numbers have a successor than in any artificial neuron, even if well  
tested).
So you criticize AR, but without AR, we can't explain Church thesis,  
and the notion of computer become ambiguous. You reject comp, by  
rejecting computer science. yes, in that case, even step 8 will not  
change your mind. Even step seven is no more valid, in that case.








You can always add magic of course. This can be used for any theory  
of physics.


I think your critics can be sum up by the belief that step 8 is non  
valid.


I am suspicious that it only proves that a zero-physics simulation  
is possible in a different world where the physics is simulated too.


I don't understand.


In other words it's conclusion is only valid if the scope is made  
arbitrarily large and the MG, in effect, becomes a different world.


In which case you say no to the doctor, and we are a long way from  
saying yes just by trusting the artificial neuron and glial cells,  
like you suggest to be a reason for saying yes without AR.


Bruno




Brent

But step 8 talks about reality, so it is not purely logical, and  
step 8 just shows how ad hoc that move is. It is made equivalent to  
the way creationist reason, except it is done for the creation  
instead of the creator.


Bruno


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Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 21 Jan 2014, at 21:25, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/21/2014 2:16 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 20 Jan 2014, at 21:19, Stephen Paul King wrote:


Dear Bruno,

  Is it possible for a Computation to be a Model also? What is the  
obstruction?



?

Is it possible for an apple to be an orange?

Computation are very special abstract, yet of a syntactical  
nature,  relations (between numbers, say, or combinators, lisp  
expressions, etc.)


I have defined them by a sequence phi_i(j)^n, with n = 0, 1, 2, ...

Model are structured set (or arrows in some category) satisfying  
formula.


Of course this a quite different meaning than scientists and  
engineers have in mind when they say model.


Yes. It is the root of a common confusion between logician and  
physicist. Logician uses model like painter, where the model is the  
reality (the naked man) that the painters theorize about (paints).




They mean a theory


Yes.



which they do not assume to be complete but to only make predictions  
within some limited domain - and so it may be regarded as a function  
or a set of possible computations combined with an interpretation,  
e.g. an elastic model of a structure.


OK. I have suggested more than once to use the term theory, and keep  
model for a  possible 'reality'. that would help.


Logicians are more sophisticated than physicist, they model both the  
entire relationship between a theory and its models. So the notion of  
theory is a modelisation  of theory, and the notion of model is a  
modelization of the notion of reality. That's is useful for the mind- 
body problem.


Bruno






Brent



Those are quite different things. It does not mean that there are  
not some relation. Usually the computations can be represented by  
some object in some model of some Turing complete theory, like RA,  
PA, or ZF.


Models are semantic notions, studied in model theory. Computations  
are more syntactical objects (finite or infinite, though) studied  
in recursion or computability theory, or in computation theory.


Bruno





On Mon, Jan 20, 2014 at 4:24 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 20 Jan 2014, at 07:27, Stephen Paul King wrote:

No! This is not unknown. I am cobbling ideas together, sure,  
think about it! What are we thinking? If the UD implements or  
emulates all computations then it implements all worlds, ala  
Kripke. That would include all models of self-consistent theories.


It is not that simple, alas. A computation is not a model. I have  
try hard to get a relation like that, because this would simplify  
the relation between UDA and AUDA. I progress on this, but that  
problem is not yet solved.


Bruno





On Mon, Jan 20, 2014 at 1:22 AM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net  
wrote:

On 1/19/2014 10:01 PM, Stephen Paul King wrote:


 Exactly, what about all the models of all the worlds that  
follow different axioms? Those can possibly exist, thus they  
must. What is not impossible, is compulsory!


Did you just make that up? :-)

Brent

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Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 21 Jan 2014, at 21:30, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/21/2014 2:26 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 21 Jan 2014, at 02:25, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/20/2014 5:00 PM, LizR wrote:

On 21 January 2014 06:42, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
On 1/20/2014 1:11 AM, LizR wrote:

On 20 January 2014 18:51, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

You seem not to appreciate that this dissipates the one  
essential advantage of mathematical monism: we understand  
mathematics (because, I say, we invent it).  But if it's a mere  
human invention trying to model the Platonic ding and sich  then  
PA may not be the real arithmetic.  And there will have to be  
some magic math stuff that makes the real arithmetic really real.


Surely the real test is whether it works better than any other  
theory.  (The phrase  
unreasonable   
effectiveness appears to indicate that it does.)


Would it work any less well if there were a biggest number?

I don't know. I would imagine so, because that would be a theory  
with an ad hoc extra clause with no obvious justification, so  
every calculation would have to carry extra baggage around. If I  
raise a number to the power of 100, say, I have to check first  
that the result isn't going to exceed the biggest number, and  
take appropriate action - whatever that is - if it will... what  
would be the point of that?


Just make it an axiom that the biggest number is bigger than any  
number you calculate.  In other words just prohibit using those  
... and so forth in your theorems.


Just to be sure, step 8 shows that a physicalist form of  
ultrafinitism (there is a primitively ontological universe, and it  
is small) is a red herring.


If you assume a mathematical ultrafinitism, then yes, UDA does no  
more go through. But mathematical ultrafinitism makes it impossible  
to even define comp, so that is really a stopping at step zero.


So, yes, an ultrafinitist *mathematician* can say yes to the doctor  
(without knowing what it does), and survive, and this is one little  
universe.


But he can't know what it does in an infinitist universe either.


Right.


I thought that's why you've always emphasized that saying yes to  
the doctor was a bet, not something one could be certain of.


The fact that the ultrafinitist can't know what he is doing, does not  
entail that the computationalist can know what he is doing. So you are  
right, but I was not implying the contrary.


Bruno





Brent



If UDA leads to mathematical ultrafinitism, that is enough a  
reductio ad absurdo to me.


God created 0, 1, ... and when getting 10^100, he felt tired and  
stop. Then he *has* to create a primitive physical universe, if he  
want see Adam and Eve indeed.


Bruno





Brent

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Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 21 Jan 2014, at 21:33, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/21/2014 2:32 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Only to make the UDA non valid. It works, if Brent meant a  
mathematical ultrafinitism. But this change comp, like it changes  
elementary arithmetic (which suppose at least that 0 ≠ s(x), and x  
≠ y implies s(x) ≠ s(y), which can't be true in ultrafinitism).

Ultrafinitism makes all current physical theories meaningless.


How can that be when all current physical theories are tested by  
computation on finite digital computers and all observations are  
finite rational numbers?


We just bet that physics is well approximated by computations, and  
indeed all known laws seems to be computable (except the collapse).  
I guess it makes sense in most case.




 I'd say the meaning of theories comes in their application - not  
from an axiom system.


Because you reify reality, an put the meaning there. But we can't do  
that when working on the mind-body problem, so we need a mathematical  
notion of reality, and the notion of model (in logician sense) plays  
that role.
That for all x x ≠ x + 1, is NOT an empirical question. It is a  
truth, out of space and time, which is true in all models of RA, or  
PA, or ZF, etc.


Bruno




Brent

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Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 22 Jan 2014, at 01:02, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/21/2014 3:30 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Tue, Jan 21, 2014 at 3:30 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net  
wrote:

On 1/21/2014 8:13 AM, Jason Resch wrote:
Why would you want to do that? It seems like an unnecessary  
extra axiom that doesn't have any purpose or utility.


It prevents the paradoxes of undeciability, Cantor  
diagonalization, and it corresponds more directly with how we  
actually use arithmetic.




I'm not sure it helps. What you may gain from avoiding paradoxes  
makes many of our accepted proofs false. E.g. Euclids proof of  
infinite primes. Or Euler's identity. Most of math would be  
ruined. A circle's circumference would not even be pi*diameter.


Would this biggest number be different for different beings in  
different universes? What is it contingent on?


You're taking an Platonic view that there really is an arithmetic  
and whether there's a biggest number is an empirical question.


Ah! I just said that is was not. Somehow you deny the reality of math.



I'm saying it's an invention.  We invented an system in which you  
can always add 1 because that was convenient; you don't have to  
think about whether you can or not.


So to use this same line of reasoning, would you say there is no  
definite (a priori) fact of the matter of  whether or not a given  
program terminates, unless we actually build a machine executing  
that program and observe it terminate?


That's kind of mixing categories since 'program' (to you) means  
something in Platonia and there you don't need a machine to run it.   
In the physical world there is no question, all programs running on  
a machine terminate, for one reason or another.  Non-terminating  
programs are the result of over idealization.



What makes you sure that the idea that all programs terminates is not  
also an idealisation (about a finite universal reality)?
Also, if all programs terminate, there is no more real numbers. I  
guess you will say that there are idealisation. You seem to know  
that there is a concrete reality, but the comp approach to the mind- 
body problem asks to, temporarily perhaps, doubt such certainty.








If that is the case, when is it determined (for us) that a certain  
program terminates? Is it when the first being anywhere in any  
universe tests it, when someone in our universe tests it, when  
someone in our past light cone tests it, when you test it yourself  
or read about someone who did? Would it ever be possible for two  
beings in two different universes to find different results  
regarding the same program? If not, then what enforces this  
agreement?


But if it leads to paradoxes or absurdities we should just modify  
our invention keeping the good part and avoiding the paradoxes if  
we can.  Peano's arithmetic will still be there in Platonia and  
sqrt(2) will be irrational there.  But the diagonal of a unit  
square may depend on how we measure it or what it's made of.


Does this instrumentalist approach prevents one from having a  
theory of reality?


Who said it's instrumentalist?  Just because it considers a finite  
model of reality?  When Bruno proposes to base things on arithmetic  
and leave analysis and set theory alone, does that make him an  
instrumentalist?


Of course not. As the comp hypothesis use a non instrumentalist  
interpretation of arithmetic. It makes only comp being a finitism (not  
an ultrafinitism). There is no axiom of infinity at the ontological  
level. Infinity is a correct illusion from inside, and mainly due to  
the FPI, and the fact that for all x, s(x)  x.


Bruno





Brent

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Re: Tegmark's New Book

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 22 January 2014 17:35, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.comwrote:

 Dear LizR,

   Yes, there are many ontological assumptions. Could you list a few that
 seem obvious to you? It is not easy to cut and paste from a pdf. Can you
 open it in the Chrome browser?

In this ontology, all of the known math ideas still work, and those
 that become known as discovered. The key is that they do not exist as
 independent entities that are some how separable from the observer.


Well, there you have an assumption right there! (Did I mention Pythagoras?
A million schoolchildren know that his theorem is separable from the
observer because they had to be taught it.)


 Representations require presentations, they must be rendered by a physical
 process to be perceived, understood, known, described, etc.


I this is considered in some way significant, I assume there is some
confusion between the representation with the thing being represented.


Knowledge is not considered to be some thing that is projected into our
 minds by some mysterious process (see the allegory of the Cave).


This sounds like a straw man. Who has claimed such a thing? (apart from the
afoirementioned schoolchildren, who would, I am sure, think knowledge was
indeed being projected into their minds by a mysterious process !)

I'm afraid I am generally suspicious of people whose main aim is to show
that some other (often imaginary) view is wrong, rather than to attempt to
demonstrate why their view is likely to be correct.


 It is the action of the brain to implement a mind that allows knowledge to
 come into being.


So we assume, certainly. That doesn't stop us being able to hypothesise
that there are things out there, though, and arguably with a certain
degree of success.


   A related way of thinking is found here in a paper by Zurek on
 decoherence:


I'll have a look at that, but I don't have time for reading endless papers
so a precis is always appreciated!


 http://cds.cern.ch/record/640029/files/0308163.pdf

 This view of the emergence of the classical can be regarded as (a
 Darwinian) natural selection of the preferred states. Thus, (evolutionary) 
 fitness
 of the state is defined both by its ability to survive intact in spite of
 the immersion in the environment (i.e., environment-induced
 superselection is still important) but also by its propensity to create o
 spring { copies of the information describing the state of the system in
 that environment. I show that this ability to `survive and procreate' is 
 central
 to effective classicality of quantum states. Environment retains its
 decohering role, but it also becomes a communication channel through
 which the state of the system is found out by the observers. In this
 sense, indirect acquisition of the information about
 the system from its environment allows quantum theory to come close to
 what happens in
 the classical physics: The information about a classical system can be
 dissociated from
 its state. (In the case of an isolated quantum system this is impossible {
 what is known
 about it is inseparably tied to the state it is in.)

 Sounds like he's saying that we cause the world to decohere in a manner
that enables us to further our survival. Assuming that's possible, I
imagine it's quite likely. But anyway I'll have a look at the paper.

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Re: Modal Logic (Part 1: Leibniz)

2014-01-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 22 Jan 2014, at 00:16, LizR wrote:


On 21 January 2014 22:29, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

Oh! You did not answer:

((COLD  WET) - ICE)   -  ((COLD - ICE) V (WET - ICE))

So what? Afraid of the logician's trick? Or of the logician's  
madness? Try this one if you are afraid to be influenced by your  
intuition aboutCOLD, WET and  ICE:


No, I will get back to you on the rest when I have time.

I ran out of time (plus I thought maybe I was going up the wrong  
path...you have reassured me about that now!)


No problem. I ran out of time myself.

Bruno





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Re: Church thesis = non computable functions exist (Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 22 January 2014 15:40, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.comwrote:

 Dear LizR,

   OK, Let us stipulate the Pigeonholes and Flashlight. What moves the
 flashlight around and what perceives what it illuminates? The present
 moment contains what is illuminated, sure, but what is doing the action of
 perceiving that content?


I think I said the fl;ashlight wasn't needed, so it isn't there, and so
nothing moves it around. The pigeonholes stand for states of consciousness,
so they perceive what it would illuminate, which is their own contents. But
they can perceive those without it.

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Re: On differentiation of universes in MWI

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 22 January 2014 16:34, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 On 1/21/2014 4:50 PM, LizR wrote:

 It seems to me that differentiation is local, and spreads slowly, and
 that there is always going to be some remerging (but only in proportion to
 the chances of entropy reversing). The an atom starts in a superposition of
 decayed and non-decayed. Now a cat is in a superposition of alive and dead.
 Now an experimenter is in a superposition of having seen an alive and dead
 cat... now everyone who reads Nature is in a superposition ... but none
 of this affects Jupiter for a long time,


 Does it?  Suppose there's an electron on Jupiter that was entangled in a
 singlet state with an electron on Earth and the electron on Earth just got
 it's spin measured?  MWI may be able to model this with a local hidden
 variable, but in THIS world it looks like FTL influence - and it can go a
 lot further than Jupiter, e.g. the CMB.

 Assuming this is correct then the snapshot theory of how the MWI
operates looks more a lot likely. (I was given to believe by David Deutsch
that differentiation only occurred patchily, and spread slowly, but I've
known him to be wrong...)

Please explain further. How does an electron on Jupiter get entangled with
one on Earth, and how does anything on Earth get entangled with the CMB?

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Re: First Ever Universe-Wide Cosmic Web Filaments Captured on Keck Observatory

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
The thing about the ratio of baryonic to dark matter is that
nucleosynthesis in the big bang would have gone differently if there was
much more baryonic matter around than the amount currently estimated - for
example if there was enough to make the universe come out flat, as it
apparently is to high precision, and no dark matter needed.

So we need something non-nuclear-interacting for that reason alone.

(Or so I'm told.)

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Re: The multiverse and the arrow of time - MWI experts please?

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 22 January 2014 18:26, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au wrote:

 On Wed, Jan 22, 2014 at 02:42:43PM +1300, LizR wrote:
 
  Phew, I got there in the end :)
 
  I can only assume that having an (apparent) body etc is more probable
 than
  being a disembodied p-ghost, but explaining this in comp (or any Theory
 of
  Nothing) sounds like it may be a measure problem over an infinite set.

 Naively, I would have thought the opposite, actually - hence I would be
 looking
 for some logical principle preventing it occurring. I speculated in my
 book that consciousness may not be sustainable without a body to act
 as a feedback for self-awareness, as being that reason.

 That's more or less what I was trying to say. I would naively expect to
be a p-ghost, or at least not particularly attached to a body, unless
there's a damn good reason for it to be there. (Assuming we don't accept
the classical materialism reason for it to be there, of course.)

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Re: what is the definition of computation?

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
Addendum

Sorry a wee typo. I meant *Yet* presumably brain cells, when lumped
together into a brain...


On 22 January 2014 17:08, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 22 January 2014 15:04, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

 Computation is the nested, recursive enumeration of uniform symbolic
 bodies. The effectiveness of computation derives from its metaphorical
 application to material bodies, which can, through physical properties, be
 manipulated to deliver results which satisfy our expectations.


 Sorry to be dense but what *is* the nested, recursive enumeration of
 uniform symbolic bodies ?


 Computation is not consciousness or sensation. It has no qualities of its
 own, and a computer would be just as happy producing Mandelbrot sets as
 noise, just as abacus beads are just as happy in a pattern that we might
 find meaningful versus one which seems random.


 I'm not sure if you are trying to imply something about the nature of the
 brain and consciousness here, or not. Presumably brain cells would be just
 as happy recognising granny or solving equations - that is, brain cells
 take in signals from other brain cells, and if the sum of these exceeds
 some threshold, they send out a signal of their own. This seems fairly
 similar to what NAND gates do inside a computer. (Or what the cogs in a
 difference engine do, or the floating weights in the Olympia computer do,
 etc.)

 So one could equally well say, what brain cells do is not consciousness
 or sensation. Yes presumably brain cells, when lumped together into a
 brain, manage to *produce* consciousness and sensation, and apparently
 they do this through a process that is at least somewhat similar to what
 the logic gates inside computers do.

 So, to clarify, are you claiming that consciousness *cannot be produced
 by* computation, or just making the observation that the process of
 computation is not the same thing as consciousness or sensation, much as my
 brain isn't the same thing as my thoughts?



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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 22 Jan 2014, at 01:41, Russell Standish wrote:


On Tue, Jan 21, 2014 at 12:53:33PM +0100, Bruno Marchal wrote:





With some competence, I guess you mean.
Without competence, and giving time to the creature, any universal
machine do have an open-ended creativity. Well, certainly in the
sense of Post (I can explain this, but it is a bit technical).



I'm interested to hear your explanation, but if its what I suspect it
will be, I'll be disappointed :).


A set (of natural numbers) is creative if
1) it is RE (and thus is some w_k)
2) its complement (N - w_k) is productive, and this means that for  
all  w_y included in, we can recursively (mechanically) find an  
element in it, not in W_y.


It means that the set is RE and his complement is constructively NOT  
RE.  Each attempt to recursively enumerate he complement can be  
mechanically refuted by showing explicitlky a counterexample in it,  
and this gives the ability to such a creative set to approximate its  
complement in a transfinite progressions of approximation. this gives  
an ability to jump to a bigger picture out of the cuurent conception  
of the big picture. I find it a reasonable definition of creativity.


The John Myhill proved that a set is creative iff it is Turing  
complete, i.e. Turing universal.

So that RE set





Basically stating that the universal dovetailer emulates creative
conscious being does not demonstrate a creative program, which needs
to be creative relative to us (as observers).


I agree. The UD is not creative. But it generates all creative  
programs or sets.
Note that the UD can be considered as creative though, if you conceive  
it as the set of all initial segment of UD*. In particular the set  
define by the diophantine polynomial that I send today to Brent, *is*  
probably creative itself.






But if your idea is something different, I'm all ears!





I haven't had a chance to study and understand Post's definition  
(sure

I've looked at it, but didn't grok it), but if you say it is
equivalent to universality, then its not really going to  
contribute to

the solution.


I am not sure. Open ended creativity seems to me well captured by
Post. It makes the machine able to defeat all effective complete
theories about itself. It gives what I often called the comp vaccine
against reductionism.



Well - maybe if you explain more?


I hope that what is above is not too much concise.

Bruno




Cheers

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Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: Modal Logic (Part 1: Leibniz)

2014-01-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 22 Jan 2014, at 04:23, LizR wrote:


On 21 January 2014 22:29, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

No, it is all good, Liz!

What about:

(p V q) - p

Using the same formula this is equivalent to(~(p V q) V p), which  
for (0,1) is 0, hence not a law.


and

p - (p  q)

And this is (~p V (p  q)) which is 0 for (1,0), hence also not a  
law :-)


What about (still in CPL) the question:

is (p  q) - r equivalent with p - (q - r)

is (~(p  q) V r) equal to (~p V (~q V r)) ?

or is

~((p  q)  ~r) equal to ~(p  ~~(q  ~r))

i.e. is

~((p  q)  ~r) equal to ~(p  (q  ~r))

I'm going to take a punt and assume the order in which things are  
ANDed together doesn't matter, in which case the above comes out as  
equal (equivalent). Did I blow it?


Not sure that I understand what you mean by blowing it. But you are  
correct in all answers.







Oh! You did not answer:

((COLD  WET) - ICE)   -  ((COLD - ICE) V (WET - ICE))

Eek! That is even more difficult. Luckily you provided something  
that didn't involve so much typing...


((p  q) - r)   -   ((p - r) V (q - r))

Expanding furiously and trying not to make any mistakes...

~((p  q)  ~r) - ( ~(p  ~r) V ~(q  ~r))

~(~((p  q)  ~r)  ~(~(p  ~r) V ~(q  ~r)))

Um! Assuming for a moment that's correct, we have 8 possible  
combinations of values for p,q,r


r = 0 gives 1 (so that's half the values sorted)
r = 1 also gives 1 (so that's the other half)

So assuming I expanded it correctly, it's a law.


Very good. And so

((COLD  WET) - ICE)   -  ((COLD - ICE) V (WET - ICE))

Is true in all worlds!

Of course it is non sense if you interpret the arrow in p - q as a  
causal implication. I use that formula to explain that - is not a  
causal relation.





I will try more later...


OK.
Oh, it looks we are later:

Actually, you will have to remind me what [] and  mean before I go  
any further.


OK.

Let us take only 3 propositional variable, or letters,  in our  
language;   p, q, and r, say.


A world (in that context) is given when we say which (atomic)  
proposition is true, and which is false.


So, with three propositional variable we get 8 worlds, in the  
multiverse associated to {p, q, r} (our language).
They are the one in which p, q, and r are all true, the one in which  
p, and q are true, but r is false, ..., the one in which p, q and r  
are all false.


OK?
If we fix the order p, q, r on {p, q, r}, we can represent a world by  
a sequence of 0 and 1 (which by the way are often used to represent  
true and false)? The 8 worlds of the multiverse are given by


000
100
010
110
101
001
111
011

OK?


Let A, B, C range over arbitrary  formula. I recall that there are two  
kind of formula. the atomic formula and the compound formula. (A, B, C  
are metavariable. A-B is NOT a formula, unless A and B designate some  
formula (which can contains only the formal p, q, r (and the logical  
symbols, parentheses, etc.)
It is the same in algebra. x is not number, unless x designate some  
number, like when x = 42. OK?


An atomic formula is just a letter from our set of propositional  
letter. We call it an atomic proposition when we think about it in the  
company of some truth or false assignment (a proposition can be said  
true, or false, not a letter!). OK?


CPL is truth-functional. It means that the truth value (in some world,  
thus) of a compound formula is determined by the the truth value of  
its subformula, that is eventually by its atomic components.


So the semantic here is very easy, and can be described by the truth  
tables, where the truth value of a compound formula is put under the  
main connector of the formula :


~ p
0 1
1 0

p  q
1 1 1
0 0 1
1 0 0
0 0 0

p V q
1 1 1
0 1 1
1 1 0
0 0 0

p - q   (~p V q)
1 1 1
0 1 1
1 0 0
0 1 0

OK?

Now, your question, what does mean []A, for A some formula. And what  
does mean A


Well, for Leibniz and Aristotle,  it means that A has the value true  
in all worlds, or A is true in all worlds, or that all worlds (in the  
multiverse) satisfy A.


In particular, given that you have shown that (p - p) is a law, true  
in all worlds, we have that


[] (p - p)

OK?   For each CPL laws A, sometime called tautology, we will have  
that []A.


examples are easly derived from you work. We will have

[] (p - p)
[] (p - (q - p))
[] ((p  q) - r)   -   ((p - r) V (q - r))

etc.

OK?  That is easy. tautologies, that is laws,  are universal, so they  
are verified or satisfied in all worlds, and so the fact that they are  
laws is true in all worlds.


This will remain valid for the more general Kripke semantics so you  
might try to remind this:


If A is true in all worlds, then []A is true in all worlds.

OK?

from this, and the semantic of the not ('~'), can you find the  
semantics for the diamond ?


p is true if ~[]~p is true, if []~p is false, which means that there  
is a world in which p is true.


Unfortunately all this might not seem helpful for a formula which mix  
modal compounds with non modal 

Re: Tegmark's New Book

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear LizR,


On Wed, Jan 22, 2014 at 4:40 AM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 22 January 2014 17:35, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.comwrote:

 Dear LizR,

   Yes, there are many ontological assumptions. Could you list a few that
 seem obvious to you? It is not easy to cut and paste from a pdf. Can you
 open it in the Chrome browser?

In this ontology, all of the known math ideas still work, and those
 that become known as discovered. The key is that they do not exist as
 independent entities that are some how separable from the observer.


 Well, there you have an assumption right there! (Did I mention Pythagoras?
 A million schoolchildren know that his theorem is separable from the
 observer because they had to be taught it.)


Yes, it is an assumption. Are those schoolchildren observers? Do they
comprehend in some small way what a^2+b^2=c^2 represents? The point is
that a representation of a thing is not the thing unless it IS the thing.
Is a number merely a pattern of chalk on the blackboard? What about a
different pattern of dots on a piece of paper, could it represent the same
referent?
   Separability is a tricky and subtle concept...





 Representations require presentations, they must be rendered by a
 physical process to be perceived, understood, known, described, etc.


 I this is considered in some way significant, I assume there is some
 confusion between the representation with the thing being represented.


What is the relation between the two? My proposition is that there is a
relation between the category of Representations and the category of things
being represented (or objects). This relation is an isomorphism but not
always bijective.



 Knowledge is not considered to be some thing that is projected into
 our minds by some mysterious process (see the allegory of the Cave).


 This sounds like a straw man. Who has claimed such a thing? (apart from
 the afoirementioned schoolchildren, who would, I am sure, think knowledge
 was indeed being projected into their minds by a mysterious process !)


Do you have a theory of knowledge that you use? Would this one be OK?
http://www.marxists.org/reference/subject/philosophy/works/en/russell1.htm

Russell does not really answer the question... I am trying to wade through
the ambiguity and point out that what ever the means that knowledge comes
to pass there is both a physical process and a logical (mental?) process
and these are not one and the same process.


 I'm afraid I am generally suspicious of people whose main aim is to show
 that some other (often imaginary) view is wrong, rather than to attempt to
 demonstrate why their view is likely to be correct.


I agree. I am trying exactly not to do that...



 It is the action of the brain to implement a mind that allows knowledge
 to come into being.


 So we assume, certainly. That doesn't stop us being able to hypothesise
 that there are things out there, though, and arguably with a certain
 degree of success.


   A related way of thinking is found here in a paper by Zurek on
 decoherence:


 I'll have a look at that, but I don't have time for reading endless papers
 so a precis is always appreciated!


 http://cds.cern.ch/record/640029/files/0308163.pdf


My takeaway of the paper is that it argues for a Wheelerian
participatory universe concept. A plurality of observers and the
interactions amongst them constrain the content of observation. I see this
as a defining the process that creates realities; realities are not defined
by a priori fiat.





 This view of the emergence of the classical can be regarded as (a
 Darwinian) natural selection of the preferred states. Thus, (evolutionary) 
 fitness
 of the state is defined both by its ability to survive intact in spite of
 the immersion in the environment (i.e., environment-induced
 superselection is still important) but also by its propensity to create
 o spring { copies of the information describing the state of the system
 in that environment. I show that this ability to `survive and procreate' is 
 central
 to effective classicality of quantum states. Environment retains its
 decohering role, but it also becomes a communication channel through
 which the state of the system is found out by the observers. In this
 sense, indirect acquisition of the information about
 the system from its environment allows quantum theory to come close to
 what happens in
 the classical physics: The information about a classical system can be
 dissociated from
 its state. (In the case of an isolated quantum system this is impossible
 { what is known
 about it is inseparably tied to the state it is in.)

 Sounds like he's saying that we cause the world to decohere in a manner
 that enables us to further our survival. Assuming that's possible, I
 imagine it's quite likely. But anyway I'll have a look at the paper.



Its a great article!


-- 

Kindest Regards,

Stephen Paul King

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Re: Church thesis = non computable functions exist (Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear LizR,

   There is also some kind of continuity relation between the content of
the pigeon holes...


On Wed, Jan 22, 2014 at 4:45 AM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 22 January 2014 15:40, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.comwrote:

 Dear LizR,

   OK, Let us stipulate the Pigeonholes and Flashlight. What moves the
 flashlight around and what perceives what it illuminates? The present
 moment contains what is illuminated, sure, but what is doing the action of
 perceiving that content?


 I think I said the fl;ashlight wasn't needed, so it isn't there, and so
 nothing moves it around. The pigeonholes stand for states of consciousness,
 so they perceive what it would illuminate, which is their own contents. But
 they can perceive those without it.


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Re: what is the definition of computation?

2014-01-22 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Wednesday, January 22, 2014 5:10:34 AM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 Addendum

 Sorry a wee typo. I meant *Yet* presumably brain cells, when lumped 
 together into a brain... 


It bugs me that you can't edit after posting on here. I guess every forum 
has its irritating features.
 



 On 22 January 2014 17:08, LizR liz...@gmail.com javascript: wrote:

 On 22 January 2014 15:04, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.comjavascript:
  wrote:

 Computation is the nested, recursive enumeration of uniform symbolic 
 bodies. The effectiveness of computation derives from its metaphorical 
 application to material bodies, which can, through physical properties, be 
 manipulated to deliver results which satisfy our expectations.


 Sorry to be dense but what *is* the nested, recursive enumeration of 
 uniform symbolic bodies ?


 Computation is not consciousness or sensation. It has no qualities of 
 its own, and a computer would be just as happy producing Mandelbrot sets as 
 noise, just as abacus beads are just as happy in a pattern that we might 
 find meaningful versus one which seems random.


 I'm not sure if you are trying to imply something about the nature of the 
 brain and consciousness here, or not. Presumably brain cells would be just 
 as happy recognising granny or solving equations - that is, brain cells 
 take in signals from other brain cells, and if the sum of these exceeds 
 some threshold, they send out a signal of their own. This seems fairly 
 similar to what NAND gates do inside a computer. (Or what the cogs in a 
 difference engine do, or the floating weights in the Olympia computer do, 
 etc.)

 So one could equally well say, what brain cells do is not consciousness 
 or sensation. Yes presumably brain cells, when lumped together into a 
 brain, manage to *produce* consciousness and sensation, and apparently 
 they do this through a process that is at least somewhat similar to what 
 the logic gates inside computers do.

 So, to clarify, are you claiming that consciousness *cannot be produced 
 by* computation, or just making the observation that the process of 
 computation is not the same thing as consciousness or sensation, much as my 
 brain isn't the same thing as my thoughts?




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Re: what is the definition of computation?

2014-01-22 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Tuesday, January 21, 2014 11:08:45 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 On 22 January 2014 15:04, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript:
  wrote:

 Computation is the nested, recursive enumeration of uniform symbolic 
 bodies. The effectiveness of computation derives from its metaphorical 
 application to material bodies, which can, through physical properties, be 
 manipulated to deliver results which satisfy our expectations.


 Sorry to be dense but what *is* the nested, recursive enumeration of 
 uniform symbolic bodies ?


 Computation is not consciousness or sensation. It has no qualities of its 
 own, and a computer would be just as happy producing Mandelbrot sets as 
 noise, just as abacus beads are just as happy in a pattern that we might 
 find meaningful versus one which seems random.


 I'm not sure if you are trying to imply something about the nature of the 
 brain and consciousness here, or not. Presumably brain cells would be just 
 as happy recognising granny or solving equations - that is, brain cells 
 take in signals from other brain cells, and if the sum of these exceeds 
 some threshold, they send out a signal of their own. This seems fairly 
 similar to what NAND gates do inside a computer. (Or what the cogs in a 
 difference engine do, or the floating weights in the Olympia computer do, 
 etc.)

 So one could equally well say, what brain cells do is not consciousness 
 or sensation.


Yes, although what we think brain cells are is based only on the 
measurements and descriptions that we have derived from our body's view of 
other instrument's views.

 

 Yes presumably brain cells, when lumped together into a brain, manage to 
 *produce* consciousness and sensation, and apparently they do this 
 through a process that is at least somewhat similar to what the logic gates 
 inside computers do.


I would not presume that. Brain cells are never lumped together into a 
brain, they reproduce themselves from a single zygote splitting apart. They 
don't produce consciousness, they already are consciousness on the 
microbiotic scale (relative to our own). I don't think that consciousness 
is not produced, it is attenuated from the Totality.
 


 So, to clarify, are you claiming that consciousness *cannot be produced 
 by* computation,


Yes.
 

 or just making the observation that the process of computation is not the 
 same thing as consciousness or sensation, much as my brain isn't the same 
 thing as my thoughts?


Consciousness uses computation to offload that which is too monotonous to 
find meaningful any longer. That is the function of computation, 
automation, and mechanism in all cases: To remove or displace the necessity 
for consciousness. What is the opposite of automatic? Manual. What is 
manual? By hand - intentional, personal, aware.

See what I mean?

Thanks,
Craig

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Re: what is the definition of computation?

2014-01-22 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Tuesday, January 21, 2014 11:08:45 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 On 22 January 2014 15:04, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript:
  wrote:

 Computation is the nested, recursive enumeration of uniform symbolic 
 bodies. The effectiveness of computation derives from its metaphorical 
 application to material bodies, which can, through physical properties, be 
 manipulated to deliver results which satisfy our expectations.


 Sorry to be dense but what *is* the nested, recursive enumeration of 
 uniform symbolic bodies ?


I think that it's a reflection of the Totality as seen from a hypothetical 
exterior. If you look at a crowd of people from a the top of a building, 
you can count them, you can count the number of times someone joins the 
crowd, you can count the rate that the crowd grows, you can count the rate 
that growth grows, etc. It's derivative abstraction that can be made useful 
in prediction and control of things that behave like crowds. If you want to 
know something about the individuals in the crowd, computation is much less 
relevant. You have to break them down into symbolic categories that act 
like uniform data objects...which they are not.
 


 Computation is not consciousness or sensation. It has no qualities of its 
 own, and a computer would be just as happy producing Mandelbrot sets as 
 noise, just as abacus beads are just as happy in a pattern that we might 
 find meaningful versus one which seems random.


 I'm not sure if you are trying to imply something about the nature of the 
 brain and consciousness here, or not. Presumably brain cells would be just 
 as happy recognising granny or solving equations - that is, brain cells 
 take in signals from other brain cells, and if the sum of these exceeds 
 some threshold, they send out a signal of their own. This seems fairly 
 similar to what NAND gates do inside a computer. (Or what the cogs in a 
 difference engine do, or the floating weights in the Olympia computer do, 
 etc.)

 So one could equally well say, what brain cells do is not consciousness 
 or sensation. Yes presumably brain cells, when lumped together into a 
 brain, manage to *produce* consciousness and sensation, and apparently 
 they do this through a process that is at least somewhat similar to what 
 the logic gates inside computers do.

 So, to clarify, are you claiming that consciousness *cannot be produced 
 by* computation, or just making the observation that the process of 
 computation is not the same thing as consciousness or sensation, much as my 
 brain isn't the same thing as my thoughts?



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Re: The multiverse and the arrow of time - MWI experts please?

2014-01-22 Thread Alberto G. Corona
in the mathematical multiverse hypothesis, there hasn't to be time at
all. A mathematical equation has not something called time. Time is
the line followed by the Self Aware Structures and their evolution in
them, if there are any life.

 No life, no time. If there is life, the lines of life-time follow the
gradient of entropy, that in mathematical terms is also well defined.
See for example metric entropy.

I explain that here:
http://www.slideshare.net/agcorona1/arrow-of-time-determined-by-lthe-easier-direction-of-computation-for-life

2014/1/21, Pierz pier...@gmail.com:
 I am putting this out in order to clarify my understanding - hopefully the
 MWI experts out there can help me out here. A while back I asked whether
 the past can be undefined at a quantum level the way the future is. I asked

 this because I recall (somewhat vaguely unfortunately) reading or hearing
 something from Stephen Hawking in which he appeared to argue that at a
 certain very early point in the universe, there is no longer a single
 history, but quantum uncertainty comes into play, with important
 implications. Anyway, the response to my question indicated that most
 people still assume that history represents a single, well-defined line
 through the multiverse (I'm assuming MWI here, even though I know it's not
 the dominant theory/interpretation).

 I have been thinking about this and it occurs to me that firstly, the
 single history is only partially true. Since quantum interference patterns
 occur in MWI due to interference between universes, which can only occur if

 universes can merge again after splitting, then at least at this level, the

 past is not well defined. If a universe merges back with another from which

 it had temporarily diverged, then an observer within that universe cannot
 say which path he followed to get there. She followed all possible paths.
 Of course those divergent universes were only trivially different, or else
 decoherence would have made the merging impossible. But of course in any
 real universe, there will be a vast number of such nanohistories, because

 of the immense number of quantum interactions where merging occurs. So at
 this very short time/space scale level at least, it is impossible to define

 a single history. Correct?

 However at a macroscopic scale, it appears difficult for history to be
 intrinsically ambiguous. In other words the network of nodes of the
 multiverse is like a tree not a net. There may be tiny branches that rejoin

 one another at the smallest scale, but the limbs of the tree cannot merge
 back together. I can always define a single route back to the trunk, though

 if I go further up the tree, I will be forced to decide repeatedly which
 way to go. This branching is defined by time, so doesn't this effectively
 give an arrow of time? Yet the laws of physics are not supposed to be
 directional in time except through aggregation of effects as entropy. Are
 these two arrows related? How?

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-22 Thread John Clark
On Mon, Jan 20, 2014 at 8:45 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 I think Bruno gave a good definition of 'free will' as unpredictability
 (even by oneself).


Bruno's definition? For well over 20 years I have been insisting here and
elsewhere that there are only 2 definitions of Free Will that are not
gibberish, and they are almost never used:

1) Free Will is the inability to predict your own actions even in a
stable environment.
2) Free Will is a noise made by the mouth.

  An extreme case would be the bank manager who robs his own bank because
 his wife and children are held hostage.


Very extreme. A case could be made for mitigating punishment if it could be
proven that the circumstances that caused him to commit the crime were very
unusual and unlikely to be repeated in the future. Unfortunately texting
during a movie is not very unusual so I'd throw the book at the guy who
murdered a man for doing that. Junk food like Twinkies are not very unusual
either, nevertheless the Twinkie Defense has allowed people to literally
get away with murder. The law is an ass:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Twinkie_defense#Diminished_capacity


 On the other hand the man who murdered for money is obviously more
 thoughtful about weighing his options


And thus is less dangerous and at least in my eyes less contemptible than
the impulse killer,

 and is more likely to be deterred by the prospect of punishment.


Granted.

 Imprisoning or executing the first man will prevent him from shooting
 other texters,


I'm not at all sure imprisoning him will have that effect because people
text in prison, and people escape from prison, and who knows what other
trivial thing could send him into a homicidal rage.

  John K Clark

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Re: The multiverse and the arrow of time - MWI experts please?

2014-01-22 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Alberto,

This is total nonsense. It assumes the universe did not evolve for 13.4 
billion years until life came along.

It's even crazier than block time and MWI

Edgar




On Wednesday, January 22, 2014 9:19:58 AM UTC-5, Alberto G.Corona wrote:

 in the mathematical multiverse hypothesis, there hasn't to be time at 
 all. A mathematical equation has not something called time. Time is 
 the line followed by the Self Aware Structures and their evolution in 
 them, if there are any life. 

  No life, no time. If there is life, the lines of life-time follow the 
 gradient of entropy, that in mathematical terms is also well defined. 
 See for example metric entropy. 

 I explain that here: 

 http://www.slideshare.net/agcorona1/arrow-of-time-determined-by-lthe-easier-direction-of-computation-for-life
  

 2014/1/21, Pierz pie...@gmail.com javascript:: 
  I am putting this out in order to clarify my understanding - hopefully 
 the 
  MWI experts out there can help me out here. A while back I asked whether 
  the past can be undefined at a quantum level the way the future is. I 
 asked 
  
  this because I recall (somewhat vaguely unfortunately) reading or 
 hearing 
  something from Stephen Hawking in which he appeared to argue that at a 
  certain very early point in the universe, there is no longer a single 
  history, but quantum uncertainty comes into play, with important 
  implications. Anyway, the response to my question indicated that most 
  people still assume that history represents a single, well-defined line 
  through the multiverse (I'm assuming MWI here, even though I know it's 
 not 
  the dominant theory/interpretation). 
  
  I have been thinking about this and it occurs to me that firstly, the 
  single history is only partially true. Since quantum interference 
 patterns 
  occur in MWI due to interference between universes, which can only occur 
 if 
  
  universes can merge again after splitting, then at least at this level, 
 the 
  
  past is not well defined. If a universe merges back with another from 
 which 
  
  it had temporarily diverged, then an observer within that universe 
 cannot 
  say which path he followed to get there. She followed all possible 
 paths. 
  Of course those divergent universes were only trivially different, or 
 else 
  decoherence would have made the merging impossible. But of course in any 
  real universe, there will be a vast number of such nanohistories, 
 because 
  
  of the immense number of quantum interactions where merging occurs. So 
 at 
  this very short time/space scale level at least, it is impossible to 
 define 
  
  a single history. Correct? 
  
  However at a macroscopic scale, it appears difficult for history to be 
  intrinsically ambiguous. In other words the network of nodes of the 
  multiverse is like a tree not a net. There may be tiny branches that 
 rejoin 
  
  one another at the smallest scale, but the limbs of the tree cannot 
 merge 
  back together. I can always define a single route back to the trunk, 
 though 
  
  if I go further up the tree, I will be forced to decide repeatedly which 
  way to go. This branching is defined by time, so doesn't this 
 effectively 
  give an arrow of time? Yet the laws of physics are not supposed to be 
  directional in time except through aggregation of effects as entropy. 
 Are 
  these two arrows related? How? 
  
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 Groups 
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Re: Church thesis = non computable functions exist (Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread David Nyman
On 22 January 2014 09:45, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 I think I said the fl;ashlight wasn't needed, so it isn't there, and so
 nothing moves it around. The pigeonholes stand for states of consciousness,
 so they perceive what it would illuminate, which is their own contents. But
 they can perceive those without it.


Do you really find that you can make intuitive sense of the pigeon hole
metaphor without the flashlight? I must admit I've never been able to. From
a 3p perspective, the idea is that the relations between pigeon holes map
out a multiplicity of implied spatial-temporal trajectories, all there
together. From a 1p perspective this would seem to transform to a fixed
array of momentary points-of-view, again all there (or illuminated)
together. I think that any attempt to intuit a relativised personal history
from this metaphor cannot avoid the imaginative association with one or
another *sequence* of pigeon holes. The logical alternative would seem to
be to get stuck, monad-like, in whatever pigeon hole you first thought of.

What Hoyle was suggesting, I think, is that the necessary intuitions of a
flow of consciousness can all be collapsed, as it were, into the notion
of a *unique* sequence (in a purely logical sense) of randomly selected
pigeon holes. Such an absolute sequence must then contain all relativised
sequences, with their logical inter-relations and differential measures
preserved. Oddly enough, any notion of flow, as entailing the observation
of transition between holes, is still unnecessary in this schema; indeed it
would be incoherent. The sequencing of pigeon holes carries no relation of
next or previous; the spatial-temporal structure of each pigeon hole is
already conceived as both dynamic and self-ordering, like Barbour's time
capsules.

Rather, the purpose of the logical sequence of pigeon holes - i.e. the beam
of the flashlight - is to furnish an intuition that avoids the
aforementioned monadic catastrophe, by conceiving a unique multiplex of
all possible (parallel) relative sequences. The cost of this heuristic is
that all the pigeon holes now belong to a sort of universal, solipsistic
multiple-personality that lives them (and, by proxy, us) one moment at a
time. It's an interesting idea, with more ramifications than might appear
at first blush, and thinking in this way often sheds an intriguingly
different light on the various thought experiments about identity and
succession we love to argue about on this list.

David

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Re: what is the definition of computation?

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear Alberto,

  I disagree, but like the direction of your thinking.

On Monday, January 20, 2014 3:17:16 PM UTC-5, Alberto G.Corona wrote:

 Computation is understood as whatever made by a digital computer or 
 something that can be emulated (or aproximated) by a digital computer. 
 So everything is a computation. That is a useless definition. because 
 it embrace everything. 


Not everything. It would embrace the category of emulations, simulations, 
representations and all other information related aspects of the universe. 
It is not necessary for this Category to be identified with the physical 
world. Yes, it must be related to the physical but that relation can be a 
morphism to another Category: that of physical objects, forces, 
thermodynamics, energy, etc. Two Categories, side by side, separate yet 
related. If we remove the possibility of distinguishing the members of the 
Categories they collapse into singletons and then, and only then, are 
Identical.
 


  Everything is legoland because everything can be emulated using lego 
 pieces? No, my dear legologist. 

 What about this definition? Computation is whatever that reduces 
 entropy. In information terms, in the human context, computation is 
 whatever that reduces uncertainty producing useful information and 
 thus, in the environment of human society, a computer program is used 
 ultimately to get that information and reduce entropy, that is to 
 increase order in society, or at least for the human that uses it. 


Not correct. Computations that generate output that is identical to their 
input exist. I would say that computations are *any* form of transformation 
of information, including transformations that are automorphisms.
 


 A simulation is an special case of the latter. 

 So there are things that are computations: what the living beings do 
 at the chemical, physiological or nervous levels (and rational, social 
 and technological level in case of humans) . But there are things that 
 are not computations: almost everything else. 


We are using a very narrow definition of computations and thus miss the 
computations that physical processes outside of our CPUs and GPUs are 
performing. If the functions of an Isolated physical system are such that 
the transformations they induce in/on their cover space (?) of 
representations are a simulation of the physical system, what obtains? A 
one to one map of the system that co-evolves with it. When we consider 
physical systems interacting with each other, could they additionally have 
partial emulations of each other within their self-simulations?



 -- 
 Alberto. 


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Re: what is the definition of computation?

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear LizR,

On Monday, January 20, 2014 10:04:38 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 A process which transforms information? 


Any! Define information as the distinction between a pair of things that 
makes a difference to a third. The third is the witness, it gives us a 
notion of 3p...
 

 Ultimately, digital computation comes down to the NAND operation, I'm 
 told, which means it's a lot of bit twiddling which ultimately transforms 
 one lots of bits into another. I guess versions with non-binary data (like 
 DNA I assume?) can be reduced in principle to binary...


We could reduce everything to binary, but we would be very inefficient and 
might be making what are actually computable (with a wider definition of 
computable) into intractable ones. (Where did that idea come from, Stephen 
asks himself... Maybe P=NP after all...)


 Not sure about the entropy definition. Since nothing reduces entropy 
 globally, I assume you mean only locally... Or at the cosmic scale? The 
 expansion of the universe supposedly reduces entropy, or makes more states 
 available to matter at least (I think it increases the maximum available 
 entropy, as per Beckenstein, rather than reducing it).


There is an analogue of Thermodynamics within the computational vision: 
Encryption and decryption operations are not exactly invertible. A one time 
pad encryption, done correctly, transforms text into noise -randomness, 
making it the analogue of entropy. So we say that for closed computations 
noise, increases of is constant.
 


 Well, life does that, I guess, temporarily...


Indeed! 




 On 21 January 2014 09:17, Alberto G. Corona agoc...@gmail.comjavascript:
  wrote:

 Computation is understood as whatever made by a digital computer or
 something that can be emulated (or aproximated) by a digital computer.
 So everything is a computation. That is a useless definition. because
 it embrace everything.

  Everything is legoland because everything can be emulated using lego
 pieces? No, my dear legologist.

 What about this definition? Computation is whatever that reduces
 entropy. In information terms, in the human context, computation is
 whatever that reduces uncertainty producing useful information and
 thus, in the environment of human society, a computer program is used
 ultimately to get that information and reduce entropy, that is to
 increase order in society, or at least for the human that uses it.

 A simulation is an special case of the latter.

 So there are things that are computations: what the living beings do
 at the chemical, physiological or nervous levels (and rational, social
 and technological level in case of humans) . But there are things that
 are not computations: almost everything else.


 --
 Alberto.

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Re: what is the definition of computation?

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear yanniru,

  It is deterministic in the mathematical sense if determinism is some form 
of bijective map between a domain and a range. But we cannot access the 
content of the domain nor of the range. Laplace's Demon can't read it off. 
Resent debate on the topic of the Black Hole Firewall gets into detail on 
this. It seems that our current physics ideas are not quite up to the task 
of analysis of what is going on. This happens when we consider multiple 
observers and their mutual communications of their observations.

On Monday, January 20, 2014 11:22:31 PM UTC-5, yanniru wrote:

 The notion that computation produces information contradicts the notion 
 that information is conserved
 made famous by the black hole paradox 
 http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Black_hole_information_paradox
 The evolution of the wave function is determined by a unitary 
 operatorhttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unitary_operator, 
 and unitarity http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unitarity_(physics) implies 
 that information is conserved in the quantum sense. This is the strictest 
 form of determinism.
 I wonder how that jives with MWI? Richard


 On Mon, Jan 20, 2014 at 10:04 PM, LizR liz...@gmail.com javascript:wrote:

 A process which transforms information? Ultimately, digital computation 
 comes down to the NAND operation, I'm told, which means it's a lot of bit 
 twiddling which ultimately transforms one lots of bits into another. I 
 guess versions with non-binary data (like DNA I assume?) can be reduced in 
 principle to binary...

 Not sure about the entropy definition. Since nothing reduces entropy 
 globally, I assume you mean only locally... Or at the cosmic scale? The 
 expansion of the universe supposedly reduces entropy, or makes more states 
 available to matter at least (I think it increases the maximum available 
 entropy, as per Beckenstein, rather than reducing it).

 Well, life does that, I guess, temporarily...



 On 21 January 2014 09:17, Alberto G. Corona agoc...@gmail.comjavascript:
  wrote:

 Computation is understood as whatever made by a digital computer or
 something that can be emulated (or aproximated) by a digital computer.
 So everything is a computation. That is a useless definition. because
 it embrace everything.

  Everything is legoland because everything can be emulated using lego
 pieces? No, my dear legologist.

 What about this definition? Computation is whatever that reduces
 entropy. In information terms, in the human context, computation is
 whatever that reduces uncertainty producing useful information and
 thus, in the environment of human society, a computer program is used
 ultimately to get that information and reduce entropy, that is to
 increase order in society, or at least for the human that uses it.

 A simulation is an special case of the latter.

 So there are things that are computations: what the living beings do
 at the chemical, physiological or nervous levels (and rational, social
 and technological level in case of humans) . But there are things that
 are not computations: almost everything else.


 --
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Re: what is the definition of computation?

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear Bruno,

On Tuesday, January 21, 2014 8:51:14 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 20 Jan 2014, at 21:17, Alberto G. Corona wrote: 

  Computation is understood as whatever made by a digital computer or 
  something that can be emulated (or aproximated) by a digital computer. 

 OK. That's a good definition, and it is correct if ... we assume   
 Church's thesis. 



  So everything is a computation. 

 Goddam! Why. Even just about what is true in arithmetic cannot be   
 emulated by any computer. 

 I am afraid you might not really grasp what a computer is,   
 conceptually. See my answer to stephen yesterday, which shows wahy   
 Church thesis entails that most attribute of *machines* cannot be   
 computed by a machine. 

 Or think about Cantor theorem. The set of functions from N top N is   
 not enumerable, yet the set of *computable* functions is enumerable. 


That is a theorem that takes certain axioms as true... We can build 
theories with other axioms... I wish to escape the prison of the Tennenbaum 
Theorem!
 





  That is a useless definition. because 
  it embrace everything. 

 For a mathematician, the computable is only a very tiny part of the   
 truth. 




  
  Everything is legoland because everything can be emulated using lego 
  pieces? No, my dear legologist. 

 Not veything can be emulated by a computer. few things actually in   
 usual math. Some constructivist reduces math so that everything   
 becomes computable, but even there, few agree. 
 In Brouwer intuitionist analysis he uses the axiom all function are   
 continuous or all functions are computable, but this is very   
 special approach, and not well suited to study computationalism (which   
 becomes trivial somehow there). 


  
  What about this definition? Computation is whatever that reduces 
  entropy. 

 It will not work, because all computation can be done in a way which   
 does not change the entropy at all. See Landauer, Zurek, etc. 

 Only erasing information change entropy, and you don't need to erase   
 information to compute. 



  In information terms, in the human context, computation is 
  whatever that reduces uncertainty producing useful information and 
  thus, in the environment of human society, a computer program is used 
  ultimately to get that information and reduce entropy, that is to 
  increase order in society, or at least for the human that uses it. 

 The UD generates uncertainty (from inside). 


  
  A simulation is an special case of the latter. 
  
  So there are things that are computations: what the living beings do 
  at the chemical, physiological or nervous levels (and rational, social 
  and technological level in case of humans) . But there are things that 
  are not computations: almost everything else. 

 That is the case with the definition you started above, and which is   
 the one used by theoretical computer scientist. 

 Bruno 


 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ 





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Re: what is the definition of computation?

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear Alberto,

On Tuesday, January 21, 2014 4:44:18 AM UTC-5, Alberto G.Corona wrote:

 Liz, Richard: 

 I´m not talking about global reduction of entropy neither of the 
 universe neither a star, planet of black hole, but a local decrease of 
 entropy at the cost of a (bigger) increase of entropy in the 
 surroundings, so that the global entropy grows. 

  I mean local.  A computation becomes whatever that permit the pumping 
 of entropy from inwards to outwards and thus maintain the integrity of 
 the entity that computes to do further computations. That is the 
 definition of life in physical terms. so that life and computation are 
 entangled in some way. The byproduct of this activity is an increase 
 of entropy of the surroundings. No thermodynamical or any other 
 physical law is violated. 


Like a refrigerator
 


 Within this definition, a computer alone does not perform computations 
  a man that uses the computer to calculate his VAT declaration is 
 performing a computation, because doing so the man has the information 
 to deal with  entropy increase produced by law enforcers. The 
 semaphore system in a city perform computations when considering the 
 system as the city as a whole. for the same reason. but also any 
 living being computes as well. 


Right! Beware of thinking in terms of isolated objects! 


 There hasn´t to  be digital. analogic, chemical computations, for 
 example, hormone levels can be part of a computation. Neurons are not 
 digital. the activation potentials are not quantized to certains 
 discrete levels.  Digital computation, for example in DNA 
 encoding-decoding or in the case of digital computers are good for 
 storing and communicating information for a long time against 
 environmental noise.  Shannon law demonstrate why it is so. there is 
 nothing magic about digital. But when noise is not a concern, 
 analogical paths of chemical reactions with protein catalizers perform 
 fine computations. More often than not, computation is 
 analogic-digital. Living beings do it so. But also human systems, a 
 car with a man inside, keeps entropy so there is a analogico-digital 
 computation going on. 

 So computation in this sense means not only computation as such but 
 also perception or data input -or information intake- and a proper 
 response (as result of the computation) in the physical world that 
 keeps the internal entropy. 


Right on! 


 2014/1/20, Alberto G. Corona agoc...@gmail.com javascript:: 
  Computation is understood as whatever made by a digital computer or 
  something that can be emulated (or aproximated) by a digital computer. 
  So everything is a computation. That is a useless definition. because 
  it embrace everything. 
  
   Everything is legoland because everything can be emulated using lego 
  pieces? No, my dear legologist. 
  
  What about this definition? Computation is whatever that reduces 
  entropy. In information terms, in the human context, computation is 
  whatever that reduces uncertainty producing useful information and 
  thus, in the environment of human society, a computer program is used 
  ultimately to get that information and reduce entropy, that is to 
  increase order in society, or at least for the human that uses it. 
  
  A simulation is an special case of the latter. 
  
  So there are things that are computations: what the living beings do 
  at the chemical, physiological or nervous levels (and rational, social 
  and technological level in case of humans) . But there are things that 
  are not computations: almost everything else. 
  
  
  -- 
  Alberto. 
  


 -- 
 Alberto. 


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Re: Modal Logic (Part 1: Leibniz)

2014-01-22 Thread Bruno Marchal

Hi Liz,

May be I am to quick.


On 22 Jan 2014, at 12:58, Bruno Marchal wrote:



On 22 Jan 2014, at 04:23, LizR wrote:


On 21 January 2014 22:29, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

No, it is all good, Liz!

What about:

(p V q) - p

Using the same formula this is equivalent to(~(p V q) V p), which  
for (0,1) is 0, hence not a law.


and

p - (p  q)

And this is (~p V (p  q)) which is 0 for (1,0), hence also not a  
law :-)


What about (still in CPL) the question:

is (p  q) - r equivalent with p - (q - r)

is (~(p  q) V r) equal to (~p V (~q V r)) ?

or is

~((p  q)  ~r) equal to ~(p  ~~(q  ~r))

i.e. is

~((p  q)  ~r) equal to ~(p  (q  ~r))

I'm going to take a punt and assume the order in which things are  
ANDed together doesn't matter, in which case the above comes out as  
equal (equivalent). Did I blow it?


Not sure that I understand what you mean by blowing it. But you are  
correct in all answers.







Oh! You did not answer:

((COLD  WET) - ICE)   -  ((COLD - ICE) V (WET - ICE))

Eek! That is even more difficult. Luckily you provided something  
that didn't involve so much typing...


((p  q) - r)   -   ((p - r) V (q - r))

Expanding furiously and trying not to make any mistakes...

~((p  q)  ~r) - ( ~(p  ~r) V ~(q  ~r))

~(~((p  q)  ~r)  ~(~(p  ~r) V ~(q  ~r)))

Um! Assuming for a moment that's correct, we have 8 possible  
combinations of values for p,q,r


r = 0 gives 1 (so that's half the values sorted)
r = 1 also gives 1 (so that's the other half)

So assuming I expanded it correctly, it's a law.


Very good. And so

((COLD  WET) - ICE)   -  ((COLD - ICE) V (WET - ICE))

Is true in all worlds!

Of course it is non sense if you interpret the arrow in p - q as  
a causal implication. I use that formula to explain that - is not  
a causal relation.





I will try more later...


OK.
Oh, it looks we are later:

Actually, you will have to remind me what [] and  mean before I  
go any further.


OK.

Let us take only 3 propositional variable, or letters,  in our  
language;   p, q, and r, say.


A world (in that context) is given when we say which (atomic)  
proposition is true, and which is false.


So, with three propositional variable we get 8 worlds, in the  
multiverse associated to {p, q, r} (our language).
They are the one in which p, q, and r are all true, the one in which  
p, and q are true, but r is false, ..., the one in which p, q and r  
are all false.


OK?
If we fix the order p, q, r on {p, q, r}, we can represent a world  
by a sequence of 0 and 1 (which by the way are often used to  
represent true and false)? The 8 worlds of the multiverse are given by


000
100
010
110
101
001
111
011

OK?


Let A, B, C range over arbitrary  formula. I recall that there are  
two kind of formula. the atomic formula and the compound formula.  
(A, B, C are metavariable. A-B is NOT a formula, unless A and B  
designate some formula (which can contains only the formal p, q, r  
(and the logical symbols, parentheses, etc.)
It is the same in algebra. x is not number, unless x designate some  
number, like when x = 42. OK?


An atomic formula is just a letter from our set of propositional  
letter. We call it an atomic proposition when we think about it in  
the company of some truth or false assignment (a proposition can be  
said true, or false, not a letter!). OK?


CPL is truth-functional. It means that the truth value (in some  
world, thus) of a compound formula is determined by the the truth  
value of its subformula, that is eventually by its atomic components.


So the semantic here is very easy, and can be described by the truth  
tables, where the truth value of a compound formula is put under the  
main connector of the formula :


~ p
0 1
1 0

p  q
1 1 1
0 0 1
1 0 0
0 0 0

p V q
1 1 1
0 1 1
1 1 0
0 0 0

p - q   (~p V q)
1 1 1
0 1 1
1 0 0
0 1 0

OK?

Now, your question, what does mean []A, for A some formula. And what  
does mean A


Well, for Leibniz and Aristotle,  it means that A has the value true  
in all worlds, or A is true in all worlds, or that all worlds (in  
the multiverse) satisfy A.


In particular, given that you have shown that (p - p) is a law,  
true in all worlds, we have that


[] (p - p)

OK?   For each CPL laws A, sometime called tautology, we will have  
that []A.


examples are easly derived from you work. We will have

[] (p - p)
[] (p - (q - p))
[] ((p  q) - r)   -   ((p - r) V (q - r))

etc.

OK?  That is easy. tautologies, that is laws,  are universal, so  
they are verified or satisfied in all worlds, and so the fact that  
they are laws is true in all worlds.


This will remain valid for the more general Kripke semantics so you  
might try to remind this:


If A is true in all worlds, then []A is true in all worlds.

OK?

from this, and the semantic of the not ('~'), can you find the  
semantics for the diamond ?


p is true if ~[]~p is true, if []~p is false, which means that  
there is a world in which p is true.


Unfortunately all this 

Re: Church thesis = non computable functions exist (Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear David,

  I have sorely missed your wisdom in this debate!


On Wed, Jan 22, 2014 at 1:06 PM, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:


 On 22 January 2014 09:45, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 I think I said the fl;ashlight wasn't needed, so it isn't there, and so
 nothing moves it around. The pigeonholes stand for states of consciousness,
 so they perceive what it would illuminate, which is their own contents. But
 they can perceive those without it.


 Do you really find that you can make intuitive sense of the pigeon hole
 metaphor without the flashlight? I must admit I've never been able to. From
 a 3p perspective, the idea is that the relations between pigeon holes map
 out a multiplicity of implied spatial-temporal trajectories, all there
 together. From a 1p perspective this would seem to transform to a fixed
 array of momentary points-of-view, again all there (or illuminated)
 together. I think that any attempt to intuit a relativised personal history
 from this metaphor cannot avoid the imaginative association with one or
 another *sequence* of pigeon holes. The logical alternative would seem to
 be to get stuck, monad-like, in whatever pigeon hole you first thought of.

 What Hoyle was suggesting, I think, is that the necessary intuitions of a
 flow of consciousness can all be collapsed, as it were, into the notion
 of a *unique* sequence (in a purely logical sense) of randomly selected
 pigeon holes. Such an absolute sequence must then contain all relativised
 sequences, with their logical inter-relations and differential measures
 preserved. Oddly enough, any notion of flow, as entailing the observation
 of transition between holes, is still unnecessary in this schema; indeed it
 would be incoherent. The sequencing of pigeon holes carries no relation of
 next or previous; the spatial-temporal structure of each pigeon hole is
 already conceived as both dynamic and self-ordering, like Barbour's time
 capsules.

 Rather, the purpose of the logical sequence of pigeon holes - i.e. the
 beam of the flashlight - is to furnish an intuition that avoids the
 aforementioned monadic catastrophe, by conceiving a unique multiplex of
 all possible (parallel) relative sequences. The cost of this heuristic is
 that all the pigeon holes now belong to a sort of universal, solipsistic
 multiple-personality that lives them (and, by proxy, us) one moment at a
 time. It's an interesting idea, with more ramifications than might appear
 at first blush, and thinking in this way often sheds an intriguingly
 different light on the various thought experiments about identity and
 succession we love to argue about on this list.



I found a problem in Barbour's time capsules, the monadic catastrophe,
exactly! Without an implicit before and after relation in the time capsules
they collapse into a singleton or become a chaos of 'everything is
connected to everything else' equally. Leibniz tried to avoid this by
having God compute the Best Possible World prior to the creation of the
Monads, but this is impossible. That computation is intractable. It is the
equivalent of computing the route of a traveling sales man that visits an
uncountable infinity of cities.

  We need the Becoming that is implicit in the moving flashlight, at
least to give us a window of finite duration in time (and bits/space) to
have a memory of what I used to be that can be compared to what I
experience now.


 David

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Re: The multiverse and the arrow of time - MWI experts please?

2014-01-22 Thread Alberto G. Corona
It assumes the mathematical multiverse hypothesis as was defined by
Max Tegmark, where any mathematical structure defines an universe.

2014/1/22, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net:
 Alberto,

 This is total nonsense. It assumes the universe did not evolve for 13.4
 billion years until life came along.

 It's even crazier than block time and MWI

 Edgar




 On Wednesday, January 22, 2014 9:19:58 AM UTC-5, Alberto G.Corona wrote:

 in the mathematical multiverse hypothesis, there hasn't to be time at
 all. A mathematical equation has not something called time. Time is
 the line followed by the Self Aware Structures and their evolution in
 them, if there are any life.

  No life, no time. If there is life, the lines of life-time follow the
 gradient of entropy, that in mathematical terms is also well defined.
 See for example metric entropy.

 I explain that here:

 http://www.slideshare.net/agcorona1/arrow-of-time-determined-by-lthe-easier-direction-of-computation-for-life


 2014/1/21, Pierz pie...@gmail.com javascript::
  I am putting this out in order to clarify my understanding - hopefully
 the
  MWI experts out there can help me out here. A while back I asked whether
 
  the past can be undefined at a quantum level the way the future is. I
 asked
 
  this because I recall (somewhat vaguely unfortunately) reading or
 hearing
  something from Stephen Hawking in which he appeared to argue that at a
  certain very early point in the universe, there is no longer a single
  history, but quantum uncertainty comes into play, with important
  implications. Anyway, the response to my question indicated that most
  people still assume that history represents a single, well-defined line
 
  through the multiverse (I'm assuming MWI here, even though I know it's
 not
  the dominant theory/interpretation).
 
  I have been thinking about this and it occurs to me that firstly, the
  single history is only partially true. Since quantum interference
 patterns
  occur in MWI due to interference between universes, which can only occur
 
 if
 
  universes can merge again after splitting, then at least at this level,
 
 the
 
  past is not well defined. If a universe merges back with another from
 which
 
  it had temporarily diverged, then an observer within that universe
 cannot
  say which path he followed to get there. She followed all possible
 paths.
  Of course those divergent universes were only trivially different, or
 else
  decoherence would have made the merging impossible. But of course in any
 
  real universe, there will be a vast number of such nanohistories,
 because
 
  of the immense number of quantum interactions where merging occurs. So
 at
  this very short time/space scale level at least, it is impossible to
 define
 
  a single history. Correct?
 
  However at a macroscopic scale, it appears difficult for history to be
  intrinsically ambiguous. In other words the network of nodes of the
  multiverse is like a tree not a net. There may be tiny branches that
 rejoin
 
  one another at the smallest scale, but the limbs of the tree cannot
 merge
  back together. I can always define a single route back to the trunk,
 though
 
  if I go further up the tree, I will be forced to decide repeatedly which
 
  way to go. This branching is defined by time, so doesn't this
 effectively
  give an arrow of time? Yet the laws of physics are not supposed to be
 
  directional in time except through aggregation of effects as entropy.
 Are
  these two arrows related? How?
 
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Re: what is the definition of computation?

2014-01-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 22 Jan 2014, at 20:05, Stephen Paul King wrote:


Dear Bruno,

On Tuesday, January 21, 2014 8:51:14 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 20 Jan 2014, at 21:17, Alberto G. Corona wrote:

 Computation is understood as whatever made by a digital computer or
 something that can be emulated (or aproximated) by a digital  
computer.


OK. That's a good definition, and it is correct if ... we assume
Church's thesis.



 So everything is a computation.

Goddam! Why. Even just about what is true in arithmetic cannot be
emulated by any computer.

I am afraid you might not really grasp what a computer is,
conceptually. See my answer to stephen yesterday, which shows wahy
Church thesis entails that most attribute of *machines* cannot be
computed by a machine.

Or think about Cantor theorem. The set of functions from N top N is
not enumerable, yet the set of *computable* functions is enumerable.

That is a theorem that takes certain axioms as true... We can build  
theories with other axioms...


Always. But that would made sense only if you provide the other axioms.



I wish to escape the prison of the Tennenbaum Theorem!


This looks non sensical to me. But even if there were some sense here,  
I remind you that I gave you two days ago, a constructive proof of the  
existence of non computable functions, based on a constructive  
diagonalization procedure (unlike the one by Cantor), (and Church's  
thesis).

Just that with Cantor's result, it is more easy.

Bruno









 That is a useless definition. because
 it embrace everything.

For a mathematician, the computable is only a very tiny part of the
truth.





 Everything is legoland because everything can be emulated using lego
 pieces? No, my dear legologist.

Not veything can be emulated by a computer. few things actually in
usual math. Some constructivist reduces math so that everything
becomes computable, but even there, few agree.
In Brouwer intuitionist analysis he uses the axiom all function are
continuous or all functions are computable, but this is very
special approach, and not well suited to study computationalism (which
becomes trivial somehow there).



 What about this definition? Computation is whatever that reduces
 entropy.

It will not work, because all computation can be done in a way which
does not change the entropy at all. See Landauer, Zurek, etc.

Only erasing information change entropy, and you don't need to erase
information to compute.



 In information terms, in the human context, computation is
 whatever that reduces uncertainty producing useful information and
 thus, in the environment of human society, a computer program is  
used

 ultimately to get that information and reduce entropy, that is to
 increase order in society, or at least for the human that uses it.

The UD generates uncertainty (from inside).



 A simulation is an special case of the latter.

 So there are things that are computations: what the living beings do
 at the chemical, physiological or nervous levels (and rational,  
social
 and technological level in case of humans) . But there are things  
that

 are not computations: almost everything else.

That is the case with the definition you started above, and which is
the one used by theoretical computer scientist.

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/




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Re: what is the definition of computation?

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear Bruno,


On Wed, Jan 22, 2014 at 2:30 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 22 Jan 2014, at 20:05, Stephen Paul King wrote:

 Dear Bruno,

 On Tuesday, January 21, 2014 8:51:14 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 20 Jan 2014, at 21:17, Alberto G. Corona wrote:

  Computation is understood as whatever made by a digital computer or
  something that can be emulated (or aproximated) by a digital computer.

 OK. That's a good definition, and it is correct if ... we assume
 Church's thesis.



  So everything is a computation.

 Goddam! Why. Even just about what is true in arithmetic cannot be
 emulated by any computer.

 I am afraid you might not really grasp what a computer is,
 conceptually. See my answer to stephen yesterday, which shows wahy
 Church thesis entails that most attribute of *machines* cannot be
 computed by a machine.

 Or think about Cantor theorem. The set of functions from N top N is
 not enumerable, yet the set of *computable* functions is enumerable.


 That is a theorem that takes certain axioms as true... We can build
 theories with other axioms...




 Always. But that would made sense only if you provide the other axioms.
 Axioms like the anti- foundation axiom, finite versions of the axiom of
 choice, axioms that imply alternatives to the Cantor continuum hypothesis,
 etc.

   We can design our theories toward some goal. This could be said to
be cheating and assuming what one wishes to proof, but I submit that
canonical logical has done this all along. For example the use of the
foundation axiom to prevent self-containing sets - which prevent
self-reference...

 


 I wish to escape the prison of the Tennenbaum Theorem!


 This looks non sensical to me. But even if there were some sense here, I
 remind you that I gave you two days ago, a constructive proof of the
 existence of non computable functions, based on a constructive
 diagonalization procedure (unlike the one by Cantor), (and Church's thesis).
 Just that with Cantor's result, it is more easy.


It is becoming clear that going with what is easy is a problem. Nature
does not obey our wishes of convenience. It is she who we must obey and
modify our assumptions so that our models and theories match empirical data.

Maybe I am falling victim to a wish, maybe not, but the Tennenbaum's
theorem's prohibition of no countable nonstandard model of Peano arithmetic
(PA), and thus no recursive functions for computation makes some
assumptions.

For example:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tennenbaum's_theorem

A structure http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Model_theory [image:
\scriptstyle M] in the language of PA is recursive if there are recursive
functions + and × from [image: \scriptstyle N \times N] to [image:
\scriptstyle N], a recursive two-place relation  on [image: \scriptstyle N],
and distinguished constants [image: \scriptstyle n_0,n_1] such that
[image: (N,+,\times,,n_{0},n_{1}) \equiv M, \,]

where [image: \scriptstyle \equiv] indicates
isomorphismhttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Isomorphism
 and [image: \scriptstyle N] is the set of (standard) natural
numbershttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Natural_numbers.
Because the isomorphism must be a bijection, every recursive model is
countable. There are many nonisomorphic countable nonstandard models of PA.


*Why must this isomorphism always a bijection?*

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Isomorphism#Isomorphism_vs._bijective_morphism

...there are concrete categories in which bijective morphisms are not
necessarily isomorphisms (such as the category of topological spaces), and
there are categories in which each object admits an underlying set but in
which isomorphisms need not be bijective (such as the homotopy category of
CW-complexes).

  The Stone duality that I am considering for a solution to the mind-body
problem is a subset of the greater Physical things-Representations duality.
You start with AR which, I claim, is equivalent to an axiom that only
representations (in the form of Arithmetic) exist. You then use the fact
that representations can be of themselves, via the Godel numbering or
equivalent schema, to work out a brilliant result that shows that the
physical world can not be an ontological primitive. But it has an open
problem: What is an Arithmetic Body?

  If an Arithmetic body is a topological space that is the Stone dual of
the logical algebra of the computations and there are many mutually irreducible
(via the non-isomorphism of countable nonstandard models of PA) bodies.
These bodies can share a set of functions (Hamiltonians?) that have a
morphism into the countable recursive functions. ISTM that will allow us to
obtain the Church Thesis as a special case. We can also get much more and
possibly address questions of interaction and concurrency that cannot even
be stated in the definition of a Turing Machine.
  Assuming that the Integers and Arithmetic are all that exist is a
gilded prison for our minds.

Free your mind!




 Bruno









  That is a useless 

Re: what is the definition of computation?

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear Bruno,

On Tuesday, January 21, 2014 1:11:16 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 21 Jan 2014, at 15:45, Alberto G. Corona wrote: 

  It is a phisical definition of computation in the physical world, to 
  distinguish what physical phenomena are computations and what are not. 
  I don´t care about mathematical oddities. 

 But nobody has found such a definition. Physical computation are only   
 recognized as computation in machine that we can build, from subset of   
 physical laws, to implement the mathematical definition. 


Why not? The solution is staring us in the face. We have to recognize that 
 the class of Physical systems have related a class of Representations: all 
of the possible measurement data of a physical system. We can examine the 
measurement data and generate simulations of the physical system in order 
to predict its behavior. We call this Physics.
 


 Then it is a theorem that we cannot recognize something as being a   
 computation, even in the arithmetical reality.


Sure, but that assumes that one is dealing with an infinite set. The set of 
measurable data of a physical system is not infinite.
 

 We can build one and   
 recognize those we built, or we can bet that some process computes,   
 like when saying yes to a doctor. But there is no general means to   
 see if something is a computation or not, and this will depends in   
 part of we look at it. 


This remark seems to have an interesting implication: that if I examine 
some string of code that might happen to be a simulation of a physical 
system, I will not be able to know which physical system it is. We get 
universality of computation this way?
 


 Computability is a notion discovered in math. It is related to the key   
 discovery of Turing (also some others) of the universal (Turing)   
 machine. 


But this universality comes with a great price. It abstracts away time and 
space and all the rest of our local reality.
 


 You can defend naturalism, or physicalism, and you have the right to   
 believe in a primitive physical universe. I am agnostic, and I have to   
 be, if only because we have not yet decided between Plato and   
 Aristotle. We are very ignorant, notably on the mind-body question. 


Umm, your agnosticism does not seem very strong. You defend AR very 
strongly. I have offered you a sketch of a solution to the mind-body 
problem and you vigorously attack it with demands for formalism that I 
cannot write. 
   What if both Plato and Aristotle are wrong?
 


 I do not defend computationalism. I just show that IF we assume it,   
 then we get a constructive and testable platonic theology, which   
 explains physics. And I have done a piece of the derivation and tested   
 it. 


It does not take much to show examples of your defend, Bruno. You are lying 
to yourself in claiming I do not defend computationalism. You will not 
consider any alternative.
 


 If you are right on metaphysical naturalism, with a real ontological   
 universe, then comp is wrong. That is all what I say. 



Pfft, that is a false dichotomy. It is not necessary to assume ontological 
primitives that have some set of properties to the exclusion of others. You 
hold onto this dichotomy because it is your tool to defend AR.



  
  Computation in this sense is a manifestation of teleological entities 
  capable of maintaining his internal structure. 

 I can accept this as a putative truth about a notion of physical   
 computation, but this has not yet been defined.


Why do we need a well founded definition? I offer a non-well founded 
definition: Computation is any transformation of Information. Information 
does not need to be of physical systems; it can be of representational 
systems: like you favored Sigmas and PA.
 

 reducing entropy was   
 a good try, less wrong than quantum computation (despite here Turing   
 universality is verifiable), but it does not work as nature can   
 compute without dissipating energy (indeed quantum computers requite   
 that). 



Where do you get that rubbish idea? Quantum computation has been proven to 
require resources if it is to be evaluated. Sure, the evolution of the 
phase is Unitary, but this holds for QM systems in isolation. The only real 
example of such is the Universe itself. We get the Wheeler-Dewitt equation 
with its vanishing of time.




  Math do not compute. 

 That does not make a lot of sense. 


Math performs no actions on its own. 




  Computers do not compute, 

 Only computers compute. That's almost tautological. 
 For example universal computers compute anything computable. 

 I often use the word computer in the sense of the french   
 ordinateur, which means all purpose computer or universal computer. 


  Books do not compute. 

 We agree on this! 



  Is people that compute 
  with the help of them. 


 That makes sense, if only because the Turing machine describe very   
 well how a person compute with pencil and paper, going through   
 

Re: what is the definition of computation?

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear Craig,

On Wednesday, January 22, 2014 9:19:54 AM UTC-5, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Tuesday, January 21, 2014 11:08:45 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 On 22 January 2014 15:04, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 Computation is the nested, recursive enumeration of uniform symbolic 
 bodies. The effectiveness of computation derives from its metaphorical 
 application to material bodies, which can, through physical properties, be 
 manipulated to deliver results which satisfy our expectations.


 Sorry to be dense but what *is* the nested, recursive enumeration of 
 uniform symbolic bodies ?


 I think that it's a reflection of the Totality as seen from a hypothetical 
 exterior. If you look at a crowd of people from a the top of a building, 
 you can count them, you can count the number of times someone joins the 
 crowd, you can count the rate that the crowd grows, you can count the rate 
 that growth grows, etc. It's derivative abstraction that can be made useful 
 in prediction and control of things that behave like crowds. If you want to 
 know something about the individuals in the crowd, computation is much less 
 relevant. You have to break them down into symbolic categories that act 
 like uniform data objects...which they are not.


Ah, how easy is it to mistake the Map for the Territory.
 

  


 Computation is not consciousness or sensation. It has no qualities of 
 its own, and a computer would be just as happy producing Mandelbrot sets as 
 noise, just as abacus beads are just as happy in a pattern that we might 
 find meaningful versus one which seems random.


 I'm not sure if you are trying to imply something about the nature of the 
 brain and consciousness here, or not. Presumably brain cells would be just 
 as happy recognising granny or solving equations - that is, brain cells 
 take in signals from other brain cells, and if the sum of these exceeds 
 some threshold, they send out a signal of their own. This seems fairly 
 similar to what NAND gates do inside a computer. (Or what the cogs in a 
 difference engine do, or the floating weights in the Olympia computer do, 
 etc.)

 So one could equally well say, what brain cells do is not consciousness 
 or sensation. Yes presumably brain cells, when lumped together into a 
 brain, manage to *produce* consciousness and sensation, and apparently 
 they do this through a process that is at least somewhat similar to what 
 the logic gates inside computers do.

 So, to clarify, are you claiming that consciousness *cannot be produced 
 by* computation, or just making the observation that the process of 
 computation is not the same thing as consciousness or sensation, much as my 
 brain isn't the same thing as my thoughts?



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Re: Donald Hoffman Video on Interface Theory of Consciousness

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear Craig,

On Thursday, January 16, 2014 2:54:19 PM UTC-5, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Wednesday, January 15, 2014 2:59:50 PM UTC-5, freqflyer07281972 wrote:

 Hey Craig!

 I watched the video... very cool!


 Hi Dan, glad you liked it.
  


 Questions:

 1) Who is the user of the interface? What is us?


 I'm not sure what Hoffman's answer would be, but I think that the user is 
 experience itself. Questions about consciousness all involve correlating 
 different levels and categories of experience, but everyone seems to 
 overlook the levels and categories themselves. It is the discernment of 
 aesthetic particulars, rather than generic data which makes up 
 consciousness and the universe. The experience of users or us is part of 
 that, rather than the other way around. We are an experience of us having 
 experiences.


I would say that the the user is the the model of self within the model of 
experience. Experience is a computational construct.
 


 2) What is the interface representing? Hoffman uses the analogy of the 
 file and the trash bin icons on the desktop. In a computer, I know that the 
 file ultimately represents binary values that are encoded on a physical 
 portion of my hard disk. The values themselves are voltage potentials that 
 are sustained in a persistent way thanks to the laws of quantum physics 
 (aside: jeez, who would have thought such a random theory could provide 
 such stability at the macroscopic level?) and are interpreted by a human 
 user. What is the analogue of the voltage potentials in the interface 
 theory? 


 Again, I don't know what he would say, but to me, the interface is 
 representing the presence of experience on some distant level. The raw 
 stuff of the universe, in my view, is self-nesting sensory-motive 
 phenomena...represented by more of the same.


I would say that  there is no raw stuff there is only nested levels of 
models of incontrovertible experiential content.


 Thanks,
 Craig


 Cheers,

 Dan

 On Tuesday, January 14, 2014 1:31:56 PM UTC-5, Craig Weinberg wrote:

 Donald Hoffman Video on Interface Theory of 
 Consciousnesshttp://m.youtube.com/watch?v=dqDP34a-epI

 A very good presentation with lot of overlap on my views. He proposes 
 similar ideas about a sensory-motive primitive and the nature of the world 
 as experience rather than “objective”. What is not factored in is the 
 relation between local and remote experiences and how that relation 
 actually defines the appearance of that relation. Instead of seeing agents 
 as isolated mechanisms, I think they should be seen as more like breaches 
 in the fabric of insensitivity.

 It is a little misleading to say (near the end) that a spoon is no more 
 public than a headache. In my view what makes a spoon different from a 
 headache is precisely that the metal is more public than the private 
 experience of a headache. If we make the mistake of assuming an Absolutely 
 public perspective*, then yes, the spoon is not in it, because the spoon is 
 different things depending on how small, large, fast, or slow you are. For 
 the same reason, however, nothing can be said to be in such a perspective. 
 There is no experience of the world which does not originate through the 
 relativity of experience itself. Of course the spoon is more public than a 
 headache, in our experience. To think otherwise as a literal truth would be 
 psychotic or solipsistic. In the Absolute sense, sure, the spoon is a 
 sensory phenomena and nothing else, it is not purely public (nothing is), 
 but locally, is certainly is ‘more’ public.

 Something that he mentioned in the presentation had to do with linear 
 algebra and using a matrix of columns which add up to be one. To really 
 jump off into a new level of understanding consciousness, I would think of 
 the totality of experience as something like a matrix of columns which add 
 up, not to 1, but to “=1″. Adding up to 1 is a good enough starting point, 
 as it allows us to think of agents as holes which feel separate on one side 
 and united on the other. Thinking of it as “=1″ instead makes it into a 
 portable unity that does something. Each hole recapitulates the totality as 
 well as its own relation to that recapitulation: ‘just like’ unity. From 
 there, the door is open to universal metaphor and local contrasts of degree 
 and kind.

 *mathematics invites to do this, because it inverts the naming function 
 of language. Instead of describing a phenomenon in our experience through a 
 common sense of language, math enumerates relationships between theories 
 about experience. The difference is that language can either project itself 
 publicly or integrate public-facing experiences privately, but math is a 
 language which can only face itself. Through math, reflections of 
 experience are fragmented and re-assembled into an ideal rationality – the 
 ideal rationality which reflects the very ideal of rationality that it 
 embodies.



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You received 

Re: Donald Hoffman Video on Interface Theory of Consciousness

2014-01-22 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Wednesday, January 22, 2014 5:26:15 PM UTC-5, Stephen Paul King wrote:

 Dear Craig,

 On Thursday, January 16, 2014 2:54:19 PM UTC-5, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Wednesday, January 15, 2014 2:59:50 PM UTC-5, freqflyer07281972 wrote:

 Hey Craig!

 I watched the video... very cool!


 Hi Dan, glad you liked it.
  


 Questions:

 1) Who is the user of the interface? What is us?


 I'm not sure what Hoffman's answer would be, but I think that the user is 
 experience itself. Questions about consciousness all involve correlating 
 different levels and categories of experience, but everyone seems to 
 overlook the levels and categories themselves. It is the discernment of 
 aesthetic particulars, rather than generic data which makes up 
 consciousness and the universe. The experience of users or us is part of 
 that, rather than the other way around. We are an experience of us having 
 experiences.


 I would say that the the user is the the model of self within the model 
 of experience. Experience is a computational construct.


If computation isn't already an experience though, I don't see it as 
plausible that it would need to construct something like that.
 

  


 2) What is the interface representing? Hoffman uses the analogy of the 
 file and the trash bin icons on the desktop. In a computer, I know that the 
 file ultimately represents binary values that are encoded on a physical 
 portion of my hard disk. The values themselves are voltage potentials that 
 are sustained in a persistent way thanks to the laws of quantum physics 
 (aside: jeez, who would have thought such a random theory could provide 
 such stability at the macroscopic level?) and are interpreted by a human 
 user. What is the analogue of the voltage potentials in the interface 
 theory? 


 Again, I don't know what he would say, but to me, the interface is 
 representing the presence of experience on some distant level. The raw 
 stuff of the universe, in my view, is self-nesting sensory-motive 
 phenomena...represented by more of the same.


 I would say that  there is no raw stuff there is only nested levels of 
 models of incontrovertible experiential content.


Why isn't that a raw stuff? (Metaphorically)
 


 Thanks,
 Craig


 Cheers,

 Dan

 On Tuesday, January 14, 2014 1:31:56 PM UTC-5, Craig Weinberg wrote:

 Donald Hoffman Video on Interface Theory of 
 Consciousnesshttp://m.youtube.com/watch?v=dqDP34a-epI

 A very good presentation with lot of overlap on my views. He proposes 
 similar ideas about a sensory-motive primitive and the nature of the world 
 as experience rather than “objective”. What is not factored in is the 
 relation between local and remote experiences and how that relation 
 actually defines the appearance of that relation. Instead of seeing agents 
 as isolated mechanisms, I think they should be seen as more like breaches 
 in the fabric of insensitivity.

 It is a little misleading to say (near the end) that a spoon is no more 
 public than a headache. In my view what makes a spoon different from a 
 headache is precisely that the metal is more public than the private 
 experience of a headache. If we make the mistake of assuming an Absolutely 
 public perspective*, then yes, the spoon is not in it, because the spoon 
 is 
 different things depending on how small, large, fast, or slow you are. For 
 the same reason, however, nothing can be said to be in such a perspective. 
 There is no experience of the world which does not originate through the 
 relativity of experience itself. Of course the spoon is more public than a 
 headache, in our experience. To think otherwise as a literal truth would 
 be 
 psychotic or solipsistic. In the Absolute sense, sure, the spoon is a 
 sensory phenomena and nothing else, it is not purely public (nothing is), 
 but locally, is certainly is ‘more’ public.

 Something that he mentioned in the presentation had to do with linear 
 algebra and using a matrix of columns which add up to be one. To really 
 jump off into a new level of understanding consciousness, I would think of 
 the totality of experience as something like a matrix of columns which add 
 up, not to 1, but to “=1″. Adding up to 1 is a good enough starting point, 
 as it allows us to think of agents as holes which feel separate on one 
 side 
 and united on the other. Thinking of it as “=1″ instead makes it into a 
 portable unity that does something. Each hole recapitulates the totality 
 as 
 well as its own relation to that recapitulation: ‘just like’ unity. From 
 there, the door is open to universal metaphor and local contrasts of 
 degree 
 and kind.

 *mathematics invites to do this, because it inverts the naming function 
 of language. Instead of describing a phenomenon in our experience through 
 a 
 common sense of language, math enumerates relationships between theories 
 about experience. The difference is that language can either project 
 itself 
 publicly or integrate public-facing 

Re: what is the definition of computation?

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 23 January 2014 03:13, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

 Consciousness uses computation to offload that which is too monotonous to
 find meaningful any longer. That is the function of computation,
 automation, and mechanism in all cases: To remove or displace the necessity
 for consciousness. What is the opposite of automatic? Manual. What is
 manual? By hand - intentional, personal, aware.

 See what I mean?

 Yes, and it's an interesting viewpoint (and more far out than I
expected!)

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Re: what is the definition of computation?

2014-01-22 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Wednesday, January 22, 2014 5:17:25 PM UTC-5, Stephen Paul King wrote:

 Dear Craig,

 On Wednesday, January 22, 2014 9:19:54 AM UTC-5, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Tuesday, January 21, 2014 11:08:45 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 On 22 January 2014 15:04, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 Computation is the nested, recursive enumeration of uniform symbolic 
 bodies. The effectiveness of computation derives from its metaphorical 
 application to material bodies, which can, through physical properties, be 
 manipulated to deliver results which satisfy our expectations.


 Sorry to be dense but what *is* the nested, recursive enumeration of 
 uniform symbolic bodies ?


 I think that it's a reflection of the Totality as seen from a 
 hypothetical exterior. If you look at a crowd of people from a the top of a 
 building, you can count them, you can count the number of times someone 
 joins the crowd, you can count the rate that the crowd grows, you can count 
 the rate that growth grows, etc. It's derivative abstraction that can be 
 made useful in prediction and control of things that behave like crowds. If 
 you want to know something about the individuals in the crowd, computation 
 is much less relevant. You have to break them down into symbolic categories 
 that act like uniform data objects...which they are not.


 Ah, how easy is it to mistake the Map for the Territory.


For sure. They are almost equal...except that the Map both doesn't need a 
territory and is meaningless without one, whereas a territory has more 
meaning with maps but exists independently of them as well. Of course, in 
my view, the only true territory is sense experience itself.
 

  

  


 Computation is not consciousness or sensation. It has no qualities of 
 its own, and a computer would be just as happy producing Mandelbrot sets 
 as 
 noise, just as abacus beads are just as happy in a pattern that we might 
 find meaningful versus one which seems random.


 I'm not sure if you are trying to imply something about the nature of 
 the brain and consciousness here, or not. Presumably brain cells would be 
 just as happy recognising granny or solving equations - that is, brain 
 cells take in signals from other brain cells, and if the sum of these 
 exceeds some threshold, they send out a signal of their own. This seems 
 fairly similar to what NAND gates do inside a computer. (Or what the cogs 
 in a difference engine do, or the floating weights in the Olympia computer 
 do, etc.)

 So one could equally well say, what brain cells do is not consciousness 
 or sensation. Yes presumably brain cells, when lumped together into a 
 brain, manage to *produce* consciousness and sensation, and apparently 
 they do this through a process that is at least somewhat similar to what 
 the logic gates inside computers do.

 So, to clarify, are you claiming that consciousness *cannot be produced 
 by* computation, or just making the observation that the process of 
 computation is not the same thing as consciousness or sensation, much as my 
 brain isn't the same thing as my thoughts?



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Re: what is the definition of computation?

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 23 January 2014 03:13, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Wednesday, January 22, 2014 5:10:34 AM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 Addendum

 Sorry a wee typo. I meant *Yet* presumably brain cells, when lumped
 together into a brain...


 It bugs me that you can't edit after posting on here. I guess every forum
 has its irritating features.


Yes. I tend to his submit then read through...

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Re: Tegmark's New Book

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 23 January 2014 02:22, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.comwrote:

 Dear LizR,
 On Wed, Jan 22, 2014 at 4:40 AM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 22 January 2014 17:35, Stephen Paul King 
 stephe...@provensecure.comwrote:

 Dear LizR,

   Yes, there are many ontological assumptions. Could you list a few that
 seem obvious to you? It is not easy to cut and paste from a pdf. Can you
 open it in the Chrome browser?

In this ontology, all of the known math ideas still work, and those
 that become known as discovered. The key is that they do not exist as
 independent entities that are some how separable from the observer.


 Well, there you have an assumption right there! (Did I mention
 Pythagoras? A million schoolchildren know that his theorem is separable
 from the observer because they had to be taught it.)


 Yes, it is an assumption. Are those schoolchildren observers? Do they
 comprehend in some small way what a^2+b^2=c^2 represents? The point is that
 a representation of a thing is not the thing unless it IS the thing. Is a
 number merely a pattern of chalk on the blackboard? What about a different
 pattern of dots on a piece of paper, could it represent the same referent?


Yes, it could.


Separability is a tricky and subtle concept...


Not from that example, that seems crystal clear! :-)



 Representations require presentations, they must be rendered by a
 physical process to be perceived, understood, known, described, etc.


 I this is considered in some way significant, I assume there is some
 confusion between the representation with the thing being represented.


 What is the relation between the two? My proposition is that there is a
 relation between the category of Representations and the category of things
 being represented (or objects). This relation is an isomorphism but not
 always bijective.



 Knowledge is not considered to be some thing that is projected into
 our minds by some mysterious process (see the allegory of the Cave).


 This sounds like a straw man. Who has claimed such a thing? (apart from
 the afoirementioned schoolchildren, who would, I am sure, think knowledge
 was indeed being projected into their minds by a mysterious process !)


 Do you have a theory of knowledge that you use? Would this one be OK?
 http://www.marxists.org/reference/subject/philosophy/works/en/russell1.htm

 Russell does not really answer the question... I am trying to wade through
 the ambiguity and point out that what ever the means that knowledge comes
 to pass there is both a physical process and a logical (mental?) process
 and these are not one and the same process.


I would say the physical process instantiates the logical one.


 I'm afraid I am generally suspicious of people whose main aim is to show
 that some other (often imaginary) view is wrong, rather than to attempt to
 demonstrate why their view is likely to be correct.


 I agree. I am trying exactly not to do that...


Good. We've had an example of that on this very forum recently, so I may be
a bit predisposed to react against such... (or maybe doing the same thing
myself, in a meta sort of way)



 It is the action of the brain to implement a mind that allows knowledge
 to come into being.


 So we assume, certainly. That doesn't stop us being able to hypothesise
 that there are things out there, though, and arguably with a certain
 degree of success.


   A related way of thinking is found here in a paper by Zurek on
 decoherence:


 I'll have a look at that, but I don't have time for reading endless
 papers so a precis is always appreciated!


 http://cds.cern.ch/record/640029/files/0308163.pdf


 My takeaway of the paper is that it argues for a Wheelerian
 participatory universe concept. A plurality of observers and the
 interactions amongst them constrain the content of observation. I see this
 as a defining the process that creates realities; realities are not defined
 by a priori fiat.


Well this is certainly *possible*. I mean, no logical contradiction springs
to mind. But one needs (as with comp) to start with a theory of what an
observer is, I imagine...

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Re: Donald Hoffman Video on Interface Theory of Consciousness

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear Craig,

  I was cheering and AMENing throughout the talk.

I especially liked the Category theoretic equation of interaction at
http://youtu.be/dqDP34a-epI 22:04. Notice that the horizontal arrow point
in opposite directions


On Wed, Jan 22, 2014 at 5:42 PM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.comwrote:



 On Wednesday, January 22, 2014 5:26:15 PM UTC-5, Stephen Paul King wrote:

 Dear Craig,

 On Thursday, January 16, 2014 2:54:19 PM UTC-5, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Wednesday, January 15, 2014 2:59:50 PM UTC-5, freqflyer07281972 wrote:

 Hey Craig!

 I watched the video... very cool!


 Hi Dan, glad you liked it.



 Questions:

 1) Who is the user of the interface? What is us?


 I'm not sure what Hoffman's answer would be, but I think that the user
 is experience itself. Questions about consciousness all involve correlating
 different levels and categories of experience, but everyone seems to
 overlook the levels and categories themselves. It is the discernment of
 aesthetic particulars, rather than generic data which makes up
 consciousness and the universe. The experience of users or us is part of
 that, rather than the other way around. We are an experience of us having
 experiences.


 I would say that the the user is the the model of self within the model
 of experience. Experience is a computational construct.


 If computation isn't already an experience though, I don't see it as
 plausible that it would need to construct something like that.


Right, it is more subtle. The 1p is the model of the experience, which is
being computed (by the definition of computation that I use: any
transformation of information), as it is updated such that the N - N+1.
What is happening is that the Agent is interacting with itself indirectly.
Self-reference is this loop. Not a closed loop mind you, as N keeps
chugging along defining subjective flow of time.
   If there is a duality such as I propose, it would be a duality between
the Diagram at 22:04 and another where the direction of the arrows is
reversed. ​​






 2) What is the interface representing? Hoffman uses the analogy of the
 file and the trash bin icons on the desktop. In a computer, I know that the
 file ultimately represents binary values that are encoded on a physical
 portion of my hard disk. The values themselves are voltage potentials that
 are sustained in a persistent way thanks to the laws of quantum physics
 (aside: jeez, who would have thought such a random theory could provide
 such stability at the macroscopic level?) and are interpreted by a human
 user. What is the analogue of the voltage potentials in the interface
 theory?


 Again, I don't know what he would say, but to me, the interface is
 representing the presence of experience on some distant level. The raw
 stuff of the universe, in my view, is self-nesting sensory-motive
 phenomena...represented by more of the same.


 I would say that  there is no raw stuff there is only nested levels of
 models of incontrovertible experiential content.


 Why isn't that a raw stuff? (Metaphorically)


There must be, we need probability spaces after all. But they do not have
inherent properties. We cannot measure a probability itself...​​




 Thanks,
 Craig


 Cheers,

 Dan

 On Tuesday, January 14, 2014 1:31:56 PM UTC-5, Craig Weinberg wrote:

 Donald Hoffman Video on Interface Theory of 
 Consciousnesshttp://m.youtube.com/watch?v=dqDP34a-epI

 A very good presentation with lot of overlap on my views. He proposes
 similar ideas about a sensory-motive primitive and the nature of the world
 as experience rather than “objective”. What is not factored in is the
 relation between local and remote experiences and how that relation
 actually defines the appearance of that relation. Instead of seeing agents
 as isolated mechanisms, I think they should be seen as more like breaches
 in the fabric of insensitivity.

 It is a little misleading to say (near the end) that a spoon is no
 more public than a headache. In my view what makes a spoon different from 
 a
 headache is precisely that the metal is more public than the private
 experience of a headache. If we make the mistake of assuming an Absolutely
 public perspective*, then yes, the spoon is not in it, because the spoon 
 is
 different things depending on how small, large, fast, or slow you are. For
 the same reason, however, nothing can be said to be in such a perspective.
 There is no experience of the world which does not originate through the
 relativity of experience itself. Of course the spoon is more public than a
 headache, in our experience. To think otherwise as a literal truth would 
 be
 psychotic or solipsistic. In the Absolute sense, sure, the spoon is a
 sensory phenomena and nothing else, it is not purely public (nothing is),
 but locally, is certainly is ‘more’ public.

 Something that he mentioned in the presentation had to do with linear
 algebra and using a matrix of columns which add up to be one. To really
 

Re: Tegmark's New Book

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear LizR,


On Wed, Jan 22, 2014 at 6:02 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 23 January 2014 02:22, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.comwrote:

 Dear LizR,
 On Wed, Jan 22, 2014 at 4:40 AM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 22 January 2014 17:35, Stephen Paul King 
 stephe...@provensecure.comwrote:

 Dear LizR,

   Yes, there are many ontological assumptions. Could you list a few
 that seem obvious to you? It is not easy to cut and paste from a pdf. Can
 you open it in the Chrome browser?

In this ontology, all of the known math ideas still work, and those
 that become known as discovered. The key is that they do not exist as
 independent entities that are some how separable from the observer.


 Well, there you have an assumption right there! (Did I mention
 Pythagoras? A million schoolchildren know that his theorem is separable
 from the observer because they had to be taught it.)


 Yes, it is an assumption. Are those schoolchildren observers? Do they
 comprehend in some small way what a^2+b^2=c^2 represents? The point is that
 a representation of a thing is not the thing unless it IS the thing. Is a
 number merely a pattern of chalk on the blackboard? What about a different
 pattern of dots on a piece of paper, could it represent the same referent?


 Yes, it could.


 Separability is a tricky and subtle concept...


 Not from that example, that seems crystal clear! :-)
 I am distinguishing the physical process and the representations; there
 is not a one-to-one and onto map between the two.



 Representations require presentations, they must be rendered by a
 physical process to be perceived, understood, known, described, etc.


 I this is considered in some way significant, I assume there is some
 confusion between the representation with the thing being represented.


 What is the relation between the two? My proposition is that there is a
 relation between the category of Representations and the category of things
 being represented (or objects). This relation is an isomorphism but not
 always bijective.



 Knowledge is not considered to be some thing that is projected
 into our minds by some mysterious process (see the allegory of the Cave).


 This sounds like a straw man. Who has claimed such a thing? (apart from
 the afoirementioned schoolchildren, who would, I am sure, think knowledge
 was indeed being projected into their minds by a mysterious process !)


 Do you have a theory of knowledge that you use? Would this one be OK?
 http://www.marxists.org/reference/subject/philosophy/works/en/russell1.htm

 Russell does not really answer the question... I am trying to wade
 through the ambiguity and point out that what ever the means that knowledge
 comes to pass there is both a physical process and a logical (mental?)
 process and these are not one and the same process.


 I would say the physical process instantiates the logical one.


And the logical process, at least, re-presents the physical process. We
get a closed loop if we have full algebraic closure and a bijection between
the two sides of the proverbial coin.




 I'm afraid I am generally suspicious of people whose main aim is to show
 that some other (often imaginary) view is wrong, rather than to attempt to
 demonstrate why their view is likely to be correct.


 I agree. I am trying exactly not to do that...


 Good. We've had an example of that on this very forum recently, so I may
 be a bit predisposed to react against such... (or maybe doing the same
 thing myself, in a meta sort of way)


:-)



 It is the action of the brain to implement a mind that allows knowledge
 to come into being.


 So we assume, certainly. That doesn't stop us being able to hypothesise
 that there are things out there, though, and arguably with a certain
 degree of success.


   A related way of thinking is found here in a paper by Zurek on
 decoherence:


 I'll have a look at that, but I don't have time for reading endless
 papers so a precis is always appreciated!


 http://cds.cern.ch/record/640029/files/0308163.pdf


 My takeaway of the paper is that it argues for a Wheelerian
 participatory universe concept. A plurality of observers and the
 interactions amongst them constrain the content of observation. I see this
 as a defining the process that creates realities; realities are not defined
 by a priori fiat.


 Well this is certainly *possible*. I mean, no logical contradiction
 springs to mind. But one needs (as with comp) to start with a theory of
 what an observer is, I imagine...


I really like Donald Hoffman's Interface theory's agent as the observer
as an adjunct to Bruno's definition! http://youtu.be/dqDP34a-epI



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Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread meekerdb

On 1/22/2014 1:29 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 21 Jan 2014, at 21:33, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/21/2014 2:32 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Only to make the UDA non valid. It works, if Brent meant a mathematical ultrafinitism. 
But this change comp, like it changes elementary arithmetic (which suppose at least 
that 0 ≠ s(x), and x ≠ y implies s(x) ≠ s(y), which can't be true in ultrafinitism).

Ultrafinitism makes all current physical theories meaningless.


How can that be when all current physical theories are tested by computation on finite 
digital computers and all observations are finite rational numbers?


We just bet that physics is well approximated by computations, and indeed all known laws 
seems to be computable (except the collapse). I guess it makes sense in most case.





 I'd say the meaning of theories comes in their application - not from an axiom 
system.


Because you reify reality, 


LOL!  I'm reminded of what Sidney Morgenbesser said to B. F. Skinner, Let me see if I 
understand your thesis.  You think we shouldn't athropomorphize people?


an put the meaning there. But we can't do that when working on the mind-body problem, so 
we need a mathematical notion of reality, and the notion of model (in logician sense) 
plays that role.


That's a point where I disagree with you.  We can work on the mind body problem by 
creating intelligent machines and when we have created them we will infer that they have 
minds just as we infer other people have minds (nobody really believes in p-zombies) and 
we will learn to engineer those minds.  Note that there were people who tried an axiomatic 
approach to defining life - and it led nowhere, while people working laboratories with 
x-ray crystallography and stick-and-ball models discovered the double-helix.


Theorizing has it's place.  Molecular biology was really inspired by a lecture that Erwin 
Schroedinger gave (and later expanded into his book, What is Life) and which pointed to 
some of the basic characteristic the chemistry and physics of life must have.  And one its 
contributions was to emphasize there was no need for magic, no elan vital.  I see 
computationalism playing a similar role in the study of consciousness.  But just like 
molecular didn't so much solve the problem of life as dissolve it, I expect something 
similar to happen in the study of consciousness.


That for all x x ≠ x + 1, is NOT an empirical question. 


It's not an empirical question in Platonia, but in the real world (which I reify :-) ) it 
is: One raindrop plus one raindrop makes one raindrop.  The set of the swim team with 
cardinality four plus the set of the basketball team with cardinality twelve is a set with 
cardinality 14.



It is a truth, out of space and time, which is true in all models of RA, or PA, 
or ZF, etc.


Yes, it's a truth of language; a rule we made up about the meaning of successor and 
equal etc, that is a good theory of countable things.


Brent

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Re: what is the definition of computation?

2014-01-22 Thread John Mikes
No matter how I try to slice it,  the 'opinions' about computation seem to
be restricted to a reductionist view of mathematical base - maybe including
some physical terms (entropy? information as 'bit' etc.) as well.
No wonder, the List-members are hooked in these domains.
I started out with the Latin word-origin:  cum + putare -  to THINK
WITH... or TOGETHER. to put 2 (or more) ideas together and derive some
solution of more than a single line. Of course it can be exploited in
math-terms as well and if somebody is anchored in the physical terms, such
will surface sooner, or later.
Which s=does not mean that the 'concept' of a computation is restricted to
such utilitarianism.

I was hoping that some free minds  may pick up my more extended idea and
respond in kind.
No such chance.
The learned members repeat their usual wordings - no matter what.

Stephen started a fresh initiative:
*...Not everything. It would embrace the category of emulations,
simulations, representations and all other information related aspects of
the universe. It is not necessary for this Category to be identified with
the physical world*
but fell back soon, continuing
*...Yes, it must be related to the physical but that relation can be a
morphism to another Category: that of physical objects, forces,
thermodynamics, energy, etc*
I almost cried Heureka!.
Those figments are useful aslong as they serve their purpose - to some
extent. Not as a 'Brunoish theology' of them all. Just compare our world
(?) viewed today with that of how it was viewed millennia ago. Or with the
view before 'entropy' was started to expand beyond the 2nd law's natural
processes.
Or before QM?
Who dares to draw conclusions FOREVER? how we will look at the world during
the next millennium?

As I expressed several times: I appreciate the results of OUR (conventional
- reductionst) sciences and technology, but it is an almost true wisdom.
John Mikes





On Wed, Jan 22, 2014 at 5:50 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 23 January 2014 03:13, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Wednesday, January 22, 2014 5:10:34 AM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 Addendum

 Sorry a wee typo. I meant *Yet* presumably brain cells, when lumped
 together into a brain...


 It bugs me that you can't edit after posting on here. I guess every forum
 has its irritating features.


 Yes. I tend to his submit then read through...

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Re: what is the definition of computation?

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear John,

  Thank you for trying to parse my gobbletygok!  Watch the Donald Hoffman
talk, then think about what your saying.

http://youtu.be/dqDP34a-epI

Are you following my argument that we need a dual pair of Categories, not
just one?


On Wed, Jan 22, 2014 at 6:37 PM, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:

 No matter how I try to slice it,  the 'opinions' about computation seem to
 be restricted to a reductionist view of mathematical base - maybe including
 some physical terms (entropy? information as 'bit' etc.) as well.
 No wonder, the List-members are hooked in these domains.
 I started out with the Latin word-origin:  cum + putare -  to THINK
 WITH... or TOGETHER. to put 2 (or more) ideas together and derive some
 solution of more than a single line. Of course it can be exploited in
 math-terms as well and if somebody is anchored in the physical terms, such
 will surface sooner, or later.
 Which s=does not mean that the 'concept' of a computation is restricted to
 such utilitarianism.

 I was hoping that some free minds  may pick up my more extended idea and
 respond in kind.
 No such chance.
 The learned members repeat their usual wordings - no matter what.

 Stephen started a fresh initiative:
 *...Not everything. It would embrace the category of emulations,
 simulations, representations and all other information related aspects of
 the universe. It is not necessary for this Category to be identified with
 the physical world*
 but fell back soon, continuing
 *...Yes, it must be related to the physical but that relation can be a
 morphism to another Category: that of physical objects, forces,
 thermodynamics, energy, etc*
 I almost cried Heureka!.
 Those figments are useful aslong as they serve their purpose - to some
 extent. Not as a 'Brunoish theology' of them all. Just compare our world
 (?) viewed today with that of how it was viewed millennia ago. Or with the
 view before 'entropy' was started to expand beyond the 2nd law's natural
 processes.
 Or before QM?
 Who dares to draw conclusions FOREVER? how we will look at the world
 during the next millennium?

 As I expressed several times: I appreciate the results of OUR
 (conventional - reductionst) sciences and technology, but it is an almost
 true wisdom.
 John Mikes





 On Wed, Jan 22, 2014 at 5:50 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 23 January 2014 03:13, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Wednesday, January 22, 2014 5:10:34 AM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 Addendum

 Sorry a wee typo. I meant *Yet* presumably brain cells, when lumped
 together into a brain...


 It bugs me that you can't edit after posting on here. I guess every
 forum has its irritating features.


 Yes. I tend to his submit then read through...

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Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread meekerdb

On 1/22/2014 1:38 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 22 Jan 2014, at 01:02, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/21/2014 3:30 PM, Jason Resch wrote:




On Tue, Jan 21, 2014 at 3:30 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 1/21/2014 8:13 AM, Jason Resch wrote:

Why would you want to do that? It seems like an unnecessary extra axiom that
doesn't have any purpose or utility.


It prevents the paradoxes of undeciability, Cantor diagonalization, and it
corresponds more directly with how we actually use arithmetic.



I'm not sure it helps. What you may gain from avoiding paradoxes makes many 
of
our accepted proofs false. E.g. Euclids proof of infinite primes. Or Euler's
identity. Most of math would be ruined. A circle's circumference would not 
even
be pi*diameter.

Would this biggest number be different for different beings in different
universes? What is it contingent on?


You're taking an Platonic view that there really is an arithmetic and 
whether
there's a biggest number is an empirical question.



Ah! I just said that is was not. Somehow you deny the reality of math.


Which math?  Finite arithmetic, Peano arithmetic, set theory, homotopy theory,...? Or in 
short, yes.







I'm saying it's an invention.  We invented an system in which you can 
always add 1
because that was convenient; you don't have to think about whether you can 
or not.


So to use this same line of reasoning, would you say there is no definite (a priori) 
fact of the matter of  whether or not a given program terminates, unless we actually 
build a machine executing that program and observe it terminate?


That's kind of mixing categories since 'program' (to you) means something in Platonia 
and there you don't need a machine to run it.  In the physical world there is no 
question, all programs running on a machine terminate, for one reason or another.  
Non-terminating programs are the result of over idealization.



What makes you sure that the idea that all programs terminates is not also an 
idealisation (about a finite universal reality)?
Also, if all programs terminate, there is no more real numbers. I guess you will say 
that there are idealisation. You seem to know that there is a concrete reality, but 
the comp approach to the mind-body problem asks to, temporarily perhaps, doubt such 
certainty.


Of course I'm not *certain*, all theories are defeasible outside of Platonia.  But it 
seems like a well supported theory; at least as certain as you can always add one more.


Brent

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Re: On differentiation of universes in MWI

2014-01-22 Thread meekerdb

On 1/22/2014 2:00 AM, LizR wrote:
On 22 January 2014 16:34, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
wrote:


On 1/21/2014 4:50 PM, LizR wrote:

It seems to me that differentiation is local, and spreads slowly, and 
that there
is always going to be some remerging (but only in proportion to the 
chances of
entropy reversing). The an atom starts in a superposition of decayed and
non-decayed. Now a cat is in a superposition of alive and dead. Now an
experimenter is in a superposition of having seen an alive and dead 
cat... now
everyone who reads Nature is in a superposition ... but none of this 
affects
Jupiter for a long time,


Does it?  Suppose there's an electron on Jupiter that was entangled in a 
singlet
state with an electron on Earth and the electron on Earth just got it's spin
measured?  MWI may be able to model this with a local hidden variable, but 
in THIS
world it looks like FTL influence - and it can go a lot further than 
Jupiter, e.g.
the CMB.

Assuming this is correct then the snapshot theory of how the MWI operates looks more a 
lot likely. (I was given to believe by David Deutsch that differentiation only occurred 
patchily, and spread slowly, but I've known him to be wrong...)


Please explain further. How does an electron on Jupiter get entangled with one on Earth, 
and how does anything on Earth get entangled with the CMB?


By having interacted in the (distant) past.  If the universe is a pure quantum state then 
it has zero entropy, which means that all the complexity and information we see is a local 
phenomena due to our being quasi-classical, i.e. we are effectively 'coarse graining' the 
world.  From this standpoint the positive information we see must be cancelled by 
correlations, negative information, which are ubiquitous.


Brent

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-22 Thread meekerdb

On 1/22/2014 2:12 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 22 Jan 2014, at 01:41, Russell Standish wrote:


On Tue, Jan 21, 2014 at 12:53:33PM +0100, Bruno Marchal wrote:





With some competence, I guess you mean.
Without competence, and giving time to the creature, any universal
machine do have an open-ended creativity. Well, certainly in the
sense of Post (I can explain this, but it is a bit technical).



I'm interested to hear your explanation, but if its what I suspect it
will be, I'll be disappointed :).


A set (of natural numbers) is creative if
1) it is RE (and thus is some w_k)
2) its complement (N - w_k) is productive, and this means that for all  w_y included in, 
we can recursively (mechanically) find an element in it, not in W_y.


It means that the set is RE and his complement is constructively NOT RE.  Each attempt 
to recursively enumerate he complement can be mechanically refuted by showing 
explicitlky a counterexample in it, and this gives the ability to such a creative set to 
approximate its complement in a transfinite progressions of approximation. this gives an 
ability to jump to a bigger picture out of the cuurent conception of the big picture. I 
find it a reasonable definition of creativity.


So what would be an example of a creative set of natural numbers? Are there sets of 
natural numbers such that both the set and its complement are not RE?


Brent



The John Myhill proved that a set is creative iff it is Turing complete, i.e. Turing 
universal.

So that RE set





Basically stating that the universal dovetailer emulates creative
conscious being does not demonstrate a creative program, which needs
to be creative relative to us (as observers).


I agree. The UD is not creative. But it generates all creative programs or sets.
Note that the UD can be considered as creative though, if you conceive it as the set of 
all initial segment of UD*. In particular the set define by the diophantine polynomial 
that I send today to Brent, *is* probably creative itself.






But if your idea is something different, I'm all ears!





I haven't had a chance to study and understand Post's definition (sure
I've looked at it, but didn't grok it), but if you say it is
equivalent to universality, then its not really going to contribute to
the solution.


I am not sure. Open ended creativity seems to me well captured by
Post. It makes the machine able to defeat all effective complete
theories about itself. It gives what I often called the comp vaccine
against reductionism.



Well - maybe if you explain more?


I hope that what is above is not too much concise.

Bruno




Cheers

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Re: On differentiation of universes in MWI

2014-01-22 Thread Pierz
Excellent jessem, thanks. This line from the abstract of the first paper 
you cite pretty much summarises the changed understanding of MWI I was 
getting at:

Measurement-type interactions lead, not to many worlds but, rather, to many 
local copies of experimental systems and the observers who measure their 
properties.


On Thursday, January 23, 2014 3:24:14 AM UTC+11, jessem wrote:



 On Tue, Jan 21, 2014 at 10:34 PM, meekerdb meek...@verizon.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 On 1/21/2014 4:50 PM, LizR wrote:

 It seems to me that differentiation is local, and spreads slowly, and 
 that there is always going to be some remerging (but only in proportion to 
 the chances of entropy reversing). The an atom starts in a superposition of 
 decayed and non-decayed. Now a cat is in a superposition of alive and dead. 
 Now an experimenter is in a superposition of having seen an alive and dead 
 cat... now everyone who reads Nature is in a superposition ... but none 
 of this affects Jupiter for a long time,


 Does it?  Suppose there's an electron on Jupiter that was entangled in a 
 singlet state with an electron on Earth and the electron on Earth just got 
 it's spin measured?  MWI may be able to model this with a local hidden 
 variable, but in THIS world it looks like FTL influence - and it can go a 
 lot further than Jupiter, e.g. the CMB.


 There's no need even for hidden variables to explain this in a MWI 
 context, as I understand it. Here's a pair of technical papers on the 
 subject by David Deutsch:

 http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/9906007v2
 http://arxiv.org/abs/1109.6223

 And a few more papers on locality in (nonrelativistic) quantum field 
 theory by another many-worlds advocate, Mark Rubin (p. 2 of the first paper 
 below has a good summary of other work by MWI advocates on the subject of 
 how locality is preserved):

 http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0103079v2
 http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0204024
 http://arxiv.org/abs/0909.2673

 I think the basic conceptual explanation is something like this: in your 
 example of the entangled electrons on Earth and Jupiter, when an 
 experimenter on Earth measures an electron, the experimenter locally splits 
 into multiple versions who may see different results from one another, and 
 likewise with the experimenter on Jupiter. And there is no need for the 
 universe to decide which version on Earth will be part of the same world 
 as which version on Jupiter until there has actually been time for a 
 physical message (moving at the speed of light) to pass from one to the 
 other.

 I can illustrate this with a simple toy model. One of the various Bell 
 inequalities says that if experimenters at each location can measure spin 
 at three different detector angles, and on every trial where they choose 
 the same detector angle they always find opposite spins, then on the subset 
 of trials where they choose two different detector angles, the probability 
 they get opposite results must be greater than or equal to 1/3. But in QM 
 it's possible that they do always get opposite results with the same 
 detector angle, but the probability they get opposite results when they 
 choose different angles is only 1/4, which violates this Bell inequality. 
 But now let's suppose we want to simulate this using a classical computer 
 simulation, using AI experimenters running on computers on both Earth and 
 Jupiter (call the AI on Earth Ellen, and the AI on Jupiter Jim). 
 Suppose each AI uses a pseudorandom algorithm to decide which choice of the 
 three detector angles they decide to use on each trial. Unbeknownst to the 
 AIs, though, each time they make a simulated measurement, the program 
 creates 8 different copies of that AI, 4 of which get the result spin-up 
 for the measurement axis they chose on that trial, and 4 of which get the 
 result spin-down. We can assign the copies numbers to differentiate 
 them--so Ellen #1 got spin-up, as did Ellen #2-4, and Ellen #5-8 got 
 spin-down. Likewise Jim #1-4 got spin-up, and #5-8 got spin-down.

 After the Ellen on Earth gets her measurement result, she wants to 
 communicate it with the Jim on Jupiter, so she sends a message which 
 travels to Jim at the speed of light, telling him both her choice of 
 detector angle and whether she got spin-up or spin-down at that angle. But 
 unbeknownst to Ellen and Jim there are actually 8 different versions of 
 each of them, so from our point of view outside the simulation, we see that 
 what actually gets sent is a bundle of 8 parallel messages, and when they 
 arrive at Jupiter, the simulation has some algorithm to assign one of the 8 
 parallel messages to each of the 8 parallel versions of Jim. The key is 
 that the simulation's algorithm can work in such a way that over the course 
 of many trials, each copy observes statistics that violate Bell's 
 inequality, even though this is a purely classical simulation (because 
 Bell's proof assumes a unique measurement result at each 

Re: On differentiation of universes in MWI

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 23 January 2014 12:53, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  By having interacted in the (distant) past.  If the universe is a pure
 quantum state then it has zero entropy, which means that all the complexity
 and information we see is a local phenomena due to our being
 quasi-classical, i.e. we are effectively 'coarse graining' the world.  From
 this standpoint the positive information we see must be cancelled by
 correlations, negative information, which are ubiquitous.

 I see. So in theory the entire universe is full of entangled particle
pairs due to them having once upon a time all lived together in the Big
Bang (to misquote Italo Calvino). Wouldn't those entanglements quickly get
decohered by interaction with the environment, though?

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-22 Thread Russell Standish
On Wed, Jan 22, 2014 at 11:58:32AM -0500, John Clark wrote:
 
 Bruno's definition? For well over 20 years I have been insisting here and
 elsewhere that there are only 2 definitions of Free Will that are not
 gibberish, and they are almost never used:
 
 1) Free Will is the inability to predict your own actions even in a
 stable environment.

I'm glad we agree on this (not the almost never used part, I've always
used it this way :).

 2) Free Will is a noise made by the mouth.
 


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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-22 Thread Russell Standish
On Wed, Jan 22, 2014 at 11:12:50AM +0100, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 
 A set (of natural numbers) is creative if
 1) it is RE (and thus is some w_k)
 2) its complement (N - w_k) is productive, and this means that for
 all  w_y included in, we can recursively (mechanically) find an
 element in it, not in W_y.
 
 It means that the set is RE and his complement is constructively NOT
 RE.  Each attempt to recursively enumerate he complement can be
 mechanically refuted by showing explicitlky a counterexample in it,
 and this gives the ability to such a creative set to approximate its
 complement in a transfinite progressions of approximation. this
 gives an ability to jump to a bigger picture out of the cuurent
 conception of the big picture. I find it a reasonable definition of
 creativity.
 

Yes - I recall that was how the Wikipedia article defined it. But I
don't grok it. What is the motivation for such a definition? What
about some examples (I'm guess the Mandelbrot set might be one such)?

 The John Myhill proved that a set is creative iff it is Turing
 complete, i.e. Turing universal.
 So that RE set
 

What is a Turing complete _set_?


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Re: On differentiation of universes in MWI

2014-01-22 Thread meekerdb

On 1/22/2014 6:25 PM, LizR wrote:
On 23 January 2014 12:53, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
wrote:


By having interacted in the (distant) past.  If the universe is a pure 
quantum state
then it has zero entropy, which means that all the complexity and 
information we see
is a local phenomena due to our being quasi-classical, i.e. we are 
effectively
'coarse graining' the world. From this standpoint the positive information 
we see
must be cancelled by correlations, negative information, which are 
ubiquitous.

I see. So in theory the entire universe is full of entangled particle pairs due to them 
having once upon a time all lived together in the Big Bang (to misquote Italo Calvino). 
Wouldn't those entanglements quickly get decohered by interaction with the environment, 
though?


Yeah, but decoherence just makes things look classical at a coarse-grained level (when we 
trace over the environment). Microscopically it's spreading the superposition.


Brent

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 23 January 2014 08:48, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 You do the same error with free will than with God. You decide to take
 the most gibberish sense of the word to critize the idea, instead of using
 the less gibberish sense, to focus on what we really try to talk and share
 about.


It's always easier to attack a straw man than a real one!

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 23 January 2014 05:58, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

 Bruno's definition? For well over 20 years I have been insisting here and
 elsewhere that there are only 2 definitions of Free Will that are not
 gibberish, and they are almost never used:

 1) Free Will is the inability to predict your own actions even in a
 stable environment.

 This is also the definition I normally use, when I have to use one at all
(most people seem to add a lot of metaphysical baggage to the term, even
when they don't realise they are doing so). About 20 years ago
(coincidentally) I was also arguing with a friend about this subject. Imho
he used words that presupposed the metaphysical nature of FW - words like
decide and choose. But he always had ideas up his sleeve that I couldn't
predict, so maybe he was making the same point...

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Re: Tegmark's New Book

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 23 January 2014 12:25, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.comwrote:


 And the logical process, at least, re-presents the physical process. We
 get a closed loop if we have full algebraic closure and a bijection between
 the two sides of the proverbial coin.

 I don't know what this means. The obvious inference from the term closed
loop is that there is some sort of feed-forward from the abstract entity
that is, say, the number 2 to the physical representation of it. So the
abstract entity somehow created the physical representation. And then feed
back to the abstract from the physical... (Isn't that a bit like saying
that me typing I just saw a cat created the cat?)

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Re: Tegmark's New Book

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear LizR,

 (Isn't that a bit like saying that me typing I just saw a cat created
the cat?) 

Kinda! in a way, Yes. (I am not considering all othe other observers of the
Cat. Think of the loop as involving a delay, that the transformation is not
instantaneous. it takes time for the system to process the data...


On Thu, Jan 23, 2014 at 12:39 AM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 23 January 2014 12:25, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.comwrote:


 And the logical process, at least, re-presents the physical process. We
 get a closed loop if we have full algebraic closure and a bijection between
 the two sides of the proverbial coin.

 I don't know what this means. The obvious inference from the term closed
 loop is that there is some sort of feed-forward from the abstract entity
 that is, say, the number 2 to the physical representation of it. So the
 abstract entity somehow created the physical representation. And then feed
 back to the abstract from the physical... (Isn't that a bit like saying
 that me typing I just saw a cat created the cat?)

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Re: Tegmark's New Book

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 23 January 2014 18:42, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.comwrote:

 Dear LizR,

  (Isn't that a bit like saying that me typing I just saw a cat created
 the cat?) 

 Kinda! in a way, Yes. (I am not considering all othe other observers of
 the Cat. Think of the loop as involving a delay, that the transformation is
 not instantaneous. it takes time for the system to process the data...


System?
Process?
Are we back in a computational reality?

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Re: On differentiation of universes in MWI

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 23 January 2014 18:09, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


 Yeah, but decoherence just makes things look classical at a coarse-grained
 level (when we trace over the environment).  Microscopically it's spreading
 the superposition.

 Yes, I guess that makes sense. All those quantum entities will be fuzzing
out, regardless of what we do - so I assume the answer to the original
question is that the multiverse differentiates like his old method of
backing up files - taking complete snapshots of everything - rather than
using the version control system method of only storing differences?

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Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
The real world doesn't add raindrops, or most other things we think of as
entities - adding raindrops isn't 1+1, nature is really adding something
like 10^25 atoms to another 10^25. But it _does_ add bosons in a BEC. Even
when the constituents are indistinguishable, nature can perform simple
arithmetic with them.

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Re: Church thesis = non computable functions exist (Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 23 January 2014 02:24, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.comwrote:

 Dear LizR,

There is also some kind of continuity relation between the content of
 the pigeon holes...


There sure is (except for the guy in Memento perhaps). That comes down to
the laws of physics, which glue everything together in space-time,
including the particles making up brains.

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Re: Church thesis = non computable functions exist (Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 23 January 2014 07:06, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:


 On 22 January 2014 09:45, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 I think I said the fl;ashlight wasn't needed, so it isn't there, and so
 nothing moves it around. The pigeonholes stand for states of consciousness,
 so they perceive what it would illuminate, which is their own contents. But
 they can perceive those without it.


 Do you really find that you can make intuitive sense of the pigeon hole
 metaphor without the flashlight?


Yes.


 I must admit I've never been able to. From a 3p perspective, the idea is
 that the relations between pigeon holes map out a multiplicity of implied
 spatial-temporal trajectories, all there together. From a 1p perspective
 this would seem to transform to a fixed array of momentary points-of-view,
 again all there (or illuminated) together. I think that any attempt to
 intuit a relativised personal history from this metaphor cannot avoid the
 imaginative association with one or another *sequence* of pigeon holes.
 The logical alternative would seem to be to get stuck, monad-like, in
 whatever pigeon hole you first thought of.


Yes there's a sequence, or foliation as physicists like to call it.


 What Hoyle was suggesting, I think, is that the necessary intuitions of a
 flow of consciousness can all be collapsed, as it were, into the notion
 of a *unique* sequence (in a purely logical sense) of randomly selected
 pigeon holes. Such an absolute sequence must then contain all relativised
 sequences, with their logical inter-relations and differential measures
 preserved. Oddly enough, any notion of flow, as entailing the observation
 of transition between holes, is still unnecessary in this schema; indeed it
 would be incoherent. The sequencing of pigeon holes carries no relation of
 next or previous; the spatial-temporal structure of each pigeon hole is
 already conceived as both dynamic and self-ordering, like Barbour's time
 capsules.


Yes it's exactly like Barbour's time capsules, AFAIK. (It's a while since I
read his book.)


 Rather, the purpose of the logical sequence of pigeon holes - i.e. the
 beam of the flashlight - is to furnish an intuition that avoids the
 aforementioned monadic catastrophe, by conceiving a unique multiplex of
 all possible (parallel) relative sequences. The cost of this heuristic is
 that all the pigeon holes now belong to a sort of universal, solipsistic
 multiple-personality that lives them (and, by proxy, us) one moment at a
 time. It's an interesting idea, with more ramifications than might appear
 at first blush, and thinking in this way often sheds an intriguingly
 different light on the various thought experiments about identity and
 succession we love to argue about on this list.


No doubt. Of course it's also a straightforward logical consequence of the
block universe concept as espoused by Netwon, Einstein, Minkowski, etc.

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Re: Church thesis = non computable functions exist (Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 23 January 2014 08:22, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.comwrote:


   We need the Becoming that is implicit in the moving flashlight, at
 least to give us a window of finite duration in time (and bits/space) to
 have a memory of what I used to be that can be compared to what I
 experience now.


According to JA Wheeler we only need enough duration at any given instant
to measure one bit. But in any case, all that is happening in your brain is
happening right now. I suspect there is an illusion of an extended
present being created, one pigeonhole at a time (let me check with Dan
Dennett... yes, looks like there is :)

The moving flashlight is a second-order time dimension that simply isn't
required by our existing theories of physics. That isn't to say some new
theory won't require two time dimensions, of course, but I don't know of
any that currently do so, or any phenomena that might be better explained
with them. And there have even been suggestions that 2 time dimensions
would make the universe inhospitable to life, although I think they came
from Mad Max Tegmark, so maybe they aren't considered canonical ...

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Re: Tegmark's New Book

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear LizR,

  Yes, we are but one that does not live in an imaginary timeless realm.


On Thu, Jan 23, 2014 at 1:12 AM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 23 January 2014 18:42, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.comwrote:

 Dear LizR,

  (Isn't that a bit like saying that me typing I just saw a cat
 created the cat?) 

 Kinda! in a way, Yes. (I am not considering all othe other observers of
 the Cat. Think of the loop as involving a delay, that the transformation is
 not instantaneous. it takes time for the system to process the data...


 System?
 Process?
 Are we back in a computational reality?

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Re: The multiverse and the arrow of time - MWI experts please?

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 23 January 2014 06:38, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Alberto,

 This is total nonsense. It assumes the universe did not evolve for 13.4
 billion years until life came along.


More like 10 billion years, but same point.

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Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread meekerdb

On 1/22/2014 10:21 PM, LizR wrote:
The real world doesn't add raindrops, or most other things we think of as entities - 
adding raindrops isn't 1+1, nature is really adding something like 10^25 atoms to 
another 10^25. But it _does_ add bosons in a BEC. Even when the constituents are 
indistinguishable, nature can perform simple arithmetic with them.


I'd say *we* perform simple arithmetic to describe them - but only when we correctly 
recognize what is countable and what isn't.  So the truth of Ax(x=/=x+1) is in Platonia.


Brent

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Re: Tegmark's New Book

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 23 January 2014 19:34, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.comwrote:

 Dear LizR,

   Yes, we are but one that does not live in an imaginary timeless realm.


OK. (Shame because the imaginary timeless realm version looks quite good,
ontologically speaking.)

So what alternative have you in mind?

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Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 23 January 2014 19:35, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 On 1/22/2014 10:21 PM, LizR wrote:

 The real world doesn't add raindrops, or most other things we think of as
 entities - adding raindrops isn't 1+1, nature is really adding something
 like 10^25 atoms to another 10^25. But it _does_ add bosons in a BEC. Even
 when the constituents are indistinguishable, nature can perform simple
 arithmetic with them.


 I'd say *we* perform simple arithmetic to describe them - but only when we
 correctly recognize what is countable and what isn't.  So the truth of
 Ax(x=/=x+1) is in Platonia.


Platonia? Where's that, then?

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Re: Church thesis = non computable functions exist (Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread meekerdb

On 1/22/2014 10:33 PM, LizR wrote:
On 23 January 2014 08:22, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.com 
mailto:stephe...@provensecure.com wrote:



We need the Becoming that is implicit in the moving flashlight, at least 
to give
us a window of finite duration in time (and bits/space) to have a memory of 
what I
used to be that can be compared to what I experience now.


According to JA Wheeler we only need enough duration at any given instant to measure one 
bit. But in any case, all that is happening in your brain is happening right now. I 
suspect there is an illusion of an extended present being created, one pigeonhole at a 
time (let me check with Dan Dennett... yes, looks like there is :)


But why illusion?  If we're taking consciousness as fundamental then we should take the 
extended present as part of it; and in that case the extension allows them to overlap 
and hence provide a time dimension.


If we're not taking consciousness as fundamental then we need to explain the extended 
present.


Brent

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Re: On differentiation of universes in MWI

2014-01-22 Thread Pierz

On Thursday, January 23, 2014 5:15:58 PM UTC+11, Liz R wrote:

 On 23 January 2014 18:09, meekerdb meek...@verizon.net javascript:wrote:

  
 Yeah, but decoherence just makes things look classical at a 
 coarse-grained level (when we trace over the environment).  Microscopically 
 it's spreading the superposition.

 Yes, I guess that makes sense. All those quantum entities will be fuzzing 
 out, regardless of what we do - so I assume the answer to the original 
 question is that the multiverse differentiates like his old method of 
 backing up files - taking complete snapshots of everything - rather than 
 using the version control system method of only storing differences? 

 
I had a long think about this while walking on the beach this morning and I 
still think not, though the picture is more complicated than your spreading 
local changes scenario suggests. If you read the paper I cited above you'll 
see that there is a method to rescue locality, but it comes  at a fairly 
steep price, conceptually. Each particle has to carry labels with it, 
essentially a memory of prior interactions, so that it knows what states 
are permitted when it interacts with another system. This sounds about as 
bad as the whole universe duplicating when you consider that its history 
goes right back to the Big Bazoom, as you point out, so effectively it 
carries the weight of the entire world on its tiny subatomic shoulders. 
However there's another way of conceptualizing it I think which rescues the 
parsimony of the source control type system while keeping the interaction 
history.

Essentially yu have to stop thinking of the particle as an isolable entity. 
Its entire history *define* its position, location and properties, and at 
the same time in a sense define the whole universe. This is not quite as 
mystical as it sounds (though it's still pretty mystical!). I'll explain. 
When I make a change in git (my clever source control system), it records 
the delta between the old code and the new - i.e., the changes only. This 
is maximally parsimonious. I can make two branches in my code, say to 
explore some new feature or way of doing things, and both branches link 
back to a common root in the tree of deltas. Now later, because the system 
retains full information about all the changes (interactions), I can merge 
these branches and all changes will be incorporated into the one new 
branch. This is the exact equivalent of MWI universes re-merging. 

But let's say I made a change to the *same line* in both code branches. 
Then I can't merge automatically any more because there's a conflict. I 
have to choose which version of the line I want. This is the equivalent of 
decoherence. Now the point here is that if I was someone who wanted to 
study a node in isolation, I'd see some information, but only a very small 
amount. The rest of the information is kept in the previous node that it 
links back to, and the node it links back to, and the one before, and so 
on. The node makes no sense in isolation and seems not to contain enough 
information to reconstruct a coherent code base (universe), but it does in 
the context of the whole tree. The information about what changed where is 
kept at the point of interaction, not needing to be copied forward.  The 
system can always know when to decohere in order to maintain internal 
consistency.

Whaddya reckon? To me it makes an elegant sense, though I have no idea of 
its testable. I suspect not, but it seems a lot cleaner than the entire 
backup idea, OR the idea of a particle that carries its autobiography 
under its arm.


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Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread meekerdb

On 1/22/2014 10:38 PM, LizR wrote:
On 23 January 2014 19:35, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
wrote:


On 1/22/2014 10:21 PM, LizR wrote:

The real world doesn't add raindrops, or most other things we think of 
as
entities - adding raindrops isn't 1+1, nature is really adding 
something like
10^25 atoms to another 10^25. But it _does_ add bosons in a BEC. Even 
when the
constituents are indistinguishable, nature can perform simple 
arithmetic with them.


I'd say *we* perform simple arithmetic to describe them - but only when we 
correctly
recognize what is countable and what isn't.  So the truth of Ax(x=/=x+1) is 
in
Platonia.


Platonia? Where's that, then?


In our heads and in our language (and publications of the AMS).

Brent

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Re: Tegmark's New Book

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear LizR,

  I want to explore the idea that Realities Evolve.


On Thu, Jan 23, 2014 at 1:36 AM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 23 January 2014 19:34, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.comwrote:

 Dear LizR,

   Yes, we are but one that does not live in an imaginary timeless realm.


 OK. (Shame because the imaginary timeless realm version looks quite good,
 ontologically speaking.)

 So what alternative have you in mind?

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Re: Modal Logic (Part 1: Leibniz)

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
I think after looking at your next post that I have messed up []p - p and
therefore, no doubt, everything else. I need to do the truth table business
... later!

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Re: Church thesis = non computable functions exist (Re: Edge.org: 2014 : WHAT SCIENTIFIC IDEA IS READY FOR RETIREMENT? The Computational Metaphor

2014-01-22 Thread Stephen Paul King
Dear LizR,

  With quantum field theory we are still using the idea of a single
space-time manifold to glue it all together but this itself could be one
of the problems that we have in physics.


On Thu, Jan 23, 2014 at 1:23 AM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 23 January 2014 02:24, Stephen Paul King stephe...@provensecure.comwrote:

 Dear LizR,

There is also some kind of continuity relation between the content of
 the pigeon holes...


 There sure is (except for the guy in Memento perhaps). That comes down
 to the laws of physics, which glue everything together in space-time,
 including the particles making up brains.

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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-01-22 Thread Pierz


On Wednesday, January 22, 2014 6:42:30 PM UTC+11, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Tuesday, January 21, 2014 6:11:23 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Gibbsa,

 No, you misunderstand what I'm saying.

 Of course the hubble rate can keep on going, passing the speed of light 
 barrier, and forever onward and upward. Because, and precisely because, 
 it's not generated by a physical translation in space. 

 I agree with that and that's exactly what I'm saying. It's Pierz that is 
 disagreeing with you. Pierz thinks space is expanding without taking any 
 physical objects along with that expansion. 


No that isn't what I meant. If you read the balloon analogy carefully 
you'll see I was saying something else. Imagine several soft disks sitting 
lightly on top of the balloon as it expands. The disks will not grow due to 
the internal forces that prevent the slight friction from the expanding 
balloon surface from causing them to expand. However, they will move apart 
from one another as the balloon expands. That was my understanding. I once 
heard a cosmologist say that you can't feel the force of repulsion due to 
cosmological expansion between your fingers because at that distance it is 
imperceptibly small. But if your fingers were at either end of the universe 
you'd feel an immense pressure pushing them apart. So my understanding was 
that cosmological expansion exists right here in this room, but is more 
than compensated for by the other forces tending to hold objects together, 
including gravity. Where I think I erred was in separating gravity and 
expansion in my mind - there is only one underlying time-space continuum 
which is being operated on by the two forces. Within galaxies gravity holds 
sway and space does not expand. Far enough away from galaxies, gravity 
gives way to expansion. I don't see the inevitability of warping because 
the counteracting effects of gravity will attenuate slowly as you move away 
from a galactic centre. It's not like there's a row of pins around the 
galactic edges which hold space in place.
 

 If that were true nothing there would be no red shift and there would be 
 no particle horizon beyond which the expansion of space carries galaxies so 
 they can no longer be observed.

 Things move both IN space and WITH the expansion of space. Things moving 
 with the expansion of space red shifts them, things moving RELATIVE TO the 
 expansion of space gives variations of red and blue shifts for objects at 
 the same distances in expanding space.

 The expansion of space occurs only in intergalactic space, but the space 
 within galaxies, solar systems, etc. is gravitationally bound and is not 
 expanding. Refer to Misner, Thorne and Wheeler's 'Gravitation' if you don't 
 believe me

 Our solar system is not expanding due to the Hubble expansion because it 
 is gravitationally bound... If it was you'd have a violation of the laws of 
 orbital motion.

 Therefore there must be a space warping at the boundaries of galaxies 
 which must produce a significant gravitational effect over time which could 
 explain the dark matter effect

 Edgar



 On Tuesday, January 21, 2014 12:11:25 PM UTC-5, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Tuesday, January 21, 2014 4:22:34 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 PIerz,

 No, you are wrong here. Space doesn't expand around objects without the 
 objects moving along with it. The positions of objects are positions IN 
 space. Thus there is not a smooth expansion but the warping around 
 galaxies 
 I've pointed out.

 If you were correct the Hubble expansion of space wouldn't carry far 
 galaxies along with it and redshift them.

 You are simply wrong here. Please remember that the next time you 
 accuse me of being wrong about something!

 Edgar

  
 Edgar, the opposite is true. The hubble effect is constant if the 
 comparison is between any two pairs of adjacent galaxies, one pair compared 
 to the other, obviously controlling for distance between them. It's 
 constant in that sense whether or not the overall effect is accelerating as 
 it is at the moment. 
  
 If the galaxies are independently moving in space, the distance to 
 adjacent galaxies is changing, and has to be controlled for, to keep that 
 constant effect. 
  
 If you skip a galaxy and want the rate of expansion between a galaxy and 
 the second galaxy along, then you have to add the two adjacent rates 
 together, controlling for changes in distance caused by independent 
 movement of galaxies in space. If you want the next galaxy after that, it's 
 adding 3 adjacent values. 
  
 This is why the hubble rate can keep on going, passing the speed of 
 light barrier, and forever onward and upward. Because, and precisely 
 because, it's not generated by a physical translation in space. 

  
 As mentionesd in the last post, large gradients are already in place 
 around galaxies, this this probably the boundary that forbids your 
 idea from breaking as a causality in the first place.
  
 

Re: Modal Logic (Part 1: Leibniz)

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
On 23 January 2014 08:18, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 OK. A last little exercise in the same vein, for the night. (coming from a
 book by Jeffrey):

 Alicia was singing this:

  Everybody loves my baby. My baby loves nobody but me.

 Can we deduce from this that everybody loves Alicia?


Surely we can't deduce anything about A and her baby, unless we know that
the song is true! :-)

But *if* it is...

Everybody loves my baby. Therefore my baby loves my baby. But my baby loves
nobody but me. Therefore - the only way this can be true - is if
Alicia *is*her baby. So the answer is yes!

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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-01-22 Thread LizR
One always finds out what Edgar doesn't mean...


On 23 January 2014 20:09, Pierz pier...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Wednesday, January 22, 2014 6:42:30 PM UTC+11, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Tuesday, January 21, 2014 6:11:23 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Gibbsa,

 No, you misunderstand what I'm saying.

 Of course the hubble rate can keep on going, passing the speed of
 light barrier, and forever onward and upward. Because, and precisely
 because, it's not generated by a physical translation in space.

 I agree with that and that's exactly what I'm saying. It's Pierz that is
 disagreeing with you. Pierz thinks space is expanding without taking any
 physical objects along with that expansion.


 No that isn't what I meant. If you read the balloon analogy carefully
 you'll see I was saying something else. Imagine several soft disks sitting
 lightly on top of the balloon as it expands. The disks will not grow due to
 the internal forces that prevent the slight friction from the expanding
 balloon surface from causing them to expand. However, they will move apart
 from one another as the balloon expands. That was my understanding. I once
 heard a cosmologist say that you can't feel the force of repulsion due to
 cosmological expansion between your fingers because at that distance it is
 imperceptibly small. But if your fingers were at either end of the universe
 you'd feel an immense pressure pushing them apart. So my understanding was
 that cosmological expansion exists right here in this room, but is more
 than compensated for by the other forces tending to hold objects together,
 including gravity. Where I think I erred was in separating gravity and
 expansion in my mind - there is only one underlying time-space continuum
 which is being operated on by the two forces. Within galaxies gravity holds
 sway and space does not expand. Far enough away from galaxies, gravity
 gives way to expansion. I don't see the inevitability of warping because
 the counteracting effects of gravity will attenuate slowly as you move away
 from a galactic centre. It's not like there's a row of pins around the
 galactic edges which hold space in place.


 If that were true nothing there would be no red shift and there would be
 no particle horizon beyond which the expansion of space carries galaxies so
 they can no longer be observed.

 Things move both IN space and WITH the expansion of space. Things moving
 with the expansion of space red shifts them, things moving RELATIVE TO the
 expansion of space gives variations of red and blue shifts for objects at
 the same distances in expanding space.

 The expansion of space occurs only in intergalactic space, but the space
 within galaxies, solar systems, etc. is gravitationally bound and is not
 expanding. Refer to Misner, Thorne and Wheeler's 'Gravitation' if you don't
 believe me

 Our solar system is not expanding due to the Hubble expansion because it
 is gravitationally bound... If it was you'd have a violation of the laws of
 orbital motion.

 Therefore there must be a space warping at the boundaries of galaxies
 which must produce a significant gravitational effect over time which could
 explain the dark matter effect

 Edgar



 On Tuesday, January 21, 2014 12:11:25 PM UTC-5, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Tuesday, January 21, 2014 4:22:34 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 PIerz,

 No, you are wrong here. Space doesn't expand around objects without
 the objects moving along with it. The positions of objects are positions 
 IN
 space. Thus there is not a smooth expansion but the warping around 
 galaxies
 I've pointed out.

 If you were correct the Hubble expansion of space wouldn't carry far
 galaxies along with it and redshift them.

 You are simply wrong here. Please remember that the next time you
 accuse me of being wrong about something!

 Edgar


 Edgar, the opposite is true. The hubble effect is constant if the
 comparison is between any two pairs of adjacent galaxies, one pair compared
 to the other, obviously controlling for distance between them. It's
 constant in that sense whether or not the overall effect is accelerating as
 it is at the moment.

 If the galaxies are independently moving in space, the distance to
 adjacent galaxies is changing, and has to be controlled for, to keep that
 constant effect.

 If you skip a galaxy and want the rate of expansion between a galaxy
 and the second galaxy along, then you have to add the two adjacent rates
 together, controlling for changes in distance caused by independent
 movement of galaxies in space. If you want the next galaxy after that, it's
 adding 3 adjacent values.

 This is why the hubble rate can keep on going, passing the speed of
 light barrier, and forever onward and upward. Because, and precisely
 because, it's not generated by a physical translation in space.


 As mentionesd in the last post, large gradients are already in place
 around galaxies, this this probably the boundary that forbids your