Re: Prime numbers

2013-05-26 Thread Bruno Marchal

John,

On 26 May 2013, at 00:54, John Mikes wrote:


Bruno and others:
did you read

http://www.slate.com/articles/health_and_science/do_the_math/2013/05/yitang_zhang_twin_primes_conjecture_a_huge_discovery_about_prime_numbers.single.html

the information about prof. Zhang's discovery (U of New Hampshire)?
It is still in the conjecture of mathematical proof and 'truth' with  
a position of primes are greater
than 1 -  with the interesting conclusion that 'primes' are the  
ATOMS of the number world.

Any thoughts?


Primes (1 is usually not considered as a prime number) are atoms of  
the numbers when conceived multiplicatively, because all numbers can  
be described uniquely as a product of primes. That is the existence  
and unicity of decomposition of numbers into prime factors (without  
taking the order of the multiplication into account). This is the so  
called fundamental theorem of arithmetic. It is easy to prove the  
existence of the decomposition into primes, but less easy to prove the  
uniqueness.


For the twin conjecture, (it exists an infinity of pair of primes p  
and q with p - q = 2) it looks like an important step has been proved,  
(the case with p - q just bounded) but we are still far from proving  
the twin one. Most mathematician believe that the twin conjecture is  
true (like most believe that the Riemann conjecture is true). If they  
were false, the distribution of primes would not be statistically  
random, and that would mean something very special is at play, a bit  
like a number conspiracy!  Why not, of course. We just don't know, but  
a non random behavior of the primes is a bit like the UFO of number  
theory. Well, except that for the UFO, there are (at least) some  
evidences (from time to time, most are eventually explained in  
general), but there is no evidence at all that the primes behave non- 
randomly (in the statistical sense, not in Chaitin-Kolmogorov sense as  
we can generate mechanically the distribution of primes).


Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Prime numbers

2013-05-25 Thread meekerdb

http://www.newscientist.com/article/dn23595-weinsteins-theory-of-everything-is-probably-nothing.html

Brent


On 5/25/2013 3:54 PM, John Mikes wrote:

Bruno and others:
did you read

http://www.slate.com/articles/health_and_science/do_the_math/2013/05/yitang_zhang_twin_primes_conjecture_a_huge_discovery_about_prime_numbers.single.html

the information about prof. Zhang's discovery (U of New Hampshire)?
It is still in the conjecture of mathematical proof and 'truth' with a position of 
primes are greater

than 1 -  with the interesting conclusion that 'primes' are the ATOMS of the 
number world.
Any thoughts?
JM
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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 27 Sep 2012, at 18:46, meekerdb wrote:


On 9/27/2012 1:19 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 26 Sep 2012, at 19:29, meekerdb wrote:


On 9/25/2012 9:51 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Sep 25, 2012, at 11:05 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net  
wrote:






snip


So you mean if some mathematical object implies a contradiction  
it doesn't exist, e.g. the largest prime number. But then of  
course the proof of contradiction is relative to the axioms and  
rules of inference.


Well there is always some theory we have to assume, some model we  
operate under.  This is needed just to communicate or to think.


The contradiction proof is relevant to some theory, but so is the  
existence proof.  You can't even define an object without using  
some agreed upon theory.


Sure you can.  You point and say, That!  That's how you learned  
the meaning of words, by abstracting from a lot of instances of  
your mother pointing and saying, That.


But this uses implicit theories selected by evolution. A brain *is*  
essentially a theory of the local universe already.


At least that's your theory.  :-)


Hmm... If by brain you mean the material object, then a brain is not a  
theory, but the 3-I, the body description at the right comp- 
substitution level, is the theory. It is a word (finite object)  
interpreted by a universal system (physical forces, QM, bosons and  
fermions).
The *material* brain, unfortunately perhaps, is not a word, it is an  
infinity of words interpreted by an infinity of competing universal  
numbers.


We have to explain, with comp, why little numbers seems to win,  
because we can't prevent all the numbers to add their grains of salt,  
hopefully not their buggy grains of sand generating noise and/or white  
rabbits.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-27 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 26 Sep 2012, at 19:29, meekerdb wrote:


On 9/25/2012 9:51 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Sep 25, 2012, at 11:05 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:





snip


So you mean if some mathematical object implies a contradiction it  
doesn't exist, e.g. the largest prime number. But then of course  
the proof of contradiction is relative to the axioms and rules of  
inference.


Well there is always some theory we have to assume, some model we  
operate under.  This is needed just to communicate or to think.


The contradiction proof is relevant to some theory, but so is the  
existence proof.  You can't even define an object without using  
some agreed upon theory.


Sure you can.  You point and say, That!  That's how you learned  
the meaning of words, by abstracting from a lot of instances of your  
mother pointing and saying, That.


But this uses implicit theories selected by evolution. A brain *is*  
essentially a theory of the local universe already.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-27 Thread meekerdb

On 9/27/2012 1:19 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 26 Sep 2012, at 19:29, meekerdb wrote:


On 9/25/2012 9:51 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Sep 25, 2012, at 11:05 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:





snip


So you mean if some mathematical object implies a contradiction it doesn't exist, 
e.g. the largest prime number. But then of course the proof of contradiction is 
relative to the axioms and rules of inference.


Well there is always some theory we have to assume, some model we operate under.  This 
is needed just to communicate or to think.


The contradiction proof is relevant to some theory, but so is the existence proof.  
You can't even define an object without using some agreed upon theory.


Sure you can.  You point and say, That!  That's how you learned the meaning of words, 
by abstracting from a lot of instances of your mother pointing and saying, That.


But this uses implicit theories selected by evolution. A brain *is* essentially a theory 
of the local universe already.


At least that's your theory.  :-)

Brent

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-26 Thread meekerdb

On 9/25/2012 9:51 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Sep 25, 2012, at 11:05 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 9/25/2012 8:54 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Sep 25, 2012, at 10:27 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 9/25/2012 4:07 PM, Jason Resch wrote:

 Yes. If we cannot prove that their existence is self-contradictory


Propositions can be self contradictory, but how can existence of something be 
self-contradictory?


Brent


Brent, it was roger, not I, who wrote the above.  But in any case I interpreted his 
statement to mean if some theoretical object is found to have contradictory 
properties, then it does not exist.


Sorry.



No worries.

So you mean if some mathematical object implies a contradiction it doesn't exist, e.g. 
the largest prime number. But then of course the proof of contradiction is relative to 
the axioms and rules of inference.


Well there is always some theory we have to assume, some model we operate under.  This 
is needed just to communicate or to think.


The contradiction proof is relevant to some theory, but so is the existence proof.  You 
can't even define an object without using some agreed upon theory.


Sure you can.  You point and say, That!  That's how you learned the meaning of words, by 
abstracting from a lot of instances of your mother pointing and saying, That.


Brent

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-26 Thread Jason Resch



On Sep 26, 2012, at 12:29 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 9/25/2012 9:51 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Sep 25, 2012, at 11:05 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 9/25/2012 8:54 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Sep 25, 2012, at 10:27 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net  
wrote:



On 9/25/2012 4:07 PM, Jason Resch wrote:
Yes. If we cannot prove that their existence is self- 
contradictory


Propositions can be self contradictory, but how can existence of  
something be self-contradictory?


Brent


Brent, it was roger, not I, who wrote the above.  But in any case  
I interpreted his statement to mean if some theoretical object is  
found to have contradictory properties, then it does not exist.


Sorry.



No worries.

So you mean if some mathematical object implies a contradiction it  
doesn't exist, e.g. the largest prime number. But then of course  
the proof of contradiction is relative to the axioms and rules of  
inference.


Well there is always some theory we have to assume, some model we  
operate under.  This is needed just to communicate or to think.


The contradiction proof is relevant to some theory, but so is the  
existence proof.  You can't even define an object without using  
some agreed upon theory.


Sure you can.  You point and say, That!  That's how you learned  
the meaning of words, by abstracting from a lot of instances of your  
mother pointing and saying, That.


Brent



There is still an implicitly assumed model that the two people are  
operating under (if they agree on what is meant by the chair they see).


Or they may use different models and define the chair differently.   
For example, a solipist believes the chair is only his idea, a  
physicalist thinks it is a collection of primitive matter, a  
computationalist a dream of numbers.


Then while they might all agree on the existence of something, that  
thing is different for each person because they are defining it under  
different models.


Jason




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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-26 Thread meekerdb

On 9/26/2012 12:11 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Sep 26, 2012, at 12:29 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 9/25/2012 9:51 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Sep 25, 2012, at 11:05 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 9/25/2012 8:54 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Sep 25, 2012, at 10:27 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 9/25/2012 4:07 PM, Jason Resch wrote:

Yes. If we cannot prove that their existence is self-contradictory


Propositions can be self contradictory, but how can existence of something be 
self-contradictory?


Brent


Brent, it was roger, not I, who wrote the above.  But in any case I interpreted his 
statement to mean if some theoretical object is found to have contradictory 
properties, then it does not exist.


Sorry.



No worries.

So you mean if some mathematical object implies a contradiction it doesn't exist, 
e.g. the largest prime number. But then of course the proof of contradiction is 
relative to the axioms and rules of inference.


Well there is always some theory we have to assume, some model we operate under.  This 
is needed just to communicate or to think.


The contradiction proof is relevant to some theory, but so is the existence proof.  
You can't even define an object without using some agreed upon theory.


Sure you can.  You point and say, That!  That's how you learned the meaning of words, 
by abstracting from a lot of instances of your mother pointing and saying, That.


Brent



There is still an implicitly assumed model that the two people are operating under (if 
they agree on what is meant by the chair they see).


Or they may use different models and define the chair differently.  For example, a 
solipist believes the chair is only his idea, a physicalist thinks it is a collection of 
primitive matter, a computationalist a dream of numbers.


Then while they might all agree on the existence of something, that thing is different 
for each person because they are defining it under different models.


But if they are different then what sense does it make to say there is a contradiction in 
*the* model and hence something doesn't exist.  That's why it makes no sense to talk about 
a contradiction disproving the existence of something you can define ostensively.  It is 
only in the Platonia of statements that you can derive contradictions from axioms and 
rules of inference.  If you can point to the thing whose non-existence is proven, then it 
just means you've made an error in translating between reality and Platonia.


Brent

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-26 Thread Jason Resch
On Wed, Sep 26, 2012 at 2:33 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 On 9/26/2012 12:11 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



 On Sep 26, 2012, at 12:29 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 9/25/2012 9:51 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



 On Sep 25, 2012, at 11:05 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 9/25/2012 8:54 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



 On Sep 25, 2012, at 10:27 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 9/25/2012 4:07 PM, Jason Resch wrote:

 Yes. If we cannot prove that their existence is self-contradictory


 Propositions can be self contradictory, but how can existence of
 something be self-contradictory?

 Brent


 Brent, it was roger, not I, who wrote the above.  But in any case I
 interpreted his statement to mean if some theoretical object is found to
 have contradictory properties, then it does not exist.


 Sorry.


 No worries.

  So you mean if some mathematical object implies a contradiction it
 doesn't exist, e.g. the largest prime number. But then of course the proof
 of contradiction is relative to the axioms and rules of inference.


 Well there is always some theory we have to assume, some model we
 operate under.  This is needed just to communicate or to think.

 The contradiction proof is relevant to some theory, but so is the
 existence proof.  You can't even define an object without using some agreed
 upon theory.


 Sure you can.  You point and say, That!  That's how you learned the
 meaning of words, by abstracting from a lot of instances of your mother
 pointing and saying, That.

 Brent



 There is still an implicitly assumed model that the two people are
 operating under (if they agree on what is meant by the chair they see).

 Or they may use different models and define the chair differently.  For
 example, a solipist believes the chair is only his idea, a physicalist
 thinks it is a collection of primitive matter, a computationalist a dream
 of numbers.

 Then while they might all agree on the existence of something, that thing
 is different for each person because they are defining it under different
 models.


 But if they are different then what sense does it make to say there is a
 contradiction in *the* model and hence something doesn't exist.


It means a certain object (which is defined in a model) does not exist in
that model.  A model in one object is not the same as another object in a
different model, even if they might have the same name, symbol,
or appearance.  2 in a finite field, is a different thing from 2 in the
natural numbers.  The chair in the solipist model is different from the
chair in the materialist model.  A chair made out of primitively real
matter is non-existent in the solipist model.

I don't see how you can escape having to work within a model when you make
assertions, like X exists, or Y does not exist.  What is X or Y outside of
the model from which they are defined and exist within?

Jason

 That's why it makes no sense to talk about a contradiction disproving the
 existence of something you can define ostensively.  It is only in the
 Platonia of statements that you can derive contradictions from axioms and
 rules of inference.  If you can point to the thing whose non-existence is
 proven, then it just means you've made an error in translating between
 reality and Platonia.

 Brent


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-26 Thread meekerdb

On 9/26/2012 2:53 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Wed, Sep 26, 2012 at 2:33 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 9/26/2012 12:11 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Sep 26, 2012, at 12:29 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 9/25/2012 9:51 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Sep 25, 2012, at 11:05 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 9/25/2012 8:54 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Sep 25, 2012, at 10:27 PM, meekerdb 
meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 9/25/2012 4:07 PM, Jason Resch wrote:

Yes. If we cannot prove that their existence is
self-contradictory


Propositions can be self contradictory, but how can
existence of something be self-contradictory?

Brent


Brent, it was roger, not I, who wrote the above.  But 
in any
case I interpreted his statement to mean if some 
theoretical
object is found to have contradictory properties, then 
it does
not exist.


Sorry.


No worries.

So you mean if some mathematical object implies a 
contradiction it
doesn't exist, e.g. the largest prime number. But then of 
course the
proof of contradiction is relative to the axioms and rules 
of inference.


Well there is always some theory we have to assume, some model 
we
operate under.  This is needed just to communicate or to think.

The contradiction proof is relevant to some theory, but so is 
the
existence proof.  You can't even define an object without using 
some
agreed upon theory.


Sure you can.  You point and say, That!  That's how you learned 
the
meaning of words, by abstracting from a lot of instances of your 
mother
pointing and saying, That.

Brent



There is still an implicitly assumed model that the two people are 
operating
under (if they agree on what is meant by the chair they see).

Or they may use different models and define the chair differently.  For 
example,
a solipist believes the chair is only his idea, a physicalist thinks it 
is a
collection of primitive matter, a computationalist a dream of numbers.

Then while they might all agree on the existence of something, that 
thing is
different for each person because they are defining it under different 
models.


But if they are different then what sense does it make to say there is a
contradiction in *the* model and hence something doesn't exist.


It means a certain object (which is defined in a model) does not exist in that model.  A 
model in one object is not the same as another object in a different model, even if they 
might have the same name, symbol, or appearance.  2 in a finite field, is a different 
thing from 2 in the natural numbers.  The chair in the solipist model is different 
from the chair in the materialist model.  A chair made out of primitively real matter 
is non-existent in the solipist model.
I don't see how you can escape having to work within a model when you make assertions, 
like X exists, or Y does not exist.


I don't try to escape that.


What is X or Y outside of the model from which they are defined and exist 
within?


The whole point of having a model is that X and Y refer to something outside the model.  
The model is a model *of* reality, not reality itself.  So when you prove X and ~X in 
the model you may have proved X doesn't exist or you may have shown your model doesn't 
correspond to reality.


Brent




Jason

 That's why it makes no sense to talk about a contradiction disproving the 
existence
of something you can define ostensively.  It is only in the Platonia of 
statements
that you can derive contradictions from axioms and rules of inference.  If 
you can
point to the thing whose non-existence is proven, then it just means you've 
made an
error in translating between reality and Platonia.

Brent


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-26 Thread Jason Resch
On Wed, Sep 26, 2012 at 5:01 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 9/26/2012 2:53 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



 On Wed, Sep 26, 2012 at 2:33 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 On 9/26/2012 12:11 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



 On Sep 26, 2012, at 12:29 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 9/25/2012 9:51 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



 On Sep 25, 2012, at 11:05 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 9/25/2012 8:54 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



 On Sep 25, 2012, at 10:27 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 9/25/2012 4:07 PM, Jason Resch wrote:

 Yes. If we cannot prove that their existence is self-contradictory


 Propositions can be self contradictory, but how can existence of
 something be self-contradictory?

 Brent


 Brent, it was roger, not I, who wrote the above.  But in any case I
 interpreted his statement to mean if some theoretical object is found to
 have contradictory properties, then it does not exist.


 Sorry.


 No worries.

  So you mean if some mathematical object implies a contradiction it
 doesn't exist, e.g. the largest prime number. But then of course the 
 proof
 of contradiction is relative to the axioms and rules of inference.


 Well there is always some theory we have to assume, some model we
 operate under.  This is needed just to communicate or to think.

 The contradiction proof is relevant to some theory, but so is the
 existence proof.  You can't even define an object without using some 
 agreed
 upon theory.


 Sure you can.  You point and say, That!  That's how you learned the
 meaning of words, by abstracting from a lot of instances of your mother
 pointing and saying, That.

 Brent



 There is still an implicitly assumed model that the two people are
 operating under (if they agree on what is meant by the chair they see).

 Or they may use different models and define the chair differently.  For
 example, a solipist believes the chair is only his idea, a physicalist
 thinks it is a collection of primitive matter, a computationalist a dream
 of numbers.

 Then while they might all agree on the existence of something, that
 thing is different for each person because they are defining it under
 different models.


  But if they are different then what sense does it make to say there is a
 contradiction in *the* model and hence something doesn't exist.


  It means a certain object (which is defined in a model) does not exist
 in that model.  A model in one object is not the same as another object in
 a different model, even if they might have the same name, symbol,
 or appearance.  2 in a finite field, is a different thing from 2 in the
 natural numbers.  The chair in the solipist model is different from the
 chair in the materialist model.  A chair made out of primitively real
 matter is non-existent in the solipist model.

 I don't see how you can escape having to work within a model when you make
 assertions, like X exists, or Y does not exist.


 I don't try to escape that.


  What is X or Y outside of the model from which they are defined and
 exist within?


 The whole point of having a model is that X and Y refer to something
 outside the model.  The model is a model *of* reality, not reality itself.
 So when you prove X and ~X in the model you may have proved X doesn't
 exist or you may have shown your model doesn't correspond to reality.


Okay.  I think we are in agreement then.

The main idea is to make a model of reality and test it by seeing how well
the model's predictions for observations match our observations.

Jason

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Re: Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-25 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Stephen P. King 

Yes, I think that the structures and
attributes of matter are provided
by a creator (the All, the supreme
monad, or God). Plato used the analogy
of geometrical shapes for his structures.

 
Roger Clough, rclo...@verizon.net 
9/25/2012  
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. -Woody Allen 


- Receiving the following content -  
From: Stephen P. King  
Receiver: everything-list  
Time: 2012-09-24, 10:42:12 
Subject: Re: Prime Numbers 


On 9/24/2012 9:46 AM, Roger Clough wrote: 
 God's ideas is fine. The numbers and arithmetic etc. can inhere in 
 some mind. The numbers are (idealistically) real, as I think 
 all arithmetic must be. For it is true whether known or 
 not. At least as you stay with common numbers and arithmetic. 
 Pretty sure. 
Hi Roger, 

 One question I have to pose: How do the properties of entities  
become discriminated from each other and collected together? Are the  
properties on a object inherent or is there some other active system of  
property attribution in Nature? Does God play a role in this? 

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Stephen 

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Re: Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-25 Thread Jason Resch
On Tue, Sep 25, 2012 at 7:35 AM, Roger Clough rclo...@verizon.net wrote:

 Hi Stephen P. King

 Yes, I think that the structures and
 attributes of matter are provided
 by a creator (the All, the supreme
 monad, or God). Plato used the analogy
 of geometrical shapes for his structures.


But if you believe in the All do you also believe there are other types
of matter, other universes, other planets with intelligent beings, etc?

Jason

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-25 Thread Stephen P. King

On 9/25/2012 10:24 AM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Tue, Sep 25, 2012 at 7:35 AM, Roger Clough rclo...@verizon.net 
mailto:rclo...@verizon.net wrote:


Hi Stephen P. King

Yes, I think that the structures and
attributes of matter are provided
by a creator (the All, the supreme
monad, or God). Plato used the analogy
of geometrical shapes for his structures.


But if you believe in the All do you also believe there are other 
types of matter, other universes, other planets with intelligent 
beings, etc?


Jason


Hi Jason,

   Yes. If we cannot prove that their existence is self-contradictory 
then we should consider them as possible. Just because I cannot 
experience or imagine something is not a proof of impossibility.


--
Onward!

Stephen

http://webpages.charter.net/stephenk1/Outlaw/Outlaw.html

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-25 Thread Jason Resch
On Tue, Sep 25, 2012 at 5:37 PM, Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.netwrote:

  On 9/25/2012 10:24 AM, Jason Resch wrote:



 On Tue, Sep 25, 2012 at 7:35 AM, Roger Clough rclo...@verizon.net wrote:

 Hi Stephen P. King

 Yes, I think that the structures and
 attributes of matter are provided
 by a creator (the All, the supreme
 monad, or God). Plato used the analogy
 of geometrical shapes for his structures.


 But if you believe in the All do you also believe there are other types
 of matter, other universes, other planets with intelligent beings, etc?

 Jason

  Hi Jason,

Yes. If we cannot prove that their existence is self-contradictory then
 we should consider them as possible. Just because I cannot experience or
 imagine something is not a proof of impossibility.



Roger,

I agree with you here.  But then this seems to contradict the notion that
*this* world is the best of all possible worlds, unless by this world you
mean the All.  After all Leibniz said Everything that is possible demands
to exist.

Jason

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-25 Thread Stephen P. King

On 9/25/2012 7:07 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Tue, Sep 25, 2012 at 5:37 PM, Stephen P. King 
stephe...@charter.net mailto:stephe...@charter.net wrote:


On 9/25/2012 10:24 AM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Tue, Sep 25, 2012 at 7:35 AM, Roger Clough
rclo...@verizon.net mailto:rclo...@verizon.net wrote:

Hi Stephen P. King

Yes, I think that the structures and
attributes of matter are provided
by a creator (the All, the supreme
monad, or God). Plato used the analogy
of geometrical shapes for his structures.


But if you believe in the All do you also believe there are
other types of matter, other universes, other planets with
intelligent beings, etc?

Jason


Hi Jason,

   Yes. If we cannot prove that their existence is
self-contradictory then we should consider them as possible.
Just because I cannot experience or imagine something is not a
proof of impossibility.



Roger,

I agree with you here.  But then this seems to contradict the notion 
that *this* world is the best of all possible worlds, unless by this 
world you mean the All.  After all Leibniz said Everything that is 
possible demands to exist.


Jason


Hi Jason,

Well said! I think that Leibniz' idea that *this* world is the 
best of all possible worlds has a stipulation that was not stated! It 
only seems to make sense that Leibniz was defining  this world as the 
world that we observe *and* communicate about with each other. It is 
the best possible by necessity as it is impossible for us to experience 
any other lesser version. We have  least action rules in physics that 
are nice demonstration of this...


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Stephen

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-25 Thread meekerdb

On 9/25/2012 4:07 PM, Jason Resch wrote:
   Yes. If we cannot prove that their existence is self-contradictory 


Propositions can be self contradictory, but how can existence of something be 
self-contradictory?


Brent

then we should consider them as possible. Just because I cannot experience or imagine 
something is not a proof of impossibility.


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-25 Thread Jason Resch



On Sep 25, 2012, at 10:27 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 9/25/2012 4:07 PM, Jason Resch wrote:

  Yes. If we cannot prove that their existence is self-contradictory


Propositions can be self contradictory, but how can existence of  
something be self-contradictory?


Brent


Brent, it was roger, not I, who wrote the above.  But in any case I  
interpreted his statement to mean if some theoretical object is found  
to have contradictory properties, then it does not exist.


Jason





then we should consider them as possible. Just because I cannot  
experience or imagine something is not a proof of impossibility.


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-25 Thread meekerdb

On 9/25/2012 8:54 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Sep 25, 2012, at 10:27 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 9/25/2012 4:07 PM, Jason Resch wrote:

  Yes. If we cannot prove that their existence is self-contradictory


Propositions can be self contradictory, but how can existence of something be 
self-contradictory?


Brent


Brent, it was roger, not I, who wrote the above.  But in any case I interpreted his 
statement to mean if some theoretical object is found to have contradictory properties, 
then it does not exist.


Sorry.

So you mean if some mathematical object implies a contradiction it doesn't exist, e.g. the 
largest prime number. But then of course the proof of contradiction is relative to the 
axioms and rules of inference.


Brent

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-25 Thread Jason Resch



On Sep 25, 2012, at 11:05 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 9/25/2012 8:54 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Sep 25, 2012, at 10:27 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 9/25/2012 4:07 PM, Jason Resch wrote:

 Yes. If we cannot prove that their existence is self-contradictory


Propositions can be self contradictory, but how can existence of  
something be self-contradictory?


Brent


Brent, it was roger, not I, who wrote the above.  But in any case I  
interpreted his statement to mean if some theoretical object is  
found to have contradictory properties, then it does not exist.


Sorry.



No worries.

So you mean if some mathematical object implies a contradiction it  
doesn't exist, e.g. the largest prime number. But then of course the  
proof of contradiction is relative to the axioms and rules of  
inference.


Well there is always some theory we have to assume, some model we  
operate under.  This is needed just to communicate or to think.


The contradiction proof is relevant to some theory, but so is the  
existence proof.  You can't even define an object without using some  
agreed upon theory.


Jason





Brent

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Re: Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-24 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Bruno Marchal  

Numbers are not in spacetime, that is, are not at location r at time t.
So they are ideas, they are not physical. To be physical you
have to have a specific location at a specific time. This is not
my view, it is that of Descartes.

The same with arithmetic. Numbers and arithmetic statements are not at (r,t).

Which is not to say that they are not real, if by real I mean true
or as is without an observer. Like in a textbook.




Roger Clough, rclo...@verizon.net 
9/24/2012  
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. -Woody Allen 


- Receiving the following content -  
From: Bruno Marchal  
Receiver: everything-list  
Time: 2012-09-23, 03:42:03 
Subject: Re: Prime Numbers 


On 22 Sep 2012, at 22:10, Stephen P. King wrote: 

 On 9/22/2012 7:32 AM, Roger Clough wrote: 
 How could mathematics be fiction ? 
 If so, then we could simply say that 2+2=5 because it's saturday. 
 How could we have a world we many minds can, on rare occasions, come  
 to complete agreement if that where the case? Perhaps it is true  
 that 2+2=4 because we all agree, at some level, that it is true. (I  
 am not just considering humans here with the word we!) 

How will you define we without accepting 2+2=4, given that IF we  
assume comp, we are defined by (L?ian) universal number and their  
relations with other universal numbers? 

Why do you keep an idealist conception of numbers, which contradicts  
your references to papers which use, as most texts in science, the  
independence and primitivity of elementary arithmetic? 

Or you remark was ironic? 

Bruno 


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ 



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Re: Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-24 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Bruno Marchal  

I believe that there are at least three attributes of numbers:

1) Are they true or false as in a numerical equation ? Does 2+ 2 = 4 ? True.

2) Do they physically exist or do they mentally inhere ?  They inhere. You 
can't touch them.

3) Are they real or not ?  Numbers are always real (in the philosophical sense).


Roger Clough, rclo...@verizon.net 
9/24/2012  
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. -Woody Allen 


- Receiving the following content -  
From: Bruno Marchal  
Receiver: everything-list  
Time: 2012-09-23, 03:42:03 
Subject: Re: Prime Numbers 


On 22 Sep 2012, at 22:10, Stephen P. King wrote: 

 On 9/22/2012 7:32 AM, Roger Clough wrote: 
 How could mathematics be fiction ? 
 If so, then we could simply say that 2+2=5 because it's saturday. 
 How could we have a world we many minds can, on rare occasions, come  
 to complete agreement if that where the case? Perhaps it is true  
 that 2+2=4 because we all agree, at some level, that it is true. (I  
 am not just considering humans here with the word we!) 

How will you define we without accepting 2+2=4, given that IF we  
assume comp, we are defined by (L?ian) universal number and their  
relations with other universal numbers? 

Why do you keep an idealist conception of numbers, which contradicts  
your references to papers which use, as most texts in science, the  
independence and primitivity of elementary arithmetic? 

Or you remark was ironic? 

Bruno 


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ 



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Re: Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-24 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Stephen P. King  

That's what Peirce gave as a pragmatic definition of truth, 
something that we would all agree to, given time enough. 

But fiction can be true (as true fiction, a narrative woven about
actual events)  or not be true.  Arithmetic isn't, it's either
always true or always false.


Roger Clough, rclo...@verizon.net 
9/24/2012  
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. -Woody Allen 


- Receiving the following content -  
From: Stephen P. King  
Receiver: everything-list  
Time: 2012-09-22, 16:10:38 
Subject: Re: Prime Numbers 


On 9/22/2012 7:32 AM, Roger Clough wrote: 
 How could mathematics be fiction ? 
 If so, then we could simply say that 2+2=5 because it's saturday. 
How could we have a world we many minds can, on rare occasions, come to  
complete agreement if that where the case? Perhaps it is true that 2+2=4  
because we all agree, at some level, that it is true. (I am not just  
considering humans here with the word we!) 

--  
Onward! 

Stephen 

http://webpages.charter.net/stephenk1/Outlaw/Outlaw.html 


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-24 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 24 Sep 2012, at 12:39, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno Marchal

Numbers are not in spacetime, that is, are not at location r at time  
t.

So they are ideas,


God's ideas? Then I am OK. The comp God is arithmetical truth, so this  
works.





they are not physical.


OK.



To be physical you
have to have a specific location at a specific time.


I am OK with this, but note that it makes the Universe into a non  
physical object. The Universe cannot belong to a location r at time t,  
as it is the gauge making such position and time consistent in the  
picture.





This is not
my view, it is that of Descartes.

The same with arithmetic. Numbers and arithmetic statements are not  
at (r,t).


OK.



Which is not to say that they are not real, if by real I mean true
or as is without an observer. Like in a textbook.


OK. So you can understand how comp is interesting, as it explains  
(partially but more than any other theory) how the physical beliefs  
appears and why they come in two sort of shapes (quanta and qualia),  
and this without assuming anything more than elementary arithmetic and  
the invariance of consciousness for some digital transformations.
Then the big picture happens to be closer to the neoplatonists one  
than the aristotelian one, which I think you should appreciate.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-24 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Bruno Marchal  

God's ideas is fine. The numbers and arithmetic etc. can inhere in 
some mind.  The numbers are (idealistically) real, as I think 
all arithmetic must be.  For it is true whether known or 
not. At least as you stay with common numbers and arithmetic.
Pretty sure.  


Roger Clough, rclo...@verizon.net 
9/24/2012  
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. -Woody Allen 


- Receiving the following content -  
From: Bruno Marchal  
Receiver: everything-list  
Time: 2012-09-24, 09:12:29 
Subject: Re: Prime Numbers 


On 24 Sep 2012, at 12:39, Roger Clough wrote: 

 Hi Bruno Marchal 
 
 Numbers are not in spacetime, that is, are not at location r at time  
 t. 
 So they are ideas, 

God's ideas? Then I am OK. The comp God is arithmetical truth, so this  
works. 



 they are not physical. 

OK. 


 To be physical you 
 have to have a specific location at a specific time. 

I am OK with this, but note that it makes the Universe into a non  
physical object. The Universe cannot belong to a location r at time t,  
as it is the gauge making such position and time consistent in the  
picture. 



 This is not 
 my view, it is that of Descartes. 
 
 The same with arithmetic. Numbers and arithmetic statements are not  
 at (r,t). 

OK. 

 
 Which is not to say that they are not real, if by real I mean true 
 or as is without an observer. Like in a textbook. 

OK. So you can understand how comp is interesting, as it explains  
(partially but more than any other theory) how the physical beliefs  
appears and why they come in two sort of shapes (quanta and qualia),  
and this without assuming anything more than elementary arithmetic and  
the invariance of consciousness for some digital transformations. 
Then the big picture happens to be closer to the neoplatonists one  
than the aristotelian one, which I think you should appreciate. 

Bruno 


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ 



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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-24 Thread Stephen P. King

On 9/24/2012 9:46 AM, Roger Clough wrote:

God's ideas is fine. The numbers and arithmetic etc. can inhere in
some mind.  The numbers are (idealistically) real, as I think
all arithmetic must be.  For it is true whether known or
not. At least as you stay with common numbers and arithmetic.
Pretty sure.

Hi Roger,

One question I have to pose: How do the properties of entities 
become discriminated from each other and collected together? Are the 
properties on a object inherent or is there some other active system of 
property attribution in Nature? Does God play a role in this?


--
Onward!

Stephen

http://webpages.charter.net/stephenk1/Outlaw/Outlaw.html


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-23 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 22 Sep 2012, at 22:10, Stephen P. King wrote:


On 9/22/2012 7:32 AM, Roger Clough wrote:

How could mathematics be fiction ?
If so, then we could simply say that 2+2=5 because it's saturday.
How could we have a world we many minds can, on rare occasions, come  
to complete agreement if that where the case? Perhaps it is true  
that 2+2=4 because we all agree, at some level, that it is true. (I  
am not just considering humans here with the word we!)


How will you define we without accepting 2+2=4, given that IF we  
assume comp, we are defined by (Löbian) universal number and their  
relations with other universal numbers?


Why do you keep an idealist conception of numbers, which contradicts  
your references to papers which use, as most texts in science, the  
independence and primitivity of elementary arithmetic?


Or you remark was ironic?

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-23 Thread Stephen P. King

On 9/23/2012 3:42 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 22 Sep 2012, at 22:10, Stephen P. King wrote:


On 9/22/2012 7:32 AM, Roger Clough wrote:

How could mathematics be fiction ?
If so, then we could simply say that 2+2=5 because it's saturday.
How could we have a world we many minds can, on rare occasions, come 
to complete agreement if that where the case? Perhaps it is true that 
2+2=4 because we all agree, at some level, that it is true. (I am not 
just considering humans here with the word we!)


How will you define we without accepting 2+2=4, given that IF we 
assume comp, we are defined by (Löbian) universal number and their 
relations with other universal numbers?


Why do you keep an idealist conception of numbers, which contradicts 
your references to papers which use, as most texts in science, the 
independence and primitivity of elementary arithmetic?


Or you remark was ironic?

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



The continued confusion of the symbols and what they represent makes 
this entire conversation an exercise in futility.


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Stephen

http://webpages.charter.net/stephenk1/Outlaw/Outlaw.html


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Re: Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-22 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Rex Allen  

How could mathematics be fiction ?
If so, then we could simply say that 2+2=5 because it's saturday.



Roger Clough, rclo...@verizon.net 
9/22/2012  
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. -Woody Allen 


- Receiving the following content -  
From: Rex Allen  
Receiver: everything-list  
Time: 2012-09-21, 09:20:41 
Subject: Re: Prime Numbers 


Just to avoid confusion, this sentence: 


I would say that mathematics is just very tightly plotted fiction where so many 
details of the story are known up front that the plot can only progress in very 
specific ways if it is to remain consistent and believable to the reader.? 


Should probably be: 


I would say that mathematics is just very tightly plotted fiction where so many 
details of the back-story are known up front that the plot can only progress in 
very specific ways if it is to remain consistent and believable to the 
reader.? 






On Fri, Sep 21, 2012 at 8:40 AM, Rex Allen  wrote: 

On Tue, Sep 18, 2012 at 11:50 PM, Terren Suydam  wrote: 

On Tue, Sep 18, 2012 at 10:19 PM, Rex Allen  wrote: 
 
 On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 1:36 PM, Terren Suydam  
 wrote: 
 
 Rex, 
 
 Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the 
 Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein? 
 
 
 I find fictionalism to be the most plausible view of mathematics, with all 
 that implies for the Mandelbrot set. 


I'm curious about what a plausible fictionalist account of the 
Mandelbrot set could be. Is fictionalism the same as constructivism, 
or the idea that knowledge doesn't exist outside of a mind? 



I lean towards a strong form of fictionalism - which says that there are few 
important differences between mathematics and literary fiction. 


So - I could give a detailed answer - but I think I'd rather give a sketchy 
answer at this point. 


I would say that mathematics is just very tightly plotted fiction where so many 
details of the story are known up front that the plot can only progress in very 
specific ways if it is to remain consistent and believable to the reader. 


Mathematics is a kind of world building. ?n the?maginative?ense. 




? 

 But ;et me turn the question around on you, if I can: 
 
 Do you have an explanation for how we discover mathematical objects and 
 otherwise interact with the Platonic realm? 
 
 How is it that we are able to reliably know things about Platonia? 


I think just doing logic and math - starting from axioms and proving 
things from them - is interacting with the Platonic realm. 


But how is it that we humans do that? ?his is my main question. ?hat exactly 
are we doing when we start from axioms and prove things from them? ?here does 
this ability come from? ?hat does it consist of? 






 I would have thought that quarks and electrons from which we appear to be 
 constituted would be indifferent to truth. 
 
 Which would fit with the fact that I seem to make a lot of mistakes. 
 
 But you think otherwise? 


I didn't understand the above... what do quarks and electrons have to 
do with arithmetical platonism? 



Are we not composed from quarks and electrons? ?f so - then how do mere 
collections of quarks and electrons connect with platonic truths? 


By chance? ?re we just fortunate that the initial conditions and causal laws of 
the universe are such that our quarks and electrons take forms that mirror 
Platonic Truths? 


? 

 
 How can you make 
 sense of that in terms of the constructivist point of view that you 
 are (I think) compelled to take if you argue against arithmetical 
 platonism? ?t seems obvious that all possible intelligences would 
 discover the same forms of the Mandelbrot so long as they iterated on 
 z' = z^2 + c, but maybe I am missing the point of your argument. 
 
 I will agree with you that all intelligences that start from the same 
 premises as you, and follow the same rules as inference as you, will also 
 draw the same conclusions about the Mandelbrot set as you do. 
 
 However - I do not agree with you that this amenable group exhausts the set 
 of all *possible* intelligences. 


I only meant that all possible intelligences that start from a 
mathematics that includes addition, multiplication, and complex 
numbers will find that if they iterate the function z' = z^2 + c, they 
will find that some orbits become periodic or settle on a point, and 
some escape to infinity. If they draw a graph of which orbits don't 
escape, they will draw the Mandelbrot Set. All possible intelligences 
that undertake that procedure will draw the same shape... and this 
seems like discovery, not creation. 



It seems like a tautology to me. ?f you do what I do and believe what I believe 
then you will be a lot like me...? 


Is there anything to mathematics other than belief? 


What are beliefs? ?hy do we have the beliefs that we have? ?ow do we form 
beliefs - what lies behind belief? 


Can *our* mathematical abilities be reduced to something

Re: Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-22 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Terren Suydam 

I don't see that mathematics and fiction have anything in common.

With fiction, anything can happen. 
A would of could be, or should be.

With mathematics you've got that nasty equals sign.
A world of is.

Hume pointed out that there's no way to get from is
to ought or vice versa.


Roger Clough, rclo...@verizon.net
9/22/2012 
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. -Woody Allen


- Receiving the following content - 
From: Terren Suydam 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2012-09-21, 12:29:56
Subject: Re: Prime Numbers


On Fri, Sep 21, 2012 at 8:40 AM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Tue, Sep 18, 2012 at 11:50 PM, Terren Suydam terren.suy...@gmail.com
 wrote:

 I'm curious about what a plausible fictionalist account of the
 Mandelbrot set could be. Is fictionalism the same as constructivism,
 or the idea that knowledge doesn't exist outside of a mind?


 I lean towards a strong form of fictionalism - which says that there are few
 important differences between mathematics and literary fiction.

Can you articulate any important differences between them?

 So - I could give a detailed answer - but I think I'd rather give a sketchy
 answer at this point.

 I would say that mathematics is just very tightly plotted fiction where so
 many details of the story are known up front that the plot can only progress
 in very specific ways if it is to remain consistent and believable to the
 reader.

 Mathematics is a kind of world building. In the imaginative sense.

I am not unsympathetic with this view, given the creativity that goes
into mathematical proofs. However, it falls apart for me when I
consider that an alien civilization is constrained to build the same
worlds if they start from the same logical axioms.


 I think just doing logic and math - starting from axioms and proving
 things from them - is interacting with the Platonic realm.


 But how is it that we humans do that? This is my main question. What
 exactly are we doing when we start from axioms and prove things from them?
 Where does this ability come from? What does it consist of?

We're using our intelligence and creativity to search a space of
propositions (given a set of axioms) that are either provably true or
false. I would say our intelligence and creativity comes from our
animal nature, evolved as it is to make sense of the world (and each
other) and draw useful inferences that help us survive. I'm not sure
how to answer the question what does it consist of. Are you asking
how we can act intelligently, how creativity works?

 I didn't understand the above... what do quarks and electrons have to
 do with arithmetical platonism?

 Are we not composed from quarks and electrons? If so - then how do mere
 collections of quarks and electrons connect with platonic truths?

 By chance? Are we just fortunate that the initial conditions and causal
 laws of the universe are such that our quarks and electrons take forms that
 mirror Platonic Truths?

I see. Assuming comp, we are some infinite subset of the trace of the
UD (universal dovetailer), which is a platonic entity. Quarks and
electrons are a part of the physics that emerges from that (the
numbers' dreams)... that's the reversal, where physics emerges from
computer science.

The question of how we, as mere collections of quarks etc. connect
back with Platonia, is answered by CT (Church-Turing Thesis). As we
are universal machines, we can emulate any computation, including the
universal dovetailer (for instance).

 I only meant that all possible intelligences that start from a
 mathematics that includes addition, multiplication, and complex
 numbers will find that if they iterate the function z' = z^2 + c, they
 will find that some orbits become periodic or settle on a point, and
 some escape to infinity. If they draw a graph of which orbits don't
 escape, they will draw the Mandelbrot Set. All possible intelligences
 that undertake that procedure will draw the same shape... and this
 seems like discovery, not creation.

 It seems like a tautology to me. If you do what I do and believe what I
 believe then you will be a lot like me...?

 Is there anything to mathematics other than belief?

The point is that you are constrained in what you can prove starting
from a given set of axioms. You are not constrained in which axioms
you start with - that's where the belief comes in since there is no
way to prove that your axioms are True, except within a more
encompassing logical framework with its own axioms.

 What are beliefs? Why do we have the beliefs that we have? How do we form
 beliefs - what lies behind belief?

Beliefs in the everyday sense are inferences about our experience that
we hold to be true. They help us navigate the world as we experience
it, and make sense of it. Mostly our beliefs are formed by suggestion
from our parents and peers when we are young, and as we learn and grow
we complicate our worldview with new beliefs

Re: Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-22 Thread Roger Clough
Hi meekerdb 

Mathematical objects such as proofs ansd new theorems are found by intuition.
Penrose suggests that intuition is a peep into Platonia.
So these come from Platonia.


Roger Clough, rclo...@verizon.net
9/22/2012 
Forever is a long time, especially near the end. -Woody Allen


- Receiving the following content - 
From: meekerdb 
Receiver: everything-list 
Time: 2012-09-21, 13:30:03
Subject: Re: Prime Numbers


On 9/21/2012 5:40 AM, Rex Allen wrote: 
On Tue, Sep 18, 2012 at 11:50 PM, Terren Suydam terren.suy...@gmail.com wrote:

On Tue, Sep 18, 2012 at 10:19 PM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 1:36 PM, Terren Suydam terren.suy...@gmail.com
 wrote:

 Rex,

 Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the
 Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein?


 I find fictionalism to be the most plausible view of mathematics, with all
 that implies for the Mandelbrot set.


I'm curious about what a plausible fictionalist account of the
Mandelbrot set could be. Is fictionalism the same as constructivism,
or the idea that knowledge doesn't exist outside of a mind?



I lean towards a strong form of fictionalism - which says that there are few 
important differences between mathematics and literary fiction.


So - I could give a detailed answer - but I think I'd rather give a sketchy 
answer at this point.


I would say that mathematics is just very tightly plotted fiction where so many 
details of the story are known up front that the plot can only progress in very 
specific ways if it is to remain consistent and believable to the reader.


Mathematics is a kind of world building.  In the imaginative sense.






 But ;et me turn the question around on you, if I can:

 Do you have an explanation for how we discover mathematical objects and
 otherwise interact with the Platonic realm?

 How is it that we are able to reliably know things about Platonia?


I think just doing logic and math - starting from axioms and proving
things from them - is interacting with the Platonic realm.


But how is it that we humans do that?  This is my main question.  What exactly 
are we doing when we start from axioms and prove things from them?  Where does 
this ability come from?  What does it consist of?






 I would have thought that quarks and electrons from which we appear to be
 constituted would be indifferent to truth.

 Which would fit with the fact that I seem to make a lot of mistakes.

 But you think otherwise?


I didn't understand the above... what do quarks and electrons have to
do with arithmetical platonism?



Are we not composed from quarks and electrons?  If so - then how do mere 
collections of quarks and electrons connect with platonic truths?


By chance?  Are we just fortunate that the initial conditions and causal laws 
of the universe are such that our quarks and electrons take forms that mirror 
Platonic Truths?





 How can you make
 sense of that in terms of the constructivist point of view that you
 are (I think) compelled to take if you argue against arithmetical
 platonism?  It seems obvious that all possible intelligences would
 discover the same forms of the Mandelbrot so long as they iterated on
 z' = z^2 + c, but maybe I am missing the point of your argument.

 I will agree with you that all intelligences that start from the same
 premises as you, and follow the same rules as inference as you, will also
 draw the same conclusions about the Mandelbrot set as you do.

 However - I do not agree with you that this amenable group exhausts the set
 of all *possible* intelligences.


I only meant that all possible intelligences that start from a
mathematics that includes addition, multiplication, and complex
numbers will find that if they iterate the function z' = z^2 + c, they
will find that some orbits become periodic or settle on a point, and
some escape to infinity. If they draw a graph of which orbits don't
escape, they will draw the Mandelbrot Set. All possible intelligences
that undertake that procedure will draw the same shape... and this
seems like discovery, not creation.



It seems like a tautology to me.  If you do what I do and believe what I 
believe then you will be a lot like me...?


Is there anything to mathematics other than belief?


What are beliefs?  Why do we have the beliefs that we have?  How do we form 
beliefs - what lies behind belief?


Can *our* mathematical abilities be reduced to something that is indifferent to 
mathematical truth?






 Could there be intelligences who start from vastly difference premises, and
 use vastly different rules of inference, and draw vastly different
 conclusions?


Of course, but then what they are doing doesn't relate to the Mandelbrot Set.



However - they might *believe* their creations to be just as significant and 
universal as you consider the Mandelbrot Set to be - mightened they?


What would make them wrong in their belief but you right in yours

Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-22 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 21 Sep 2012, at 19:17, meekerdb wrote:


On 9/21/2012 1:22 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 20 Sep 2012, at 20:14, meekerdb wrote:


On 9/20/2012 10:31 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 20 Sep 2012, at 18:14, meekerdb wrote:


On 9/20/2012 2:05 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
A modal logic of probability is given by the behavior of the  
probability one. In Kripke terms, P(x) = 1 in world alpha  
means that x is realized in all worlds accessible from alpha,  
and (key point) that we are not in a cul-de-sac world.


What does 'accessible' mean?



In modal logic semantic, it is a technical world for any element  
in set + a binary relation on it.


A mapping of the set onto itself?


?

A relation is not a map. A world can access more than one world.
For example {a, b} with the relation {(a, a), (a, b)}, or aRa, aRb.







When applied to probability, the idea is to interpret the worlds  
by the realization of some random experience, like throwing a  
coin would lead to two worlds accessible, one with head, the  
other with tail. In that modal (tail or head) is a certainty as  
(tail or head) is realized everywhere in the accessible worlds.


Then accessible means nomologically possible.


Accessible means only that some binary relation exists on a set.  
But in some concrete model of a multi-world or multi-situation  
context, nomological possibility is not excluded.


Then I don't understand what other kinds of possibility are  
allowed?  I don't see how logical possibility could be considered an  
accessibility relation (at least not an interesting one) because it  
would allow Rxy where y was anything except not-x.







But in the worlds of the UD there is no nomological constraint, so  
there's no probability measure?


I am not sure why there is no nomological constraints in the UD.  
UD* is a highly structured entity. You might elaborate on this.


A nomological constraint is one of physics.


Why? Define perhaps nomological.



But physics is derivative from part of the UD.  The UD is structured  
only by arithmetic.


Why would this be not enough, given that physics will supervene on  
arithmetical relations (computations)?


Bruno







Generally speaking a different world is defined as not  
accessible.  If you can go there, it's part of your same world.


Yes. OK. Sorry. Logician used the term world in a technical  
sense, and the worlds can be anything, depending of which modal  
logic is used, for what purpose, etc. Kripke semantic main used  
is in showing the independence of formula in different systems.


Bruno





Brent


This gives KD modal logics, with K:  = [](p - q)-([]p -  
[]q), and D:  []p - p. Of course with [] for Gödel's  
beweisbar we don't have that D is a theorem, so we ensure the D  
property by defining a new box, Bp = []p  t.


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-22 Thread Stephen P. King

On 9/22/2012 7:32 AM, Roger Clough wrote:

How could mathematics be fiction ?
If so, then we could simply say that 2+2=5 because it's saturday.
How could we have a world we many minds can, on rare occasions, come to 
complete agreement if that where the case? Perhaps it is true that 2+2=4 
because we all agree, at some level, that it is true. (I am not just 
considering humans here with the word we!)


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-21 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 20 Sep 2012, at 20:14, meekerdb wrote:


On 9/20/2012 10:31 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 20 Sep 2012, at 18:14, meekerdb wrote:


On 9/20/2012 2:05 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
A modal logic of probability is given by the behavior of the  
probability one. In Kripke terms, P(x) = 1 in world alpha means  
that x is realized in all worlds accessible from alpha, and (key  
point) that we are not in a cul-de-sac world.


What does 'accessible' mean?



In modal logic semantic, it is a technical world for any element in  
set + a binary relation on it.


When applied to probability, the idea is to interpret the worlds by  
the realization of some random experience, like throwing a coin  
would lead to two worlds accessible, one with head, the other with  
tail. In that modal (tail or head) is a certainty as (tail or head)  
is realized everywhere in the accessible worlds.


Then accessible means nomologically possible.


Accessible means only that some binary relation exists on a set. But  
in some concrete model of a multi-world or multi-situation context,  
nomological possibility is not excluded.





But in the worlds of the UD there is no nomological constraint, so  
there's no probability measure?


I am not sure why there is no nomological constraints in the UD. UD*  
is a highly structured entity. You might elaborate on this.


Bruno





Generally speaking a different world is defined as not  
accessible.  If you can go there, it's part of your same world.


Yes. OK. Sorry. Logician used the term world in a technical sense,  
and the worlds can be anything, depending of which modal logic is  
used, for what purpose, etc. Kripke semantic main used is in  
showing the independence of formula in different systems.


Bruno





Brent


This gives KD modal logics, with K:  = [](p - q)-([]p - []q),  
and D:  []p - p. Of course with [] for Gödel's beweisbar we  
don't have that D is a theorem, so we ensure the D property by  
defining a new box, Bp = []p  t.


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-21 Thread Rex Allen
On Tue, Sep 18, 2012 at 11:50 PM, Terren Suydam terren.suy...@gmail.comwrote:

 On Tue, Sep 18, 2012 at 10:19 PM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com
 wrote:
 
  On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 1:36 PM, Terren Suydam terren.suy...@gmail.com
  wrote:
 
  Rex,
 
  Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the
  Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein?
 
 
  I find fictionalism to be the most plausible view of mathematics, with
 all
  that implies for the Mandelbrot set.

 I'm curious about what a plausible fictionalist account of the
 Mandelbrot set could be. Is fictionalism the same as constructivism,
 or the idea that knowledge doesn't exist outside of a mind?


I lean towards a strong form of fictionalism - which says that there are
few important differences between mathematics and literary fiction.

So - I could give a detailed answer - but I think I'd rather give a sketchy
answer at this point.

I would say that mathematics is just very tightly plotted fiction where so
many details of the story are known up front that the plot can only
progress in very specific ways if it is to remain consistent and believable
to the reader.

Mathematics is a kind of world building.  In the imaginative sense.





  But ;et me turn the question around on you, if I can:
 
  Do you have an explanation for how we discover mathematical objects and
  otherwise interact with the Platonic realm?
 
  How is it that we are able to reliably know things about Platonia?

 I think just doing logic and math - starting from axioms and proving
 things from them - is interacting with the Platonic realm.


But how is it that we humans do that?  This is my main question.  What
exactly are we doing when we start from axioms and prove things from them?
 Where does this ability come from?  What does it consist of?



 I would have thought that quarks and electrons from which we appear to be
  constituted would be indifferent to truth.
 
  Which would fit with the fact that I seem to make a lot of mistakes.
 
  But you think otherwise?

 I didn't understand the above... what do quarks and electrons have to
 do with arithmetical platonism?


Are we not composed from quarks and electrons?  If so - then how do mere
collections of quarks and electrons connect with platonic truths?

By chance?  Are we just fortunate that the initial conditions and causal
laws of the universe are such that our quarks and electrons take forms that
mirror Platonic Truths?




 
  How can you make
  sense of that in terms of the constructivist point of view that you
  are (I think) compelled to take if you argue against arithmetical
  platonism?  It seems obvious that all possible intelligences would
  discover the same forms of the Mandelbrot so long as they iterated on
  z' = z^2 + c, but maybe I am missing the point of your argument.
 
  I will agree with you that all intelligences that start from the same
  premises as you, and follow the same rules as inference as you, will also
  draw the same conclusions about the Mandelbrot set as you do.
 
  However - I do not agree with you that this amenable group exhausts the
 set
  of all *possible* intelligences.

 I only meant that all possible intelligences that start from a
 mathematics that includes addition, multiplication, and complex
 numbers will find that if they iterate the function z' = z^2 + c, they
 will find that some orbits become periodic or settle on a point, and
 some escape to infinity. If they draw a graph of which orbits don't
 escape, they will draw the Mandelbrot Set. All possible intelligences
 that undertake that procedure will draw the same shape... and this
 seems like discovery, not creation.


It seems like a tautology to me.  If you do what I do and believe what I
believe then you will be a lot like me...?

Is there anything to mathematics other than belief?

What are beliefs?  Why do we have the beliefs that we have?  How do we form
beliefs - what lies behind belief?

Can *our* mathematical abilities be reduced to something that is
indifferent to mathematical truth?





  Could there be intelligences who start from vastly difference premises,
 and
  use vastly different rules of inference, and draw vastly different
  conclusions?

 Of course, but then what they are doing doesn't relate to the Mandelbrot
 Set.


However - they might *believe* their creations to be just as significant
and universal as you consider the Mandelbrot Set to be - mightened they?

What would make them wrong in their belief but you right in yours?




  What are the limits of belief, do you think?  Is there any belief that
 is so
  preposterous that even the maddest of the mad could not believe such a
  thing?

 I don't think so... based on my understanding of how mad maddest of
 the mad can get.

  And if there is no such belief - then is it conceivable that quarks and
  electrons could configure themselves in such a way as to *cause* a being
 who
  holds such beliefs to come into existence?

 

Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-21 Thread Rex Allen
On Wed, Sep 19, 2012 at 12:27 AM, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Sep 18, 2012, at 9:19 PM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 1:36 PM, Terren Suydam  terren.suy...@gmail.com
 terren.suy...@gmail.com wrote:

 Rex,

 Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the
 Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein?


 I find fictionalism to be the most plausible view of mathematics, with all
 that implies for the Mandelbrot set.

 But ;et me turn the question around on you, if I can:

 Do you have an explanation for how we discover mathematical objects and
 otherwise interact with the Platonic realm?


 We study and create theories about objects in the mathematical realm just
 as we study and create theories about objects in the physical realm.


So in the physical realm, we start from our senses - what we see, hear,
feel, etc.

From this, we infer the existence of electrons and wavefunctions and
strings and whatnot.  Or some of us do.  Others take a more instrumental
view of scientific theories.

So you're saying that thought is another kind of sense?  And that what
occurs to us in thought can also be used as a basis to infer the existence
of objects which help explain those thoughts?

But we believe that electrons interact causally with us because we are made
from similar stuff - and by doing so make themselves known to us...right?

How do Platonic objects interact causally with us?  Via a Platonic Field?
 PFT - Platonic Field Theory?


It's not much different from how we develop theories about other things we
 cannot interact with: the early universe, the cores of stars, the insides
 of black holes, etc.

 We test these theories by following their implications and seeing if they
 lead to contridictions with other, more  established, facts.


 Just as with physical theories, we ocasionally find that we need to throw
 out the old set of theories (or axioms) for a new set which has greater
 explanatory power.



So you think our current mathematical theories are not true in any
metaphysical sense - but rather are approximations of what exists in
Platonia?

Is there an equivalent of the idea of domains of validity that holds in
some circles in physics?

I'm not sure any of this counts as being evidence in favor of Platonism...


How is it that we are able to reliably know things about Platonia?


 The very idea of knowing implies a differentiation between true and false.


 Nearly any intelligent civilization that notices a partition between true
 and false will eventyally get here.


True in what sense?  A coherentist conception of truth?  A correspondence
conception of truth?

How do we know truth?  Do we have an innate truth sense?

Does the ability to know truth require free will?

For instance:

If we say a statement is true because it is true, that is different than
saying it is true because our neurons fired in a way that determined our
response. If all our decisions were predetermined from the moment of the
big bang then rational discussion is meaningless. Whether or not anyone
agrees with you has nothing to do with the truth of your claim. Their
beliefs were hardwired from the beginning of time.

It follows then that your own beliefs are not based on their truth value.
You believe what you believe because your neurons have determined that you
will believe in this rather than that.

SO - what is this truth stuff, really?





 I would have thought that quarks and electrons from which we appear to be
 constituted would be indifferent to truth.


 The unreasonable effectiveness of math in the physical sciences is yet
 further support if Platonism.  If this, and seemingly infinite  physical
 universes exist, and they are mathematical structures, why can't others
 exist?





 Which would fit with the fact that I seem to make a lot of mistakes.

 But you think otherwise?


 We are imperfect beings.


What is the source of imperfection?  Where does it come from?  What
explains it?

Objectively, intrinsically, absolutely imperfect?

Have you heard the term Works as coded, with respect to software
development?

So I can write a program that has a bug in it - and the computer will run
it perfectly.  The computer will do exactly what I told it to do.

The program works as coded.  When running my program, the computer is
perfectly imperfect.

I am the source of its imperfection.

However, in a functionalist theory of mind - I am actually just executing
my own program right?  Given the initial conditions of the universe and
the causal laws that govern it - I could not do other than I did when I
wrote that buggy code.

I also work as coded.  I also am perfectly imperfect.  And since in
this view I am not the source of my own imperfection - the universe's
initial conditions and causal laws must be that source.

But what explains that imperfection?

But - maybe there really is no such thing as imperfection?  It's all just
made up...like mathematical 

Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-21 Thread Jason Resch



On Sep 21, 2012, at 8:13 AM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com wrote:

On Wed, Sep 19, 2012 at 12:27 AM, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com  
wrote:
On Sep 18, 2012, at 9:19 PM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com  
wrote:
On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 1:36 PM, Terren Suydam terren.suy...@gmail.com 
 wrote:

Rex,

Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the
Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein?

I find fictionalism to be the most plausible view of mathematics,  
with all that implies for the Mandelbrot set.


But ;et me turn the question around on you, if I can:

Do you have an explanation for how we discover mathematical  
objects and otherwise interact with the Platonic realm?


We study and create theories about objects in the mathematical realm  
just as we study and create theories about objects in the physical  
realm.


So in the physical realm, we start from our senses - what we see,  
hear, feel, etc.


From this, we infer the existence of electrons and wavefunctions and  
strings and whatnot.  Or some of us do.  Others take a more  
instrumental view of scientific theories.


Right, and we have similarly inferred the existence of primes,  
fractals, non-computable functions, etc.




So you're saying that thought is another kind of sense?


Thought is needed for inference and building theories, equally in the  
physical sciences and math.


And that what occurs to us in thought can also be used as a basis to  
infer the existence of objects which help explain those thoughts?


Right, like you might think up genesis and dualism, or big bang and  
materialism, or platonic truth and computationalism.  These are  
ontological theories for what exists, and why we are here experiencing  
it.


If you say math is fiction and only exists only as a story in our  
brains, then obviously you can't use platonic truth and  
computationalism as one if your theories of existence.


I think the fact that mathematics can serve as a theory for our  
existence shows absolutely that mathematical theories and physical  
theories are on equal footing.  We can gather evidence for them and  
build cases for them, find out we were wrong about them, and so on.   
Why do we believe in quarks, electrons, strings, etc.?  Because they  
can explain our observations.  Why do I believe in the platonic  
realm?  For the same reasons.




But we believe that electrons interact causally with us because we  
are made from similar stuff - and by doing so make themselves known  
to us...right?


How do Platonic objects interact causally with us?  Via a Platonic  
Field?  PFT - Platonic Field Theory?




How did the warping of space and time cause Einsteins brain to figure  
out relativity?


I think you are looking at it in the wrong way.  Our brains seek good  
explanations.  They sometimes find one.  That's all that is going on.


Now you say our explainations when it comes to mathematics are  
fiction, but if that is so, why not say the same of the physical  
theories?  Why not say the big bang is fiction, or matter is fiction?   
I think this leads to declaring everything but one's current thought  
is fiction, which does not seem very useful.





It's not much different from how we develop theories about other  
things we cannot interact with: the early universe, the cores of  
stars, the insides of black holes, etc.


We test these theories by following their implications and seeing if  
they lead to contridictions with other, more  established, facts.


Just as with physical theories, we ocasionally find that we need to  
throw out the old set of theories (or axioms) for a new set which  
has greater explanatory power.



So you think our current mathematical theories are not true in any  
metaphysical sense - but rather are approximations of what exists in  
Platonia?


They may or may not be true, but they are certainly incomplete.  Just  
like our physical theories may or not be true descriptions of the  
universe, and are certainly incomplete.




Is there an equivalent of the idea of domains of validity that  
holds in some circles in physics?




I don't know what this concept means well enough to say.


I'm not sure any of this counts as being evidence in favor of  
Platonism...




How is it that we are able to reliably know things about Platonia?


The very idea of knowing implies a differentiation between true and  
false.


Nearly any intelligent civilization that notices a partition between  
true and false will eventyally get here.



True in what sense?  A coherentist conception of truth?  A  
correspondence conception of truth?




In the sense of the notion that a proposition is either true or false.


How do we know truth?  Do we have an innate truth sense?


How do we know anything?  Do we know anything?




Does the ability to know truth require free will?



Comparabalist or incompatibalist?


For instance:

If we say a statement is true because it is true,


What we say or 

Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-21 Thread Terren Suydam
On Fri, Sep 21, 2012 at 8:40 AM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Tue, Sep 18, 2012 at 11:50 PM, Terren Suydam terren.suy...@gmail.com
 wrote:

 I'm curious about what a plausible fictionalist account of the
 Mandelbrot set could be. Is fictionalism the same as constructivism,
 or the idea that knowledge doesn't exist outside of a mind?


 I lean towards a strong form of fictionalism - which says that there are few
 important differences between mathematics and literary fiction.

Can you articulate any important differences between them?

 So - I could give a detailed answer - but I think I'd rather give a sketchy
 answer at this point.

 I would say that mathematics is just very tightly plotted fiction where so
 many details of the story are known up front that the plot can only progress
 in very specific ways if it is to remain consistent and believable to the
 reader.

 Mathematics is a kind of world building.  In the imaginative sense.

I am not unsympathetic with this view, given the creativity that goes
into mathematical proofs. However, it falls apart for me when I
consider that an alien civilization is constrained to build the same
worlds if they start from the same logical axioms.


 I think just doing logic and math - starting from axioms and proving
 things from them - is interacting with the Platonic realm.


 But how is it that we humans do that?  This is my main question.  What
 exactly are we doing when we start from axioms and prove things from them?
 Where does this ability come from?  What does it consist of?

We're using our intelligence and creativity to search a space of
propositions (given a set of axioms) that are either provably true or
false. I would say our intelligence and creativity comes from our
animal nature, evolved as it is to make sense of the world (and each
other) and draw useful inferences that help us survive. I'm not sure
how to answer the question what does it consist of. Are you asking
how we can act intelligently, how creativity works?

 I didn't understand the above... what do quarks and electrons have to
 do with arithmetical platonism?

 Are we not composed from quarks and electrons?  If so - then how do mere
 collections of quarks and electrons connect with platonic truths?

 By chance?  Are we just fortunate that the initial conditions and causal
 laws of the universe are such that our quarks and electrons take forms that
 mirror Platonic Truths?

I see. Assuming comp, we are some infinite subset of the trace of the
UD (universal dovetailer), which is a platonic entity. Quarks and
electrons are a part of the physics that emerges from that (the
numbers' dreams)... that's the reversal, where physics emerges from
computer science.

The question of how we, as mere collections of quarks etc. connect
back with Platonia, is answered by CT (Church-Turing Thesis). As we
are universal machines, we can emulate any computation, including the
universal dovetailer (for instance).

 I only meant that all possible intelligences that start from a
 mathematics that includes addition, multiplication, and complex
 numbers will find that if they iterate the function z' = z^2 + c, they
 will find that some orbits become periodic or settle on a point, and
 some escape to infinity. If they draw a graph of which orbits don't
 escape, they will draw the Mandelbrot Set. All possible intelligences
 that undertake that procedure will draw the same shape... and this
 seems like discovery, not creation.

 It seems like a tautology to me.  If you do what I do and believe what I
 believe then you will be a lot like me...?

 Is there anything to mathematics other than belief?

The point is that you are constrained in what you can prove starting
from a given set of axioms. You are not constrained in which axioms
you start with - that's where the belief comes in since there is no
way to prove that your axioms are True, except within a more
encompassing logical framework with its own axioms.

 What are beliefs?  Why do we have the beliefs that we have?  How do we form
 beliefs - what lies behind belief?

Beliefs in the everyday sense are inferences about our experience that
we hold to be true. They help us navigate the world as we experience
it, and make sense of it. Mostly our beliefs are formed by suggestion
from our parents and peers when we are young, and as we learn and grow
we complicate our worldview with new beliefs. There isn't much behind
belief except habituation. Certainly most of us hold onto some beliefs
that are contradicted by facts (particularly the beliefs we hold of
ourselves).

 Can *our* mathematical abilities be reduced to something that is indifferent
 to mathematical truth?

I think if you were doing math in a way that was indifferent to
mathematical truth, you wouldn't be very good at math.

 Of course, but then what they are doing doesn't relate to the Mandelbrot
 Set.


 However - they might *believe* their creations to be just as significant and
 universal 

Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-21 Thread meekerdb

On 9/21/2012 1:22 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 20 Sep 2012, at 20:14, meekerdb wrote:


On 9/20/2012 10:31 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 20 Sep 2012, at 18:14, meekerdb wrote:


On 9/20/2012 2:05 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
A modal logic of probability is given by the behavior of the probability one. In 
Kripke terms, P(x) = 1 in world alpha means that x is realized in all worlds 
accessible from alpha, and (key point) that we are not in a cul-de-sac world.


What does 'accessible' mean?



In modal logic semantic, it is a technical world for any element in set + a binary 
relation on it.


A mapping of the set onto itself?



When applied to probability, the idea is to interpret the worlds by the realization of 
some random experience, like throwing a coin would lead to two worlds accessible, one 
with head, the other with tail. In that modal (tail or head) is a certainty as (tail 
or head) is realized everywhere in the accessible worlds.


Then accessible means nomologically possible.


Accessible means only that some binary relation exists on a set. But in some concrete 
model of a multi-world or multi-situation context, nomological possibility is not excluded.


Then I don't understand what other kinds of possibility are allowed?  I don't see how 
logical possibility could be considered an accessibility relation (at least not an 
interesting one) because it would allow Rxy where y was anything except not-x.







But in the worlds of the UD there is no nomological constraint, so there's no 
probability measure?


I am not sure why there is no nomological constraints in the UD. UD* is a highly 
structured entity. You might elaborate on this.


A nomological constraint is one of physics.  But physics is derivative from part of the 
UD.  The UD is structured only by arithmetic.


Brent



Bruno





Generally speaking a different world is defined as not accessible.  If you can go 
there, it's part of your same world.


Yes. OK. Sorry. Logician used the term world in a technical sense, and the worlds can 
be anything, depending of which modal logic is used, for what purpose, etc. Kripke 
semantic main used is in showing the independence of formula in different systems.


Bruno





Brent


This gives KD modal logics, with K:  = [](p - q)-([]p - []q), and D:  []p - p. 
Of course with [] for Gödel's beweisbar we don't have that D is a theorem, so we 
ensure the D property by defining a new box, Bp = []p  t.


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-21 Thread meekerdb

On 9/21/2012 5:40 AM, Rex Allen wrote:
On Tue, Sep 18, 2012 at 11:50 PM, Terren Suydam terren.suy...@gmail.com 
mailto:terren.suy...@gmail.com wrote:


On Tue, Sep 18, 2012 at 10:19 PM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com
mailto:rexallen31...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 1:36 PM, Terren Suydam terren.suy...@gmail.com
mailto:terren.suy...@gmail.com
 wrote:

 Rex,

 Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the
 Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein?


 I find fictionalism to be the most plausible view of mathematics, with all
 that implies for the Mandelbrot set.

I'm curious about what a plausible fictionalist account of the
Mandelbrot set could be. Is fictionalism the same as constructivism,
or the idea that knowledge doesn't exist outside of a mind?


I lean towards a strong form of fictionalism - which says that there are few important 
differences between mathematics and literary fiction.


So - I could give a detailed answer - but I think I'd rather give a sketchy answer at 
this point.


I would say that mathematics is just very tightly plotted fiction where so many details 
of the story are known up front that the plot can only progress in very specific ways if 
it is to remain consistent and believable to the reader.


Mathematics is a kind of world building.  In the imaginative sense.



 But ;et me turn the question around on you, if I can:

 Do you have an explanation for how we discover mathematical objects and
 otherwise interact with the Platonic realm?

 How is it that we are able to reliably know things about Platonia?

I think just doing logic and math - starting from axioms and proving
things from them - is interacting with the Platonic realm.


But how is it that we humans do that?  This is my main question.  What exactly are we 
doing when we start from axioms and prove things from them?  Where does this ability 
come from?  What does it consist of?




 I would have thought that quarks and electrons from which we appear to be
 constituted would be indifferent to truth.

 Which would fit with the fact that I seem to make a lot of mistakes.

 But you think otherwise?

I didn't understand the above... what do quarks and electrons have to
do with arithmetical platonism?


Are we not composed from quarks and electrons?  If so - then how do mere collections 
of quarks and electrons connect with platonic truths?


By chance?  Are we just fortunate that the initial conditions and causal laws of the 
universe are such that our quarks and electrons take forms that mirror Platonic Truths?




 How can you make
 sense of that in terms of the constructivist point of view that you
 are (I think) compelled to take if you argue against arithmetical
 platonism?  It seems obvious that all possible intelligences would
 discover the same forms of the Mandelbrot so long as they iterated on
 z' = z^2 + c, but maybe I am missing the point of your argument.

 I will agree with you that all intelligences that start from the same
 premises as you, and follow the same rules as inference as you, will also
 draw the same conclusions about the Mandelbrot set as you do.

 However - I do not agree with you that this amenable group exhausts the 
set
 of all *possible* intelligences.

I only meant that all possible intelligences that start from a
mathematics that includes addition, multiplication, and complex
numbers will find that if they iterate the function z' = z^2 + c, they
will find that some orbits become periodic or settle on a point, and
some escape to infinity. If they draw a graph of which orbits don't
escape, they will draw the Mandelbrot Set. All possible intelligences
that undertake that procedure will draw the same shape... and this
seems like discovery, not creation.


It seems like a tautology to me.  If you do what I do and believe what I believe then 
you will be a lot like me...?


Is there anything to mathematics other than belief?

What are beliefs?  Why do we have the beliefs that we have?  How do we form beliefs - 
what lies behind belief?


Can *our* mathematical abilities be reduced to something that is indifferent to 
mathematical truth?




 Could there be intelligences who start from vastly difference premises, 
and
 use vastly different rules of inference, and draw vastly different
 conclusions?

Of course, but then what they are doing doesn't relate to the Mandelbrot 
Set.


However - they might *believe* their creations to be just as significant and universal 
as you consider the Mandelbrot Set to be - mightened they?


What would make them wrong in their belief but you right in yours?




 What are the limits of belief, do you think?  Is there any belief that is 
so
 preposterous that even the 

Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-21 Thread meekerdb

On 9/21/2012 8:59 AM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Sep 21, 2012, at 8:13 AM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com 
mailto:rexallen31...@gmail.com wrote:


On Wed, Sep 19, 2012 at 12:27 AM, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com 
mailto:jasonre...@gmail.com wrote:


On Sep 18, 2012, at 9:19 PM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com
mailto:rexallen31...@gmail.com wrote:

On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 1:36 PM, Terren Suydam terren.suy...@gmail.com
mailto:terren.suy...@gmail.com wrote:

Rex,

Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the
Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein? 



I find fictionalism to be the most plausible view of mathematics, with all 
that
implies for the Mandelbrot set.

But ;et me turn the question around on you, if I can:

Do you have an explanation for how we discover mathematical objects and
otherwise interact with the Platonic realm?


We study and create theories about objects in the mathematical realm just 
as we
study and create theories about objects in the physical realm.


So in the physical realm, we start from our senses - what we see, hear, feel, 
etc.

From this, we infer the existence of electrons and wavefunctions and strings and 
whatnot.  Or some of us do.  Others take a more instrumental view of scientific theories.


Right, and we have similarly inferred the existence of primes, fractals, non-computable 
functions, etc.


We invented counting, addition, etc and found it implied true propositions about primes, 
fractals, etc.  To say they exist in the same way tables and chairs exist is going much 
further.






So you're saying that thought is another kind of sense?


Thought is needed for inference and building theories, equally in the physical sciences 
and math.


And that what occurs to us in thought can also be used as a basis to infer the 
existence of objects which help explain those thoughts?


Right, like you might think up genesis and dualism, or big bang and materialism, or 
platonic truth and computationalism.  These are ontological theories for what exists, 
and why we are here experiencing it.


If you say math is fiction and only exists only as a story in our brains, then obviously 
you can't use platonic truth and computationalism as one if your theories of existence.


I think the fact that mathematics can serve as a theory for our existence shows 
absolutely that mathematical theories and physical theories are on equal footing.  We 
can gather evidence for them and build cases for them, find out we were wrong about 
them, and so on.  Why do we believe in quarks, electrons, strings, etc.?  Because they 
can explain our observations.  Why do I believe in the platonic realm?  For the same 
reasons.




But we believe that electrons interact causally with us because we are made from 
similar stuff - and by doing so make themselves known to us...right?


How do Platonic objects interact causally with us?  Via a Platonic Field?  PFT - 
Platonic Field Theory?




How did the warping of space and time cause Einsteins brain to figure out 
relativity?

I think you are looking at it in the wrong way. Our brains seek good explanations.  They 
sometimes find one.  That's all that is going on.


Now you say our explainations when it comes to mathematics are fiction, but if that is 
so, why not say the same of the physical theories?  Why not say the big bang is fiction, 
or matter is fiction?


They are stories which we intend to have referents independent of the stories 
(theories).

Brent

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-21 Thread Rex Allen
Just to avoid confusion, this sentence:

*I would say that mathematics is just very tightly plotted fiction where so
many details of the story are known up front that the plot can only
progress in very specific ways if it is to remain consistent and believable
to the reader.*


Should probably be:

*I would say that mathematics is just very tightly plotted fiction where so
many details of the back-story are known up front that the plot can only
progress in very specific ways if it is to remain consistent and believable
to the reader. *




On Fri, Sep 21, 2012 at 8:40 AM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Tue, Sep 18, 2012 at 11:50 PM, Terren Suydam 
 terren.suy...@gmail.comwrote:

 On Tue, Sep 18, 2012 at 10:19 PM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com
 wrote:
 
  On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 1:36 PM, Terren Suydam terren.suy...@gmail.com
 
  wrote:
 
  Rex,
 
  Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the
  Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein?
 
 
  I find fictionalism to be the most plausible view of mathematics, with
 all
  that implies for the Mandelbrot set.

 I'm curious about what a plausible fictionalist account of the
 Mandelbrot set could be. Is fictionalism the same as constructivism,
 or the idea that knowledge doesn't exist outside of a mind?


 I lean towards a strong form of fictionalism - which says that there are
 few important differences between mathematics and literary fiction.

 So - I could give a detailed answer - but I think I'd rather give a
 sketchy answer at this point.

 I would say that mathematics is just very tightly plotted fiction where so
 many details of the story are known up front that the plot can only
 progress in very specific ways if it is to remain consistent and believable
 to the reader.

 Mathematics is a kind of world building.  In the imaginative sense.





  But ;et me turn the question around on you, if I can:
 
  Do you have an explanation for how we discover mathematical objects
 and
  otherwise interact with the Platonic realm?
 
  How is it that we are able to reliably know things about Platonia?

 I think just doing logic and math - starting from axioms and proving
 things from them - is interacting with the Platonic realm.


 But how is it that we humans do that?  This is my main question.  What
 exactly are we doing when we start from axioms and prove things from them?
  Where does this ability come from?  What does it consist of?



  I would have thought that quarks and electrons from which we appear to be
  constituted would be indifferent to truth.
 
  Which would fit with the fact that I seem to make a lot of mistakes.
 
  But you think otherwise?

 I didn't understand the above... what do quarks and electrons have to
 do with arithmetical platonism?


 Are we not composed from quarks and electrons?  If so - then how do mere
 collections of quarks and electrons connect with platonic truths?

 By chance?  Are we just fortunate that the initial conditions and causal
 laws of the universe are such that our quarks and electrons take forms that
 mirror Platonic Truths?




 
  How can you make
  sense of that in terms of the constructivist point of view that you
  are (I think) compelled to take if you argue against arithmetical
  platonism?  It seems obvious that all possible intelligences would
  discover the same forms of the Mandelbrot so long as they iterated on
  z' = z^2 + c, but maybe I am missing the point of your argument.
 
  I will agree with you that all intelligences that start from the same
  premises as you, and follow the same rules as inference as you, will
 also
  draw the same conclusions about the Mandelbrot set as you do.
 
  However - I do not agree with you that this amenable group exhausts the
 set
  of all *possible* intelligences.

 I only meant that all possible intelligences that start from a
 mathematics that includes addition, multiplication, and complex
 numbers will find that if they iterate the function z' = z^2 + c, they
 will find that some orbits become periodic or settle on a point, and
 some escape to infinity. If they draw a graph of which orbits don't
 escape, they will draw the Mandelbrot Set. All possible intelligences
 that undertake that procedure will draw the same shape... and this
 seems like discovery, not creation.


 It seems like a tautology to me.  If you do what I do and believe what I
 believe then you will be a lot like me...?

 Is there anything to mathematics other than belief?

 What are beliefs?  Why do we have the beliefs that we have?  How do we
 form beliefs - what lies behind belief?

 Can *our* mathematical abilities be reduced to something that is
 indifferent to mathematical truth?





  Could there be intelligences who start from vastly difference premises,
 and
  use vastly different rules of inference, and draw vastly different
  conclusions?

 Of course, but then what they are doing doesn't relate to the Mandelbrot
 Set.


 However - they 

Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-21 Thread Jason Resch
On Fri, Sep 21, 2012 at 1:55 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 9/21/2012 8:59 AM, Jason Resch wrote:



 On Sep 21, 2012, at 8:13 AM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com wrote:

  On Wed, Sep 19, 2012 at 12:27 AM, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.comwrote:

  On Sep 18, 2012, at 9:19 PM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com wrote:

  On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 1:36 PM, Terren Suydam 
 terren.suy...@gmail.comwrote:

 Rex,

 Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the
 Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein?


  I find fictionalism to be the most plausible view of mathematics, with
 all that implies for the Mandelbrot set.

  But ;et me turn the question around on you, if I can:

  Do you have an explanation for how we discover mathematical objects
 and otherwise interact with the Platonic realm?


  We study and create theories about objects in the mathematical realm
 just as we study and create theories about objects in the physical realm.


  So in the physical realm, we start from our senses - what we see, hear,
 feel, etc.

  From this, we infer the existence of electrons and wavefunctions and
 strings and whatnot.  Or some of us do.  Others take a more instrumental
 view of scientific theories.


  Right, and we have similarly inferred the existence of primes, fractals,
 non-computable functions, etc.


 We invented counting, addition, etc and found it implied true propositions
 about primes, fractals, etc.  To say they exist in the same way tables and
 chairs exist is going much further.


All of our scientific theories are inventions too.  We can only hope they
bear some resemblance to reality.






  So you're saying that thought is another kind of sense?


  Thought is needed for inference and building theories, equally in the
 physical sciences and math.

   And that what occurs to us in thought can also be used as a basis to
 infer the existence of objects which help explain those thoughts?


  Right, like you might think up genesis and dualism, or big bang and
 materialism, or platonic truth and computationalism.  These are ontological
 theories for what exists, and why we are here experiencing it.

  If you say math is fiction and only exists only as a story in our
 brains, then obviously you can't use platonic truth and computationalism as
 one if your theories of existence.

  I think the fact that mathematics can serve as a theory for our
 existence shows absolutely that mathematical theories and physical theories
 are on equal footing.  We can gather evidence for them and build cases for
 them, find out we were wrong about them, and so on.  Why do we believe in
 quarks, electrons, strings, etc.?  Because they can explain our
 observations.  Why do I believe in the platonic realm?  For the same
 reasons.


  But we believe that electrons interact causally with us because we are
 made from similar stuff - and by doing so make themselves known to
 us...right?

  How do Platonic objects interact causally with us?  Via a Platonic
 Field?  PFT - Platonic Field Theory?


  How did the warping of space and time cause Einsteins brain to figure
 out relativity?

  I think you are looking at it in the wrong way.  Our brains seek good
 explanations.  They sometimes find one.  That's all that is going on.

  Now you say our explainations when it comes to mathematics are fiction,
 but if that is so, why not say the same of the physical theories?  Why not
 say the big bang is fiction, or matter is fiction?


 They are stories which we intend to have referents independent of the
 stories (theories).


I don't see how this is any different from our mathematical theories though.

Jason

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-21 Thread meekerdb

On 9/21/2012 12:56 PM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Fri, Sep 21, 2012 at 1:55 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 9/21/2012 8:59 AM, Jason Resch wrote:



On Sep 21, 2012, at 8:13 AM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com
mailto:rexallen31...@gmail.com wrote:


On Wed, Sep 19, 2012 at 12:27 AM, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com
mailto:jasonre...@gmail.com wrote:

On Sep 18, 2012, at 9:19 PM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com
mailto:rexallen31...@gmail.com wrote:

On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 1:36 PM, Terren Suydam terren.suy...@gmail.com
mailto:terren.suy...@gmail.com wrote:

Rex,

Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the
Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein? 



I find fictionalism to be the most plausible view of mathematics, with 
all
that implies for the Mandelbrot set.

But ;et me turn the question around on you, if I can:

Do you have an explanation for how we discover mathematical objects 
and
otherwise interact with the Platonic realm?


We study and create theories about objects in the mathematical realm 
just as
we study and create theories about objects in the physical realm.


So in the physical realm, we start from our senses - what we see, hear, 
feel, etc.

From this, we infer the existence of electrons and wavefunctions and 
strings and
whatnot.  Or some of us do.  Others take a more instrumental view of 
scientific
theories.


Right, and we have similarly inferred the existence of primes, fractals,
non-computable functions, etc.


We invented counting, addition, etc and found it implied true propositions 
about
primes, fractals, etc.  To say they exist in the same way tables and chairs 
exist is
going much further.


All of our scientific theories are inventions too.  We can only hope they bear 
some resemblance to reality.








So you're saying that thought is another kind of sense?


Thought is needed for inference and building theories, equally in the 
physical
sciences and math.


And that what occurs to us in thought can also be used as a basis to infer 
the
existence of objects which help explain those thoughts?


Right, like you might think up genesis and dualism, or big bang and 
materialism, or
platonic truth and computationalism.  These are ontological theories for 
what
exists, and why we are here experiencing it.

If you say math is fiction and only exists only as a story in our brains, 
then
obviously you can't use platonic truth and computationalism as one if your 
theories
of existence.

I think the fact that mathematics can serve as a theory for our existence 
shows
absolutely that mathematical theories and physical theories are on equal 
footing.
 We can gather evidence for them and build cases for them, find out we were 
wrong
about them, and so on.  Why do we believe in quarks, electrons, strings, 
etc.?
 Because they can explain our observations.  Why do I believe in the 
platonic
realm?  For the same reasons.



But we believe that electrons interact causally with us because we are made 
from
similar stuff - and by doing so make themselves known to us...right?

How do Platonic objects interact causally with us?  Via a Platonic Field?  
PFT -
Platonic Field Theory?



How did the warping of space and time cause Einsteins brain to figure out 
relativity?

I think you are looking at it in the wrong way. Our brains seek good 
explanations.
 They sometimes find one.  That's all that is going on.

Now you say our explainations when it comes to mathematics are fiction, but 
if that
is so, why not say the same of the physical theories?  Why not say the big 
bang is
fiction, or matter is fiction?


They are stories which we intend to have referents independent of the 
stories
(theories).


I don't see how this is any different from our mathematical theories though.


It is different.  It's confusing because arithmetic (to take an example) is both a theory 
about discrete objects, 1apple + 1apple = 2apples, which requires a correct interpretation 
like any theory of physics,  1raindrop + 1raindrop = 1raindrop, but it's also a closed 
story without any external referents, s(0)+s(0)=s(s(0)).  This is what makes mathematics 
(and logic and language) useful; you can abstract from the physical world to the Platonia 
story, manipulate it by some rules, and if you did it right interpret the result back in 
the physical world.  But that doesn't mean language and logic and mathematics exist in the 
same sense.


Brent

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-20 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 19 Sep 2012, at 21:51, Stephen P. King wrote:


On 9/19/2012 2:39 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

Dear Bruno,

  Your remarks raise an interesting question: Could it be that  
both the object and the means to generate (or perceive) it are of  
equal importance ontologically?


Yes. It comes from the embedding of the subject in the objects,  
that any monist theory has to do somehow.


In computer science, the universal (in the sense of Turing)  
association i - phi_i, transforms N into an applicative algebra.  
The numbers are both perceivers and perceived  according of their  
place x and y in the relation of phi_x(y).


You can define the applicative operation by x # y = phi_x(y). The  
combinators are not far away from this, and provides intensional  
and extensional models.


I remind you that phi_i represent the ith computable function in  
some effective universal enumeration of the partial computable  
functions. You can take LISP, or c++ to fix the things.


Bruno

Dear Bruno,

   You are highlighting of the key property of a number, that it can  
both represent itself and some other number.


It is a key property of anything finite, not just number. Lists and  
strings do this even more easily and naturally.




My question becomes, how does one track the difference between these  
representations?


By quotations, like when using Gödel number, or quoted list in LISP.  
Those are computable operations.





You speak of measures, but I have never seen how relative measures  
are discussed or defined in modal logic.


?

A modal logic of probability is given by the behavior of the  
probability one. In Kripke terms, P(x) = 1 in world alpha means that  
x is realized in all worlds accessible from alpha, and (key point)  
that we are not in a cul-de-sac world. This gives KD modal logics,  
with K:  = [](p - q)-([]p - []q), and D:  []p - p. Of course  
with [] for Gödel's beweisbar we don't have that D is a theorem, so  
we ensure the D property by defining a new box, Bp = []p  t.






It seems to me that if we have the possibility of a Godel numbering  
scheme on the integers, then we lose the ability to define a global  
index set on subsets of those integers


?


unless we can somehow call upon something that is not a number and  
thus not directly representable by a number..


?
Not clear. We appeal to something non representable by adding the   
p in the definition of the modal box, but this is for the qualia and  
first person notion. The Dt (and variant like DDt, DDBDt, etc.) should  
give the first person plural, normally. many possibility remains, as  
the quantum p - []p appears in the three main material variants  
of: S4Grz1, Z1*, and X1*, for p arithmetic sigma_1 proposition (the  
arithmetical UD).


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-20 Thread meekerdb

On 9/20/2012 2:05 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
A modal logic of probability is given by the behavior of the probability one. In 
Kripke terms, P(x) = 1 in world alpha means that x is realized in all worlds accessible 
from alpha, and (key point) that we are not in a cul-de-sac world. 


What does 'accessible' mean?  Generally speaking a different world is defined as not 
accessible.  If you can go there, it's part of your same world.


Brent


This gives KD modal logics, with K:  = [](p - q)-([]p - []q), and D:  []p - p. Of 
course with [] for Gödel's beweisbar we don't have that D is a theorem, so we ensure 
the D property by defining a new box, Bp = []p  t. 


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-20 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 20 Sep 2012, at 18:14, meekerdb wrote:


On 9/20/2012 2:05 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
A modal logic of probability is given by the behavior of the  
probability one. In Kripke terms, P(x) = 1 in world alpha means  
that x is realized in all worlds accessible from alpha, and (key  
point) that we are not in a cul-de-sac world.


What does 'accessible' mean?



In modal logic semantic, it is a technical world for any element in  
set + a binary relation on it.


When applied to probability, the idea is to interpret the worlds by  
the realization of some random experience, like throwing a coin would  
lead to two worlds accessible, one with head, the other with tail. In  
that modal (tail or head) is a certainty as (tail or head) is realized  
everywhere in the accessible worlds.




Generally speaking a different world is defined as not accessible.   
If you can go there, it's part of your same world.


Yes. OK. Sorry. Logician used the term world in a technical sense, and  
the worlds can be anything, depending of which modal logic is used,  
for what purpose, etc. Kripke semantic main used is in showing the  
independence of formula in different systems.


Bruno





Brent


This gives KD modal logics, with K:  = [](p - q)-([]p - []q),  
and D:  []p - p. Of course with [] for Gödel's beweisbar we  
don't have that D is a theorem, so we ensure the D property by  
defining a new box, Bp = []p  t.


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-19 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 18 Sep 2012, at 18:02, meekerdb wrote:


On 9/18/2012 8:13 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 17 Sep 2012, at 22:25, meekerdb wrote:


But did anybody think z' = z^2 + c was interesting before that?



Yes. This was known by people like Fatou and Julia, in the early  
1900.


I knew they considered what are now called fractal sets, but not  
that particular one.


I think Julia worked on the Mandelbrot's Julia sets, notably. The  
Mandelbrot set is a classifier of the Julia sets. You can define the  
Mandelbrot set by the the set of z such that z belongs to its Julia  
J(z).


The point is that in math and physics such object are hard to miss,  
even if you need a computer to figure out what they looks like.






Iterating analytical complex functions leads to the Mandelbrot  
fractal sets, or similar.


The computer has made those objects famous, but the mathematicians  
know them both from logic (counterexamples to theorem in analysis,  
like finding a continuous function nowhere derivable), or from  
dynamic system and iteration.


If you iterate the trigonometric cosec function on the Gauss plane  
C, you can't miss the Mandelbrot set.


But this iteration is a tedious and impractical *construction* which  
in practice depends on computers.


In practice, yes. But if I remember well, the point is that the M sets  
and alike are discovered, not fictitious human's construction. To see  
them, we need a computer, but to see a circle you need a compass, or a  
very massive object, like the sun or the moon, ...







In nature too as the following video does not illustrate too much  
seriously :)


http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JGxbhdr3w2I


In such beautiful imagery it is generally overlooked that it is not  
the Mandelbrot set you are looking at, but rather regions colored  
according how close they are to the set (which cannot be seen at all).


Hmm, the inside mandelbrot set has dimension 2, as you can extrapolate  
from the big spot, and then the filament ar made of little mandelbrot  
set. So you can always see something. You are correct, for the  
filaments: usually we can see them, as the little Mandelbrot sets are  
too small. The coloring only makes them less thin and more easily  
observable, but you would see the same basic shape with a pure black  
and white picture. for example, everywhere on the main (straight)  
antenna, there is a little mandelbrot set, so even black and white  
resolution will make a thin line (with always too big pixels, of  
course). Of course, the line can become thinner and thinner, so with  
deeper zoom, you will have to darken the picture, and then light it  
up, etc. Of course this is true also for a circle, or a straight line,  
which are too thin to be seen, too, but we don't worry to draw them  
with chalks or pens, which approximates them quite well.


You can see that phenomenon here:

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QXzgrtntRTY


Bruno






Brent

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-19 Thread Stephen P. King

On 9/19/2012 8:39 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 18 Sep 2012, at 18:02, meekerdb wrote:


On 9/18/2012 8:13 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 17 Sep 2012, at 22:25, meekerdb wrote:


But did anybody think z' = z^2 + c was interesting before that?



Yes. This was known by people like Fatou and Julia, in the early 1900.


I knew they considered what are now called fractal sets, but not that 
particular one.


I think Julia worked on the Mandelbrot's Julia sets, notably. The 
Mandelbrot set is a classifier of the Julia sets. You can define the 
Mandelbrot set by the the set of z such that z belongs to its Julia J(z).


The point is that in math and physics such object are hard to miss, 
even if you need a computer to figure out what they looks like.






Iterating analytical complex functions leads to the Mandelbrot 
fractal sets, or similar.


The computer has made those objects famous, but the mathematicians 
know them both from logic (counterexamples to theorem in analysis, 
like finding a continuous function nowhere derivable), or from 
dynamic system and iteration.


If you iterate the trigonometric cosec function on the Gauss plane 
C, you can't miss the Mandelbrot set.


But this iteration is a tedious and impractical *construction* which 
in practice depends on computers.


In practice, yes. But if I remember well, the point is that the M sets 
and alike are discovered, not fictitious human's construction. To see 
them, we need a computer, but to see a circle you need a compass, or a 
very massive object, like the sun or the moon, ...







In nature too as the following video does not illustrate too much 
seriously :)


http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JGxbhdr3w2I


In such beautiful imagery it is generally overlooked that it is not 
the Mandelbrot set you are looking at, but rather regions colored 
according how close they are to the set (which cannot be seen at all).


Hmm, the inside mandelbrot set has dimension 2, as you can extrapolate 
from the big spot, and then the filament ar made of little mandelbrot 
set. So you can always see something. You are correct, for the 
filaments: usually we can see them, as the little Mandelbrot sets are 
too small. The coloring only makes them less thin and more easily 
observable, but you would see the same basic shape with a pure black 
and white picture. for example, everywhere on the main (straight) 
antenna, there is a little mandelbrot set, so even black and white 
resolution will make a thin line (with always too big pixels, of 
course). Of course, the line can become thinner and thinner, so with 
deeper zoom, you will have to darken the picture, and then light it 
up, etc. Of course this is true also for a circle, or a straight line, 
which are too thin to be seen, too, but we don't worry to draw them 
with chalks or pens, which approximates them quite well.


You can see that phenomenon here:

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QXzgrtntRTY


Bruno




Dear Bruno,

Your remarks raise an interesting question: Could it be that both 
the object and the means to generate (or perceive) it are of equal 
importance ontologically?


--
Onward!

Stephen

http://webpages.charter.net/stephenk1/Outlaw/Outlaw.html


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-19 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 19 Sep 2012, at 17:03, Stephen P. King wrote:


On 9/19/2012 8:39 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 18 Sep 2012, at 18:02, meekerdb wrote:


On 9/18/2012 8:13 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 17 Sep 2012, at 22:25, meekerdb wrote:


But did anybody think z' = z^2 + c was interesting before that?



Yes. This was known by people like Fatou and Julia, in the early  
1900.


I knew they considered what are now called fractal sets, but not  
that particular one.


I think Julia worked on the Mandelbrot's Julia sets, notably. The  
Mandelbrot set is a classifier of the Julia sets. You can define  
the Mandelbrot set by the the set of z such that z belongs to its  
Julia J(z).


The point is that in math and physics such object are hard to miss,  
even if you need a computer to figure out what they looks like.






Iterating analytical complex functions leads to the Mandelbrot  
fractal sets, or similar.


The computer has made those objects famous, but the  
mathematicians know them both from logic (counterexamples to  
theorem in analysis, like finding a continuous function nowhere  
derivable), or from dynamic system and iteration.


If you iterate the trigonometric cosec function on the Gauss  
plane C, you can't miss the Mandelbrot set.


But this iteration is a tedious and impractical *construction*  
which in practice depends on computers.


In practice, yes. But if I remember well, the point is that the M  
sets and alike are discovered, not fictitious human's construction.  
To see them, we need a computer, but to see a circle you need a  
compass, or a very massive object, like the sun or the moon, ...







In nature too as the following video does not illustrate too much  
seriously :)


http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JGxbhdr3w2I


In such beautiful imagery it is generally overlooked that it is  
not the Mandelbrot set you are looking at, but rather regions  
colored according how close they are to the set (which cannot be  
seen at all).


Hmm, the inside mandelbrot set has dimension 2, as you can  
extrapolate from the big spot, and then the filament ar made of  
little mandelbrot set. So you can always see something. You are  
correct, for the filaments: usually we can see them, as the little  
Mandelbrot sets are too small. The coloring only makes them less  
thin and more easily observable, but you would see the same basic  
shape with a pure black and white picture. for example, everywhere  
on the main (straight) antenna, there is a little mandelbrot set,  
so even black and white resolution will make a thin line (with  
always too big pixels, of course). Of course, the line can become  
thinner and thinner, so with deeper zoom, you will have to darken  
the picture, and then light it up, etc. Of course this is true  
also for a circle, or a straight line, which are too thin to be  
seen, too, but we don't worry to draw them with chalks or pens,  
which approximates them quite well.


You can see that phenomenon here:

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QXzgrtntRTY


Bruno




Dear Bruno,

   Your remarks raise an interesting question: Could it be that both  
the object and the means to generate (or perceive) it are of equal  
importance ontologically?


Yes. It comes from the embedding of the subject in the objects, that  
any monist theory has to do somehow.


In computer science, the universal (in the sense of Turing)  
association i - phi_i, transforms N into an applicative algebra. The  
numbers are both perceivers and perceived  according of their place x  
and y in the relation of phi_x(y).


You can define the applicative operation by x # y = phi_x(y). The  
combinators are not far away from this, and provides intensional and  
extensional models.


I remind you that phi_i represent the ith computable function in some  
effective universal enumeration of the partial computable functions.  
You can take LISP, or c++ to fix the things.


Bruno




--
Onward!

Stephen

http://webpages.charter.net/stephenk1/Outlaw/Outlaw.html


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-19 Thread Stephen P. King

On 9/19/2012 2:39 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

Dear Bruno,

   Your remarks raise an interesting question: Could it be that both 
the object and the means to generate (or perceive) it are of equal 
importance ontologically?


Yes. It comes from the embedding of the subject in the objects, that 
any monist theory has to do somehow.


In computer science, the universal (in the sense of Turing) 
association i - phi_i, transforms N into an applicative algebra. The 
numbers are both perceivers and perceived  according of their place x 
and y in the relation of phi_x(y).


You can define the applicative operation by x # y = phi_x(y). The 
combinators are not far away from this, and provides intensional and 
extensional models.


I remind you that phi_i represent the ith computable function in some 
effective universal enumeration of the partial computable functions. 
You can take LISP, or c++ to fix the things.


Bruno

Dear Bruno,

You are highlighting of the key property of a number, that it can 
both represent itself and some other number. My question becomes, how 
does one track the difference between these representations? You speak 
of measures, but I have never seen how relative measures are discussed 
or defined in modal logic. It seems to me that if we have the 
possibility of a Godel numbering scheme on the integers, then we lose 
the ability to define a global index set on subsets of those integers 
unless we can somehow call upon something that is not a number and thus 
not directly representable by a number..



--
Onward!

Stephen

http://webpages.charter.net/stephenk1/Outlaw/Outlaw.html


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-18 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 17 Sep 2012, at 22:25, meekerdb wrote:


But did anybody think z' = z^2 + c was interesting before that?



Yes. This was known by people like Fatou and Julia, in the early 1900.  
Iterating analytical complex functions leads to the Mandelbrot fractal  
sets, or similar.


The computer has made those objects famous, but the mathematicians  
know them both from logic (counterexamples to theorem in analysis,  
like finding a continuous function nowhere derivable), or from dynamic  
system and iteration.


If you iterate the trigonometric cosec function on the Gauss plane C,  
you can't miss the Mandelbrot set.


In nature too as the following video does not illustrate too much  
seriously :)


http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JGxbhdr3w2I

Bruno



Bretn

On 9/17/2012 1:17 PM, Terren Suydam wrote:

I would say computers were the tool that allowed us to see it, like a
microscope allowed us to see bacteria, and a telescope stars.

On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 3:14 PM, meekerdbmeeke...@verizon.net   
wrote:

On 9/17/2012 10:36 AM, Terren Suydam wrote:

Rex,

Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the
Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein?  How can you  
make

sense of that in terms of the constructivist point of view


How can you make sense of it otherwise.  The Mandelbrot set is only
interesting because it became possible to construct it by use of  
computers.


Brent


that you
are (I think) compelled to take if you argue against arithmetical
platonism?  It seems obvious that all possible intelligences would
discover the same forms of the Mandelbrot so long as they iterated  
on

z' = z^2 + c, but maybe I am missing the point of your argument.

Terren


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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-18 Thread meekerdb

On 9/18/2012 8:13 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 17 Sep 2012, at 22:25, meekerdb wrote:


But did anybody think z' = z^2 + c was interesting before that?



Yes. This was known by people like Fatou and Julia, in the early 1900. 


I knew they considered what are now called fractal sets, but not that 
particular one.


Iterating analytical complex functions leads to the Mandelbrot fractal sets, or 
similar.

The computer has made those objects famous, but the mathematicians know them both from 
logic (counterexamples to theorem in analysis, like finding a continuous function 
nowhere derivable), or from dynamic system and iteration.


If you iterate the trigonometric cosec function on the Gauss plane C, you can't miss the 
Mandelbrot set.


But this iteration is a tedious and impractical *construction* which in practice depends 
on computers.




In nature too as the following video does not illustrate too much seriously :)

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JGxbhdr3w2I


In such beautiful imagery it is generally overlooked that it is not the Mandelbrot set you 
are looking at, but rather regions colored according how close they are to the set (which 
cannot be seen at all).


Brent

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-18 Thread Rex Allen
On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 1:36 PM, Terren Suydam terren.suy...@gmail.comwrote:

 Rex,

 Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the
 Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein?


I find fictionalism to be the most plausible view of mathematics, with all
that implies for the Mandelbrot set.

But ;et me turn the question around on you, if I can:

Do you have an explanation for how we discover mathematical objects and
otherwise interact with the Platonic realm?

How is it that we are able to reliably know things about Platonia?

I would have thought that quarks and electrons from which we appear to be
constituted would be indifferent to truth.

Which would fit with the fact that I seem to make a lot of mistakes.

But you think otherwise?



 How can you make
 sense of that in terms of the constructivist point of view that you
 are (I think) compelled to take if you argue against arithmetical
 platonism?  It seems obvious that all possible intelligences would
 discover the same forms of the Mandelbrot so long as they iterated on
 z' = z^2 + c, but maybe I am missing the point of your argument.



I will agree with you that all intelligences that start from the same
premises as you, and follow the same rules as inference as you, will also
draw the same conclusions about the Mandelbrot set as you do.

However - I do not agree with you that this amenable group exhausts the set
of all *possible* intelligences.

Could there be intelligences who start from vastly difference premises, and
use vastly different rules of inference, and draw vastly different
conclusions?

If not - what makes them impossible intelligences?

=*=

What are the limits of belief, do you think?  Is there any belief that is
so preposterous that even the maddest of the mad could not believe such a
thing?

And if there is no such belief - then is it conceivable that quarks and
electrons could configure themselves in such a way as to *cause* a being
who holds such beliefs to come into existence?

And if this is beyond the capacity of quarks and electrons, does it seem
possible that there might be some other form of matter with more exotic
properties that might be up to the task?

And if not - why not?

Rex

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-18 Thread Terren Suydam
On Tue, Sep 18, 2012 at 10:19 PM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 1:36 PM, Terren Suydam terren.suy...@gmail.com
 wrote:

 Rex,

 Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the
 Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein?


 I find fictionalism to be the most plausible view of mathematics, with all
 that implies for the Mandelbrot set.

I'm curious about what a plausible fictionalist account of the
Mandelbrot set could be. Is fictionalism the same as constructivism,
or the idea that knowledge doesn't exist outside of a mind?

 But ;et me turn the question around on you, if I can:

 Do you have an explanation for how we discover mathematical objects and
 otherwise interact with the Platonic realm?

 How is it that we are able to reliably know things about Platonia?

I think just doing logic and math - starting from axioms and proving
things from them - is interacting with the Platonic realm. It is
reliable because such proofs are necessarily valid no matter what sort
of computational agent is computing them. Bruno really takes it to the
next level though when he talks of interviewing ideally correct
machines and treating them as entities (strictly platonic, of course)
that can talk about what they can prove (believe).

 I would have thought that quarks and electrons from which we appear to be
 constituted would be indifferent to truth.

 Which would fit with the fact that I seem to make a lot of mistakes.

 But you think otherwise?

I didn't understand the above... what do quarks and electrons have to
do with arithmetical platonism?


 How can you make
 sense of that in terms of the constructivist point of view that you
 are (I think) compelled to take if you argue against arithmetical
 platonism?  It seems obvious that all possible intelligences would
 discover the same forms of the Mandelbrot so long as they iterated on
 z' = z^2 + c, but maybe I am missing the point of your argument.



 I will agree with you that all intelligences that start from the same
 premises as you, and follow the same rules as inference as you, will also
 draw the same conclusions about the Mandelbrot set as you do.

 However - I do not agree with you that this amenable group exhausts the set
 of all *possible* intelligences.

I only meant that all possible intelligences that start from a
mathematics that includes addition, multiplication, and complex
numbers will find that if they iterate the function z' = z^2 + c, they
will find that some orbits become periodic or settle on a point, and
some escape to infinity. If they draw a graph of which orbits don't
escape, they will draw the Mandelbrot Set. All possible intelligences
that undertake that procedure will draw the same shape... and this
seems like discovery, not creation.

 Could there be intelligences who start from vastly difference premises, and
 use vastly different rules of inference, and draw vastly different
 conclusions?

Of course, but then what they are doing doesn't relate to the Mandelbrot Set.

 If not - what makes them impossible intelligences?

 =*=

 What are the limits of belief, do you think?  Is there any belief that is so
 preposterous that even the maddest of the mad could not believe such a
 thing?

I don't think so... based on my understanding of how mad maddest of
the mad can get.

 And if there is no such belief - then is it conceivable that quarks and
 electrons could configure themselves in such a way as to *cause* a being who
 holds such beliefs to come into existence?

I'm guessing you meant to say and if there is such a belief  I'm
having a tough time understanding where you're going with this... it
seems like an interesting line of questions, but I have no idea how it
relates to what we were discussing.

Terren

 And if this is beyond the capacity of quarks and electrons, does it seem
 possible that there might be some other form of matter with more exotic
 properties that might be up to the task?

 And if not - why not?

 Rex

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-18 Thread Jason Resch



On Sep 18, 2012, at 9:19 PM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com wrote:



On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 1:36 PM, Terren Suydam terren.suy...@gmail.com 
 wrote:

Rex,

Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the
Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein?

I find fictionalism to be the most plausible view of mathematics,  
with all that implies for the Mandelbrot set.


But ;et me turn the question around on you, if I can:

Do you have an explanation for how we discover mathematical  
objects and otherwise interact with the Platonic realm?


We study and create theories about objects in the mathematical realm  
just as we study and create theories about objects in the physical  
realm.


It's not much different from how we develop theories about other  
things we cannot interact with: the early universe, the cores of  
stars, the insides of black holes, etc.


We test these theories by following their implications and seeing if  
they lead to contridictions with other, more  established, facts.


Just as with physical theories, we ocasionally find that we need to  
throw out the old set of theories (or axioms) for a new set which has  
greater explanatory power.





How is it that we are able to reliably know things about Platonia?


The very idea of knowing implies a differentiation between true and  
false.


This leads quite directly to boolean algebra.  Boolean algebra leads  
to concepts of numbers.  (e.g., even numbers of not operators cancel  
out, so counting them becomes an issue). Once you get counting and  
numbers, you get the uncapturable infinite truths concerning them, and  
infinite hierarchies if ever more powerful consistent theories.


Nearly any intelligent civilization that notices a partition between  
true and false will eventyally get here.





I would have thought that quarks and electrons from which we appear  
to be constituted would be indifferent to truth.




The unreasonable effectiveness of math in the physical sciences is yet  
further support if Platonism.  If this, and seemingly infinite   
physical universes exist, and they are mathematical structures, why  
can't others exist?



Which would fit with the fact that I seem to make a lot of mistakes.

But you think otherwise?


We are imperfect beings.

Jason




How can you make
sense of that in terms of the constructivist point of view that you
are (I think) compelled to take if you argue against arithmetical
platonism?  It seems obvious that all possible intelligences would
discover the same forms of the Mandelbrot so long as they iterated on
z' = z^2 + c, but maybe I am missing the point of your argument.


I will agree with you that all intelligences that start from the  
same premises as you, and follow the same rules as inference as you,  
will also draw the same conclusions about the Mandelbrot set as you  
do.


However - I do not agree with you that this amenable group exhausts  
the set of all *possible* intelligences.


Could there be intelligences who start from vastly difference  
premises, and use vastly different rules of inference, and draw  
vastly different conclusions?


If not - what makes them impossible intelligences?

=*=

What are the limits of belief, do you think?  Is there any belief  
that is so preposterous that even the maddest of the mad could not  
believe such a thing?


And if there is no such belief - then is it conceivable that quarks  
and electrons could configure themselves in such a way as to *cause*  
a being who holds such beliefs to come into existence?


And if this is beyond the capacity of quarks and electrons, does it  
seem possible that there might be some other form of matter with  
more exotic properties that might be up to the task?


And if not - why not?

Rex

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-18 Thread meekerdb

On 9/18/2012 9:27 PM, Jason Resch wrote:
The unreasonable effectiveness of math in the physical sciences is yet further support 
if Platonism.


I don't see that this follows.  If we invent language, including mathematics, to describe 
our theories of the world that explains their effectiveness.  But it doesn't imply that 
every description refers.  The mathematics of Maxwell's equations was (and is) very 
effective, but we now believe they only approximately describe what exists.


Brent

If this, and seemingly infinite  physical universes exist, and they are mathematical 
structures, why can't others exist? 


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-17 Thread Jason Resch
On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 12:27 AM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Sun, Sep 16, 2012 at 6:10 PM, Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.netwrote:

 HI Rex,

 Nice post! Could you riff a bit on what the number PHI tells us about
 this characteristic. How is it that it seems that our perceptions of the
 world find anything that is close to a PHI valued relationship to be
 beautiful?



 Thanks Stephen!

 Actually my initial example of numeracy isn't quite right, but it's not
 important to the rest of the argument.

 My main point is that you can get to the concept of prime numbers just
 using relative magnitudes that we have an innate sense of.


I think an easier way to intuit prime numbers that can't be represented as
rectangles, only a 1-wide lines.

While the concept of primes is straight forward, there is an unending set
of not-so-obvious facts that we continue to discover about the Primes.  For
example:

The average distance between primes of size N is approximately the natural
log of N, yet we know of no way to predict where the next prime will
exactly be. ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prime_gap )

Between N and 2N, there will always be at least one prime. (
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bertrand's_postulate )

There is a one-to-one correspondence, and method to get one from the other,
between perfect numbers and primes of the form ((2^p) - 1) (
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perfect_number#Even_perfect_numbers )

For any prime p, and any integer i where 0  i  p, i^p divided by p has a
remainder of i.  This almost never works for composite numbers.  (
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fermat's_little_theorem )  the exception for
composite numbers where this does hold are known as Carmichael numbers (
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carmichael_number ) but they are rare.

And there are an infinite number of other such patterns waiting to be
discovered.

Jason

As for the significance of PHI - well - I guess there's probably some
 plausible sounding evolutionary story that could be told about that.

 Though how satisfying or useful an explanation like that is just depends
 on what you're after and what your interests are.

 An explanation that might be useful in one context might be useless in
 some other context.

 Explanations are observer dependent.

 Probably.

 Rex


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-17 Thread Rex Allen
On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 2:05 AM, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com wrote:


 I think an easier way to intuit prime numbers that can't be represented as
 rectangles, only a 1-wide lines.

 While the concept of primes is straight forward, there is an unending set
 of not-so-obvious facts that we continue to discover about the Primes.


Right.  My proposal is that this entire infinite edifice is built on top of
our innate sense of more, less, and equal.

Which I am tentatively advancing as the basis of an argument against
Platonism.

Rex

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-17 Thread Terren Suydam
Rex,

Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the
Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein?  How can you make
sense of that in terms of the constructivist point of view that you
are (I think) compelled to take if you argue against arithmetical
platonism?  It seems obvious that all possible intelligences would
discover the same forms of the Mandelbrot so long as they iterated on
z' = z^2 + c, but maybe I am missing the point of your argument.

Terren

On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 12:32 PM, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 2:05 AM, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com wrote:


 I think an easier way to intuit prime numbers that can't be represented as
 rectangles, only a 1-wide lines.

 While the concept of primes is straight forward, there is an unending set
 of not-so-obvious facts that we continue to discover about the Primes.


 Right.  My proposal is that this entire infinite edifice is built on top of
 our innate sense of more, less, and equal.

 Which I am tentatively advancing as the basis of an argument against
 Platonism.

 Rex

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-17 Thread meekerdb

On 9/17/2012 10:36 AM, Terren Suydam wrote:

Rex,

Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the
Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein?  How can you make
sense of that in terms of the constructivist point of view


How can you make sense of it otherwise.  The Mandelbrot set is only interesting because it 
became possible to construct it by use of computers.


Brent


that you
are (I think) compelled to take if you argue against arithmetical
platonism?  It seems obvious that all possible intelligences would
discover the same forms of the Mandelbrot so long as they iterated on
z' = z^2  + c, but maybe I am missing the point of your argument.

Terren


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-17 Thread Terren Suydam
I would say computers were the tool that allowed us to see it, like a
microscope allowed us to see bacteria, and a telescope stars.

On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 3:14 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
 On 9/17/2012 10:36 AM, Terren Suydam wrote:

 Rex,

 Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the
 Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein?  How can you make
 sense of that in terms of the constructivist point of view


 How can you make sense of it otherwise.  The Mandelbrot set is only
 interesting because it became possible to construct it by use of computers.

 Brent


 that you
 are (I think) compelled to take if you argue against arithmetical
 platonism?  It seems obvious that all possible intelligences would
 discover the same forms of the Mandelbrot so long as they iterated on
 z' = z^2 + c, but maybe I am missing the point of your argument.

 Terren


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-17 Thread meekerdb

But did anybody think z' = z^2 + c was interesting before that?

Bretn

On 9/17/2012 1:17 PM, Terren Suydam wrote:

I would say computers were the tool that allowed us to see it, like a
microscope allowed us to see bacteria, and a telescope stars.

On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 3:14 PM, meekerdbmeeke...@verizon.net  wrote:

On 9/17/2012 10:36 AM, Terren Suydam wrote:

Rex,

Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the
Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein?  How can you make
sense of that in terms of the constructivist point of view


How can you make sense of it otherwise.  The Mandelbrot set is only
interesting because it became possible to construct it by use of computers.

Brent


that you
are (I think) compelled to take if you argue against arithmetical
platonism?  It seems obvious that all possible intelligences would
discover the same forms of the Mandelbrot so long as they iterated on
z' = z^2 + c, but maybe I am missing the point of your argument.

Terren


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-17 Thread Terren Suydam
Benoit Mandelbrot did. But what does interesting have to do with it?
 Did anyone think that empty patch of sky was interesting before
Hubble turned it into one of the most amazing photos ever taken?

On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 4:25 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
 But did anybody think z' = z^2 + c was interesting before that?

 Bretn


 On 9/17/2012 1:17 PM, Terren Suydam wrote:

 I would say computers were the tool that allowed us to see it, like a
 microscope allowed us to see bacteria, and a telescope stars.

 On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 3:14 PM, meekerdbmeeke...@verizon.net  wrote:

 On 9/17/2012 10:36 AM, Terren Suydam wrote:

 Rex,

 Do you have a non-platonist explanation for the discovery of the
 Mandelbrot set and the infinite complexity therein?  How can you make
 sense of that in terms of the constructivist point of view


 How can you make sense of it otherwise.  The Mandelbrot set is only
 interesting because it became possible to construct it by use of
 computers.

 Brent


 that you
 are (I think) compelled to take if you argue against arithmetical
 platonism?  It seems obvious that all possible intelligences would
 discover the same forms of the Mandelbrot so long as they iterated on
 z' = z^2 + c, but maybe I am missing the point of your argument.

 Terren


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-17 Thread meekerdb

On 9/17/2012 2:45 PM, Terren Suydam wrote:

Benoit Mandelbrot did.


I wasn't aware of that.  Did he have a proof of the fractal nature of the set before he 
calculated it?


Brent


But what does interesting have to do with it?
  Did anyone think that empty patch of sky was interesting before
Hubble turned it into one of the most amazing photos ever taken?


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-17 Thread Terren Suydam
On Mon, Sep 17, 2012 at 6:52 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
 On 9/17/2012 2:45 PM, Terren Suydam wrote:

 Benoit Mandelbrot did.


 I wasn't aware of that.  Did he have a proof of the fractal nature of the
 set before he calculated it?

 Brent

I don't know. I doubt it, I'm not even sure he had even coined the
term 'fractal' yet. I would be willing to bet though that what made
plotting z' = z^2 + c interesting to him was the same basic curiosity
that led astronomers to point Hubble at an empty patch of space
(despite the considerable cost of doing so): is there anything there
to be discovered?

Terren

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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-16 Thread Stephen P. King

On 9/16/2012 3:43 PM, Rex Allen wrote:

It seems to me that numbers are based on our ability to judge relative
magnitudes:

Which is bigger, which is closer, which is heavier, etc.

Many animals have this ability - called numeracy.  Humans differ only
in the degree to which it is developed, and in our ability to build
higher level abstractions on top of this fundamental skill.

SO - prime numbers, I think, emerge from a peculiar characteristic of
our ability to judge relative magnitudes, and the way this feeds into
the abstractions we build on top of that ability.

=*=

Let’s say you take a board and divide it into 3 sections of equal
length (say, by drawing a line on it at the section boundaries).

Having done so – is there a way that you could have divided the board
into fewer sections of equal length so that every endpoint of a long
section can be matched to the end of a shorter section?

In other words – take two boards of equal length.  Divide one into 3
sections.  Divide the other into two sections.  The dividing point of
the two-section-board will fall right into the middle of the middle
section of the three-section-board.  There is no way to divide the
second board into fewer sections so that all of its dividing points
are matched against a dividing point on the longer board.

Because of this – three is a prime.  (Notice that I do not say:  “this
is because 3 is prime” – instead I reverse the causal arrow).

=*=

Let’s take two boards and divide the first one into 10 equally sized sections.

Now – there are two ways that we can divide the second board into a
smaller number of equally sized sections so that the end-points of
every section on this second board are matched to a sectional dividing
point on the first board (though the opposite will not be true):

We can divide the second board into either 2 sections (in which case
the dividing point will align with the end of the 5th section on the
first board),

OR

We can divide the second board into 5 sections – each of which is the
same size as two sections on the first board.

Because of this, the number 10 is not prime.

=*=

The entire field of Number Theory grows out of this peculiar
characteristic of how we judge relative magnitudes.

Do you think?


HI Rex,

Nice post! Could you riff a bit on what the number PHI tells us 
about this characteristic. How is it that it seems that our perceptions 
of the world find anything that is close to a PHI valued relationship to 
be beautiful?


--
Onward!

Stephen

http://webpages.charter.net/stephenk1/Outlaw/Outlaw.html


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Re: Prime Numbers

2012-09-16 Thread Rex Allen
On Sun, Sep 16, 2012 at 6:10 PM, Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.netwrote:

 HI Rex,

 Nice post! Could you riff a bit on what the number PHI tells us about
 this characteristic. How is it that it seems that our perceptions of the
 world find anything that is close to a PHI valued relationship to be
 beautiful?



Thanks Stephen!

Actually my initial example of numeracy isn't quite right, but it's not
important to the rest of the argument.

My main point is that you can get to the concept of prime numbers just
using relative magnitudes that we have an innate sense of.

As for the significance of PHI - well - I guess there's probably some
plausible sounding evolutionary story that could be told about that.

Though how satisfying or useful an explanation like that is just depends on
what you're after and what your interests are.

An explanation that might be useful in one context might be useless in some
other context.

Explanations are observer dependent.

Probably.

Rex

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Re: prime numbers etc

2012-09-07 Thread John Mikes
Touche.
But I don't believe (in?) it - I am agnostic. Nonbeliever.
(SONG: I lost my turf in San Francisco)
J

On Thu, Sep 6, 2012 at 10:36 PM, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.comwrote:

  On Fri, Sep 7, 2012 at 8:07 AM, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:
  Stathis wrote (to Craig):
 
  But you believe that the neurochemicals do things contrary to what
  chemists would predict, for example an ion channel opening or closing
  without any cause such as a change in transmembrane potential or
  ligand concentration. We've talked about this before and it just isn't
  consistent with any scientific evidence. You interpret the existence
  spontaneous neural activity as meaning that something magical like
  this happens, but it doesn't mean that at all.
 
  Stathis, you know ... whatever we state as 'knowledge about mind etc.'
 is an
  explanation for the little we think we learned - with lots we have no
 idea
  about.
  Like: chemicals ... potentials ... scientific evidence ... even cause
  (meaning the
  part we alredy know about) and mauch much more.
  It is your turf, you must know about more we don't know only think we do.

 It's your turf too - you're a chemist.

 --
 Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: prime numbers etc

2012-09-06 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On Fri, Sep 7, 2012 at 8:07 AM, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:
 Stathis wrote (to Craig):

 But you believe that the neurochemicals do things contrary to what
 chemists would predict, for example an ion channel opening or closing
 without any cause such as a change in transmembrane potential or
 ligand concentration. We've talked about this before and it just isn't
 consistent with any scientific evidence. You interpret the existence
 spontaneous neural activity as meaning that something magical like
 this happens, but it doesn't mean that at all.

 Stathis, you know ... whatever we state as 'knowledge about mind etc.' is an
 explanation for the little we think we learned - with lots we have no idea
 about.
 Like: chemicals ... potentials ... scientific evidence ... even cause
 (meaning the
 part we alredy know about) and mauch much more.
 It is your turf, you must know about more we don't know only think we do.

It's your turf too - you're a chemist.

-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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