Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 31 Jan 2014, at 13:13, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Liz,

Your mouth sure has to move a lot to tell us it's not moving!

The problem is not that static equations DESCRIBE aspects of  
reality. The problem is that you are denying the flow of time.


We deny a *primitive* and *ontological* flow of time. We don't deny  
the internal experience of flow of time.





For equations to compute (not just describe) reality, there must be  
active processor cycles. There is simply NO way around that...


Arithmetic is full of active processor cycles.

Bruno




Edgar



On Thursday, January 30, 2014 10:24:48 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:
Why do some people have such a problem with how change can emerge  
from something static ? It's as simple as F = ma - a static  
equation describing something changing. Change is by definition  
things being different at different times. If you map out all the  
times involved as a dimension, you will naturally get a static  
universe, just as putting together all the moments making up a movie  
gives you a reel of film - but only from a God's eye perspective.  
This is the perspective science gives us, the perspective given by  
using equations and models and maps to describe reality; it isn't  
the world of everyday experience, which (at best) views those  
equations and so on from within (assuming for a moment they are so  
accurate as to be isomorphic to reality).


Obtaining change from the static view used by science is a non- 
problem, and has been since Newton published his Principia.


There are problems with comp, of course, like the white rabbit  
problem. Does anyone have any new views on the real problems, rather  
than worrying about straw men?



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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 31 Jan 2014, at 14:32, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Telmo,

Block time and Bruno's comp can only tell us how a set fixed static  
sequence of events could be perceived by some observer as a fixed  
static sequence of events. It simply CANNOT tell us how time moves  
ALONG that sequence.


Correct. But we just abandon the idea that there is a time moving  
along that sequence. That does not change the experience of time flow  
by the person.





The fact that time flows, that things change, is a fundamental  
EMPIRICAL OBSERVATION.


It is a fundamental aspect of person experience. There is no empirical  
evidence for it. Not one.




It is not some intuitive illusion. It is the basic measurable  
observation of our existence and it never ceases from birth to  
death. It simply cannot be disregarded as some sort of survival  
mechanism. In fact if block time were actually real survival  
mechanisms would not be needed because the future is already written  
deterministically contrary to QM and in violation of all sorts of  
physical laws.


So you assume QM?
And QM with collapse?
QM without collapse admits a block multiverse description, with  
profusion of different relative futures.






If you think block time exists then where does that entire block  
come from?


It comes from 2+2=4. It is amazing, but well known in theoretical  
computer science.





Did it create itself?


No.

Bruno

Sequentially or all at once? Did something outside of it create it?  
What? How? Was it created causally in time? Or did it just magically  
appear like some kind of miracle? The believers in block time have  
an unfortunate habit of not thinking through the implications of  
their crazy theory.


Again, the best way I can say it is that your mouth has to move  
plenty to tell me it isn't moving!


Best,
Edgar

On Friday, January 31, 2014 8:08:32 AM UTC-5, telmo_menezes wrote:
Hi Edgar,

On Fri, Jan 31, 2014 at 1:13 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net  
wrote:

 Liz,

 Your mouth sure has to move a lot to tell us it's not moving!

 The problem is not that static equations DESCRIBE aspects of  
reality. The

 problem is that you are denying the flow of time.

Why is this a problem? How can you know for sure that there is a flow
of time? Block universe hypothesis can explain how time would appear
to flow for each observer. This doesn't prove that block universe
hypothesis are correct, but they cannot be dismissed that easily
either.

Now you could argue that this is counter-intuitive, but I would remind
you that nature doesn't care. Our intuition is just a bunch of
heuristics evolved to deal with a very narrow set of survival
scenarios.

 For equations to compute (not just describe) reality, there must  
be active

 processor cycles. There is simply NO way around that...

I wonder.

Telmo.

 Edgar



 On Thursday, January 30, 2014 10:24:48 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 Why do some people have such a problem with how change can  
emerge from
 something static ? It's as simple as F = ma - a static equation  
describing
 something changing. Change is by definition things being  
different at
 different times. If you map out all the times involved as a  
dimension, you
 will naturally get a static universe, just as putting together  
all the
 moments making up a movie gives you a reel of film - but only  
from a God's
 eye perspective. This is the perspective science gives us, the  
perspective
 given by using equations and models and maps to describe reality;  
it isn't
 the world of everyday experience, which (at best) views those  
equations and
 so on from within (assuming for a moment they are so accurate as  
to be

 isomorphic to reality).

 Obtaining change from the static view used by science is a non- 
problem,

 and has been since Newton published his Principia.

 There are problems with comp, of course, like the white rabbit  
problem.
 Does anyone have any new views on the real problems, rather than  
worrying

 about straw men?

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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 31 Jan 2014, at 19:27, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Bruno,

I HAVE explained my computational space and how it relates to p- 
time. Here it is again copied from my post of Jan. 25 since you  
missed it.


I did not miss it, but apparently you missed my comment on it.




Bruno,

Once again a summary of my computational universe:

The fundamental level of reality consists of pure abstract  
computationally evolving information in the LOGICAL (not physical,  
not dimensional) space or presence of reality.


I cannot accept a definition which invoke reality. reality is what  
we search on.
What do you mean by evolving, if the fundamental level is abstract  
computations?


What do you mean by logical? Which logic?

Soory but what you say does not make sense in term of the standard  
definitions.





What exists here is NOT static arithmetic truth. What exists here is  
the ACTUAL computations (and nothing else)


Define actual computation.




necessary and sufficient to compute the current state of the  
universe as science observes it and confirms it.


You assume a universe?





This occurs as myriads of computations in interaction with each other.


What is interaction. You seem to assume everything (physics,  
psychology, etc.).





This is a dynamic active process which occurs in a common present  
moment.


What is is it?



This present moment is NOT the same as clock time. Clock time and  
all the other measurable observable information states of the  
universe are the RESULTS of these fundamental computations which  
occur in the present moment of p-time.


How could a computation occur in a present moment. A physical  
computation needs more than one moment, like a computation in  
arithmetic needs more than one step or one natural number.


Ah, perhaps the present moment changes all the time?

I don't see a theory, only a personal view on physics.



If clock time is the RESULTS of computations those computations MUST  
occur in some other type of time. That is the present moment.


That does not make much sense to me. You assume far too much  
primitives, without clearly defining them. What we assume should be  
amenable to agreement, even if temporary, just to see what your theory  
is.





This process is entirely independent of human observation. It is not  
a matter of perspective, though obviously every extant observe will  
have its own perspective on and internal mental model of this  
process. And observers will interpret this perspective as the  
familiar physical dimensional world.


All observers are sub-programs in this single computational reality  
which themselves continually computationally interact with the  
computations of their environments.


You assume a form of digital physics. But what about my argument  
(given two or three times) that this is self-contradictory?


What do you mean by computations? It seems you assume physical  
computations, but nobody can defined this without assuming the  
standard mathematical definition.






The entire universe consists ONLY of these active computations,  
consists ONLY of information computationally evolving.


But the computational reality, to be complete, involves non computable  
aspect. The universe cannot be 100% computational and Turing complete.  
Are you assuming a finite physical reality?





The apparently physical classical world is how observers INTERPRET  
or model or simulate this information reality internally in their  
minds. They have evolved to do this to make it easier to compute  
their functioning and survival


Thus the actual reality is not physical, dimensional or material, it  
consists only of actively computationally evolving pure abstract  
information in a logical space ONLY.


No logic is rich enough to define computation. you need arithmetic (or  
equivalent).

What does mean evolving in a logical space only?




As for the present moment of p-time, that is the present moment of  
time that provides the computational processor cycles to take place  
within.


Then you must give a non physical account of the time, but your refer  
all the time to physical attribute.
Time can be physical, psychological, computer science theoretica,  
arithmetical, but not purely logic. Or you assume some special  
temporal logic?




Clock time and everything else that constitutes the actual state of  
the actual observable scientific world is computed in p-time by  
these computations.


Hope that makes it clearer


I have still no clue what you mean by computation.

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 31 Jan 2014, at 20:24, David Nyman wrote:


On 31 January 2014 18:30, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

snip

OK. But you could also start by saying something like the POPJ  
assumes by default a primitively-physical basis).


Especially that it is certainly arguable that comp does not solve it  
to our *entire* satisfaction yet.


OK. Actually, I'm trying to persuade Craig that it still applies on  
a primitively-sensory basis. But not in comp. Hopefully.
BTW, although you say that Craig can perhaps avoid the POPJ by  
appealing to a non-comp theory, ISTM that the problem of reference  
is still there so long as his fundamental-sense theory relies on  
causally-closed extrinsic *appearances.
I think Craig does not believe that his fundamental sense relies on  
causally-closed extrinsic *appearance*. he would say that sense  
makes those causally-closed extrinsic appearance, which makes sense  
in comp, actually (to bad he believes only non comp guaranties that).


Of course his theory does not explain mind, consciousness or sense,  
as it assumes it.
And I fail to see how it relates to the *appearances*, except by  
making a sort of naive identification of sense with some matter (up  
to some convolution which he does not describe in any precise way).


But if he makes that naive identification (modulo any convolution,  
which I've offered him the opportunity to explain) the POPJ can  
still bite him.


However, under questioning he's so far been rather unclear about  
this aspect of his theory.


That's clear. He assumes sense, and try to make it into a form of  
matter, sometimes. May be the last reference to tTegmark might help  
him. It seems to be a form of panpsychism.


It would seem so. But POPJ can still bite panpsychism, I think,  
although this doesn't seem to be widely recognised. My post to Craig  
elaborates on this.


I am afraid he is too much vague to be really bitten. but you can put  
him in the corner, if patient enough, but then he might change the  
subject, or something.
The eventual contradiction is probably in the fact that he needs  
extrinsic causality to have machines zombies, but he needs the  
absence of extrinsic causality (like in comp, somehow) to escape the  
POPJ.


So I think you are right. Panpsychism can be bitten by POPJ when Pan  
contains non psychic things, as Craig alludes often (but unclearly) to  
those non psychic things, like zombies bodies.





Are such appearances causally closed? Do we not rely on such  
physical consistency? Maybe, sometimes, who knows, whatever. I  
might go so far as to say that he's been dodging the question.


By assuming sense, he dodges the mind. And by being unclear of  
matter, well he might dodge the issue of matter too.


It is still better than the person elimination of the materialists.

I agree.

snip
The plausible resolution of the paradox, if I've understood you,  
lies in the capability of the machine to refer to non-shareable but  
incorrigible truths beyond formal proof and demonstration.

Yes.
In more than one sense, and those sense are related.

One sense can be attributed to Gunderson, and is very simple. Once  
you have build some numbers of  robots, having enough cognitive  
abilities to recognize themselves and name the other robots, it will  
recognize some basic difference between itself and the other, just  
by the virtue of being itself.

Like not seeing his own neck.

UDA does not need more than that simple assymetry. It provides the  
comp solution of the problem why am I the W person and not the M  
person. A negative solution, as it says nobody could have predicted  
that.
Here appears already a stock of 1-truth, or 1-1 truth, which are non  
logically justifiable and sometimes unexpressible (having non  
definite name or description).


But formally, we get more senses for this, all deriving directly or  
indirectly from incompleteness.


If you want the usual boolean logic of any extrinsic 3p, enough rich  
to describe itself (like we could ask for an explanatively close  
physics) extends into a modal logic, naturally, when that 3p self is  
taken into account. That's the modal logic G. G is the logic of the  
3p self in a 3p reality.


OK.

But by incompleteness, some truth about that 3p self cannot be  
logically justifiable by that 3p self, and Solovay theorems gives  
the precious gift of a modal logic of the whole self-referential  
truth (whole at the  propositional modal logic level: it is not the  
whole truth!). That is the logic G*.


OK.

To give the simple but important example, the consistency, that it  
is the non provability of the false (t = ~[]f) is an example of  
true statement (trivially if we limit ourself to sound machines),  
which is not provable by the machine (by the 3p self about its 3p  
self, at the right level of descriotion: here by construction).


G* is decidable, and so a correct machine can produce a lot of  
truth about itself that she cannot justify 

Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-02-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 31 Jan 2014, at 20:57, John Clark wrote:


On Fri, Jan 31, 2014  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 I don't need a proof because I have something better, I have  
direct experience of the subjective.


 Nice for you.

Indeed.

 But that does not invalidate the point that you can't prove this  
to an other person,


I can't even prove that there is another person that I could present  
a potential proof to.


Exactly.




 Problem? What's the problem? If I do not believe in your  
subjective experience, as you say above, then I certainly don't need  
to explain it. And if I do believe in your subjective experience  
then I can say it was caused by the way matter interacts (which can  
be fully described by information) just as I already know from  
direct experience that my subjective experience is caused.


 That mundane explanation might be locally valid, but your own idea  
that consciousness is not localized


Yes. Do you find a contradiction in that? I don't.


I don't either. Only an interesting problem for the computationalists.




 Indeed, you are presently delocalized into an infinity of  
computations,


And if Everett is correct there are a infinite number of Bruno  
Marchals , that would certainly be odd but where is the contradiction?


Nobody said there was a contradiction. Only an interesting problem.





 And if I also believe that consciousness is fundamental, that is  
to say a sequence of What caused that? questions is not infinite  
and consciousness comes at the end, then there is nothing more that  
can be said on the subject.


 Yes, but you have to invoke some non-comp to localize yourself in  
some unique reality


Fine, then feel free to invoke some non-comp or invoke more comp  
if that floats your boat, I no longer care. I've given up trying to  
find a consistent definition of your silly little word comp that  
is used on this list and nowhere else.



False. You stop at step 3, not step 0, which means that you accept the  
definition of comp provided here.




Your endless homemade acronyms that you pretend every educated  
person should know get tiresome too.


Childish immature remark.




  once you believe that your consciousness is invariant for some  
digital transformation


I do believe that.


Good. That's comp.




 then you can begin to understand that we have to justify the  
physical from modalities associated to that those digital  
transformations.


Although it doesn't necessarily follow the digital transformation of  
consciousness is perfectly consistent with the matter in the desk  
I'm pounding my hand on right now as simply being a subroutine in  
the johnkclak program, and the same is true of the matter in my hand.


Only by a confusion 1p and 3p, that you illustrate the day you are  
stuck at the step 3.






 Somehow, you just say that you are not interested in the mind-body  
problem.


Well, nobody around here has said anything very interesting about  
the mind-body problem.


Because you confuse 1p and 3p, again and again and again, despite in  
some post you don't.

Which rise the question of what is your agenda.



And if the sequence of what caused that? questions are not  
infinite than after a certain point there just isn't anything more  
of interest to say about the mind-body problem.


That applies to all problem.





 Like you said once, we can't predict, in Helsinki,  W or M, and  
that's all.


I can't predict the answer because you haven't precisely formulated  
what the question is.


I did. You are the one systematically ADDING confusion, by dismissing  
the 1p/3p distinction, or asking for no relevant point on personal  
identity. You are the only person stuck in step 3 that I know.
I thank you for making public the kind of hand waving needed to stop  
there indeed.


Bruno




 I stay in the 3p, because in UDA we use only the most superficial  
aspect of the first person


I've looked yet again but I still don't see it:

http://uda.varsity.com/

 John K Clark






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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-02-01 Thread Kim Jones

On 1 Feb 2014, at 8:24 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Your endless homemade acronyms that you pretend every educated person should 
 know get tiresome too. 


Try Vitamin B 12. It is known to have a positive effect on the mind's ability 
to accept new input. Failing that, you might give dandelion coffee a go or even 
cannabis. This last may prove fatal to your inflated self-confidence concerning 
everything you write.


Kim
  



Kim Jones B.Mus.GDTL

Email: kimjo...@ozemail.com.au
Mobile:   0450 963 719
Landline: 02 9389 4239
Web:   http://www.eportfolio.kmjcommp.com

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-02-01 Thread Kim Jones
Actually, John Clark wrote...



On 1 Feb 2014, at 8:34 pm, Kim Jones kimjo...@ozemail.com.au wrote:

 
 On 1 Feb 2014, at 8:24 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 
 Your endless homemade acronyms that you pretend every educated person 
 should know get tiresome too. 
 
 
 Try Vitamin B 12. It is known to have a positive effect on the mind's ability 
 to accept new input. Failing that, you might give dandelion coffee a go or 
 even cannabis. This last may prove fatal to your inflated self-confidence 
 concerning everything you write.
 
 
 Kim
  
 
 
 
 Kim Jones B.Mus.GDTL
 
 Email: kimjo...@ozemail.com.au
 Mobile:   0450 963 719
 Landline: 02 9389 4239
 Web:   http://www.eportfolio.kmjcommp.com
 
 Never let your schooling get in the way of your education - Mark Twain
 
 
 
 
 
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Kim Jones B.Mus.GDTL

Email: kimjo...@ozemail.com.au
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Landline: 02 9389 4239
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Never let your schooling get in the way of your education - Mark Twain




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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 31 Jan 2014, at 21:39, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Friday, January 31, 2014 2:47:01 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 31 Jan 2014, at 03:23, Craig Weinberg wrote:

 Maybe it will help to make the sense-primitive view clearer if we
 think of sense and motive as input and output.

 This is only a step away from Comp, so it should not be construed to
 mean that I am defining sense and motive as merely input and output.
 My purpose here is just to demonstrate that Comp takes so much for
 granted that it is not even viable as a primitive within its own
 definitions.

 Can we all agree that the notion of input and output is
 ontologically essential to the function of computation?

Bad luck Craig!

Not only the notion of input-output is not essential for computation,
but we can argue in many ways that input-output are inessential.

A deep one is the discovery of the combinators, which provides a way
to do math and computers without variables. You still need some
variable at the metalevel, but all formal objects, program and
computations are object without variables. This is exploited in
compilation theory, and in some proof theory.

Then there is the SMN theorem, which says basically that you can
simulate a function with two variables (two inputs) by mechanically
enumerable collection of functions of one variable.

Here too, the S90 particular case says that you can simulate functions
of 9 variables with effective enumeration of functions of 0 variables,
that is without input.

Recursion theory is fundamentally non dimensional.

Take the UD.

A UD dovetailing only on the programs without input is equivalent with
a UD dovetailing on the programs having infinitely many inputs
(streams).

And, to finish, the UD itself is a program without input and without
output. It computes in an intensional very complex way, nothing from
nothing.

The UD has this in common with the common aristotelian conception of
the physical universe. A physical universe cannot have input nor
output, without stopping being *the* physical universe.

This does not mean, than in the relative computation, some input can't
help.





 Is there any instance in which a computation is employed in which no
 program or data is input and from which no data is expected as  
output?


The UD.

Isn't everything output from the UD?


No. The UD has no output. It is a non stopping program. everything  
physical and theological appears through its intensional activity.


In fact it uses an intensional Church thesis. Not only all universal  
machines can compute all computable functions, but they can all  
compute them in all the possible ways to compute them. The intensional  
CT can be derived from the usual extensional CT. Universal machines  
computes all functions, but also in all the same and infinitely many  
ways.









 This would suggest that computation can only be defined as a
 meaningful product in a non-comp environment, otherwise there would
 be no inputting and outputting, only instantaneous results within a
 Platonic ocean of arithmetic truth.


A computation of a program without input can simulate different
programs having many inputs relative to other programs or divine (non-
machines) things living in arithmetic

How does the program itself get to be a program without being input?


OK. Good question.

The answer is that the TOE has to choose an initial universal system.  
I use arithmetic (RA).


Then all programs or number are natural inputs of the (tiny)  
arithmetical truth which emulates them.


You need to understand that a tiny part of arithmetic defines all  
partial computable relations. The quintessence of this is already in  
Gödel 1931.











 Where do we find input and output within arithmetic though?

It is not obvious, but the sigma_1 arithmetical relation emulates all
computations, with all sort of relative inputs.

It seems to me though, and this is why I posted this thread, that i/ 
o is taken for granted and has no real explanation of what it is in  
mathematical terms.


It is the argument of the functions in the functional relations.

If phi_i(j) = k then RA can prove that there is a number i which  
applied to j will give k, relatively to some universal u, (and this  
trivially relatively to arithmetic).









 What makes it happen without invoking a physical or experiential
 context?

Truth. The necessary one, and the contingent one.

Does truth make things happen?


Yes. truth('p') - p.
If Obama is president is true, then Obama is president.









 As an aside, its interesting to play with the idea of building a
 view of computation from a sensory-motive perspective. When we use a
 computer to automate mental tasks it could be said that we are
 'unputting' the effort that would have been required otherwise. When
 we use a machine to emulate our own presence in our absence, such as
 a Facebook profile, we are onputting ourselves in some digital
 context.

The brain does that a lot. Nature does 

Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 31 Jan 2014, at 22:16, LizR wrote:

On 1 February 2014 09:39, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com  
wrote:

 Is there any instance in which a computation is employed in which no
 program or data is input and from which no data is expected as  
output?


The UD.

Isn't everything output from the UD?

No, as I understand it, only the appearance of everything. (Comp  
answers the question why is there something rather than nothing by  
it depends what you mean by something...)


How does the program itself get to be a program without being input?

See genetic algorithms for one example. See genetics for another. A  
blind watchmaker can make a computer programme, although we can  
normally write one a lot more efficiently.


It seems to me though, and this is why I posted this thread, that i/ 
o is taken for granted and has no real explanation of what it is in  
mathematical terms.


No mathematical explanation for what input and output are?! They  
both come down to binary digits, how mathematical do you want it to  
be?


The rest of your post seems a lot more sensible and I will leave  
those questions for Bruno to agree or disagree, I would also like to  
know how numbers can make an effort (as would Xenocrates! If John  
will forgive the reference...)



The soul is a number which moves itself (Xenocrates).

Curiosity is a robot on mars, and it moves its software all alone by  
itself, relatively to the planet Mars.


Sometimes his wheels go on some big pebbles (which shows there was  
water!), and the robot has to make some effort.


Curiosity has a digital brain. The relation between his inputs on  
Mars, and his attempt to get rid of the pebbles, are entirely  
described infinitely often in the arithmetical relations corresponding  
to the emulation of that computation in arithmetic. Even before the  
human relations took places, funnily enough. Now, the possible  
consciousness of Curiosity is not really based on this or that  
arithmetical relations, but on all of them. Only there the effort can  
be hurting and felt by curiosity, if that is the case.


Does this help?

Bruno





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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 31 Jan 2014, at 22:58, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Friday, January 31, 2014 4:16:12 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:
On 1 February 2014 09:39, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:
 Is there any instance in which a computation is employed in which no
 program or data is input and from which no data is expected as  
output?


The UD.

Isn't everything output from the UD?

No, as I understand it, only the appearance of everything. (Comp  
answers the question why is there something rather than nothing by  
it depends what you mean by something...)


Ok, so then everything is output from the UD plus output from  
whatever computater you are saying generates everything that is not  
an appearance.


It is misleading to say that the UD output anything, as it is a non  
stopping program. It has no output in the common computer science  
meaning.


Think about a dreaming brain. Your partner in bed is sleepy and make a  
dream. there are no input output, but there is still an experience  
which can be related to the brain activity. In that dreams, some  
entities can have inputs and outputs.
Input and outputs are relative notions. Then a machine without inoput  
and output can imitate machines having them.







How does the program itself get to be a program without being input?

See genetic algorithms for one example. See genetics for another. A  
blind watchmaker can make a computer programme, although we can  
normally write one a lot more efficiently.


Genetics are absorbing all kinds of inputs and producing outputs.  
The blind watchmaker is a theory about evolution, not an example of  
a real computation which is known to be without input or output.



It seems to me though, and this is why I posted this thread, that i/ 
o is taken for granted and has no real explanation of what it is in  
mathematical terms.


No mathematical explanation for what input and output are?! They  
both come down to binary digits, how mathematical do you want it to  
be?


What are the binary digits which define input?


Look up any assembly language.

Bruno






The rest of your post seems a lot more sensible and I will leave  
those questions for Bruno to agree or disagree, I would also like to  
know how numbers can make an effort (as would Xenocrates! If John  
will forgive the reference...)



Cool.

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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On 1 February 2014 16:48, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
 On 1/31/2014 9:18 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

 We are potentially immortal in the same way as a car can potentially
 survive indefinitely provided parts can be repaired or replaced
 indefinitely. At present, we can repair or replace some parts in the
 human body, but not enough to prolong life for more than a few years.


 Actually I think we can make people live indefinitely now.  I have seriously
 considered starting a business to do this.  I certainly think I can do it
 more legitimately than those cryogenic preservation services.  What I would
 do it is gather as much information about the person as possible.  If they
 were still alive this would include extensive video recordings and
 interviews.  Then they would be 3d-modeled in CGI, with adjustment of age
 appearance as desired.  This model would then be inserted as an avatar of
 the person in an artificial CGI world, similar to many computer games.  The
 avatar would be provided with an AI based on all the writings, video,
 interviews etc so that it would respond like the person modeled in most
 conversation.  It could access current events etc from the internet so it
 would be able to discuss things.

 Would the avatar be conscious?  According to Bruno it would be if it's AI
 were Lobian - which isn't that hard.  But really it's beside the point.  AI,
 such as Watson, could easily appear as conscious and intelligent as your
 90yr old aunt and tell the stories she tells and exhibit the quirks she has.
 Would the avatar be alive? conscious?  Who would care?  Not the loved ones
 that paid to preserve Grandma for future generations.

 Anybody want to invest?  It'll take big bucks to do it right.

If you really could do that, we could send these AI's into the world
to work for us and represent us. We are nowhere near doing that. Then
there is the additional question of whether the AI is a continuation
of the person's consciousness.


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Feb 2014, at 06:48, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/31/2014 9:18 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

We are potentially immortal in the same way as a car can potentially
survive indefinitely provided parts can be repaired or replaced
indefinitely. At present, we can repair or replace some parts in the
human body, but not enough to prolong life for more than a few years.


Actually I think we can make people live indefinitely now.  I have  
seriously considered starting a business to do this.  I certainly  
think I can do it more legitimately than those cryogenic  
preservation services.  What I would do it is gather as much  
information about the person as possible.  If they were still alive  
this would include extensive video recordings and interviews.  Then  
they would be 3d-modeled in CGI, with adjustment of age appearance  
as desired.  This model would then be inserted as an avatar of the  
person in an artificial CGI world, similar to many computer games.   
The avatar would be provided with an AI based on all the writings,  
video, interviews etc so that it would respond like the person  
modeled in most conversation.  It could access current events etc  
from the internet so it would be able to discuss things.


Would the avatar be conscious?  According to Bruno it would be if  
it's AI were Lobian - which isn't that hard.  But really it's beside  
the point.  AI, such as Watson, could easily appear as conscious and  
intelligent as your 90yr old aunt and tell the stories she tells and  
exhibit the quirks she has.  Would the avatar be alive? conscious?   
Who would care?  Not the loved ones that paid to preserve Grandma  
for future generations.


Anybody want to invest?  It'll take big bucks to do it right.


Is that not the normal future of facebook or Linkedin, or personal  
family memory?


That is like saying yes to the current doctor, meaning, that the level  
is *very* high.


The children will not be glad. It is already annoying to listen to  
grandpa nth account of 14-18, every sunday, but now, you have to  
listen to grandpa and grandma, and to their grandgrand-pa, and their  
grandgrand-ma, and so one.

Chinese have a name for that, it is the cult of ancestors.

It is good, it is human. You can do money but you have to act quickly,  
because that emerges naturally from the net.



Bruno




Brent

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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 1, 2014 12:15:26 AM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 13:22, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript:
  wrote:

 On Friday, January 31, 2014 5:32:49 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 It emerges along the time axis. Evolution, for example, can operate in a 
 block universe. All the phenomena we experience can occur in a block 
 universe, otherwise no one would entertain the possibility that we live in 
 one. 


 I don't think that very many people do seriously entertain the 
 possibility that we live in a block universe.


 Except physicists, who have accepted it since Minkowski, if not Newton. 
 (And science fiction writers, like Robert Heinlein.)

 It's not that the effect of evolution couldn't exist in a block universe, 
 its that it wouldn't make sense to say that it 'operates', since the 
 beginning and ending of the operation would be, from an absolute 
 perspective, simultaneous.


 No they wouldn't, they'd be separated by hundreds of millions of years 
 along the time axis.


The time axis is only a label for one measure of the block. The separation 
that you are assuming is not explained by the block modeling itself. The 
model doesn't support any inherent separation, because it is a 
homogeneous block. If there is separation, then it would have to be 
explained by further facts about the block. The time axis is not 
'operating', it is nothing at all but an inert scalar.
 

  

 What is not explained is why, if there was a block universe, would being 
 inside of it be filled with both simultaneous and chronological sensations. 
 What would restrict some part of the block to the point of blindness to 
 most of the time axis, and then insert some kind of illusion of timing 
 associated with that axis?


 Physics.


Yes, but that just makes physics a Machine of the Gaps. Without a theory of 
why and how physics plays in illusion, we have no justification to claim 
that the contemporary version of physics can hold consciousness of time.
 

  

 The fact that it is all there from the god's (physicist's) perspective 
 doesn't stop things changing and emerging within the block.


 It doesn't stop it, but it makes it implausible. What does a block want 
 with _ing anything?


 It doesn't want anything. It's just the outcome of the laws of physics.


What I'm saying though is that the block universe interpretation of the 
laws of physics directly contradicts any possibility of any interpretation 
of the laws of physics in which change is ever experienced chronologically.
 

  

 But there *is* time in a block universe. It's a 4D manifold, and time is 
 a particular axis within it. You seem to want an extra time above and 
 beyond the existing one.


 Just the opposite. I am fully embracing time a just one of the four D 
 axes. What the block universe does not explain is why that axis is 
 presented as a verb while the other three are not, and why that axis is 
 irreversible seeming while the others are not.
  

 We're embedded in time, and the thermodynamic arrow of time is a subject 
 that has already been discussed at length.


We can be embedded in time whether it is experienced chronologically or 
not. The whole point is that the Block Universe spatializes time so that 
the arrow of time becomes some kind of local 'illusion'.  The question of 
whether or not we are even 'embedded in time' is a whole other debate. I 
would say that the experience of being embedded in time is not primordial, 
but is rather derived from public relations. Time is not implicit within 
private consciousness, although it contains the seeds of chronological 
time. The native ontology of time is experiential and multiplexed, rooted 
in significance rather than explicit duration. Time is an accounting and 
comparison of groups of experiences, not a tangible location or firmament.

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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 1, 2014 12:26:34 AM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 17:30, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript:
  wrote:


 It's not an assumption, it is a question. I am asking, what good is 
 computation without input/output and isn't the fact of i/o completely 
 overlooked in the ontology of computationalism. Given that, isn't it more 
 likely that computationalism is false?


 Your original question was: 

  Can we all agree that the notion of input and output is ontologically 
 essential to the function of computation? 

 Is there any instance in which a computation is employed in which no 
 program or data is input and from which no data is expected as output? 


 I answered that. I gave an example. You didn't ask what good it was, you 
 asked if it's ontologically essential.


They are the same thing. In a Computationalist (or Digital Functionalist) 
universe, the phenomenon of consciousness is reduced to a computational 
function based on the idea that function is ontologically supreme. If you 
have phenomena popping up out of nowhere without any function, then we must 
ask why we are picking on consciousness. By asserting that input/output is 
ontologically essential to the function of computing, I am saying that 
there is no functional reason why computation would emerge unless it 
produces something new, and I'm saying that production essentially entails 
what we think of as input and output: some kind of formal partitioning of a 
function and a sending-receiving of computational products from that 
partition. Without the sending-receiving, you have a Platonic Block that 
makes sending-receiving redundant. There does not seem to be any functional 
purpose for computation within a Platonic Block, since every possible UD 
coordinate is already there.
 

 And it isn't, computation can proceed happily without I/O.


Empirically, in the machines that we create, given our distance from the 
experience of those machines, but I'm talking about as a theory of the 
universe - if computation can proceed without I/O, then of course it would, 
and I/O would be impossible. Since we know in our own experience that I/O 
is the only reason to ever compute anything, we cannot assume that there 
can be any such thing as computation in a universe that lacks I/O 
(sensory-motive participation). That is what I meant by ontologically 
essential. Not essential locally, but essential on the eternal, existential 
level.
 


 You asked if I/O is ontologically essential to computation and I answered, 
 no, and gave a load of examples that showed why it isn't.


Because you are looking at computation from within a computer science 
perspective. I'm looking at it from a foundational perspective.


 If you want to ask what good computation is without I/O that's fine, go 
 ahead. But that wasn't the question you asked and I answered, or the 
 question you have gone to such extraordinary lengths to object to my 
 answers to.

 Anyway I won't make the mistake of trying to give you an honest answer, or 
 any answer, if all you can do is bleat about how square it is to try to 
 hold a meaningful discussion. Since you've clearly already decided that 
 you're right, and are happy to twist everything round endlessly to prove 
 it, at least to yourself, you may as well shout in a bucket.


From my perspective, that sounds like I didn't really consider your 
question thoroughly the first time, so my answer was superficial, and now 
I'm angry, so I'm putting my fingers in my ears and blaming you. 

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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 1, 2014 5:09:05 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 31 Jan 2014, at 22:58, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Friday, January 31, 2014 4:16:12 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 09:39, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

  Is there any instance in which a computation is employed in which no   
  program or data is input and from which no data is expected as 
 output? 

 The UD. 


 Isn't everything output from the UD?


 No, as I understand it, only the appearance of everything. (Comp answers 
 the question why is there something rather than nothing by it depends 
 what you mean by something...)


 Ok, so then everything is output from the UD plus output from whatever 
 computater you are saying generates everything that is not an appearance.


 It is misleading to say that the UD output anything, as it is a non 
 stopping program. It has no output in the common computer science meaning.


Then what does it actually do?
 


 Think about a dreaming brain. Your partner in bed is sleepy and make a 
 dream. there are no input output, 


Not with the world outside of your body, but within the dream, the whole 
thing is input and output. You receive dream experiences and you project 
your participation in them, just as you would with your body in a world of 
bodies. In a dream, you are in a semi-world of perceptions instead.
 

 but there is still an experience which can be related to the brain 
 activity. In that dreams, some entities can have inputs and outputs.
 Input and outputs are relative notions. Then a machine without inoput and 
 output can imitate machines having them.


Imitation is an output. It's based on an input. If you have never heard how 
someone speaks, you cannot imitate them - because imitation is an output 
which requires sensory input.
 




  

  
 How does the program itself get to be a program without being input?


 See genetic algorithms for one example. See genetics for another. A 
 blind watchmaker can make a computer programme, although we can normally 
 write one a lot more efficiently.


 Genetics are absorbing all kinds of inputs and producing outputs. The 
 blind watchmaker is a theory about evolution, not an example of a real 
 computation which is known to be without input or output.
  


 It seems to me though, and this is why I posted this thread, that i/o is 
 taken for granted and has no real explanation of what it is in mathematical 
 terms. 


 No mathematical explanation for what input and output are?! They both 
 come down to binary digits, how mathematical do you want it to be?


 What are the binary digits which define input?


 Look up any assembly language.


But assembly language must be input into a computer before that.

Craig
 


 Bruno



  


 The rest of your post seems a lot more sensible and I will leave those 
 questions for Bruno to agree or disagree, I would also like to know how 
 numbers can make an effort (as would Xenocrates! If John will forgive the 
 reference...)


 Cool. 

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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 1, 2014 4:54:47 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 31 Jan 2014, at 21:39, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Friday, January 31, 2014 2:47:01 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 31 Jan 2014, at 03:23, Craig Weinberg wrote: 

  Maybe it will help to make the sense-primitive view clearer if we   
  think of sense and motive as input and output. 
  
  This is only a step away from Comp, so it should not be construed to   
  mean that I am defining sense and motive as merely input and output.   
  My purpose here is just to demonstrate that Comp takes so much for   
  granted that it is not even viable as a primitive within its own   
  definitions. 
  
  Can we all agree that the notion of input and output is   
  ontologically essential to the function of computation? 

 Bad luck Craig! 

 Not only the notion of input-output is not essential for computation,   
 but we can argue in many ways that input-output are inessential. 

 A deep one is the discovery of the combinators, which provides a way   
 to do math and computers without variables. You still need some   
 variable at the metalevel, but all formal objects, program and   
 computations are object without variables. This is exploited in   
 compilation theory, and in some proof theory. 

 Then there is the SMN theorem, which says basically that you can   
 simulate a function with two variables (two inputs) by mechanically   
 enumerable collection of functions of one variable. 

 Here too, the S90 particular case says that you can simulate functions   
 of 9 variables with effective enumeration of functions of 0 variables,   
 that is without input. 

 Recursion theory is fundamentally non dimensional. 

 Take the UD. 

 A UD dovetailing only on the programs without input is equivalent with   
 a UD dovetailing on the programs having infinitely many inputs   
 (streams). 

 And, to finish, the UD itself is a program without input and without   
 output. It computes in an intensional very complex way, nothing from   
 nothing. 

 The UD has this in common with the common aristotelian conception of   
 the physical universe. A physical universe cannot have input nor   
 output, without stopping being *the* physical universe. 

 This does not mean, than in the relative computation, some input can't   
 help. 





  Is there any instance in which a computation is employed in which no   
  program or data is input and from which no data is expected as output? 

 The UD. 


 Isn't everything output from the UD?


 No. The UD has no output. It is a non stopping program. everything 
 physical and theological appears through its intensional activity.



Appears = output.


 In fact it uses an intensional Church thesis. Not only all universal 
 machines can compute all computable functions, but they can all compute 
 them in all the possible ways to compute them. The intensional CT can be 
 derived from the usual extensional CT. Universal machines computes all 
 functions, but also in all the same and infinitely many ways.


How do we know they compute anything unless we input their output?

Craig
 




  




  This would suggest that computation can only be defined as a   
  meaningful product in a non-comp environment, otherwise there would   
  be no inputting and outputting, only instantaneous results within a   
  Platonic ocean of arithmetic truth. 


 A computation of a program without input can simulate different   
 programs having many inputs relative to other programs or divine (non- 
 machines) things living in arithmetic 


 How does the program itself get to be a program without being input?


 OK. Good question.

 The answer is that the TOE has to choose an initial universal system. I 
 use arithmetic (RA). 

 Then all programs or number are natural inputs of the (tiny) arithmetical 
 truth which emulates them.

 You need to understand that a tiny part of arithmetic defines all partial 
 computable relations. The quintessence of this is already in Gödel 1931. 




  





  Where do we find input and output within arithmetic though? 

 It is not obvious, but the sigma_1 arithmetical relation emulates all   
 computations, with all sort of relative inputs. 


 It seems to me though, and this is why I posted this thread, that i/o is 
 taken for granted and has no real explanation of what it is in mathematical 
 terms. 


 It is the argument of the functions in the functional relations. 

 If phi_i(j) = k then RA can prove that there is a number i which applied 
 to j will give k, relatively to some universal u, (and this trivially 
 relatively to arithmetic).







  What makes it happen without invoking a physical or experiential   
  context? 

 Truth. The necessary one, and the contingent one. 


 Does truth make things happen?


 Yes. truth('p') - p.
 If Obama is president is true, then Obama is president.



  




  
  As an aside, its interesting to play with the idea of building a   
  view of computation from a 

Tegmark's new book

2014-02-01 Thread Ronald Held
Liz I should have typed which of the two diametrically opposed camps
has the most members in it.

For another try I have read the following:


 arXiv:0704.0646 [pdf, ps, other]
Title: The Mathematical Universe
Authors: Max Tegmark (MIT)
arXiv:0707.2593 [pdf, ps, other]
Title: Many lives in many worlds
arXiv:0905.1283 [pdf, ps, other]
Title: The Multiverse Hierarchy
Authors: Max Tegmark (MIT)
arXiv:0905.2182 [pdf, ps, other]
Title: Many Worlds in Context

 including  arXiv:1401.1219 [pdf, other]
Title: Consciousness as a State of Matter

Am I going to getting anything different or more clearly explained in his book?
   Ronald

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-01 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 1, 2014 2:05:34 AM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 There seems to be a bit of confusion about this idea. Some people on the 
 list seem to abhor the idea of a block universe, but when they attack the 
 concept, they invariably go for straw men, making statements like change 
 can't happen in a block universe (which are obviously nonsense, or 
 Einstein et al would hardly have entertained the idea in the first place).

 So, I'd like to maybe clarify what the idea means, and give them a proper 
 target if they still want to demolish it.

 A block universe is simply one in which time is treated as a dimension. So 
 Newtonian physics, for example, specified a block universe, in which it was 
 believed (e.g. by Laplace) that in principle the past and future could be 
 computed from the state of the present. The Victorians made much of time 
 being the fourth dimension, probably most famously in Wells' The Time 
 Machine. This was the Newtonian concept of a block universe, and was 
 generally treated quite fatalistically (Wells didn't indicate that history 
 could be changed, for example).


 Then special relativity came along and unified space and time into 
 space-time. The reason SR gives rise to a block universe is the relativity 
 of simultaneity. 


The relativity of simultaneity, like the fatalistic Victorian view reveal 
that the BU makes all change epiphenomenal from the God's Eye perspective. 
That's ok, but we then have to find a way to meet ourselves halfway and 
explain why a universe in which change is present at all is even plausible, 
let alone the kind of intentional change that we seem to find ourselves 
participating in. The BU makes the physical equations make sense, but it 
doesn't explain anything about our experience of physics. Just as the 
relativity of simultaneity makes the absolutely solid-seeming sense of 
time's uniformity into a local arrangement, the BU makes all change into an 
unexplained localization and animation of the static block.
 

 You can slice up space-time in various ways which allow two observers to 
 see the same events occurring in a different order. Hence there is no way 
 to define a hyperplane of simultaneity that can be agreed upon by all 
 observers as being a present moment. This indicates that space-time is a 
 four-dimensional arena in which events are embedded. Indeed, I have never 
 heard of an alternative explanation of the relativity of simultaneity that 
 gets around this result - if it's correct, space-time is a block universe, 
 that is to say, time is just another dimension.


Just another dimension does not sit so well with thermodynamic 
irreversibility.  Could another dimension become irreversible instead. 
Could a creature exist who can travel backward in time using their feet, 
but is incapable of making a left turn?


 So classical physics posits a BU. Before worrying about QM, let's see what 
 the classical picture has to say about whether things can change in a block 
 universe. Change is defined as something being different at different times 
 - say the position of the Earth relative to the centre of the galaxy (it 
 traces out a wobbly spiral like a spring as it follows the Sun around an 
 almost circular orbit around the galactic centre every quarter of a billion 
 years). Does the fact that the Earth's orbit is a spiral embedded in 
 space-time prevent the Earth's position from changing? Clearly not. It 
 changes all the time.


Clearly from our perspective, which is not the perspective that the BU 
predicts, as far as I can tell.
 


 The same applies to any other changes that we observe. A person changes as 
 they get older - in the relativistic view these are cross sections through 
 their world-tube (or lifeline as Robert Heinlein put it). Particles move 
 through space - they trace out 4 dimensional world lines, but they can 
 still move. Everything we observe takes place in a manner that can be 
 placed within a space-time continuum such that a god's eye view (or the 
 relevant equations) would see it as static. But of course *we* don't see 
 it like that.

 This appears to be the source of the problem a few people have with this 
 concept, however - they appear to confuse the god's eye view with ours. But 
 of course we're embedded in space-time - along for the ride. So of course 
 we see change all the time.


Why 'of course'? How does the block embed parts of itself in itself? We see 
change, sure. We are along for the ride. What does the BU say about rides 
though?
 


 QM, perhaps a bit boringly, goes back to the Newtonian view. 


Or maybe catastrophically.
 

 Space and time are a background arena in which wave functions evolve with 
 time - which is of course a process that can be mapped out within a 4D 
 manifold. Indeed the equations involved are determinstic, and the famous 
 quantum probabilities have to be added by hand - so this is rather close 
 to the Newtonian view, apart from the ad hoc 

Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-02-01 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Hi John,

One might think it was the acceleration that slowed time on A's clock, BUT 
the point is that A's acceleration was only 1g throughout the entire trip 
which was exactly EQUAL to B's gravitational acceleration back on earth. So 
if the accelerations were exactly equal during the entire trip how could 
A's acceleration slow time but B's not slow time by the same amount?

Edgar



On Friday, January 31, 2014 1:59:59 PM UTC-5, John Clark wrote:




 On Thu, Jan 30, 2014 at 4:36 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

  A is traveling at near light speed most of the trip. That's why B sees 
 A's clock slow 


 Yes. And from A's point of view he's standing still and B is traveling at 
 near light speed, so A sees B's clock running slow. Both would see the 
 others clock as running slow.  However if A decided to join B so they could 
 shake hands and directly compare the times their clocks show then A is 
 going to have to accelerate, and then things would no longer be 
 symmetrical, then A would see B's clock running FAST but B would still see 
 A's clock run SLOW. So when they joined up again and compared clocks they 
 would not match, B's clock would be ahead and B would have aged more than A.

  So my question is this: Why does A's clock slowing turn out to be ACTUAL 
 (agreed by both A and B) when he stops at the center of the galaxy, and B's 
 slow clock slowing doesn't? 


 Because A stopped, and that means A must have accelerated but B did not.

   John K Clark




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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-02-01 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Brent,

But see my response to John. How can that work since the accelerations are 
both = 1g throughout the entire trip? By the Principle of Equivalence 
shouldn't they have the same effect on time then?

But if you say it's not the acceleration, but the distance through 
spacetime, then the distance through spacetime as measured by whom? A sees 
B move the exact SAME distance at the exact SAME rate through spacetime as 
B sees A move.

So why then has only A's clock ACTUALLY slowed when he reaches the galactic 
center? That seems to imply that there is some real absolute background 
space that A traveled through but not B. It seems to imply that spatial 
motion relative to the galaxy is somehow real and absolute. Is that what 
you are saying? Isn't that notion inconsistent with relativity?


Another point:

A couple days ago you said geometry doesn't slow time
Yesterday you said Everything is geometry
Yet time does slow...
So aren't those 2 statements contradictory?

Edgar



On Friday, January 31, 2014 8:25:33 PM UTC-5, Brent wrote:

  On 1/31/2014 10:59 AM, John Clark wrote:
  



 On Thu, Jan 30, 2014 at 4:36 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

   A is traveling at near light speed most of the trip. That's why B sees 
 A's clock slow 


  Yes. And from A's point of view he's standing still and B is traveling 
 at near light speed, so A sees B's clock running slow. Both would see the 
 others clock as running slow.  However if A decided to join B so they could 
 shake hands and directly compare the times their clocks show then A is 
 going to have to accelerate, and then things would no longer be 
 symmetrical, then A would see B's clock running FAST but B would still see 
 A's clock run SLOW. So when they joined up again and compared clocks they 
 would not match, B's clock would be ahead and B would have aged more than A.
  
   So my question is this: Why does A's clock slowing turn out to be 
 ACTUAL (agreed by both A and B) when he stops at the center of the galaxy, 
 and B's slow clock slowing doesn't? 


  Because A stopped, and that means A must have accelerated but B did not.


 That's right, but don't be misled into thinking it's the stress or 
 force of acceleration that slows the clock.  The acceleration just 
 changes the distance through spacetime.  It's not some effect that's making 
 the clock keep the wrong time.

 Brent
  

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-02-01 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Liz,

But see my responses to John and Brent on this ..

The question I'd ask you is why A's frame cannot be put into a single 
inertial frame of reference if his 1g acceleration was exactly the same as 
B's 1g acceleration during the ENTIRE trip?

Are you saying that the simple fact that the DIRECTION of A's 1g 
acceleration REVERSED at midpoint is the ONLY cause of A's clock slowing 
relative to B's?

Thanks,
Edgar


On Friday, January 31, 2014 11:17:06 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 07:59, John Clark johnk...@gmail.com javascript:wrote:

 On Thu, Jan 30, 2014 at 4:36 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

  A is traveling at near light speed most of the trip. That's why B sees 
 A's clock slow 


 Yes. And from A's point of view he's standing still and B is traveling at 
 near light speed, so A sees B's clock running slow. Both would see the 
 others clock as running slow.  However if A decided to join B so they could 
 shake hands and directly compare the times their clocks show then A is 
 going to have to accelerate, and then things would no longer be 
 symmetrical, then A would see B's clock running FAST but B would still see 
 A's clock run SLOW. So when they joined up again and compared clocks they 
 would not match, B's clock would be ahead and B would have aged more than A.

  So my question is this: Why does A's clock slowing turn out to be 
 ACTUAL (agreed by both A and B) when he stops at the center of the galaxy, 
 and B's slow clock slowing doesn't? 


 Because A stopped, and that means A must have accelerated but B did not.

 That's true, and can be rephrased as A's trajectory cannot be put into a 
 single inertial frame of reference, while B's can. Hence the symmetry 
 between them has to be broken at some point.

 There's an even simpler way to view this. A's path through space-time 
 forms two sides of a triangle, while B's forms the base. Since the two 
 sides of any triangle must be longer than the base, A must have taken a 
 longer path through space-time, which according to SR means he experienced 
 less duration. The twin paradox comes down to 4D geometry!



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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread David Nyman
On 1 February 2014 09:54, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

My poor car followed the schroedinger equation without effort, but at a
 higher level, it tooks her a lot of effort to climb some steep roads. Well,
 she died through such effort, actually.


RIP :-(

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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Bruno,

You have a very strange view of arithmetic if you think it is full of 
processor cycles.

Can you explain how that works? It seems to imply an innate notion of time.

Note that I agree with this, it's my p-time, but block universe and your 
block comp seem to be lacking it...

PLease explain in PLAIN ENGLISH rather than your usual cryptic notations 
and (undefined in the context) terminology..

Edgar



On Saturday, February 1, 2014 3:27:08 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 31 Jan 2014, at 13:13, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Liz,

 Your mouth sure has to move a lot to tell us it's not moving!

 The problem is not that static equations DESCRIBE aspects of reality. The 
 problem is that you are denying the flow of time.


 We deny a *primitive* and *ontological* flow of time. We don't deny the 
 internal experience of flow of time.



 For equations to compute (not just describe) reality, there must be active 
 processor cycles. There is simply NO way around that...


 Arithmetic is full of active processor cycles.

 Bruno



 Edgar



 On Thursday, January 30, 2014 10:24:48 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 Why do some people have such a problem with how change can emerge from 
 something static ? It's as simple as F = ma - a static equation describing 
 something changing. Change is by definition things being different at 
 different times. If you map out all the times involved as a dimension, you 
 will naturally get a static universe, just as putting together all the 
 moments making up a movie gives you a reel of film - but only from a God's 
 eye perspective. This is the perspective science gives us, the perspective 
 given by using equations and models and maps to describe reality; it isn't 
 the world of everyday experience, which (at best) views those equations and 
 so on from within (assuming for a moment they are so accurate as to be 
 isomorphic to reality).

 Obtaining change from the static view used by science is a non-problem, 
 and has been since Newton published his Principia.

 There *are* problems with comp, of course, like the white rabbit 
 problem. Does anyone have any new views on the real problems, rather than 
 worrying about straw men?


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 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/





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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread ghibbsa

On Thursday, January 30, 2014 2:35:49 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Dear Ghibbsa,

  
 Thanks for stepping in. And quite pleased to see you accept the obvious 
 fact that the twins DO share a common p-time present moment with different 
 clock times. 

,
There are major distinctions between 'allowing' that someone is right at 
one point, so as to pose a question at another point, and accepting what is 
being said. I
 
Then there are further distinctions between accepting the components 
of obviousness in an argument and accepting the reasoning for what it all 
may, or must, mean. Within that there are many 
distinctions arising from  'obviousness' itself, that impact heavily on 
what can be gleaned from that. 
 
You know the advantages...that it is reasonable to infer obviousness is 
saying something that is true. But the downside is that obviousness doesn't 
tell us how or little or what sense it is true at fundamental layers. The 
message from scientific methodologies is that it isn't the part that is 
true about obviousness that you have to worry about, but the implicit 
unrealized assumptions that sneak in under the cloak of obviousness. 
 
Because the downside of obviousness is the way our ability to make 
distinctions between things like that are diminished by it. Intuition - 
obviousness - because the process does not have access to wological 
reasoning components in our minds, has to work two ways to make something 
obvious. 
 
The thing to  obvious has to be brought front and centre in our minds. And 
so, all the little distinctions that stand in the way of that, have to be 
pulled back into the murk. If you want to use obviousness directly you 
have  to compensate heavily for that. And that is a methodological 
challenge, and with no offense meant, I do not see the hallmarks that you 
have done the necessary work in that area. 
 
Most notably because the most typical development in any serious concerted 
effort to make obviousness a useable perception, is recognition that the 
end argument you end up with, has to be free of all dependency on 
obviousness, or that absolutely minimized. 
 
Which necessary but insufficiently includes linguistically, because if 
someone says obviousness ever second sentence it's really hard to make an 
assessment just how flawed the argument is due to real as opposed to 
linguistic instances of leaving it in the end argument. 
 
Obviousness also makes for poor listening - another blow to making and 
sharing distinctions. I put a certain effort into framing my question, and 
you repeated your standard argument in response, which I have Obviously 
already read. What you didn't do is give me a little bit of r-time, to 
allow that I might just have a distinct matter resolved, but whether I do 
or not, I clearly want my question to be answered in the context I went to 
so much trouble to set up. 
 
I'm not complaining. There's a lot of problems with my own style...if I see 
traits in someone else the first importance is to use the perception to 
look to see where I'm doing a lot of the same thing myself. 
 
Where I would say I'm more clean is recognizing that for all the reasons 
above, obviousness needs to be taken out of end-arguments. Because yes 
those items are obvious, and yes there is something that is being said that 
is true with obviousness.  
 
Unfortunately, if Im right, you won't have listened that closely to 
anything said here. In which case, I'll mention I got some personal value 
saying it. Also...don't worry, be happy...being rock-solid committed to 
one's own long term progress trying to know the world, is far from the 
exception in science or human affairs. I feel just the same way about my 
own long term effort, except in my case I obviously hope I'm right.
 
 

 OK, so it is agreed that there is a shared LOCAL p-time present moment, 
 but, as you note, we still need to prove there is a common universal p-time 
 present moment.

 The argument that demonstrates that is simple, clear and convincing.

 1. The twins share a common p-time present moment BEFORE one starts his 
 trip.
 2. The twins share a common p-time present moment AFTER they meet up again 
 after the trip.
 3. DURING the trip each twin is always continually in his own local p-time 
 present moment.
 4. Local p-time flows continuously for both twins DURING the trip from the 
 time they part to the time they meet up again. There are no gaps in either 
 Twin's p-times.
 5. Therefore the other twin must ALWAYS be doing something in his p-time 
 present moment at the same time the other twin is also doing something in 
 his, because there is no time that each twin is not existing in their local 
 present moment. And that must be a one to one relationship, that is there 
 is always one and only one p-time present moment shared by the parted twins.
 6. Therefore there must be a common universal p-time present moment in 
 which every observer in the entire universe is currently doing 

Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread David Nyman
On 1 February 2014 12:13, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

No. The UD has no output. It is a non stopping program. everything
 physical and theological appears through its intensional activity.



 Appears = output.


I think I see the confusion here. Remember that in comp, as in any TOE, we
begin by hypothesising an ontological base for a universe (or multiverse)
from which we will attempt to derive all-else-that-exists (heaven help
us!). Hence ex hypothesi, there can be nothing outside that universe and
therefore no input or output in that sense. Neither comp nor any other
TOE can consistently make reference to input or output extrinsic to itself,
because that would simply be a contradiction in terms. Hence appearance
here can only refer to interactions or relationships between subsystems of
the universe entailed by the TOE and that must be true of any TOE
whatsoever. A fortiori, since comp *assumes* the presence of the UD and its
trace in arithmetic (in the same sense that any TOE starts by assuming some
ontological base), it cannot make any further sense to ask who or what
input the program. OK?

David

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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Ghibbsa,

I'm wondering why you'd want to suddenly change the subject from time to a 
rather rambling post on epistemology?

Perhaps you were afraid you might be coming close to agreeing with me on a 
present moment and afraid of the public consequences of that here on this 
group? I agree you'd have to be a pretty brave man to do that here!
:-)

And of course it is OBVIOUS that the twins share a common present moment 
when they compare clocks. Otherwise they couldn't compare clocks now could 
they? 

And you question that and condemn me for pointing it out?

Not only that you already AGREED with it in your previous post!

Edgar

 

On Saturday, February 1, 2014 8:45:40 AM UTC-5, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Thursday, January 30, 2014 2:35:49 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Dear Ghibbsa,

  
 Thanks for stepping in. And quite pleased to see you accept the obvious 
 fact that the twins DO share a common p-time present moment with different 
 clock times. 

 ,
 There are major distinctions between 'allowing' that someone is right at 
 one point, so as to pose a question at another point, and accepting what is 
 being said. I
  
 Then there are further distinctions between accepting the components 
 of obviousness in an argument and accepting the reasoning for what it all 
 may, or must, mean. Within that there are many 
 distinctions arising from  'obviousness' itself, that impact heavily on 
 what can be gleaned from that. 
  
 You know the advantages...that it is reasonable to infer obviousness is 
 saying something that is true. But the downside is that obviousness doesn't 
 tell us how or little or what sense it is true at fundamental layers. The 
 message from scientific methodologies is that it isn't the part that is 
 true about obviousness that you have to worry about, but the implicit 
 unrealized assumptions that sneak in under the cloak of obviousness. 
  
 Because the downside of obviousness is the way our ability to make 
 distinctions between things like that are diminished by it. Intuition - 
 obviousness - because the process does not have access to wological 
 reasoning components in our minds, has to work two ways to make something 
 obvious. 
  
 The thing to  obvious has to be brought front and centre in our minds. And 
 so, all the little distinctions that stand in the way of that, have to be 
 pulled back into the murk. If you want to use obviousness directly you 
 have  to compensate heavily for that. And that is a methodological 
 challenge, and with no offense meant, I do not see the hallmarks that you 
 have done the necessary work in that area. 
  
 Most notably because the most typical development in any serious concerted 
 effort to make obviousness a useable perception, is recognition that the 
 end argument you end up with, has to be free of all dependency on 
 obviousness, or that absolutely minimized. 
  
 Which necessary but insufficiently includes linguistically, because if 
 someone says obviousness ever second sentence it's really hard to make an 
 assessment just how flawed the argument is due to real as opposed to 
 linguistic instances of leaving it in the end argument. 
  
 Obviousness also makes for poor listening - another blow to making and 
 sharing distinctions. I put a certain effort into framing my question, and 
 you repeated your standard argument in response, which I have Obviously 
 already read. What you didn't do is give me a little bit of r-time, to 
 allow that I might just have a distinct matter resolved, but whether I do 
 or not, I clearly want my question to be answered in the context I went to 
 so much trouble to set up. 
  
 I'm not complaining. There's a lot of problems with my own style...if I 
 see traits in someone else the first importance is to use the perception to 
 look to see where I'm doing a lot of the same thing myself. 
  
 Where I would say I'm more clean is recognizing that for all the reasons 
 above, obviousness needs to be taken out of end-arguments. Because yes 
 those items are obvious, and yes there is something that is being said that 
 is true with obviousness.  
  
 Unfortunately, if Im right, you won't have listened that closely to 
 anything said here. In which case, I'll mention I got some personal value 
 saying it. Also...don't worry, be happy...being rock-solid committed to 
 one's own long term progress trying to know the world, is far from the 
 exception in science or human affairs. I feel just the same way about my 
 own long term effort, except in my case I obviously hope I'm right.
  
  

 OK, so it is agreed that there is a shared LOCAL p-time present moment, 
 but, as you note, we still need to prove there is a common universal p-time 
 present moment.

 The argument that demonstrates that is simple, clear and convincing.

 1. The twins share a common p-time present moment BEFORE one starts his 
 trip.
 2. The twins share a common p-time present moment AFTER they meet up 
 again after the trip.
 3. DURING 

Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 1, 2014 8:54:12 AM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 12:13, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript:
  wrote:

 No. The UD has no output. It is a non stopping program. everything 
 physical and theological appears through its intensional activity.



 Appears = output.


 I think I see the confusion here. Remember that in comp, as in any TOE, we 
 begin by hypothesising an ontological base for a universe (or multiverse) 
 from which we will attempt to derive all-else-that-exists (heaven help 
 us!). 


That can help explain why it is hard for others to understand my approach. 
I begin from the reductio ad absurdum of Cartesian doubt. I make no 
hypothesis and then see what must be unavoidably conceived. Ironically, it 
is from early experiences with programming games that it was impressed on 
me that the sense of things cannot be taken for granted. If you want 
graphics to bounce off of each other when they are moving, you have to 
define that collision detection and the behavior that follows. 

The problem with comp is that is does not see that computation itself also 
runs on a lower level language which (and here is where I start my 
hypothesis) is neither an immutable given nor is it an accumulation of 
accidents, but is the fundamental capacity for presence, participation, and 
the aesthetic enrichment of that presence through participation. 
Computation is, at best, a thin silhouette of sense, which does not 
participate and has no presence, but rather is the shared abstractions 
drawn from the same. Computation does not enrich itself qualitatively, nor 
does it have any plausible motive to pursue or avoid aesthetic discernments.
 

 Hence ex hypothesi, there can be nothing outside that universe and 
 therefore no input or output in that sense. 


Right. That's why Comp is a hypothesis about a mathematical toy model of 
some of the effects we associate with consciousness, not about 
consciousness itself.
 

 Neither comp nor any other TOE can consistently make reference to input or 
 output extrinsic to itself, 


Unless, like mine, your TOE makes I/O (unified as a sensory-motive dipole 
'sense') the foundation of Everything.
 

 because that would simply be a contradiction in terms. Hence appearance 
 here can only refer to interactions or relationships between subsystems of 
 the universe entailed by the TOE and that must be true of any TOE 
 whatsoever. 


Not if the TOE is sense-primitive. Since the whole idea of input and output 
stems from the aesthetic qualities of inside and outside, those terms, as 
well as all possible sensible terms, have in common the continuity of sense.
 

 A fortiori, since comp *assumes* the presence of the UD and its trace in 
 arithmetic (in the same sense that any TOE starts by assuming some 
 ontological base), it cannot make any further sense to ask who or what 
 input the program. OK?


I agree that is how it must appear to any non-sense based TOE. Only sense 
can allow theory to go beyond itself...in theory.

Craig
 


 David



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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-01 Thread David Nyman
On 1 February 2014 07:05, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

Everything we observe takes place in a manner that can be placed within a
 space-time continuum such that a god's eye view (or the relevant
 equations) would see it as static. But of course *we* don't see it like
 that.

 This appears to be the source of the problem a few people have with this
 concept, however - they appear to confuse the god's eye view with ours. But
 of course we're embedded in space-time - along for the ride. So of course
 we see change all the time.


Hi Liz

I'd just like to be clear that I'm not one of those attacking block (in the
sense of co-existent) models in physics or TOEs in general (comp, for
example). In fact I'd come to this view already some years back after
finally losing confidence in my previous adherence to presentism -
despite (or rather because of) trying unsuccessfully to defend it against
experts. That said, as you may have noticed, I'm rather interested in the
heuristics people employ to make intuitive sense of the frog view from
within the block, as Mad Max Tegmark calls it.

So in that spirit could I ask you to enlarge a little on just what you are
thinking about when you use the term we in your statements above? Who or
what are the we who don't see it like that, are along for the ride
and see change all the time? I'm thinking here specifically of the frog
or first-person perspective. Should we think of an extended frog, for
example, that is spread out over a co-existent series of moments, each of
which encodes a slightly different spatial-temporal perspective? If so, how
specifically can we account for the momentary frog that believes itself
always to be restricted to only one moment of that series, but is convinced
that it's not always the same one? After all, from the frog's perspective,
the appearance of an irreversible progression through a series of changes
in a singular spatial-temporal location is the most non-negotiable feature
of its very life.

If you feel that the best available answer is that it's all an illusion,
actually I wouldn't dispute that. But I'm interested in investigating the
detailed logic of that very illusion, in approximately the sense that we
can investigate and account logically for other illusions like the apparent
continuity of vision despite constant rapid ocular saccades. With respect
to the latter, we could probably say quite a lot about how the brain
contrives that particular illusion  Funnily enough, physicists also tend to
appeal loosely to the brain in response to the illusion of the passage of
time (it's psychology - not my subject). But, presumably we can say a
little more about what a brain might be doing in deleting the gaps between
ocular fixations, whereas we might be a bit in the dark about how the
brain (itself now conceived as a four-dimensional physical object spread
out over time) might contrive to manage the illusion of change in its own
apparent spatial-temporal location.

Is a series of frogs spread out over time, each believing it occupies a
different spatial-temporal location, equivalent to the apparent experience
of one frog occupying a single moment that keeps changing? By what logic do
we suppose this would this be distinguishable from the permanently
separated experiences of a series of individual frogs? IOW, why wouldn't
each of us have the permanent experience of being many different frogs
stuck in time, rather than one frog moving through time? These are not
intended to be rhetorical questions, by the way. IOW, saying that something
is an illusion is only the beginning of an explanation, not the conclusion
of one.

Comp may fare better here because it sets out on the path of elucidating
exactly how a we might be defined such that this we might entertain the
specific illusion of successive changes in its spatial-temporal location.
But for me, at least, this is more difficult to intuit with any precision
in a non-comp block concept, precisely because of the under-definition of
the referent for we. The frog perspective is assumed, rather than
elucidated. Anyway, as ever, your own thoughts would be much appreciated.

David

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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread ghibbsa

On Saturday, February 1, 2014 2:00:16 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Ghibbsa,

 I'm wondering why you'd want to suddenly change the subject from time to a 
 rather rambling post on epistemology?

 
I don't see it as epistemology save in the most literal sense of the word 
with no baggage allowed. I see it as potentially one of the really hard 
scientific obstacles in human discovery of the nature of reality. Hard 
because the sciences corresponding to this matter are far too early in the 
process of science to offer reliable knowledge. 
 
Certainly one choice is turning to philosophy. But the decision itself to 
do that, implicitly assumes an answer to the original fundamental question 
the scientific revolution threw up, which all other philosophical questions 
about science derive out of. Which actually begins as an obvious 
observation that no one has ever disagreed about: that something 
historically unique was happening with science, of a fundamental nature. 
 
It's the answer to that question the philosophies disagree about. More 
precisely, it was how to reason the matter the philosophies disagreed 
about, given it is reasoning by which one philosophy distinguishes itself 
from another. 
 
The general problem I have with that process, arises from the fact the 
question being asked was Is there a component of this historical 
uniqueness that is fundamental to science and only science 
 
Doing philosophy on that question, implies that that question can be 
resolved by non-scientific philosophy, which implies if something was 
fundamental and totally unique to one thing, it could nevertheless be 
fundamentally discovered and understood by something else that did not 
contain anything of that thing being understood. 
 
I don't think that makes sense, not in the end. Because it is assuming the 
answer is NO, nothing was unique about science and only science. 
 
I think that about this much, we should be in agreement, because you draw 
on precisely the same insight, but in a different context, that 
computability pre-requires sameness. Albeit that's only a core agreement. 
It doesn't mean that I apply it correctly, or that you do. We don't have to 
agree about that even if we do agree about the fundamental insight. Because 
how something is applied is fundamental in its own right. 
 
By the same coin we can agree that you draw on perceptions that are 
obvious, and which do say something true. But that does not mean we will 
agree about how that truth needs to be treated and applied. 
 
I seriously fell off my chair laughing at your response here Edgar. Just 
stop for a moment, and see this from an equally true alternative angle. 
What are you drawing on is obviously true. But it's obviously true to 
everyone. You don't own the obvious part Edgar. We all own that part. What 
you own, is how you apply it. You own your methods. You own your reasoning. 
You own your conclusions. But you own the original obviousness, that you 
can attach obviousness to your conclusions. That you cannot do. Or you can, 
but you won't be taking rationality or logic with you. So you won't be 
taking other serious thinkers either. 
 

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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread ghibbsa

On Saturday, February 1, 2014 3:53:06 PM UTC, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Saturday, February 1, 2014 2:00:16 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Ghibbsa,

 I'm wondering why you'd want to suddenly change the subject from time to 
 a rather rambling post on epistemology?

  
 I don't see it as epistemology save in the most literal sense of the word 
 with no baggage allowed. I see it as potentially one of the really hard 
 scientific obstacles in human discovery of the nature of reality. Hard 
 because the sciences corresponding to this matter are far too early in the 
 process of science to offer reliable knowledge. 
  
 Certainly one choice is turning to philosophy. But the decision itself to 
 do that, implicitly assumes an answer to the original fundamental question 
 the scientific revolution threw up, which all other philosophical questions 
 about science derive out of. Which actually begins as an obvious 
 observation that no one has ever disagreed about: that something 
 historically unique was happening with science, of a fundamental nature. 
  
 It's the answer to that question the philosophies disagree about. More 
 precisely, it was how to reason the matter the philosophies disagreed 
 about, given it is reasoning by which one philosophy distinguishes itself 
 from another. 
  
 The general problem I have with that process, arises from the fact the 
 question being asked was Is there a component of this historical 
 uniqueness that is fundamental to science and only science 
  
 Doing philosophy on that question, implies that that question can be 
 resolved by non-scientific philosophy, which implies if something was 
 fundamental and totally unique to one thing, it could nevertheless be 
 fundamentally discovered and understood by something else that did not 
 contain anything of that thing being understood. 
  
 I don't think that makes sense, not in the end. Because it is assuming the 
 answer is NO, nothing was unique about science and only science. 
  
 I think that about this much, we should be in agreement, because you draw 
 on precisely the same insight, but in a different context, that 
 computability pre-requires sameness. Albeit that's only a core agreement. 
 It doesn't mean that I apply it correctly, or that you do. We don't have to 
 agree about that even if we do agree about the fundamental insight. Because 
 how something is applied is fundamental in its own right. 
  
 By the same coin we can agree that you draw on perceptions that are 
 obvious, and which do say something true. But that does not mean we will 
 agree about how that truth needs to be treated and applied. 
  
 I seriously fell off my chair laughing at your response here Edgar. Just 
 stop for a moment, and see this from an equally true alternative angle. 
 What are you drawing on is obviously true. But it's obviously true to 
 everyone. You don't own the obvious part Edgar. We all own that part. What 
 you own, is how you apply it. You own your methods. You own your reasoning. 
 You own your conclusions. But you own the original obviousness, that you 
 can attach obviousness to your conclusions. That you cannot do. Or you can, 
 but you won't be taking rationality or logic with you. So you won't be 
 taking other serious thinkers either. 

 
But you own the original obviousness, that you can attach obviousness to 
your conclusions was OBVIOUSLY meant to say you do not own 

  


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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 9:00 AM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:



 And of course it is OBVIOUS that the twins share a common present moment
 when they compare clocks. Otherwise they couldn't compare clocks now could
 they?


The fact that they can compare clocks, and agree for example that twin A's
turning 30 coincides with twin B's turning 40, is because they are making
the comparison at the same point in spacetime (assuming ideal point-like
observers*), and in relativity, all observers agree on which events
coincide at the same point in spacetime (I've asked you several times
whether you agree this is always true in relativity but you have refused so
far to answer). Another way of putting it is that in any spacetime
coordinate system for labeling the space and time coordinates of different
events, the event twin A turns 30 would have to be labeled with the same
coordinate time (and coordinate position) as the event twin B turns 40.
In no way does any of this imply the notion of an objective common
present for events which do NOT coincide at the same point in spacetime.

*Of course real observers aren't point-like, but if you think of extended
observers who compare clocks a few feet apart, there could be disagreements
over which event happened first in precise terms (whether we're talking
about visual observations of the events, or which event happened first in
some inertial frame), but we can say that everyone would agree the two
events happened within a few tiny fractions of a nanosecond from each
other, so for all practical purposes there is no disagreement about the
fact that twin A turning 30 coincided with twin B turning 40.

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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread David Nyman
On 1 February 2014 15:44, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote

Neither comp nor any other TOE can consistently make reference to input or
 output extrinsic to itself,


 Unless, like mine, your TOE makes I/O (unified as a sensory-motive dipole
 'sense') the foundation of Everything.


So are you saying, as it would appear above, that your TOE refers to
explanatory entities outside of its own domain? If so it would be
incoherent in its own terms.

I'm sorry Craig, but I can't really make head or tail of your arguments or
even most of your vocabulary. I responded to you in this case because you
appeared to be making a criticism of comp based on its lack of input and
output. I attempted to make the point that no TOE, in general, can do this
and remain consistent. In your reply to me you indicate agreement (right)
at various junctures but without apparently grasping the significance to
your argument of the actual points I'm making. The same comment applies to
the discussion I've been attempting to have with you about the POPJ, which
you have not, as yet, replied to. If you do decide to reply, I would
appreciate it if you would do so in a manner that directly addresses the
points I'm making, rather than changing the subject or talking as though
your theory somehow automatically trumps any logical objection without
actually addressing it.

I don't mean to sound patronising (although I suspect it's unavoidable that
I will) but your ideas strike me as very similar to many others in Theory
of Mind, of the general flavour of panpsychism or panexperientialism, going
back to Berkeley and indeed much farther than that. For a number of years I
entertained similar ideas as the only way to reconcile the indubitability
of consciousness with an apparently physical world. In fact, I developed a
whole vocabulary for this not dissimilar to your own, with which I
proceeded to confuse anyone who would listen to me, including some of those
on this list a few years ago.

However, eventually I came to see that this approach isn't in fact capable
of solving the problems it sets out to tackle, though I appreciate this
isn't necessarily widely recognised. The problem with panpsychist
approaches isn't that it's obvious that everything isn't conscious
(because we shouldn't expect that to be obvious) but rather that everything
we perceive as extrinsic (and most particularly including our own
apparently physical selves) specifically *behaves* according to a rigorous
set of rules that vitiate and make redundant any notion of consciousness
and block any access to it. This is, in effect, the POPJ. It bites
panpsychism as it bites physicalsim and - forgive me - I think it would
behove you to give the matter some more serious thought.

As to comp, my reading of your criticisms lead me to the conclusion that
you have never yet properly understood it (independent of whether it turns
out to be true of our reality). Like you, I have spent much time with
computers and had independently reached the conclusion that thinking and
experiencing could not in any way be the same as what computers do. Indeed
this was my frame of mind when in 1984 I encountered John Searle's Chinese
Room argument which he presented very convincingly in his BBC Reith
Lectures of that year. So when I came across Bruno's ideas on this list
about seven years ago I had plenty of arguments, as I thought, to demolish
them. However, I gradually came to realise, through Bruno's patience and
expertise, that computer science is no more the study of computers (the
study of which is a branch of engineering) than astronomy is the study of
telescopes. Hence your criticisms of comp on the basis of your observations
of the current state of computer engineering are simply beside the point.
You need to up your game here if you really seek to defeat Bruno's
arguments rather than simply misunderstand them.

Anyway, back to the POPJ, if you have the stomach for it!

Cordially

David




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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 11:30 AM, Jesse Mazer laserma...@gmail.com wrote:



 The fact that they can compare clocks, and agree for example that twin
 A's turning 30 coincides with twin B's turning 40, is because they are
 making the comparison at the same point in spacetime (assuming ideal
 point-like observers*), and in relativity, all observers agree on which
 events coincide at the same point in spacetime


Sorry, ignore The fact that at the beginning of that sentence, it was
part of a different first sentence which I edited in writing up my message.

Jesse

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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 1, 2014 11:32:03 AM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 15:44, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript:
  wrote

 Neither comp nor any other TOE can consistently make reference to input or 
 output extrinsic to itself, 


 Unless, like mine, your TOE makes I/O (unified as a sensory-motive dipole 
 'sense') the foundation of Everything.


 So are you saying, as it would appear above, that your TOE refers to 
 explanatory entities outside of its own domain? If so it would be 
 incoherent in its own terms.


It refers to explanatory entities which would be identical to its own 
domain, but the domain is greater than all 'entity' or 'domain'.
 

  
 I'm sorry Craig, but I can't really make head or tail of your arguments or 
 even most of your vocabulary. I responded to you in this case because you 
 appeared to be making a criticism of comp based on its lack of input and 
 output. I attempted to make the point that no TOE, in general, can do this 
 and remain consistent. In your reply to me you indicate agreement (right) 
 at various junctures but without apparently grasping the significance to 
 your argument of the actual points I'm making.


I'm saying that you are right in your reasoning based on your assumptions, 
but I'm proposing that the hypothesis I'm using is a completely new kind of 
assumption which breaks from previous expectations. Your account is right 
because it matches the consensus, but the hypothesis I'm using goes beyond 
the consensus.
 

 The same comment applies to the discussion I've been attempting to have 
 with you about the POPJ, which you have not, as yet, replied to. If you do 
 decide to reply,


I must have lost the thread. This Google Groups format is always burying 
threads for me. If I can find it, I'll definitely reply.
 

 I would appreciate it if you would do so in a manner that directly 
 addresses the points I'm making, rather than changing the subject or 
 talking as though your theory somehow automatically trumps any logical 
 objection without actually addressing it.


I would appreciate it if you would stick with the subject that I'm trying 
to communicate also. If you don't see how my 'theory' automatically trumps 
any logical objection then you don't understand my theory fully. Primordial 
Identity Pansensitivity means that logic is derived as a second order 
phenomenon within sense.
 


 I don't mean to sound patronising (although I suspect it's unavoidable 
 that I will) but your ideas strike me as very similar to many others in 
 Theory of Mind, of the general flavour of panpsychism or 
 panexperientialism, going back to Berkeley and indeed much farther than 
 that. 


Berkeley was on the right track, but you need to also add in Leibniz, 
Einstein, maybe Deleuze, and Lao Tzu. I don't mean to sound patronizing, 
but your objections strike me as very similar to many others who I have had 
conversations with before.
 

 For a number of years I entertained similar ideas as the only way to 
 reconcile the indubitability of consciousness with an apparently physical 
 world. In fact, I developed a whole vocabulary for this not dissimilar to 
 your own, with which I proceeded to confuse anyone who would listen to me, 
 including some of those on this list a few years ago.

 However, eventually I came to see that this approach isn't in fact capable 
 of solving the problems it sets out to tackle, though I appreciate this 
 isn't necessarily widely recognised. The problem with panpsychist 
 approaches isn't that it's obvious that everything isn't conscious 
 (because we shouldn't expect that to be obvious) but rather that everything 
 we perceive as extrinsic (and most particularly including our own 
 apparently physical selves) specifically *behaves* according to a rigorous 
 set of rules that vitiate and make redundant any notion of consciousness 
 and block any access to it. This is, in effect, the POPJ. It bites 
 panpsychism as it bites physicalsim and - forgive me - I think it would 
 behove you to give the matter some more serious thought.


I get around that with perceptual relativity. When flying over a city, it 
doesn't look like there are millions of conscious entities - not because 
their behavior is limited to a set of rules, but because your vantage point 
amplifies the insensitivity of your perceptual frame. By modulating 
frequency and scale, perceptual histories diverge and alienate each other's 
presence. The more extreme the alienation, the more the quality of what is 
perceived appears mechanical. There is more to it than that, but the new 
principle I'm introducing I call eigenmorphism. 
http://multisenserealism.com/thesis/6-panpsychism/eigenmorphism/
 


 As to comp, my reading of your criticisms lead me to the conclusion that 
 you have never yet properly understood it (independent of whether it turns 
 out to be true of our reality). Like you, I have spent much time with 
 computers and had independently 

Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Ghibbsa,

Boy, you are really taking some giant leaps here!

Just because I point out that a local present moment is obvious IN NO WAY 
is a claim that that insight is original with me! That's a crazy inference.

The fact is that 99.999% of everyone on earth throughout history has had 
the same insight which they also knew was obvious. That in fact is one 
reason it can be stated as obvious with such confidence. Because everyone 
(expect a few who's heads are so deep in their physics books they can't 
pull them out to look around at actual reality) observes it first hand in 
their own experience every moment of their lives...

All I can conclude is that your comment above was not objective but 
unfortunately based on some personal antipathy...

Edgar



On Saturday, February 1, 2014 10:53:06 AM UTC-5, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Saturday, February 1, 2014 2:00:16 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Ghibbsa,

 I'm wondering why you'd want to suddenly change the subject from time to 
 a rather rambling post on epistemology?

  
 I don't see it as epistemology save in the most literal sense of the word 
 with no baggage allowed. I see it as potentially one of the really hard 
 scientific obstacles in human discovery of the nature of reality. Hard 
 because the sciences corresponding to this matter are far too early in the 
 process of science to offer reliable knowledge. 
  
 Certainly one choice is turning to philosophy. But the decision itself to 
 do that, implicitly assumes an answer to the original fundamental question 
 the scientific revolution threw up, which all other philosophical questions 
 about science derive out of. Which actually begins as an obvious 
 observation that no one has ever disagreed about: that something 
 historically unique was happening with science, of a fundamental nature. 
  
 It's the answer to that question the philosophies disagree about. More 
 precisely, it was how to reason the matter the philosophies disagreed 
 about, given it is reasoning by which one philosophy distinguishes itself 
 from another. 
  
 The general problem I have with that process, arises from the fact the 
 question being asked was Is there a component of this historical 
 uniqueness that is fundamental to science and only science 
  
 Doing philosophy on that question, implies that that question can be 
 resolved by non-scientific philosophy, which implies if something was 
 fundamental and totally unique to one thing, it could nevertheless be 
 fundamentally discovered and understood by something else that did not 
 contain anything of that thing being understood. 
  
 I don't think that makes sense, not in the end. Because it is assuming the 
 answer is NO, nothing was unique about science and only science. 
  
 I think that about this much, we should be in agreement, because you draw 
 on precisely the same insight, but in a different context, that 
 computability pre-requires sameness. Albeit that's only a core agreement. 
 It doesn't mean that I apply it correctly, or that you do. We don't have to 
 agree about that even if we do agree about the fundamental insight. Because 
 how something is applied is fundamental in its own right. 
  
 By the same coin we can agree that you draw on perceptions that are 
 obvious, and which do say something true. But that does not mean we will 
 agree about how that truth needs to be treated and applied. 
  
 I seriously fell off my chair laughing at your response here Edgar. Just 
 stop for a moment, and see this from an equally true alternative angle. 
 What are you drawing on is obviously true. But it's obviously true to 
 everyone. You don't own the obvious part Edgar. We all own that part. What 
 you own, is how you apply it. You own your methods. You own your reasoning. 
 You own your conclusions. But you own the original obviousness, that you 
 can attach obviousness to your conclusions. That you cannot do. Or you can, 
 but you won't be taking rationality or logic with you. So you won't be 
 taking other serious thinkers either. 
  


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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

Yes, that being at the same point in spacetime is CALLED the present 
moment that I'm talking about.

You are probably repeating the claim that 'coordinate time' falsifies 
p-time. It doesn't. Coordinate time is an attempt to explain the obvious 
problems with clock time not actually explaining a common present moment 
that obviously exists. This is done by coordinate time saying OK we have to 
account for the twins being at the same point in spacetime when they 
compare clocks so let's just invent a coordinate system that acts as if 
clock time doesn't have any effect on something we will call coordinate 
time.

Basically coordinate time is just an attempt to account for the obviousness 
of a present moment without actually calling it a 2nd kind of time but 
rather just a 2nd kind of spacetime coordinate system in a single kind of 
time.

Coordinate time is half way to p-time but hasn't incorporated the whole 
insight... It basically says let's pretend clock time doesn't really happen 
so the twins can end up at the SAME point of spacetime because it's obvious 
they actually did. But then it remembers that clock time is real and actual 
too because it is measurable. Therefore there is a CONTRADICTION between 
coordinate time and clock time that p-time resolves by recognizing that 
p-time and clock time are actually 2 separate kinds of time, which 
coordinate time doesn't.

Edgar



On Saturday, February 1, 2014 11:30:26 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 9:00 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:



 And of course it is OBVIOUS that the twins share a common present moment 
 when they compare clocks. Otherwise they couldn't compare clocks now could 
 they? 


 The fact that they can compare clocks, and agree for example that twin 
 A's turning 30 coincides with twin B's turning 40, is because they are 
 making the comparison at the same point in spacetime (assuming ideal 
 point-like observers*), and in relativity, all observers agree on which 
 events coincide at the same point in spacetime (I've asked you several 
 times whether you agree this is always true in relativity but you have 
 refused so far to answer). Another way of putting it is that in any 
 spacetime coordinate system for labeling the space and time coordinates of 
 different events, the event twin A turns 30 would have to be labeled with 
 the same coordinate time (and coordinate position) as the event twin B 
 turns 40. In no way does any of this imply the notion of an objective 
 common present for events which do NOT coincide at the same point in 
 spacetime.

 *Of course real observers aren't point-like, but if you think of extended 
 observers who compare clocks a few feet apart, there could be disagreements 
 over which event happened first in precise terms (whether we're talking 
 about visual observations of the events, or which event happened first in 
 some inertial frame), but we can say that everyone would agree the two 
 events happened within a few tiny fractions of a nanosecond from each 
 other, so for all practical purposes there is no disagreement about the 
 fact that twin A turning 30 coincided with twin B turning 40.
  

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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Quentin Anciaux
You're so a joke... cannot doubt your own genius eh !


2014-02-01 Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net:

 Jesse,

 Yes, that being at the same point in spacetime is CALLED the present
 moment that I'm talking about.

 You are probably repeating the claim that 'coordinate time' falsifies
 p-time. It doesn't. Coordinate time is an attempt to explain the obvious
 problems with clock time not actually explaining a common present moment
 that obviously exists. This is done by coordinate time saying OK we have to
 account for the twins being at the same point in spacetime when they
 compare clocks so let's just invent a coordinate system that acts as if
 clock time doesn't have any effect on something we will call coordinate
 time.

 Basically coordinate time is just an attempt to account for the
 obviousness of a present moment without actually calling it a 2nd kind of
 time but rather just a 2nd kind of spacetime coordinate system in a single
 kind of time.

 Coordinate time is half way to p-time but hasn't incorporated the whole
 insight... It basically says let's pretend clock time doesn't really happen
 so the twins can end up at the SAME point of spacetime because it's obvious
 they actually did. But then it remembers that clock time is real and actual
 too because it is measurable. Therefore there is a CONTRADICTION between
 coordinate time and clock time that p-time resolves by recognizing that
 p-time and clock time are actually 2 separate kinds of time, which
 coordinate time doesn't.

 Edgar



 On Saturday, February 1, 2014 11:30:26 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 9:00 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net wrote:



 And of course it is OBVIOUS that the twins share a common present moment
 when they compare clocks. Otherwise they couldn't compare clocks now could
 they?


 The fact that they can compare clocks, and agree for example that twin
 A's turning 30 coincides with twin B's turning 40, is because they are
 making the comparison at the same point in spacetime (assuming ideal
 point-like observers*), and in relativity, all observers agree on which
 events coincide at the same point in spacetime (I've asked you several
 times whether you agree this is always true in relativity but you have
 refused so far to answer). Another way of putting it is that in any
 spacetime coordinate system for labeling the space and time coordinates of
 different events, the event twin A turns 30 would have to be labeled with
 the same coordinate time (and coordinate position) as the event twin B
 turns 40. In no way does any of this imply the notion of an objective
 common present for events which do NOT coincide at the same point in
 spacetime.

 *Of course real observers aren't point-like, but if you think of extended
 observers who compare clocks a few feet apart, there could be disagreements
 over which event happened first in precise terms (whether we're talking
 about visual observations of the events, or which event happened first in
 some inertial frame), but we can say that everyone would agree the two
 events happened within a few tiny fractions of a nanosecond from each
 other, so for all practical purposes there is no disagreement about the
 fact that twin A turning 30 coincided with twin B turning 40.

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-- 
All those moments will be lost in time, like tears in rain. (Roy
Batty/Rutger Hauer)

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-02-01 Thread John Clark
On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 7:57 AM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 One might think it was the acceleration that slowed time on A's clock,
 BUT the point is that A's acceleration was only 1g throughout the entire
 trip which was exactly EQUAL to B's gravitational acceleration back on
 earth. So if the accelerations were exactly equal during the entire trip
 how could A's acceleration slow time but B's not slow time by the same
 amount?


If A were going into space and accelerating upward off the surface of the
Earth at one g (32 feet per second per second), then he would be
experiencing 2g, one g from the Earth and one g from his continuing change
in upward velocity.

 both = 1g throughout the entire trip


No, not during the entire trip. And if the space traveler ever wants to
return to Earth to rejoin his friend so they can directly compare their
clocks then he's going to have to change the direction of his acceleration
by 180 degrees. So their clocks will not match because their travel
experiences were not symmetrical.

  John K Clark

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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread David Nyman
On 1 February 2014 16:55, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

If you don't see how my 'theory' automatically trumps any logical objection
 then you don't understand my theory fully.


That is truly hilarious Craig! I cannot help being reminded of Luther's
admonition that To be a Christian, you must pluck out the eye of reason..
Are you looking for converts rather than debate? I have no idea how you
expect me or anyone else to understand your theory if you continue
sidestep all logical objections to your ideas.

David

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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread ghibbsa

On Saturday, February 1, 2014 5:13:29 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Ghibbsa,

 Boy, you are really taking some giant leaps here!

 Just because I point out that a local present moment is obvious IN NO WAY 
 is a claim that that insight is original with me! That's a crazy inference.

 The fact is that 99.999% of everyone on earth throughout history has had 
 the same insight which they also knew was obvious. That in fact is one 
 reason it can be stated as obvious with such confidence. Because everyone 
 (expect a few who's heads are so deep in their physics books they can't 
 pull them out to look around at actual reality) observes it first hand in 
 their own experience every moment of their lives...

 All I can conclude is that your comment above was not objective but 
 unfortunately based on some personal antipathy...

 Edgar

 
I didn't mean and wasn't talking about ownership in that totally trivial 
and commonplace sense Edgar. I have more respect for anyone in a science 
list to assume they'd make a mistake that stupid, certainly including you. 
But are you showing me any reciprocal respect in the totally superficial 
way you are interpreting everything I am saying? 
 
I can assure you there's no antipathy. But may I point out these threads 
are littered with similar allegations from you to various others, in one 
form or another. And most of the rest have been pointing to more or less 
the same shortcoming that I now have to point to. You don't read anything 
carefully. You don't take arguments seriously. You don't entertain you 
might be wrong, or that someone else might have an important criticism for 
you that you need to hear. Your words might say different here and there, 
but in the thick of it, your behaviour says something else. 
 
Why didn't you respect me that I wouldn't be making such a stupid point as 
you think you own the present moment? 
 
Why didn't you respect Liz that she wouldn't be raising questions if she 
didn't think they were important problems your theory was facing? How do 
you think things work Edgar? 
 
Several other people too. And the rest clearly not respected in terms of 
the distinctive point they are trying to make being entertained properly by 
first you establishing, say by asking clarifying questions, what that 
distinctive point actually is. 
 
Why do you not entertain, that these paranoid allegations you are throwing 
out so often, have something to do with the pattern of superficial readings 
of other peoples contributions by you, despite these threads being even 
more littered with other people pointing this out, one way or another? 
 
What I just said to you, was pointing to what you are effectively DOING, 
not what you are explicitly believing. 'Ownership' is a metaphor in a 
context like this. I'm saying you are ASSUMING your conclusions have a 
similar obviousness - certainty - about them as the seed insights. 
 
You are doing that. In your words and vocabularly. In your responses to 
people, in that you Obviously feel your conclusions are so obvious or 
concrete, that any prolonged resistence must be poorly motivated one way or 
another. In the way you are reading what people have to say, that no more 
than intellectual skimming is necessary becausemore obviousness. 
 
You are attaching obviousness through your reasoning and conclusions. 
Effectively you are doing that. That's a criticism Edgar. It isn't 
antipathy. 

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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread David Nyman
On 1 February 2014 16:55, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

I must have lost the thread. This Google Groups format is always burying
 threads for me. If I can find it, I'll definitely reply.


I see you use gmail, like me. Why don't you just filter messages from this
group to a gmail folder? Then gmail manages each thread as a conversation
very naturally. I've found it very easy to keep track this way and it's
much quicker too.

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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

Perhaps i could understand better what you are saying if you could kindly 
explain in detail step by step a COORDINATE time analysis of how the twins 
start at the SAME point in spacetime and end up at the SAME point in 
spacetime but with different clock times.

And please describe what the actual coordinates of that SAME point are? 
What is the common t value of that same point that makes it the same point? 
If there is no common t value that describes that point then how can it be 
the same point? How do you know it's the same point if it doesn't have a 
common t value? Explain please?

The t value of that point obviously can't be the clock time t values of 
that point because they are different.

Thanks,
Edgar



On Saturday, February 1, 2014 11:30:26 AM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 9:00 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:



 And of course it is OBVIOUS that the twins share a common present moment 
 when they compare clocks. Otherwise they couldn't compare clocks now could 
 they? 


 The fact that they can compare clocks, and agree for example that twin 
 A's turning 30 coincides with twin B's turning 40, is because they are 
 making the comparison at the same point in spacetime (assuming ideal 
 point-like observers*), and in relativity, all observers agree on which 
 events coincide at the same point in spacetime (I've asked you several 
 times whether you agree this is always true in relativity but you have 
 refused so far to answer). Another way of putting it is that in any 
 spacetime coordinate system for labeling the space and time coordinates of 
 different events, the event twin A turns 30 would have to be labeled with 
 the same coordinate time (and coordinate position) as the event twin B 
 turns 40. In no way does any of this imply the notion of an objective 
 common present for events which do NOT coincide at the same point in 
 spacetime.

 *Of course real observers aren't point-like, but if you think of extended 
 observers who compare clocks a few feet apart, there could be disagreements 
 over which event happened first in precise terms (whether we're talking 
 about visual observations of the events, or which event happened first in 
 some inertial frame), but we can say that everyone would agree the two 
 events happened within a few tiny fractions of a nanosecond from each 
 other, so for all practical purposes there is no disagreement about the 
 fact that twin A turning 30 coincided with twin B turning 40.
  

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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 1, 2014 12:47:31 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 16:55, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript:
  wrote:

 If you don't see how my 'theory' automatically trumps any logical 
 objection then you don't understand my theory fully.


 That is truly hilarious Craig! I cannot help being reminded of Luther's 
 admonition that To be a Christian, you must pluck out the eye of reason.. 
 Are you looking for converts rather than debate? I have no idea how you 
 expect me or anyone else to understand your theory if you continue 
 sidestep all logical objections to your ideas.


I don't expect anything and I'm not looking for anything. I'm explaining 
why logic is theoretical representation rather than aesthetic presentation, 
and that the distinction between the two is the key to solving the hard 
problem of consciousness, explanatory gap, symbol grounding problem, and 
binding/combination problem. It doesn't matter what we think about it, it 
just matters that we understand why logic has limits and emerges from 
feeling rather than the other way around. Once we understand why logic has 
limits, and that representations of truth do not have any power to 
experience or cause experience, the we can stop demanding that reality 
conform to the expectations of theory.

Craig
 


 David



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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 1, 2014 12:54:10 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 16:55, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript:
  wrote:

 I must have lost the thread. This Google Groups format is always burying 
 threads for me. If I can find it, I'll definitely reply.


 I see you use gmail, like me. Why don't you just filter messages from this 
 group to a gmail folder? Then gmail manages each thread as a conversation 
 very naturally. I've found it very easy to keep track this way and it's 
 much quicker too.


Eh, I've had formatting issues in the past when I try to respond through 
Gmail. 

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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread David Nyman
On 1 February 2014 18:14, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

 Eh, I've had formatting issues in the past when I try to respond through
 Gmail.


Try using rich formatting and just interpolate your answers, snipping as
necessary. It works really well for me.

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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 12:31 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 Yes, that being at the same point in spacetime is CALLED the present
 moment that I'm talking about.



But your present moment goes beyond that and says that there is an
objective common present moment for events that are *not* at the same
point in spacetime. My point is that you have no real argument for
generalizing there is an objective truth about whether events coincide at
the same point in spacetime to there is an objective truth about whether
events occur at the same time, event if they are at different points in
spacetime--the first does not in any way imply the second.



 You are probably repeating the claim that 'coordinate time' falsifies
 p-time. It doesn't. Coordinate time is an attempt to explain the obvious
 problems with clock time not actually explaining a common present moment
 that obviously exists. This is done by coordinate time saying OK we have to
 account for the twins being at the same point in spacetime when they
 compare clocks so let's just invent a coordinate system that acts as if
 clock time doesn't have any effect on something we will call coordinate
 time.


No, coordinate time is not meant to explain how events can coincide in
spacetime--rather the basic starting assumption is that spacetime has an
objective geometry, different coordinate systems are just ways of labeling
that geometry. Think of a globe, with outlines of continents, rivers etc.
on it. It's certainly true that you can *describe* the shape of a river or
coastline or whatever using some coordinate system defined on the globe
(latitude and longitude for example), but the actual geometry of the
shapes--including the notion of the length along a particular path
between two points (like the length along a river between between two
branching points)--is assumed to be more fundamental, prior to any choice
of coordinate system. Physicists think of spacetime like that--it has an
objective geometry, defined in terms of the lengths of any possible path
(whether timelike, spacelike or lightlike). Coordinate systems are
just ways of labeling this preexisting geometry, and all coordinate systems
must agree on these more basic geometric facts (like the proper time
along a timelike path between two events). In general relativity the basic
idea of the metric is to translate between coordinate intervals and
real geometric quantities like proper time--the equations of the metric
will look different when expressed in different coordinate systems, but in
each coordinate system you can integrate the metric to calculate proper
time along any timelike path, and you'll get the same answer in each case.

Suppose instead of a globe we are talking about geometry on a flat plane,
which has some roads on it. The geometry of the shape of the roads, the
distance along each road between any two points, is again taken as
fundamental, but here it would be natural to define a Cartesian coordinate
system on the plane to label points, with an x and a y axis. But we have a
choice of how to orient these axes--depending on the angle of the axes
relative to the geometric features like roads, we may get different answers
to questions like do these two points along the road have the same
y-coordinate or different y coordinates? This is akin to how in flat
spacetime, we can choose different inertial coordinate systems which give
different answers to questions like do these two events have the same
t-coordinate or different t coordinates?

But clearly for roads on a plane, there is an objective geometric truth
about questions like do these two roads ever meet at the same point on the
plane? or if these two roads cross at points A and B, what is the length
along each road between A and B? The answers to these questions don't
depend on your choice of cartesian coordinate system. Similarly there is an
objective answer, in terms of the geometry of paths through spacetime, to
questions like do these two worldlines ever meet at the same point in
spacetime? or if these two worldlines cross at events A and B, what is
the proper time elapsed on each worldline between A and B?

In contrast, your argument seems to be that in order to make sense of
questions like how much has each twin aged between the point where they
departed and the point where they reunited, we need an objective
t-coordinate which gives a single correct answer to whether two events
happened at the same t-coordinate or different t-coordinates. But in terms
of the analogy, this would be like if someone claimed there was no way to
talk about the distance along different roads between places where they
cross without having an objective cartesian coordinate system which gives
a single correct answer to whether two points in space share the same
y-coordinate. Presumably you understand why this is silly in the case of 2D
geometry, so why isn't it just as silly when it comes to the geometry of
paths in 4D spacetime? 

Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-02-01 Thread Edgar L. Owen
John,

First, 2 substantial errors in your post below.

1. I stated that A began his trip from earth ORBIT, not from blasting off 
from earth's surface, so A's acceleration is 1g for the ENTIRE trip. But 
even if he blasted off from earth's surface at 2g that would have a 
negligible and irrelevant effect on his clock because it would only last 
for a few minutes. This is obvious because returning astronauts' clocks are 
different by a hardly measurable amount.

2. A's direction of acceleration doesn't JUST change if he decides to 
return. It reverses at the MIDPOINT of the trip so he can slow and stop at 
the galactic center. If he returns if would have to change it again at 
midpoint.

So the points you make are not relevant to the discussion.

However note also that the DIRECTION of B's acceleration is also 
continually changing relative to A's motion simply because the earth is 
rotating. 

So how does any change in the direction of acceleration of A have an effect 
but the continual change in direction of B's acceleration does not?

Edgar



On Saturday, February 1, 2014 12:46:17 PM UTC-5, John Clark wrote:




 On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 7:57 AM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

  One might think it was the acceleration that slowed time on A's clock, 
 BUT the point is that A's acceleration was only 1g throughout the entire 
 trip which was exactly EQUAL to B's gravitational acceleration back on 
 earth. So if the accelerations were exactly equal during the entire trip 
 how could A's acceleration slow time but B's not slow time by the same 
 amount?


 If A were going into space and accelerating upward off the surface of the 
 Earth at one g (32 feet per second per second), then he would be 
 experiencing 2g, one g from the Earth and one g from his continuing change 
 in upward velocity.

  both = 1g throughout the entire trip


 No, not during the entire trip. And if the space traveler ever wants to 
 return to Earth to rejoin his friend so they can directly compare their 
 clocks then he's going to have to change the direction of his acceleration 
 by 180 degrees. So their clocks will not match because their travel 
 experiences were not symmetrical. 

   John K Clark





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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Feb 2014, at 14:31, David Nyman wrote:


On 1 February 2014 09:54, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

My poor car followed the schroedinger equation without effort, but  
at a higher level, it tooks her a lot of effort to climb some steep  
roads. Well, she died through such effort, actually.


RIP :-(


Well I was a bit metaphorical 'course, and thanks to God my poor car  
was not haunted by metaphysical question on its own effort---I think.
But stress is a term in material resistance, and some metal have  
some memories.
In his book réflexion sur la science des machines, 1932,  Jacques  
Lafitte' favorite example of machine is ... the house.
House can have memories, so much they can look haunted, which is all  
pleasure for the movie makers.


Bruno





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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-02-01 Thread John Clark
On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 4:24 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  then feel free to invoke some non-comp or invoke more comp if that
 floats your boat, I no longer care. I've given up trying to find a
 consistent definition of your silly little word comp that is used on this
 list and nowhere else.


 False.


False? Who else besides you and a few other members of this list has even
heard of comp? Take a look at this:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Comp

Wikipedia lists 27 possible meanings of the word comp and not one of
those 27 meanings has anything to do with AI or mind or the brain or
consciousness or determinism or materialism or information.  Not one!

  Your endless homemade acronyms that you pretend every educated person
 should know get tiresome too.

  Childish immature remark.


Perhaps, but out of the mouth of babes comes truth. The fact is your
acronyms are even more obscure than comp is.


   once you believe that your consciousness is invariant for some
 digital transformation


  I do believe that.

  Good. That's comp.


Apparently comp involves a great deal more than that, in particular a lot
of vague pee pee crap.

 Although it doesn't necessarily follow the digital transformation of
 consciousness is perfectly consistent with the matter in the desk I'm
 pounding my hand on right now as simply being a subroutine in the johnkclak
 program, and the same is true of the matter in my hand.


  Only by a confusion 1p and 3p,


OK now were getting to the heart of the matter (no pun indented).  Explain
exactly why my statement above is confused and or wrong and you will have
won this year old debate.

 you are stuck at the step 3.


John Clark is stuck when Bruno Marchal constantly sneaks in personal
pronouns like you and I in a proof about personal identity, and when
reading about  the 3p as if were one universal thing, but Bruno Marchal's
3p is John Clark's 1p.

 You are the only person stuck in step 3 that I know.


I guess they didn't make it that far, but it's been over a year and to be
honest I don't even remember what the first 2 steps were, they may have
been just as silly as step 3.

 John k Clark

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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

Not correct. My present moment does NOT say that there is an objective 
common present moment for events that are *not* at the same point in 
spaceTIME (my emphasis).

My theory says that there is a common universal present moment shared by 
all points in SPACE, not spaceTIME. Because clocktimes can obviously have 
different t values within that present moment.

Second, thanks for the long explication following, which I more or less 
agree with.

But my question remains: If coordinate time is just an alternate coordinate 
system then for the twins to be at the SAME place in that coordinate system 
there must be some actual t-value describing that point that both twins 
agree upon. What is that t value, and how does it relate to the t values of 
the clock times of the twins' two different clocks?

What is the actual coordinate time t-value of that point in which the twins 
have different clock time t-values? If coordinate time is just a different 
choice of coordinate system you must be able to answer this question and 
provide a t value that is the same for both twins.

And of course there simply is NO clock that displays that coordinate time t 
value is there? Doesn't that make it highly suspect and give my argument 
some merit? There seems to be NO way to actually measure coordinate time. 
So as I said, it's just a calculation, not an actual OBSERVABLE empirical 
FACT. That seems to imply it has no objective reality doesn't it?

Thanks,
Edgar



On Saturday, February 1, 2014 1:21:41 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:




 On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 12:31 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 Yes, that being at the same point in spacetime is CALLED the present 
 moment that I'm talking about.



 But your present moment goes beyond that and says that there is an 
 objective common present moment for events that are *not* at the same 
 point in spacetime. My point is that you have no real argument for 
 generalizing there is an objective truth about whether events coincide at 
 the same point in spacetime to there is an objective truth about whether 
 events occur at the same time, event if they are at different points in 
 spacetime--the first does not in any way imply the second.
  


 You are probably repeating the claim that 'coordinate time' falsifies 
 p-time. It doesn't. Coordinate time is an attempt to explain the obvious 
 problems with clock time not actually explaining a common present moment 
 that obviously exists. This is done by coordinate time saying OK we have to 
 account for the twins being at the same point in spacetime when they 
 compare clocks so let's just invent a coordinate system that acts as if 
 clock time doesn't have any effect on something we will call coordinate 
 time.


 No, coordinate time is not meant to explain how events can coincide in 
 spacetime--rather the basic starting assumption is that spacetime has an 
 objective geometry, different coordinate systems are just ways of labeling 
 that geometry. Think of a globe, with outlines of continents, rivers etc. 
 on it. It's certainly true that you can *describe* the shape of a river or 
 coastline or whatever using some coordinate system defined on the globe 
 (latitude and longitude for example), but the actual geometry of the 
 shapes--including the notion of the length along a particular path 
 between two points (like the length along a river between between two 
 branching points)--is assumed to be more fundamental, prior to any choice 
 of coordinate system. Physicists think of spacetime like that--it has an 
 objective geometry, defined in terms of the lengths of any possible path 
 (whether timelike, spacelike or lightlike). Coordinate systems are 
 just ways of labeling this preexisting geometry, and all coordinate systems 
 must agree on these more basic geometric facts (like the proper time 
 along a timelike path between two events). In general relativity the basic 
 idea of the metric is to translate between coordinate intervals and 
 real geometric quantities like proper time--the equations of the metric 
 will look different when expressed in different coordinate systems, but in 
 each coordinate system you can integrate the metric to calculate proper 
 time along any timelike path, and you'll get the same answer in each case.

 Suppose instead of a globe we are talking about geometry on a flat plane, 
 which has some roads on it. The geometry of the shape of the roads, the 
 distance along each road between any two points, is again taken as 
 fundamental, but here it would be natural to define a Cartesian coordinate 
 system on the plane to label points, with an x and a y axis. But we have a 
 choice of how to orient these axes--depending on the angle of the axes 
 relative to the geometric features like roads, we may get different answers 
 to questions like do these two points along the road have the same 
 y-coordinate or different y coordinates? This is akin to how in flat 
 

Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread David Nyman
On 1 February 2014 18:08, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

I don't expect anything and I'm not looking for anything. I'm explaining
 why logic is theoretical representation rather than aesthetic presentation,
 and that the distinction between the two is the key to solving the hard
 problem of consciousness, explanatory gap, symbol grounding problem, and
 binding/combination problem. It doesn't matter what we think about it, it
 just matters that we understand why logic has limits and emerges from
 feeling rather than the other way around. Once we understand why logic has
 limits, and that representations of truth do not have any power to
 experience or cause experience, the we can stop demanding that reality
 conform to the expectations of theory.


But in general you don't explain it, you merely assert it. And from what I
can understand from a reading of your assertions on the subject, you don't
seem to be saying much that hasn't been said in some form many times
before, and which turns out to have formidable problems of its own
(unsurprisingly, given the intractability of the subject area to the best
minds of history). What I've presented to you in the form of the POPJ, for
example, is a strong objection and merely asserting that it doesn't apply
doesn't cut the mustard.

By the way, you often seem to use the term theory in a naively
disparaging way, as in it works in theory but it doesn't work in
practice. This of course is a contradiction in terms. If it doesn't work
in practice it can't work in the (correct) theory. No one else, AFAICT -
certainly not me - is demanding that reality conform to the expectations
of theory if that theory is incorrect. For that very reason a theory is
only useful insofar as its assumptions and principles of derivation can be
made sufficiently constrained and explicit. We then have some hope of
comparing theory with practice (not reality, since we can have only ever
make a bet on some connection between belief and truth).

Nowhere in my reading of you do you explicitly state your assumptions, or
how their consequences are to be derived. Bruno for one repeatedly asks you
to do this but you don't respond. I've tried most recently to intuit what
some of them might be (it's not that hard, actually) and offer you some
straightforward objections but your typical response is to deflect, ignore,
rhapsodise, change the subject or claim, without argument, that they don't
apply in your case. Actually, if in addition you can't find the threads
this creates a further barrier to communication. But whatever the reason
the overall effect is to vitiate the whole point and purpose of discussion
and frankly it makes me wonder why you bother.

I see that I am scolding you and that is not really my goal. I would like
to penetrate further into your theory if that is possible using the medium
of rational discourse. I have a life-long interest in the subject area and
if you could persuade me that you really were the possessor of a totally
new insight I should certainly not want to miss it. So if you can find the
thread (actually I pretty much restated the paradox in this one) by all
means let's have another go.

David

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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Feb 2014, at 13:10, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Saturday, February 1, 2014 5:09:05 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 31 Jan 2014, at 22:58, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Friday, January 31, 2014 4:16:12 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:
On 1 February 2014 09:39, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:
 Is there any instance in which a computation is employed in which  
no
 program or data is input and from which no data is expected as  
output?


The UD.

Isn't everything output from the UD?

No, as I understand it, only the appearance of everything. (Comp  
answers the question why is there something rather than nothing  
by it depends what you mean by something...)


Ok, so then everything is output from the UD plus output from  
whatever computater you are saying generates everything that is not  
an appearance.


It is misleading to say that the UD output anything, as it is a non  
stopping program. It has no output in the common computer science  
meaning.


Then what does it actually do?



It generates all programs, petit-Ă -petit, and all inputs, petit-Ă - 
petit, and it present those inputs to the programs, in such a way that  
it emulates all programs, including those who never stop, as we can  
purge  them in advance.


The UD itself has no input and no output, but it generates all  
programs and emulate their executions on all inputs.








Think about a dreaming brain. Your partner in bed is sleepy and make  
a dream. there are no input output,


Not with the world outside of your body, but within the dream, the  
whole thing is input and output.


Possible. Apparently at the level of neurons, and perhaps below.



You receive dream experiences and you project your participation in  
them, just as you would with your body in a world of bodies. In a  
dream, you are in a semi-world of perceptions instead.


In a nocturnal dream, OK. With comp when awake we are in infinities  
of such dreams, and comp explains why this has to interfere  
statistically below our common substitution level.







but there is still an experience which can be related to the brain  
activity. In that dreams, some entities can have inputs and outputs.
Input and outputs are relative notions. Then a machine without  
inoput and output can imitate machines having them.


Imitation is an output.


Imitation, like emulation, is more a process, or a program activity.  
It is a sequences or a tree of states. Output are like number, you can  
write them, or transforms them into pixels.




It's based on an input. If you have never heard how someone speaks,  
you cannot imitate them - because imitation is an output which  
requires sensory input.



In our history, but we write books, and we have memories which sum up  
well the relevant information.


But in arithmetic you have freely all informations, and this  
structured, notably by the presence of universal numbers. The  
universal numbers can only explore a reality that transcend them.













How does the program itself get to be a program without being input?

See genetic algorithms for one example. See genetics for another. A  
blind watchmaker can make a computer programme, although we can  
normally write one a lot more efficiently.


Genetics are absorbing all kinds of inputs and producing outputs.  
The blind watchmaker is a theory about evolution, not an example of  
a real computation which is known to be without input or output.



It seems to me though, and this is why I posted this thread, that i/ 
o is taken for granted and has no real explanation of what it is in  
mathematical terms.


No mathematical explanation for what input and output are?! They  
both come down to binary digits, how mathematical do you want it to  
be?


What are the binary digits which define input?


Look up any assembly language.

But assembly language must be input into a computer before that.



Yes, that is why we need to postulate one computer, or one turing  
universal system. I take arithmetic (the natural numbers + the laws of  
addition and multiplication) as everyone knows that.


That very elementary arithmetic is Turing universal is well known by  
computer scientist.


The arithmetical truth is vastly bigger than the computable  
arithmetical truth, but with comp, that computable part plays the key  
role in structuring both the computable and the non computable part of  
the (arithmetical) truth.


Bruno







Craig


Bruno






The rest of your post seems a lot more sensible and I will leave  
those questions for Bruno to agree or disagree, I would also like  
to know how numbers can make an effort (as would Xenocrates! If  
John will forgive the reference...)



Cool.

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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Feb 2014, at 13:13, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Saturday, February 1, 2014 4:54:47 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 31 Jan 2014, at 21:39, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Friday, January 31, 2014 2:47:01 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 31 Jan 2014, at 03:23, Craig Weinberg wrote:

 Maybe it will help to make the sense-primitive view clearer if we
 think of sense and motive as input and output.

 This is only a step away from Comp, so it should not be construed  
to
 mean that I am defining sense and motive as merely input and  
output.

 My purpose here is just to demonstrate that Comp takes so much for
 granted that it is not even viable as a primitive within its own
 definitions.

 Can we all agree that the notion of input and output is
 ontologically essential to the function of computation?

Bad luck Craig!

Not only the notion of input-output is not essential for computation,
but we can argue in many ways that input-output are inessential.

A deep one is the discovery of the combinators, which provides a way
to do math and computers without variables. You still need some
variable at the metalevel, but all formal objects, program and
computations are object without variables. This is exploited in
compilation theory, and in some proof theory.

Then there is the SMN theorem, which says basically that you can
simulate a function with two variables (two inputs) by mechanically
enumerable collection of functions of one variable.

Here too, the S90 particular case says that you can simulate  
functions
of 9 variables with effective enumeration of functions of 0  
variables,

that is without input.

Recursion theory is fundamentally non dimensional.

Take the UD.

A UD dovetailing only on the programs without input is equivalent  
with

a UD dovetailing on the programs having infinitely many inputs
(streams).

And, to finish, the UD itself is a program without input and without
output. It computes in an intensional very complex way, nothing from
nothing.

The UD has this in common with the common aristotelian conception of
the physical universe. A physical universe cannot have input nor
output, without stopping being *the* physical universe.

This does not mean, than in the relative computation, some input  
can't

help.





 Is there any instance in which a computation is employed in which  
no
 program or data is input and from which no data is expected as  
output?


The UD.

Isn't everything output from the UD?


No. The UD has no output. It is a non stopping program. everything  
physical and theological appears through its intensional activity.



Appears = output.


Appears to me appears more like input to me. Output of of some  
universe?


Input/output, like hardware/software are important distinction, but  
yet they are relative. My output to you is your input, for example.  
They are indexicals too.








In fact it uses an intensional Church thesis. Not only all universal  
machines can compute all computable functions, but they can all  
compute them in all the possible ways to compute them. The  
intensional CT can be derived from the usual extensional CT.  
Universal machines computes all functions, but also in all the same  
and infinitely many ways.


How do we know they compute anything unless we input their output?



Oh! It is a bit perverse to input the output, but of course that's  
what we do when we combine two machines to get a new one. Like getting  
a NAND gate from a NOT and a AND gates.


We can also input to a machine its own input, which is even more  
perverse, and usually this leads to interesting fixed points, many  
simple iterations leads to chaos. The Mandelbrot set illustrates this.


But the point is that we don't have to feed the program at the bottom  
level, if you can imagine that 17 is prime independently of you, then  
arithmetic feeds all programs all by itself, independently of you.


This is not entirely obvious, and rather tedious and long to prove but  
follows from elementary computer science.


Bruno




Craig









 This would suggest that computation can only be defined as a
 meaningful product in a non-comp environment, otherwise there would
 be no inputting and outputting, only instantaneous results within a
 Platonic ocean of arithmetic truth.


A computation of a program without input can simulate different
programs having many inputs relative to other programs or divine  
(non-

machines) things living in arithmetic

How does the program itself get to be a program without being input?


OK. Good question.

The answer is that the TOE has to choose an initial universal  
system. I use arithmetic (RA).


Then all programs or number are natural inputs of the (tiny)  
arithmetical truth which emulates them.


You need to understand that a tiny part of arithmetic defines all  
partial computable relations. The quintessence of this is already in  
Gödel 1931.











 Where do we find input and output within arithmetic though?

It is not 

Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Feb 2014, at 14:39, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Bruno,

You have a very strange view of arithmetic if you think it is full  
of processor cycles.


It is the standard understanding of computer science. That is  
understood (by the theoricians) since Gödel 1931 (symbolically, as  
some have seen this before, and some have made the point more  
transparent, and stronger later).





Can you explain how that works? It seems to imply an innate notion  
of time.


You need the ordering 0, s(0), s(s(0)), ... that you can derive from  
the first axioms:


0≠s(x)  (for all x)
x≠y - s(x) ≠ s(y), (for all x, and y).

and

x + 0 = x   (for all x)
x + s(y) = s(x + y), (for all x, and y).

x  y van be defined by

Ez(y + z = x  (z ≠ 0))

This gives already a digital time which can be used to defined the  
step notion for the computations.


A computation is the sequence of steps of a universal machine when  
emulated by another universal machine.


As elementary arithmetic is Turing complete, we can take elementary  
arithmetic as the base system, and define computation in term of all  
the universal numbers that we can define in arithmetic (we get them  
all, by Church thesis).


It is long to define a universal numbers, and its computations, just  
in terms of 0, s, + and *, but that can be done, and is done in most  
textbook in theoretical computer science.







Note that I agree with this, it's my p-time, but block universe and  
your block comp seem to be lacking it...


I still don't know what is your p-time. I still don't know if it is 1p  
or 3p, mathematical or physical, etc.







PLease explain in PLAIN ENGLISH rather than your usual cryptic  
notations and (undefined in the context) terminology..


Just ask when you don't understand, but you seem to ignore what is a  
computation for a computer scientists.


You might read the original papers assembled by Martin Davis 1964. It  
exists in the Dover edition now.
Or a good introductory book like the one by Neil Cutland. Or wait that  
I rexplain the real basic 5cantor and Kleene diagonal) which unlike  
logic, are rather simple, I think.


But a priori, computability has nothing to do with physics, or  
physical implementation of computer. A computation is an intensional  
relative (relational) number property.



Bruno





Edgar



On Saturday, February 1, 2014 3:27:08 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 31 Jan 2014, at 13:13, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Liz,

Your mouth sure has to move a lot to tell us it's not moving!

The problem is not that static equations DESCRIBE aspects of  
reality. The problem is that you are denying the flow of time.


We deny a *primitive* and *ontological* flow of time. We don't deny  
the internal experience of flow of time.





For equations to compute (not just describe) reality, there must be  
active processor cycles. There is simply NO way around that...


Arithmetic is full of active processor cycles.

Bruno




Edgar



On Thursday, January 30, 2014 10:24:48 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:
Why do some people have such a problem with how change can emerge  
from something static ? It's as simple as F = ma - a static  
equation describing something changing. Change is by definition  
things being different at different times. If you map out all the  
times involved as a dimension, you will naturally get a static  
universe, just as putting together all the moments making up a  
movie gives you a reel of film - but only from a God's eye  
perspective. This is the perspective science gives us, the  
perspective given by using equations and models and maps to  
describe reality; it isn't the world of everyday experience, which  
(at best) views those equations and so on from within (assuming for  
a moment they are so accurate as to be isomorphic to reality).


Obtaining change from the static view used by science is a non- 
problem, and has been since Newton published his Principia.


There are problems with comp, of course, like the white rabbit  
problem. Does anyone have any new views on the real problems,  
rather than worrying about straw men?



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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Feb 2014, at 16:44, Craig Weinberg wrote:


Only sense can allow theory to go beyond itself...in theory.


Löbian machine can use their G*-G difference to go beyond itself, and  
perhaps generate sense, at their own risk and peril. But the sense  
will be mediated by the different points view. Only the 1p views (with  
the  p occurrence in their arithmetical definition) get the 1p  
sense (the sense per se).


Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 1:58 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 Not correct. My present moment does NOT say that there is an objective
 common present moment for events that are *not* at the same point in
 spaceTIME (my emphasis).

 My theory says that there is a common universal present moment shared by
 all points in SPACE, not spaceTIME. Because clocktimes can obviously have
 different t values within that present moment.



That's just semantics, I was using the standard terminology of relativity,
if you want to change the meaning of terms you're free to translate my
statement into your own terminology, but I don't think I got the *meaning*
of your theory wrong. When I said not at the same point in spacetime I
meant events that someone using the labeling system of mainstream physics
would say occur at different points in spacetime, which in terms of your
own theory could cover both events at different p-times as well as events
at the same p-time but different points in space. You believe that for any
pair of events that a physicist says happen at different points in
spacetime, there is an objective truth about whether they happened at the
same time, different points in space or different times. The set of all
events that are happening at the same p-time as what I am experiencing here
and now would be the objective common present moment, and these are
events a physicist would label as having different points in spacetime,
regardless of how you would label them. So that's what I meant when I said
that you believed there was an objective common present moment for events
that are not at the same point in spacetime.




 Second, thanks for the long explication following, which I more or less
 agree with.

 But my question remains: If coordinate time is just an alternate
 coordinate system then for the twins to be at the SAME place in that
 coordinate system there must be some actual t-value describing that point
 that both twins agree upon. What is that t value, and how does it relate to
 the t values of the clock times of the twins' two different clocks?



Actual t value in a specific coordinate system, or in some objective
coordinate-independent sense? If the former then sure, within the context
of any given inertial coordinate system there is a specific t-value where
they reunite. You asked in another comment I hadn't responded to yet for an
example, so I'll give you one here. Suppose we have an inertial coordinate
system in which the Earth is at rest (ignoring the fact that it orbits and
doesn't really move inertially for the sake of argument), and in this
system it's located at position x=0 light-years, and there is another
distant planet which I'll call Planet X which is 24 light years away from
Earth, and at rest in Earth's frame so it's always located at x=24 light
years in this frame (assume they both lie along the x-axis so the other
spatial dimensions can be ignored). At t=0 years in this system, two twins,
Alan and Bob, are born on Earth, and each one is given a clock to mark
their age (proper time). Then Bob is immediately placed on a ship which
accelerates in a negligible time to 0.8c in the Earth frame, after which it
moves at constant velocity towards Planet X. Since Planet X is 24
light-years away it arrives there after 24/0.8 = 30 years, at time t=30 in
the Earth frame. Then the ship accelerates in a negligible time so it is
moving at 0.6c back towards Earth. Then the return leg will take a time of
24/0.6 = 40 years in the Earth frame. So when Bob returns to Earth, a total
of 30+40 years have elapsed in the Earth frame, so they reunite at
coordinate time t=70 in this frame (and position x=0, since Earth is at
rest at this position).

Since Alan has been at rest on Earth the whole time, his clock has been
keeping pace with coordinate time in this frame (or with the actual
physical clocks at rest in this frame which can be used to define
coordinate time, as I mentioned in my last comment), so he will be 70 years
old. To find Bob's age we must use the time dilation equation, which says
that if a clock is moving at speed v relative to a given inertial frame, in
a time interval of T in that frame it will only elapse a time of T*sqrt(1 -
v^2/c^2). So if the first leg of the journey from Earth to Planet X lasted
a time of T=30 years in the Earth frame, and Bob was traveling at 0.8c, he
will have aged by 30*sqrt(1 - 0.8^2) = 18 years between leaving Earth and
reaching Planet X. Then since the second leg from Planet X back to Earth
lasted a time of T=40 years in the Earth frame, and Bob was traveling at
0.6c, during this leg his age increased by 40*sqrt(1 - 0.6^2) = 32 years.
So, when Bob arrives back at Earth his age is 18+32=50 years, twenty years
younger than Alan.

If we transform this whole scenario into a different frame, the time
coordinates at which Bob arrives at Planet X and arrives back at Earth will
be different, and these frames won't agree that Alan was 30 years 

Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread David Nyman
On 1 February 2014 16:55, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

I get around that with perceptual relativity. When flying over a city, it
 doesn't look like there are millions of conscious entities - not because
 their behavior is limited to a set of rules, but because your vantage point
 amplifies the insensitivity of your perceptual frame. By modulating
 frequency and scale, perceptual histories diverge and alienate each other's
 presence. The more extreme the alienation, the more the quality of what is
 perceived appears mechanical.


I don't see that you make your point here. How does your vantage point
amplifies the insensitivity of your perceptual frame get around anything?
ISTM rather that the quality of what is perceived appears mechanical
because when placed under examination at any scale it can be observed to
adhere to an unvarying and causally-closed set of rules (the ones we group
under the heading of physical). In effect, it appears to be a mechanism
at all scales. The inexorable progress of this analysis of physical
appearances has so far trumped every historical attempt to interpolate
novel top-down rules operating at other levels (spiritualism, vitalism,
holism, dualism etc.). Comp, as I've said, at the least confronts the
problem and offers the possible shape of a solution (but that alone, of
course, doesn't guarantee its correctness).

The value of any genuinely new insight (Relativity Theory, for example) is
not in ignoring the previous theory (Newtonian mechanics in this case) but
rather in providing a better explanation for the predictions of the old
theory whilst simultaneously making new and surprising ones that turn out
to match observation better. Consequently, if your theory is to prevail, it
must be able to explain why appearance - and especially the appearance of
conscious behaviour, not excluding your own - conforms to physical
causation as precisely as we observe. This physical conformity of
appearance is the reason that the theory cannot avoid the POPJ - in essence
that we don't need, or seem even be able to apply, the notion of
consciousness or sense to explain why the creatures that appear to us -
including ourselves - make the claims to those phenomena that they do. What
you say above doesn't suffice to address this formidable issue at all.

David

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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 1, 2014 2:16:43 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 01 Feb 2014, at 13:13, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Saturday, February 1, 2014 4:54:47 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 31 Jan 2014, at 21:39, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Friday, January 31, 2014 2:47:01 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 31 Jan 2014, at 03:23, Craig Weinberg wrote: 

  Maybe it will help to make the sense-primitive view clearer if we   
  think of sense and motive as input and output. 
  
  This is only a step away from Comp, so it should not be construed to   
  mean that I am defining sense and motive as merely input and output.   
  My purpose here is just to demonstrate that Comp takes so much for   
  granted that it is not even viable as a primitive within its own   
  definitions. 
  
  Can we all agree that the notion of input and output is   
  ontologically essential to the function of computation? 

 Bad luck Craig! 

 Not only the notion of input-output is not essential for computation,   
 but we can argue in many ways that input-output are inessential. 

 A deep one is the discovery of the combinators, which provides a way   
 to do math and computers without variables. You still need some   
 variable at the metalevel, but all formal objects, program and   
 computations are object without variables. This is exploited in   
 compilation theory, and in some proof theory. 

 Then there is the SMN theorem, which says basically that you can   
 simulate a function with two variables (two inputs) by mechanically   
 enumerable collection of functions of one variable. 

 Here too, the S90 particular case says that you can simulate functions   
 of 9 variables with effective enumeration of functions of 0 variables,   
 that is without input. 

 Recursion theory is fundamentally non dimensional. 

 Take the UD. 

 A UD dovetailing only on the programs without input is equivalent with   
 a UD dovetailing on the programs having infinitely many inputs   
 (streams). 

 And, to finish, the UD itself is a program without input and without   
 output. It computes in an intensional very complex way, nothing from   
 nothing. 

 The UD has this in common with the common aristotelian conception of   
 the physical universe. A physical universe cannot have input nor   
 output, without stopping being *the* physical universe. 

 This does not mean, than in the relative computation, some input can't   
 help. 





  Is there any instance in which a computation is employed in which no   
  program or data is input and from which no data is expected as output? 

 The UD. 


 Isn't everything output from the UD?


 No. The UD has no output. It is a non stopping program. everything 
 physical and theological appears through its intensional activity.



 Appears = output.


 Appears to me appears more like input to me. Output of of some universe?

 Input/output, like hardware/software are important distinction, but yet 
 they are relative. My output to you is your input, for example. They are 
 indexicals too.


Sure, but they are absolute within a given frame of reference. You cannot 
write a program which bypasses the need for inputs and outputs by 
substituting them for a different kind of function. It goes back to what I 
keep saying about not being able to substitute software for a cell phone 
charger or a video monitor, or the difference between playing a sport and 
playing a game which simulates a sport.
 







 In fact it uses an intensional Church thesis. Not only all universal 
 machines can compute all computable functions, but they can all compute 
 them in all the possible ways to compute them. The intensional CT can be 
 derived from the usual extensional CT. Universal machines computes all 
 functions, but also in all the same and infinitely many ways.


 How do we know they compute anything unless we input their output?



 Oh! It is a bit perverse to input the output, but of course that's what we 
 do when we combine two machines to get a new one. Like getting a NAND gate 
 from a NOT and a AND gates.

 We can also input to a machine its own input, which is even more perverse, 
 and usually this leads to interesting fixed points, many simple 
 iterations leads to chaos. The Mandelbrot set illustrates this.

 But the point is that we don't have to feed the program at the bottom 
 level, if you can imagine that 17 is prime independently of you, then 
 arithmetic feeds all programs all by itself, independently of you.

 This is not entirely obvious, and rather tedious and long to prove but 
 follows from elementary computer science.


The arithmetic truth of 17 being prime doesn't do anything though. That 
fact needs to be used in the context of some processing of an input to 
produce an output.

Craig
 


 Bruno



 Craig
  




  




  This would suggest that computation can only be defined as a   
  meaningful product in a non-comp environment, otherwise there would   
  be no inputting and 

Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Bruno,

A mathematical ordering is static and does NOT move. It is not a flowing 
time. Doesn't matter if you claim there is some 1p perspective that is a 
mathematical ordering. Unless some primitive time, such as my p-time, flows 
then nothing moves and you most certainly would NOT be posting your 
opinions here.

And I don't care what is a computation for a computer scientists [sic] is.

I care what actual computations continually compute the current state of 
reality. You claim various problems with computations but reality actually 
does continually compute its current state with NO problem at all.

Edgar



On Saturday, February 1, 2014 2:33:43 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 01 Feb 2014, at 14:39, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Bruno,

 You have a very strange view of arithmetic if you think it is full of 
 processor cycles.


 It is the standard understanding of computer science. That is understood 
 (by the theoricians) since Gödel 1931 (symbolically, as some have seen this 
 before, and some have made the point more transparent, and stronger later).



 Can you explain how that works? It seems to imply an innate notion of time.


 You need the ordering 0, s(0), s(s(0)), ... that you can derive from the 
 first axioms:

 0≠s(x)  (for all x)
 x≠y - s(x) ≠ s(y), (for all x, and y).

 and

 x + 0 = x   (for all x)
 x + s(y) = s(x + y), (for all x, and y).

 x  y van be defined by

 Ez(y + z = x  (z ≠ 0))

 This gives already a digital time which can be used to defined the step 
 notion for the computations.

 A computation is the sequence of steps of a universal machine when 
 emulated by another universal machine.

 As elementary arithmetic is Turing complete, we can take elementary 
 arithmetic as the base system, and define computation in term of all the 
 universal numbers that we can define in arithmetic (we get them all, by 
 Church thesis).

 It is long to define a universal numbers, and its computations, just in 
 terms of 0, s, + and *, but that can be done, and is done in most textbook 
 in theoretical computer science.





 Note that I agree with this, it's my p-time, but block universe and your 
 block comp seem to be lacking it...


 I still don't know what is your p-time. I still don't know if it is 1p or 
 3p, mathematical or physical, etc.





 PLease explain in PLAIN ENGLISH rather than your usual cryptic notations 
 and (undefined in the context) terminology..


 Just ask when you don't understand, but you seem to ignore what is a 
 computation for a computer scientists. 

 You might read the original papers assembled by Martin Davis 1964. It 
 exists in the Dover edition now.
 Or a good introductory book like the one by Neil Cutland. Or wait that I 
 rexplain the real basic 5cantor and Kleene diagonal) which unlike logic, 
 are rather simple, I think.

 But a priori, computability has nothing to do with physics, or physical 
 implementation of computer. A computation is an intensional relative 
 (relational) number property. 


 Bruno 




 Edgar



 On Saturday, February 1, 2014 3:27:08 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 31 Jan 2014, at 13:13, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Liz,

 Your mouth sure has to move a lot to tell us it's not moving!

 The problem is not that static equations DESCRIBE aspects of reality. The 
 problem is that you are denying the flow of time.


 We deny a *primitive* and *ontological* flow of time. We don't deny the 
 internal experience of flow of time.



 For equations to compute (not just describe) reality, there must be 
 active processor cycles. There is simply NO way around that...


 Arithmetic is full of active processor cycles.

 Bruno



 Edgar



 On Thursday, January 30, 2014 10:24:48 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 Why do some people have such a problem with how change can emerge from 
 something static ? It's as simple as F = ma - a static equation describing 
 something changing. Change is by definition things being different at 
 different times. If you map out all the times involved as a dimension, you 
 will naturally get a static universe, just as putting together all the 
 moments making up a movie gives you a reel of film - but only from a God's 
 eye perspective. This is the perspective science gives us, the perspective 
 given by using equations and models and maps to describe reality; it isn't 
 the world of everyday experience, which (at best) views those equations and 
 so on from within (assuming for a moment they are so accurate as to be 
 isomorphic to reality).

 Obtaining change from the static view used by science is a non-problem, 
 and has been since Newton published his Principia.

 There *are* problems with comp, of course, like the white rabbit 
 problem. Does anyone have any new views on the real problems, rather than 
 worrying about straw men?


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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread Telmo Menezes
Hi Edgar,

 Block time and Bruno's comp can only tell us how a set fixed static sequence
 of events could be perceived by some observer as a fixed static sequence of
 events. It simply CANNOT tell us how time moves ALONG that sequence.

 The fact that time flows, that things change, is a fundamental EMPIRICAL
 OBSERVATION. It is not some intuitive illusion. It is the basic measurable
 observation of our existence and it never ceases from birth to death.

Can you show me this to be the case with resorting to some memory? If
not, can you see why you cannot possibly be sure of what you just
said?

 It
 simply cannot be disregarded as some sort of survival mechanism. In fact if
 block time were actually real survival mechanisms would not be needed
 because the future is already written deterministically contrary to QM and
 in violation of all sorts of physical laws.

Here I claim that you still fail to understand Everett's and Bruno's
ideas. First person indeterminacy is precisely how you recover QM at
the 1p level from a static 3p multiverse. There is no proof that these
ideas are correct and your is wrong, but there is proof that you
cannot just dismiss like I do here.

 If you think block time exists then where does that entire block come from?
 Did it create itself? Sequentially or all at once? Did something outside of
 it create it? What? How?

Here I like Russells' Theory of Nothing. You probably already know
about the book:
http://www.hpcoders.com.au/nothing.html

But if I had to ĂĽber-summarise the relevant part here:

Nothing = everything, then add the anthropic principle.

(I hope Russell isn't too annoyed by this)

Again, nothing is certain, but it's an interesting possibility to contemplate.

 Was it created causally in time? Or did it just
 magically appear like some kind of miracle? The believers in block time have
 an unfortunate habit of not thinking through the implications of their crazy
 theory.

Careful with this causality concept. The believers in causality have
similar habits...

 Again, the best way I can say it is that your mouth has to move plenty to
 tell me it isn't moving!

There are a lot of memories of my mouth moving, that's for sure :)

Cheers
Telmo.

 Best,
 Edgar


 On Friday, January 31, 2014 8:08:32 AM UTC-5, telmo_menezes wrote:

 Hi Edgar,

 On Fri, Jan 31, 2014 at 1:13 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net wrote:
  Liz,
 
  Your mouth sure has to move a lot to tell us it's not moving!
 
  The problem is not that static equations DESCRIBE aspects of reality.
  The
  problem is that you are denying the flow of time.

 Why is this a problem? How can you know for sure that there is a flow
 of time? Block universe hypothesis can explain how time would appear
 to flow for each observer. This doesn't prove that block universe
 hypothesis are correct, but they cannot be dismissed that easily
 either.

 Now you could argue that this is counter-intuitive, but I would remind
 you that nature doesn't care. Our intuition is just a bunch of
 heuristics evolved to deal with a very narrow set of survival
 scenarios.

  For equations to compute (not just describe) reality, there must be
  active
  processor cycles. There is simply NO way around that...

 I wonder.

 Telmo.

  Edgar
 
 
 
  On Thursday, January 30, 2014 10:24:48 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:
 
  Why do some people have such a problem with how change can emerge from
  something static ? It's as simple as F = ma - a static equation
  describing
  something changing. Change is by definition things being different at
  different times. If you map out all the times involved as a dimension,
  you
  will naturally get a static universe, just as putting together all
  the
  moments making up a movie gives you a reel of film - but only from a
  God's
  eye perspective. This is the perspective science gives us, the
  perspective
  given by using equations and models and maps to describe reality; it
  isn't
  the world of everyday experience, which (at best) views those equations
  and
  so on from within (assuming for a moment they are so accurate as to be
  isomorphic to reality).
 
  Obtaining change from the static view used by science is a non-problem,
  and has been since Newton published his Principia.
 
  There are problems with comp, of course, like the white rabbit
  problem.
  Does anyone have any new views on the real problems, rather than
  worrying
  about straw men?
 
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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Feb 2014, at 18:13, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Ghibbsa,

Boy, you are really taking some giant leaps here!

Just because I point out that a local present moment is obvious IN  
NO WAY is a claim that that insight is original with me! That's a  
crazy inference.


The fact is that 99.999% of everyone on earth throughout history has  
had the same insight which they also knew was obvious. That in fact  
is one reason it can be stated as obvious with such confidence.  
Because everyone (expect a few who's heads are so deep in their  
physics books they can't pull them out to look around at actual  
reality) observes it first hand in their own experience every moment  
of their lives...


It is obvious we are conscious here-and-now. OK. It is hardly doubtable.

But what is not obvious is that there is an  here and now in the  
ontology.


It *might* be an internal epistemological absolute truth, for a class  
of internal creature/entity/person.


once you assume even quite weaker version of computationalism, you  
cannot avoid the dream argument. The obviousness of an experience does  
not validate the content of that experience.


In the 1p view, consciousness is obvious. But this does not make  
consciousness 3p relations, nor the person/bodies relations, obvious  
at all.


Bruno



All I can conclude is that your comment above was not objective but  
unfortunately based on some personal antipathy...


Edgar



On Saturday, February 1, 2014 10:53:06 AM UTC-5, ghi...@gmail.com  
wrote:


On Saturday, February 1, 2014 2:00:16 PM UTC, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
Ghibbsa,

I'm wondering why you'd want to suddenly change the subject from  
time to a rather rambling post on epistemology?


I don't see it as epistemology save in the most literal sense of the  
word with no baggage allowed. I see it as potentially one of the  
really hard scientific obstacles in human discovery of the nature of  
reality. Hard because the sciences corresponding to this matter are  
far too early in the process of science to offer reliable knowledge.


Certainly one choice is turning to philosophy. But the decision  
itself to do that, implicitly assumes an answer to the original  
fundamental question the scientific revolution threw up, which all  
other philosophical questions about science derive out of. Which  
actually begins as an obvious observation that no one has ever  
disagreed about: that something historically unique was happening  
with science, of a fundamental nature.


It's the answer to that question the philosophies disagree about.  
More precisely, it was how to reason the matter the philosophies  
disagreed about, given it is reasoning by which one philosophy  
distinguishes itself from another.


The general problem I have with that process, arises from the fact  
the question being asked was Is there a component of this  
historical uniqueness that is fundamental to science and only science


Doing philosophy on that question, implies that that question can be  
resolved by non-scientific philosophy, which implies if something  
was fundamental and totally unique to one thing, it could  
nevertheless be fundamentally discovered and understood by something  
else that did not contain anything of that thing being understood.


I don't think that makes sense, not in the end. Because it is  
assuming the answer is NO, nothing was unique about science and only  
science.


I think that about this much, we should be in agreement, because you  
draw on precisely the same insight, but in a different context, that  
computability pre-requires sameness. Albeit that's only a core  
agreement. It doesn't mean that I apply it correctly, or that you  
do. We don't have to agree about that even if we do agree about the  
fundamental insight. Because how something is applied is fundamental  
in its own right.


By the same coin we can agree that you draw on perceptions that are  
obvious, and which do say something true. But that does not mean we  
will agree about how that truth needs to be treated and applied.


I seriously fell off my chair laughing at your response here Edgar.  
Just stop for a moment, and see this from an equally true  
alternative angle. What are you drawing on is obviously true. But  
it's obviously true to everyone. You don't own the obvious part  
Edgar. We all own that part. What you own, is how you apply it. You  
own your methods. You own your reasoning. You own your conclusions.  
But you own the original obviousness, that you can attach  
obviousness to your conclusions. That you cannot do. Or you can, but  
you won't be taking rationality or logic with you. So you won't be  
taking other serious thinkers either.



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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 1, 2014 2:53:30 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 16:55, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript:
  wrote:

 I get around that with perceptual relativity. When flying over a city, it 
 doesn't look like there are millions of conscious entities - not because 
 their behavior is limited to a set of rules, but because your vantage point 
 amplifies the insensitivity of your perceptual frame. By modulating 
 frequency and scale, perceptual histories diverge and alienate each other's 
 presence. The more extreme the alienation, the more the quality of what is 
 perceived appears mechanical.


 I don't see that you make your point here. How does your vantage point 
 amplifies the insensitivity of your perceptual frame get around anything?


Because it is not that consciousness follows rules, it is that rules are 
the result of one conscious experience modeling others. What we can know 
about the universe outside of our body is limited by our body. The mind has 
different limitations, but it is much more directly sensitive to physics 
than our body, and its view of other bodies.
 

 ISTM rather that the quality of what is perceived appears mechanical 
 because when placed under examination at any scale it can be observed to 
 adhere to an unvarying and causally-closed set of rules (the ones we group 
 under the heading of physical).


That's because the variation is closed to our vantage point. If an alien 
astronomer looked at any individual or group of people, they would conclude 
a causally-closed set of rules as well, but that's only because they are 
looking at the behavior of our bodies. The behavior of bodies is not that 
interesting compared to the aesthetic content of experiences. You could 
have a life changing epiphany and the alien astronomer would see nothing 
very interesting.
 

 In effect, it appears to be a mechanism at all scales.


Appears. What about feels? Why would mechanisms have an experience that 
feels like something?
 

 The inexorable progress of this analysis of physical appearances has so 
 far trumped every historical attempt to interpolate novel top-down rules 
 operating at other levels (spiritualism, vitalism, holism, dualism etc.). 


Because it is looking for the head (temporary experiences) at the tail end 
(bodies in space). They are aesthetically orthogonal views. If you measure 
something with an instrument, you can only measure the outside of the 
instrument interacting with the outside of another body. The result is an 
inside out view of the universe.
 

 Comp, as I've said, at the least confronts the problem and offers the 
 possible shape of a solution (but that alone, of course, doesn't guarantee 
 its correctness).


Yes, Comp is almost correct, but at the absolute level, when it comes to 
putting the horse of sense before the cart of information, it gets it 
exactly wrong. 


 The value of any genuinely new insight (Relativity Theory, for example) is 
 not in ignoring the previous theory (Newtonian mechanics in this case) but 
 rather in providing a better explanation for the predictions of the old 
 theory whilst simultaneously making new and surprising ones that turn out 
 to match observation better. 


This is not about making predictions, although someone could take it in 
that directions. This is about understanding the nature of consciousness 
and physics.
 

 Consequently, if your theory is to prevail, it must be able to explain why 
 appearance - and especially the appearance of conscious behaviour, not 
 excluding your own - conforms to physical causation as precisely as we 
 observe.


Because observation is a narrow constraint on sense which is invariably 
reflected in the result of the observation. Why do the Blind Men each 
conclude that the elephant is a different thing? You are underestimating 
the depth of the pansensitivity that I'm proposing - which is what I have 
come to expect. Turning your model of the universe inside out takes some 
practice. When I say that sense is Absolutely Primordial, I mean that 
nothing - not appearances, not realism, not sanity or logic - nothing 
whatsoever is anything except a local feature within it.
 

 This physical conformity of appearance is the reason that the theory 
 cannot avoid the POPJ - in essence that we don't need, or seem even be able 
 to apply, the notion of consciousness or sense to explain why the creatures 
 that appear to us - including ourselves - make the claims to those 
 phenomena that they do. What you say above doesn't suffice to address this 
 formidable issue at all.


It's not formidable if you bite the bullet and actually consider the sense 
primitive without equivocating. Once you see that logic is a kind of sense 
but sense is not a kind of logic, then everything falls into place nicely. 
As long as you try to force the concrete presence of sensation and 
sense-making into an abstract theory, the hard problem will always be 
formidable.


Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

No, it's not just semantics. It's my definition of the present moment. You 
claim the present moment means something else, but then you don't even 
believe there IS a present moment which seems a little strange! But be that 
as it may.


The example you give is just standard relativity theory, just a restatement 
of the twins. As you yourself note it is frame dependent so that doesn't 
address my question. There are still two frames with two different clock 
times that DO NOT agree on any shared coordinate time.

Your claim that they are at the SAME point in coordinate time when they 
meet up again seems to imply there is some absolute time common to both 
twins. If this is NOT your claim, and any particular coordinate time (such 
as the example you give of a clock left behind with the earth bound twin) 
is used to somehow claim that they are both at the SAME point in spacetime 
that would equally be true of a clock that traveled with the OTHER twin.

If that is your point then you are still faced with the same problem that 
those 2 coordinate times do not agree. They claim different coordinate 
times for the same present moment meeting of the twins and you are faced 
with the exact same problem you were before, of 2 different clock times AND 
now coordinate times also in the same actual present moment.

It seems to be that you are saying that coordinate time is just some 
arbitrary choice of clock time. If that's not what you are saying then 
please explain how the coordinate time in your example in your last 
sentence differs from the simply being the clock time of the stay at home 
twin, and why O why should the returning twin accept that, rather than his 
own clock time, as the ACTUAL time of the meeting up at the same point in 
spacetime?

See my point?

Edgar


On Saturday, February 1, 2014 2:45:17 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 1:58 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 Not correct. My present moment does NOT say that there is an objective 
 common present moment for events that are *not* at the same point in 
 spaceTIME (my emphasis).

 My theory says that there is a common universal present moment shared by 
 all points in SPACE, not spaceTIME. Because clocktimes can obviously have 
 different t values within that present moment.



 That's just semantics, I was using the standard terminology of relativity, 
 if you want to change the meaning of terms you're free to translate my 
 statement into your own terminology, but I don't think I got the *meaning* 
 of your theory wrong. When I said not at the same point in spacetime I 
 meant events that someone using the labeling system of mainstream physics 
 would say occur at different points in spacetime, which in terms of your 
 own theory could cover both events at different p-times as well as events 
 at the same p-time but different points in space. You believe that for any 
 pair of events that a physicist says happen at different points in 
 spacetime, there is an objective truth about whether they happened at the 
 same time, different points in space or different times. The set of all 
 events that are happening at the same p-time as what I am experiencing here 
 and now would be the objective common present moment, and these are 
 events a physicist would label as having different points in spacetime, 
 regardless of how you would label them. So that's what I meant when I said 
 that you believed there was an objective common present moment for events 
 that are not at the same point in spacetime.

  


 Second, thanks for the long explication following, which I more or less 
 agree with.

 But my question remains: If coordinate time is just an alternate 
 coordinate system then for the twins to be at the SAME place in that 
 coordinate system there must be some actual t-value describing that point 
 that both twins agree upon. What is that t value, and how does it relate to 
 the t values of the clock times of the twins' two different clocks?



 Actual t value in a specific coordinate system, or in some objective 
 coordinate-independent sense? If the former then sure, within the context 
 of any given inertial coordinate system there is a specific t-value where 
 they reunite. You asked in another comment I hadn't responded to yet for an 
 example, so I'll give you one here. Suppose we have an inertial coordinate 
 system in which the Earth is at rest (ignoring the fact that it orbits and 
 doesn't really move inertially for the sake of argument), and in this 
 system it's located at position x=0 light-years, and there is another 
 distant planet which I'll call Planet X which is 24 light years away from 
 Earth, and at rest in Earth's frame so it's always located at x=24 light 
 years in this frame (assume they both lie along the x-axis so the other 
 spatial dimensions can be ignored). At t=0 years in this system, two twins, 
 Alan and Bob, are born on Earth, and each one is given a 

Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Hi Telmo,

No, because I don't have to remember that my clock moved. I can actually 
OBSERVE it in the process of moving. That's one of many reasons block times 
including Bruno's don't make sense.


I don't accept that QM indeterminacy is dependent on the existence of a 
human observer. That's simply nutty as the human observation 'causes' 
collapse interpretation always was. Decoherence conclusively falsifies it...

As for Russell's theory that everything exists it depends on how it is 
understood. I would agree, and in my book on Reality I note this, that 
reality consists of everything that actually exists. In that sense 
everything that does exist does actually exist. But if it is meant in what 
I take to be Bruno's sense that everything, in say some human notion 
(Bruno's) of what arithmetic is, exists in some Platonic non actual, non 
observable sense, then there is no evidence for that.

Also Russell seems to misunderstand the notion of nothing. It is most 
certainly not =everything.


And I am very careful with the notion of causality. In my book I note that 
in a computational universe there is no actual causality in the usual sense 
because we can't really claim that 1+1 causes 2. I note that there is no 
actual term for causality in ANY equation of science. Causality is simply a 
metatheory that describes the fact of the time sequential order of 
computations.

When we are able to deprecate causality that leads to a number of important 
other conclusions that I describe in my book...

Edgar



On Saturday, February 1, 2014 3:24:05 PM UTC-5, telmo_menezes wrote:

 Hi Edgar, 

  Block time and Bruno's comp can only tell us how a set fixed static 
 sequence 
  of events could be perceived by some observer as a fixed static sequence 
 of 
  events. It simply CANNOT tell us how time moves ALONG that sequence. 
  
  The fact that time flows, that things change, is a fundamental EMPIRICAL 
  OBSERVATION. It is not some intuitive illusion. It is the basic 
 measurable 
  observation of our existence and it never ceases from birth to death. 

 Can you show me this to be the case with resorting to some memory? If 
 not, can you see why you cannot possibly be sure of what you just 
 said? 

  It 
  simply cannot be disregarded as some sort of survival mechanism. In fact 
 if 
  block time were actually real survival mechanisms would not be needed 
  because the future is already written deterministically contrary to QM 
 and 
  in violation of all sorts of physical laws. 

 Here I claim that you still fail to understand Everett's and Bruno's 
 ideas. First person indeterminacy is precisely how you recover QM at 
 the 1p level from a static 3p multiverse. There is no proof that these 
 ideas are correct and your is wrong, but there is proof that you 
 cannot just dismiss like I do here. 

  If you think block time exists then where does that entire block come 
 from? 
  Did it create itself? Sequentially or all at once? Did something outside 
 of 
  it create it? What? How? 

 Here I like Russells' Theory of Nothing. You probably already know 
 about the book: 
 http://www.hpcoders.com.au/nothing.html 

 But if I had to ĂĽber-summarise the relevant part here: 

 Nothing = everything, then add the anthropic principle. 

 (I hope Russell isn't too annoyed by this) 

 Again, nothing is certain, but it's an interesting possibility to 
 contemplate. 

  Was it created causally in time? Or did it just 
  magically appear like some kind of miracle? The believers in block time 
 have 
  an unfortunate habit of not thinking through the implications of their 
 crazy 
  theory. 

 Careful with this causality concept. The believers in causality have 
 similar habits... 

  Again, the best way I can say it is that your mouth has to move plenty 
 to 
  tell me it isn't moving! 

 There are a lot of memories of my mouth moving, that's for sure :) 

 Cheers 
 Telmo. 

  Best, 
  Edgar 
  
  
  On Friday, January 31, 2014 8:08:32 AM UTC-5, telmo_menezes wrote: 
  
  Hi Edgar, 
  
  On Fri, Jan 31, 2014 at 1:13 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net 
 wrote: 
   Liz, 
   
   Your mouth sure has to move a lot to tell us it's not moving! 
   
   The problem is not that static equations DESCRIBE aspects of reality. 
   The 
   problem is that you are denying the flow of time. 
  
  Why is this a problem? How can you know for sure that there is a flow 
  of time? Block universe hypothesis can explain how time would appear 
  to flow for each observer. This doesn't prove that block universe 
  hypothesis are correct, but they cannot be dismissed that easily 
  either. 
  
  Now you could argue that this is counter-intuitive, but I would remind 
  you that nature doesn't care. Our intuition is just a bunch of 
  heuristics evolved to deal with a very narrow set of survival 
  scenarios. 
  
   For equations to compute (not just describe) reality, there must be 
   active 
   processor cycles. There is simply NO way around that... 

Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

PS: If coordinate time is just saying that when the twins meet up again 
they are actually at the SAME point in spacetime, but we don't know (can't 
agree) what clock time that corresponds to then I agree completely. That is 
exactly what my theory says and what I've always said.

I just call that same point in spacetime the present moment because it's 
standard nomenclature, and it's consistent with everyone's direct 
experiential observation. 

Is that your understanding of coordinate time?

Edgar

 

On Saturday, February 1, 2014 2:45:17 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 1:58 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 Not correct. My present moment does NOT say that there is an objective 
 common present moment for events that are *not* at the same point in 
 spaceTIME (my emphasis).

 My theory says that there is a common universal present moment shared by 
 all points in SPACE, not spaceTIME. Because clocktimes can obviously have 
 different t values within that present moment.



 That's just semantics, I was using the standard terminology of relativity, 
 if you want to change the meaning of terms you're free to translate my 
 statement into your own terminology, but I don't think I got the *meaning* 
 of your theory wrong. When I said not at the same point in spacetime I 
 meant events that someone using the labeling system of mainstream physics 
 would say occur at different points in spacetime, which in terms of your 
 own theory could cover both events at different p-times as well as events 
 at the same p-time but different points in space. You believe that for any 
 pair of events that a physicist says happen at different points in 
 spacetime, there is an objective truth about whether they happened at the 
 same time, different points in space or different times. The set of all 
 events that are happening at the same p-time as what I am experiencing here 
 and now would be the objective common present moment, and these are 
 events a physicist would label as having different points in spacetime, 
 regardless of how you would label them. So that's what I meant when I said 
 that you believed there was an objective common present moment for events 
 that are not at the same point in spacetime.

  


 Second, thanks for the long explication following, which I more or less 
 agree with.

 But my question remains: If coordinate time is just an alternate 
 coordinate system then for the twins to be at the SAME place in that 
 coordinate system there must be some actual t-value describing that point 
 that both twins agree upon. What is that t value, and how does it relate to 
 the t values of the clock times of the twins' two different clocks?



 Actual t value in a specific coordinate system, or in some objective 
 coordinate-independent sense? If the former then sure, within the context 
 of any given inertial coordinate system there is a specific t-value where 
 they reunite. You asked in another comment I hadn't responded to yet for an 
 example, so I'll give you one here. Suppose we have an inertial coordinate 
 system in which the Earth is at rest (ignoring the fact that it orbits and 
 doesn't really move inertially for the sake of argument), and in this 
 system it's located at position x=0 light-years, and there is another 
 distant planet which I'll call Planet X which is 24 light years away from 
 Earth, and at rest in Earth's frame so it's always located at x=24 light 
 years in this frame (assume they both lie along the x-axis so the other 
 spatial dimensions can be ignored). At t=0 years in this system, two twins, 
 Alan and Bob, are born on Earth, and each one is given a clock to mark 
 their age (proper time). Then Bob is immediately placed on a ship which 
 accelerates in a negligible time to 0.8c in the Earth frame, after which it 
 moves at constant velocity towards Planet X. Since Planet X is 24 
 light-years away it arrives there after 24/0.8 = 30 years, at time t=30 in 
 the Earth frame. Then the ship accelerates in a negligible time so it is 
 moving at 0.6c back towards Earth. Then the return leg will take a time of 
 24/0.6 = 40 years in the Earth frame. So when Bob returns to Earth, a total 
 of 30+40 years have elapsed in the Earth frame, so they reunite at 
 coordinate time t=70 in this frame (and position x=0, since Earth is at 
 rest at this position).

 Since Alan has been at rest on Earth the whole time, his clock has been 
 keeping pace with coordinate time in this frame (or with the actual 
 physical clocks at rest in this frame which can be used to define 
 coordinate time, as I mentioned in my last comment), so he will be 70 years 
 old. To find Bob's age we must use the time dilation equation, which says 
 that if a clock is moving at speed v relative to a given inertial frame, in 
 a time interval of T in that frame it will only elapse a time of T*sqrt(1 - 
 v^2/c^2). So if the first leg of the journey from 

Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread Bruno Marchal

Stathis,

I rereply a statement you made.


On 31 Jan 2014, at 01:18, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:


On 31 January 2014 04:19, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

I don't think there is a problem if consciousness is an  
epiphenomenon.



Is it not that very idea which leads to the notion of zombie?
If consciousness is an epiphenomenon, eliminating it would change  
nothing in

the 3p.


There can be no zombies if consciousness is epiphenomenal.


Just to be sure, I agree with that.

I asked why? because I was thinking at the meta-level.

The problem, is that if we can conceive that consciousness is  
epiphenomenal, we can conceive that consciousness does not exist.


That is why I am afraid that epiphenomenalism makes a step toward the  
elimination of the person.


With comp we can eliminate or own person or ego, but that's the kind  
of thing which needs our own personal consent.






Equivalently, if consciousness is epiphenomenal we could say it does
not really exist and we are all zombies; but I think that's just
semantics, and misleading.


As I said, that's eliminativism.

Now tell me, is it a crime to torture a p-zombie?

I know a three years kids who broke a doll purposefully. Should we  
send the kid in jail? In an asylum?


Consciousness is not epiphenomenal, even if the brain might have  
arbitrary choices in some of the way to sum up big chunks of  
informations available for the person in act.


Consciousness might better be seen as phenomenal, 1p. It depends on  
truth, self, and relative consistency.


Bruno






If you start looking for consciousness being an extra thing with
(perhaps) its own separate causal efficacy, that's where problems
arise.



Dualism is a problem. Making consciousness epiphenomenal is not  
satisfying,
and basically contradicted in the everyday life. It is because pain  
is

unpleasant that we take anesthetic medicine.

The brain is obliged to lie at some (uncknown, crypted) level,  
not for
consciousness (that it filters), but for pain and joy. That's  
normal. If you

run toward the lion mouth, you lower the probability of surviving.

Epiphenomenalism does not eliminate consciousness, but it still  
eliminate

conscience and persons.


I don't think it diminishes the significance of consciousness, but
maybe I just look at it differently.

With comp I think we avoid it, even if the solution will appear to  
be very
Platonist, as truth, beauty, and universal values (mostly unknown)  
will be
more real than their local terrestrial approximations through  
primitively

physical brains and other interacting molecules like galaxies foam.

Bruno




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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread Craig Weinberg

Found it!

On Friday, January 31, 2014 11:45:24 AM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 31 January 2014 01:52, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript:
  wrote:

 The we of individual human beings relies on physical consistency because 
 that is a common sensory experience of the animalorganismsubstance 
 context. The substance context however relies on the we of the Absolute 
 context. The biological context relies on those wes, and the animal 
 context relies on the biological wes. It's all nested but the bottom of 
 each extrinsic level is being supported by the top of the previous 
 intrinsic level.


 I'm not sure I fully grasp all of the above, but I would like to tackle 
 you again on the POPJ, because I still can't see how your model can succeed 
 in avoiding it. Let me start by telling you about a movie I streamed last 
 night - Inception (I'm a bit behindhand on popular movies!). It was quite 
 an enjoyable yarn, but it struck me as pretty flaky, even as science 
 fiction, not least because the plot is built on the idea that dreams could 
 be experienced (and even nested dream-within-dream) with near-waking 
 physical consistency. This got me reflecting on what does indeed 
 distinguish dreams from waking reality (acknowledging of course that both 
 are virtual presentations from the personal perspective). I don't know 
 about your dreams, but in mine things have the darnedest habit of 
 disappearing or turning into something else when I look away and this, 
 presumably, is because sleeping-dreams are different to waking-dreams in 
 that their appearances are not in general stabilised by anything 
 extrinsic to the brain and body.

 By extrinsic here I am not committing to the ultimate nature of the brain 
 and its environment, merely that all our experiences - metaphorised as 
 dreams, or in a more up-to-date image, a multi-player video-game - must 
 depend on some generalised and consistent system of appearances for 
 consistency and stabilisation. It turns out, indeed, that the system of 
 appearances our internal video game depends on is detailed, consistent and 
 stable to the most extraordinary degree; let us call this stable, 
 exhaustive and reliably causally-complete set of appearances the 
 game-physics. And the avatars that appear to us within the game - bodies 
 and brains, our own and others' - turn out to follow the rules of the 
 game-physics precisely in conformity with the set of appearances as a 
 whole, to the furthermost extent we can explore.

 The logical consequence of the above is just this: Even if you consider 
 that the sensory nature of that-which-exists extends, beyond our personal 
 virtual presentations, to the whole of reality itself, one can still not 
 avoid the encounter in waking-dreams with avatars (including one's own) 
 that cheerfully lay claim to sensory phenomena that are supernumerary in 
 explaining their behaviour in terms of its own rules-of-appearance (i.e. 
 the game-physics), and which they could not logically have access to in 
 terms of those very rules. Hence these sensory phenomena cannot be the 
 cause of these claims. This, again is the POPJ. ISTM that it is unavoidable 
 in any schema, whether primitive-sensory or primitive-physical, in which no 
 further logical entailment is discoverable in the causally-complete 
 machinations of the game-physics.


The POPJ is not a problem at all for MSR. MSR is a solution to POPJ because 
judgments are just other kinds of sensations than public facing sensations. 
Judgments are cognitive qualia, and qualia is 1) beyond function, and 2) 
transparent and reflective (metaphorically) to other kinds of qualia. 
Instead of starting from the assumption of isolation in which sensations 
have to be added on top of our separateness, I start from the assumption of 
unity at the Absolute, which is diffracted locally through insensitivity. 
Thus in some sense we are all the same experience. In others we are 
experience of all organisms. In others we are experiences of animals, etc, 
all the way down to our unique narrative experience. With sense as 
primordial, all appearances of separation are derived from insensitivity.

Thanks,
Craig


 I've tried to set out the problem as clearly as I can and I would be 
 grateful if you could respond directly with a reasoned consideration of how 
 your theory might circumvent this formidable logical obstacle.

 David


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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread meekerdb

On 2/1/2014 2:22 AM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

On 1 February 2014 16:48, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 1/31/2014 9:18 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

We are potentially immortal in the same way as a car can potentially
survive indefinitely provided parts can be repaired or replaced
indefinitely. At present, we can repair or replace some parts in the
human body, but not enough to prolong life for more than a few years.


Actually I think we can make people live indefinitely now.  I have seriously
considered starting a business to do this.  I certainly think I can do it
more legitimately than those cryogenic preservation services.  What I would
do it is gather as much information about the person as possible.  If they
were still alive this would include extensive video recordings and
interviews.  Then they would be 3d-modeled in CGI, with adjustment of age
appearance as desired.  This model would then be inserted as an avatar of
the person in an artificial CGI world, similar to many computer games.  The
avatar would be provided with an AI based on all the writings, video,
interviews etc so that it would respond like the person modeled in most
conversation.  It could access current events etc from the internet so it
would be able to discuss things.

Would the avatar be conscious?  According to Bruno it would be if it's AI
were Lobian - which isn't that hard.  But really it's beside the point.  AI,
such as Watson, could easily appear as conscious and intelligent as your
90yr old aunt and tell the stories she tells and exhibit the quirks she has.
Would the avatar be alive? conscious?  Who would care?  Not the loved ones
that paid to preserve Grandma for future generations.

Anybody want to invest?  It'll take big bucks to do it right.

If you really could do that, we could send these AI's into the world
to work for us and represent us.


That would be a much more ambitious project to implement the CGI avatars as robots so they 
could act in the world.  I'm proposing something much less difficult, something half-way 
between the robot avatar and a collection of videos of Grandma.



We are nowhere near doing that. Then
there is the additional question of whether the AI is a continuation
of the person's consciousness.


Indeed.  And supposing I created an avatar of Grandma with whom you could interact via 
your computer monitor, what would be the ethical implications of turning off Grandma1.0 
or of erasing Grandma1.0?  Would the answer turn on whether we could show Grandma1.0 was 
conscious?  I think not. But it seems that most people on this list think that's the 
crucial point.


Brent

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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread meekerdb

On 2/1/2014 2:44 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 01 Feb 2014, at 06:48, meekerdb wrote:


On 1/31/2014 9:18 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

We are potentially immortal in the same way as a car can potentially
survive indefinitely provided parts can be repaired or replaced
indefinitely. At present, we can repair or replace some parts in the
human body, but not enough to prolong life for more than a few years.


Actually I think we can make people live indefinitely now.  I have seriously considered 
starting a business to do this.  I certainly think I can do it more legitimately than 
those cryogenic preservation services.  What I would do it is gather as much 
information about the person as possible.  If they were still alive this would include 
extensive video recordings and interviews.  Then they would be 3d-modeled in CGI, with 
adjustment of age appearance as desired.  This model would then be inserted as an 
avatar of the person in an artificial CGI world, similar to many computer games. The 
avatar would be provided with an AI based on all the writings, video, interviews etc so 
that it would respond like the person modeled in most conversation.  It could access 
current events etc from the internet so it would be able to discuss things.


Would the avatar be conscious?  According to Bruno it would be if it's AI were Lobian - 
which isn't that hard.  But really it's beside the point.  AI, such as Watson, could 
easily appear as conscious and intelligent as your 90yr old aunt and tell the stories 
she tells and exhibit the quirks she has.  Would the avatar be alive? conscious?  Who 
would care?  Not the loved ones that paid to preserve Grandma for future generations.


Anybody want to invest?  It'll take big bucks to do it right.


Is that not the normal future of facebook or Linkedin, or personal family 
memory?

That is like saying yes to the current doctor, meaning, that the level is 
*very* high.


But it will go lower and lower.



The children will not be glad. It is already annoying to listen to grandpa nth account 
of 14-18, every sunday, but now, you have to listen to grandpa and grandma, and to their 
grandgrand-pa, and their grandgrand-ma, and so one.


But at least you can turn them off.


Chinese have a name for that, it is the cult of ancestors.

It is good, it is human. You can do money but you have to act quickly, because that 
emerges naturally from the net.


Exactly.  The only thing lagging is the AI.

Brent

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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 4:28 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 PS: If coordinate time is just saying that when the twins meet up again
 they are actually at the SAME point in spacetime, but we don't know (can't
 agree) what clock time that corresponds to then I agree completely.


There is no objective fact to know or not know, it's just a matter of
labeling, just like with x and y coordinates used to label points on a 2D
plane.




 That is exactly what my theory says and what I've always said.

 I just call that same point in spacetime the present moment because it's
 standard nomenclature, and it's consistent with everyone's direct
 experiential observation.


But don't you go beyond that and say that there is an objective truth about
whether events that *don't* happen at the same point in spacetime--like an
event happening to me here in Providence and an event happening to someone
else in Paris--happen at the same time or not? Isn't the present moment
supposed to say that a bunch of events spread throughout space are all
happening now? If so, then as I said there is no logical justification
for going from there is an objective truth about whether two events
coincide at the same point in spacetime to there is an objective present,
such that there is an objective truth about whether two events happened at
the same time even if they didn't coincide in spacetime.

Jesse




 On Saturday, February 1, 2014 2:45:17 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 1:58 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 Not correct. My present moment does NOT say that there is an objective
 common present moment for events that are *not* at the same point in
 spaceTIME (my emphasis).

 My theory says that there is a common universal present moment shared by
 all points in SPACE, not spaceTIME. Because clocktimes can obviously have
 different t values within that present moment.



 That's just semantics, I was using the standard terminology of
 relativity, if you want to change the meaning of terms you're free to
 translate my statement into your own terminology, but I don't think I got
 the *meaning* of your theory wrong. When I said not at the same point in
 spacetime I meant events that someone using the labeling system of
 mainstream physics would say occur at different points in spacetime, which
 in terms of your own theory could cover both events at different p-times as
 well as events at the same p-time but different points in space. You
 believe that for any pair of events that a physicist says happen at
 different points in spacetime, there is an objective truth about whether
 they happened at the same time, different points in space or different
 times. The set of all events that are happening at the same p-time as what
 I am experiencing here and now would be the objective common present
 moment, and these are events a physicist would label as having different
 points in spacetime, regardless of how you would label them. So that's what
 I meant when I said that you believed there was an objective common
 present moment for events that are not at the same point in spacetime.




 Second, thanks for the long explication following, which I more or less
 agree with.

 But my question remains: If coordinate time is just an alternate
 coordinate system then for the twins to be at the SAME place in that
 coordinate system there must be some actual t-value describing that point
 that both twins agree upon. What is that t value, and how does it relate to
 the t values of the clock times of the twins' two different clocks?



 Actual t value in a specific coordinate system, or in some objective
 coordinate-independent sense? If the former then sure, within the context
 of any given inertial coordinate system there is a specific t-value where
 they reunite. You asked in another comment I hadn't responded to yet for an
 example, so I'll give you one here. Suppose we have an inertial coordinate
 system in which the Earth is at rest (ignoring the fact that it orbits and
 doesn't really move inertially for the sake of argument), and in this
 system it's located at position x=0 light-years, and there is another
 distant planet which I'll call Planet X which is 24 light years away from
 Earth, and at rest in Earth's frame so it's always located at x=24 light
 years in this frame (assume they both lie along the x-axis so the other
 spatial dimensions can be ignored). At t=0 years in this system, two twins,
 Alan and Bob, are born on Earth, and each one is given a clock to mark
 their age (proper time). Then Bob is immediately placed on a ship which
 accelerates in a negligible time to 0.8c in the Earth frame, after which it
 moves at constant velocity towards Planet X. Since Planet X is 24
 light-years away it arrives there after 24/0.8 = 30 years, at time t=30 in
 the Earth frame. Then the ship accelerates in a negligible time so it is
 moving at 0.6c back towards Earth. Then the return leg 

Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On 2 February 2014 08:41, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 There can be no zombies if consciousness is epiphenomenal.


 Just to be sure, I agree with that.

 I asked why? because I was thinking at the meta-level.

 The problem, is that if we can conceive that consciousness is epiphenomenal,
 we can conceive that consciousness does not exist.

 That is why I am afraid that epiphenomenalism makes a step toward the
 elimination of the person.

 With comp we can eliminate or own person or ego, but that's the kind of
 thing which needs our own personal consent.

Another way to look at it is that if consciousness is epiphenomenal
then it necessarily exists.

 Equivalently, if consciousness is epiphenomenal we could say it does
 not really exist and we are all zombies; but I think that's just
 semantics, and misleading.


 As I said, that's eliminativism.

 Now tell me, is it a crime to torture a p-zombie?

 I know a three years kids who broke a doll purposefully. Should we send the
 kid in jail? In an asylum?

 Consciousness is not epiphenomenal, even if the brain might have arbitrary
 choices in some of the way to sum up big chunks of informations available
 for the person in act.

 Consciousness might better be seen as phenomenal, 1p. It depends on truth,
 self, and relative consistency.

If the dolls lack consciousness then it is not a crime to torture
them. Whether the consciousness is epiphenomenal or not is irrelevant.


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 1, 2014 5:48:04 PM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:

 On 2 February 2014 08:41, Bruno Marchal mar...@ulb.ac.be javascript: 
 wrote: 

  There can be no zombies if consciousness is epiphenomenal. 
  
  
  Just to be sure, I agree with that. 
  
  I asked why? because I was thinking at the meta-level. 
  
  The problem, is that if we can conceive that consciousness is 
 epiphenomenal, 
  we can conceive that consciousness does not exist. 
  
  That is why I am afraid that epiphenomenalism makes a step toward the 
  elimination of the person. 
  
  With comp we can eliminate or own person or ego, but that's the kind of 
  thing which needs our own personal consent. 

 Another way to look at it is that if consciousness is epiphenomenal 
 then it necessarily exists. 

  Equivalently, if consciousness is epiphenomenal we could say it does 
  not really exist and we are all zombies; but I think that's just 
  semantics, and misleading. 
  
  
  As I said, that's eliminativism. 
  
  Now tell me, is it a crime to torture a p-zombie? 
  
  I know a three years kids who broke a doll purposefully. Should we send 
 the 
  kid in jail? In an asylum? 
  
  Consciousness is not epiphenomenal, even if the brain might have 
 arbitrary 
  choices in some of the way to sum up big chunks of informations 
 available 
  for the person in act. 
  
  Consciousness might better be seen as phenomenal, 1p. It depends on 
 truth, 
  self, and relative consistency. 

 If the dolls lack consciousness then it is not a crime to torture 
 them. Whether the consciousness is epiphenomenal or not is irrelevant. 


There is potentially an argument that torturing anything, even fictionally, 
could have negative consequences over time. it could conceivably build a 
tolerance for sadism and cruelty, both neurologically and culturally. The 
suppression of fictional torture could have negative consequences too 
though.



 -- 
 Stathis Papaioannou 


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Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread David Nyman
On 1 February 2014 21:49, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:


 Found it!

 On Friday, January 31, 2014 11:45:24 AM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 31 January 2014 01:52, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 The we of individual human beings relies on physical consistency
 because that is a common sensory experience of the
 animalorganismsubstance context. The substance context however relies on
 the we of the Absolute context. The biological context relies on those
 wes, and the animal context relies on the biological wes. It's all
 nested but the bottom of each extrinsic level is being supported by the top
 of the previous intrinsic level.


 I'm not sure I fully grasp all of the above, but I would like to tackle
 you again on the POPJ, because I still can't see how your model can succeed
 in avoiding it. Let me start by telling you about a movie I streamed last
 night - Inception (I'm a bit behindhand on popular movies!). It was quite
 an enjoyable yarn, but it struck me as pretty flaky, even as science
 fiction, not least because the plot is built on the idea that dreams could
 be experienced (and even nested dream-within-dream) with near-waking
 physical consistency. This got me reflecting on what does indeed
 distinguish dreams from waking reality (acknowledging of course that both
 are virtual presentations from the personal perspective). I don't know
 about your dreams, but in mine things have the darnedest habit of
 disappearing or turning into something else when I look away and this,
 presumably, is because sleeping-dreams are different to waking-dreams in
 that their appearances are not in general stabilised by anything
 extrinsic to the brain and body.

 By extrinsic here I am not committing to the ultimate nature of the brain
 and its environment, merely that all our experiences - metaphorised as
 dreams, or in a more up-to-date image, a multi-player video-game - must
 depend on some generalised and consistent system of appearances for
 consistency and stabilisation. It turns out, indeed, that the system of
 appearances our internal video game depends on is detailed, consistent and
 stable to the most extraordinary degree; let us call this stable,
 exhaustive and reliably causally-complete set of appearances the
 game-physics. And the avatars that appear to us within the game - bodies
 and brains, our own and others' - turn out to follow the rules of the
 game-physics precisely in conformity with the set of appearances as a
 whole, to the furthermost extent we can explore.

 The logical consequence of the above is just this: Even if you consider
 that the sensory nature of that-which-exists extends, beyond our personal
 virtual presentations, to the whole of reality itself, one can still not
 avoid the encounter in waking-dreams with avatars (including one's own)
 that cheerfully lay claim to sensory phenomena that are supernumerary in
 explaining their behaviour in terms of its own rules-of-appearance (i.e.
 the game-physics), and which they could not logically have access to in
 terms of those very rules. Hence these sensory phenomena cannot be the
 cause of these claims. This, again is the POPJ. ISTM that it is unavoidable
 in any schema, whether primitive-sensory or primitive-physical, in which no
 further logical entailment is discoverable in the causally-complete
 machinations of the game-physics.


 The POPJ is not a problem at all for MSR.


Pleased to hear it. Why?


 MSR is a solution to POPJ because judgments are just other kinds of
 sensations than public facing sensations.


Doesn't help. In your theory, everything is of course hypothesised to be
just one sort of sensation or another - that's obviously the case for any
kind of idealist or panpsychist schema. The point I'm laboriously trying to
get you to acknowledge is that move doesn't get you off this particular
hook. See below.


 Judgments are cognitive qualia, and qualia is 1) beyond function, and 2)
 transparent and reflective (metaphorically) to other kinds of qualia.


That's as may be, but we're precisely talking about
qualitatively-instantiated appearances and likewise the ubiquitous evidence
of a rigorous and causally closed set of game-physics followed by those
appearances. I take it that you don't deny that this is a  defining aspect
of your own experience? It certainly is of mine. The stabilisation of
experience by stringently rule-following appearances is what I was alluding
to in my contrasting of the dreaming and waking states.

Instead of starting from the assumption of isolation in which sensations
 have to be added on top of our separateness, I start from the assumption of
 unity at the Absolute, which is diffracted locally through insensitivity.
 Thus in some sense we are all the same experience. In others we are
 experience of all organisms. In others we are experiences of animals, etc,
 all the way down to our unique narrative experience. With sense as
 primordial, all appearances of 

Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

You already told us that the twins ARE at the same point in spacetime when 
they meet up again.

Is that not an OBJECTIVE fact? Do we not actually KNOW that? The twins most 
certainly DO KNOW it because they can shake hands and look at each other's 
clocks at the same time. How can you claim it if it is not a fact and 
knowable? Label or not, it is a knowable fact that both twins agree on.

If we agree then that the twins ARE at the SAME point of spacetime when 
they meet again, then they must be at the same point in TIME as well as in 
space. I call that same point in time what everyone else does, the present 
moment.

1. This clearly demonstrates there is an ACTUAL same point of TIME 
independent of clock time.
2. This establishes an actual local same time independent of clock time but 
not a universal actual same time.
2. But the proof that that actual same point in time is common and 
universal is simple:

a. The twins are at the same actual point in time both before and after the 
trip.
b. The twins are always in their OWN local present moment continuously 
during the trip.
c. Therefore during the trip there must always be a one to one 
correspondence between those actual present moments even though the clock 
times are not in synch. Because they both begin and end in that present 
moment and never leave it during the trip.
d. This will be true for all observers, therefore there IS a common 
universal present moment.

It's simple logic...

Edgar




On Saturday, February 1, 2014 5:18:38 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:




 On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 4:28 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 PS: If coordinate time is just saying that when the twins meet up again 
 they are actually at the SAME point in spacetime, but we don't know (can't 
 agree) what clock time that corresponds to then I agree completely.


 There is no objective fact to know or not know, it's just a matter of 
 labeling, just like with x and y coordinates used to label points on a 2D 
 plane.


  

 That is exactly what my theory says and what I've always said.

 I just call that same point in spacetime the present moment because it's 
 standard nomenclature, and it's consistent with everyone's direct 
 experiential observation. 


 But don't you go beyond that and say that there is an objective truth 
 about whether events that *don't* happen at the same point in 
 spacetime--like an event happening to me here in Providence and an event 
 happening to someone else in Paris--happen at the same time or not? Isn't 
 the present moment supposed to say that a bunch of events spread 
 throughout space are all happening now? If so, then as I said there is no 
 logical justification for going from there is an objective truth about 
 whether two events coincide at the same point in spacetime to there is an 
 objective present, such that there is an objective truth about whether two 
 events happened at the same time even if they didn't coincide in spacetime.

 Jesse


  

 On Saturday, February 1, 2014 2:45:17 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 1:58 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 Not correct. My present moment does NOT say that there is an 
 objective common present moment for events that are *not* at the same 
 point in spaceTIME (my emphasis).

 My theory says that there is a common universal present moment shared 
 by all points in SPACE, not spaceTIME. Because clocktimes can obviously 
 have different t values within that present moment.



 That's just semantics, I was using the standard terminology of 
 relativity, if you want to change the meaning of terms you're free to 
 translate my statement into your own terminology, but I don't think I got 
 the *meaning* of your theory wrong. When I said not at the same point in 
 spacetime I meant events that someone using the labeling system of 
 mainstream physics would say occur at different points in spacetime, which 
 in terms of your own theory could cover both events at different p-times as 
 well as events at the same p-time but different points in space. You 
 believe that for any pair of events that a physicist says happen at 
 different points in spacetime, there is an objective truth about whether 
 they happened at the same time, different points in space or different 
 times. The set of all events that are happening at the same p-time as what 
 I am experiencing here and now would be the objective common present 
 moment, and these are events a physicist would label as having different 
 points in spacetime, regardless of how you would label them. So that's what 
 I meant when I said that you believed there was an objective common 
 present moment for events that are not at the same point in spacetime.

  


 Second, thanks for the long explication following, which I more or less 
 agree with.

 But my question remains: If coordinate time is just an alternate 
 coordinate system then for the twins to be at the SAME 

Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread David Nyman
On 1 February 2014 20:33, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Saturday, February 1, 2014 2:53:30 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 16:55, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 I get around that with perceptual relativity. When flying over a city, it
 doesn't look like there are millions of conscious entities - not because
 their behavior is limited to a set of rules, but because your vantage point
 amplifies the insensitivity of your perceptual frame. By modulating
 frequency and scale, perceptual histories diverge and alienate each other's
 presence. The more extreme the alienation, the more the quality of what is
 perceived appears mechanical.


 I don't see that you make your point here. How does your vantage point
 amplifies the insensitivity of your perceptual frame get around anything?


 Because it is not that consciousness follows rules, it is that rules are
 the result of one conscious experience modeling others. What we can know
 about the universe outside of our body is limited by our body. The mind has
 different limitations, but it is much more directly sensitive to physics
 than our body, and its view of other bodies.


Right, so the mind transcends the limits of the brain in its ability to
make contact with physics? Is this supposed to mean that you are capable of
thoughts that are not minutely correlated with some behaviour of your
brain? If so, how do you explain how those thoughts acquire their
sensitivity to physics or any purchase on the universe outside the body?



  ISTM rather that the quality of what is perceived appears mechanical
 because when placed under examination at any scale it can be observed to
 adhere to an unvarying and causally-closed set of rules (the ones we group
 under the heading of physical).


 That's because the variation is closed to our vantage point. If an alien
 astronomer looked at any individual or group of people, they would conclude
 a causally-closed set of rules as well, but that's only because they are
 looking at the behavior of our bodies. The behavior of bodies is not that
 interesting compared to the aesthetic content of experiences. You could
 have a life changing epiphany and the alien astronomer would see nothing
 very interesting.


But that, my dear Craig, is my very point, don't you see? Because amongst
those uninteresting behaviours is the ability to lay claim to the
possession of those very aesthetic experiences and those selfsame
epiphanies.



  In effect, it appears to be a mechanism at all scales.


 Appears. What about feels? Why would mechanisms have an experience that
 feels like something?


And there you have it! My point exactly - why indeed? But you would have
been more correct to say why would mechanisms *claim* to have an
experience that feels like something. And, a fortiori, how? Don't look
away - this is the POPJ.



  The inexorable progress of this analysis of physical appearances has so
 far trumped every historical attempt to interpolate novel top-down rules
 operating at other levels (spiritualism, vitalism, holism, dualism etc.).


 Because it is looking for the head (temporary experiences) at the tail end
 (bodies in space). They are aesthetically orthogonal views. If you measure
 something with an instrument, you can only measure the outside of the
 instrument interacting with the outside of another body. The result is an
 inside out view of the universe.


True, but that inside-out view must be intelligibly correlated - and in
astoundingly-precise detail at that - with the outside-in view. Else you
are hard pressed to explain why they appear to co-vary in such exquisite
detail. The emergence of the POPJ in both theories is a sign that neither a
purely outside-in, nor a purely inside-out theory, can do the job of
correlating consciousness with the appearance of mechanism.



 Comp, as I've said, at the least confronts the problem and offers the
 possible shape of a solution (but that alone, of course, doesn't guarantee
 its correctness).


 Yes, Comp is almost correct, but at the absolute level, when it comes to
 putting the horse of sense before the cart of information, it gets it
 exactly wrong.


Only if you impose your particular prejudices on it by fiat.



 The value of any genuinely new insight (Relativity Theory, for example)
 is not in ignoring the previous theory (Newtonian mechanics in this case)
 but rather in providing a better explanation for the predictions of the old
 theory whilst simultaneously making new and surprising ones that turn out
 to match observation better.


 This is not about making predictions, although someone could take it in
 that directions. This is about understanding the nature of consciousness
 and physics.


Which as I've said must correlate the two whilst eliminating neither.




 Consequently, if your theory is to prevail, it must be able to explain
 why appearance - and especially the appearance of conscious behaviour,
 not excluding 

Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Russell Standish
On Sat, Feb 01, 2014 at 03:46:37PM -0800, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
 c. Therefore during the trip there must always be a one to one 
 correspondence between those actual present moments even though the clock 
 times are not in synch. Because they both begin and end in that present 
 moment and never leave it during the trip.

It is here that your argument breaks down. Yes, there is a 1:1
correspondence (a bijection in fact) between the two clock times. But
there are many possible such bijections, where you (implicitly) assume
only a single one (perhaps the linear one). In SR there is a differnt
bijection for each different inertial reference frame.


-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

You said it was just a label that seemed to imply otherwise, but I'm glad 
we agree it is an objective knowable fact that the twins meet in an ACTUAL 
same point in both time and space even with different clock times. That's 
what I've always exactly said the present moment was.

By actual I mean that the twins AGREE, and will always agree, on being at 
the same point in time (in the same present moment) after they meet even 
though their clock times are different. That actual time obviously trumps 
their clock times on which they don't agree.

Again if we accept the fact that the twins are in the same actual time 
before and after the trip let me tighten the duration argument up a little.

Assume now that one twin stays at home but he now has billions of other 
twins. Now assume each of those traveling twins takes a relativistic trip 
from which they return sequentially one second apart for the next billion 
seconds.

As agreed each twin will always arrive into the same ACTUAL point in time 
(my present moment) as the earth bound twin. Therefore we can conclude that 
there is a continuous common same actual point in time for all the twins 
over the next billion seconds from when they all leave till the last one 
returns, even though EVERY twin will have different clock times within that 
same actual time.

Now assume there are an infinite number of twins and that they arrive 
continuously forever into the exact same actual point in time even though 
every one of their clock times is different. Thus the present moment must 
be universal and shared by all twins at all times.

As for your 2D example, sure I agree that CLOCK time is just an equivalent 
dimension, but you are talking about CLOCK time, not the ACTUAL time that 
all twins arrive back into and AGREE UPON that is clearly NOT the same as 
clock time.

There is only one valid conclusion here and that is that there is a common 
present moment (actual time) for all twins which is NOT equivalent to and 
is independent of clock time.

That's because there can be NO single coordinate system that gives the same 
clock time for all the billions of traveling twins but there is a SAME 
actual time for all of them which is a knowable observable fact. Sure, you 
can choose a coordinate system arbitrarily, that is standard relativity 
theory. But there is NO single coordinate system that gives the same t 
value for all the billions of traveling twins, yet there is an agreed upon 
SINGLE actual time in which they meet and agree upon even though every one 
of those billions of twins has a different clock time.

Therefore there must be a separate kind of actual time in which clock times 
vary that is not clock time, and is not any single coordinate time. 

Edgar



On Saturday, February 1, 2014 7:23:19 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 6:46 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 You already told us that the twins ARE at the same point in spacetime when 
 they meet up again.

 Is that not an OBJECTIVE fact? Do we not actually KNOW that? The twins 
 most certainly DO KNOW it because they can shake hands and look at each 
 other's clocks at the same time. How can you claim it if it is not a fact 
 and knowable? Label or not, it is a knowable fact that both twins agree on.


 Uh, I never said it wasn't an objective knowable fact that they meet and 
 compare ages at a single point in spacetime, in fact I very clearly said 
 there is an objective truth about whether two events coincide at the same 
 point in spacetime. There is no objective fact about what specific time 
 coordinate is associated with a given point in spacetime, because that 
 depends entirely on arbitrary what event we choose to label as t=0 and how 
 we define simultaneity.
  


 If we agree then that the twins ARE at the SAME point of spacetime when 
 they meet again, then they must be at the same point in TIME as well as in 
 space.


 With respect to any particular coordinate system for labeling time, 
 sure, that's true. Similarly if two cars meet at the same point in space, 
 they must be at the same y-coordinate as well as the same x-coordiante, 
 regardless of how you choose to define your x and y axes. Are you going to 
 address the 2D geometric analogy as I asked you to in my next-to-last post 
 (the one before the one you are responding to here)? You do have a habit of 
 not addressing questions and arguments that I put to you, even when I 
 repeatedly ask you politely to address them. Whether you choose to address 
 it or not, I will continue to compare all your statements to analogous 
 statements one could make about 2D spatial geometry, in order to 
 demonstrate to anyone reading along that the resulting conclusions would 
 make no sense despite the fact that the argument appears to be precisely 
 analogous.

  

 I call that same point in time what everyone else does, the present moment.

 1. This clearly demonstrates there is an 

Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Russell,

Sorry, but you miss my argument. The 1:1 correspondence is between actual 
or present moment time, not clock time. Please refer to my proximate 
responses to Jesse for the details of the argument.

Edgar


On Saturday, February 1, 2014 8:21:48 PM UTC-5, Russell Standish wrote:

 On Sat, Feb 01, 2014 at 03:46:37PM -0800, Edgar L. Owen wrote: 
  c. Therefore during the trip there must always be a one to one 
  correspondence between those actual present moments even though the 
 clock 
  times are not in synch. Because they both begin and end in that present 
  moment and never leave it during the trip. 

 It is here that your argument breaks down. Yes, there is a 1:1 
 correspondence (a bijection in fact) between the two clock times. But 
 there are many possible such bijections, where you (implicitly) assume 
 only a single one (perhaps the linear one). In SR there is a differnt 
 bijection for each different inertial reference frame. 


 -- 

  

 Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile) 
 Principal, High Performance Coders 
 Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpc...@hpcoders.com.aujavascript: 
 University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au 
  



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How to define finite

2014-02-01 Thread meekerdb

Maybe we can convert Bruno to Aristotelanism:

https://web.math.princeton.edu/~nelson/papers/e.pdf

Brent

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-02-01 Thread meekerdb

On 2/1/2014 9:46 AM, John Clark wrote:




On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 7:57 AM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net 
mailto:edgaro...@att.net wrote:


 One might think it was the acceleration that slowed time on A's clock, 
BUT the
point is that A's acceleration was only 1g throughout the entire trip which 
was
exactly EQUAL to B's gravitational acceleration back on earth. So if the
accelerations were exactly equal during the entire trip how could A's 
acceleration
slow time but B's not slow time by the same amount?


If A were going into space and accelerating upward off the surface of the Earth at one g 
(32 feet per second per second), then he would be experiencing 2g, one g from the Earth 
and one g from his continuing change in upward velocity.


But A would experience acceleration quickly decreasing to 1g as he left the vicinity of 
the Earth. And the result wouldn't change if B entered a centrifuge and experienced an 
exactly equal acceleration while remaining on Earth.  This is why I emphasize that it is 
NOT an effect of acceleration, it is a geometric effect of different path lengths.


Brent



 both = 1g throughout the entire trip


No, not during the entire trip. And if the space traveler ever wants to return to Earth 
to rejoin his friend so they can directly compare their clocks then he's going to have 
to change the direction of his acceleration by 180 degrees. So their clocks will not 
match because their travel experiences were not symmetrical.


  John K Clark



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Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 1, 2014 7:56:29 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 20:33, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript:
  wrote:



 On Saturday, February 1, 2014 2:53:30 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 16:55, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 I get around that with perceptual relativity. When flying over a city, 
 it doesn't look like there are millions of conscious entities - not 
 because 
 their behavior is limited to a set of rules, but because your vantage 
 point 
 amplifies the insensitivity of your perceptual frame. By modulating 
 frequency and scale, perceptual histories diverge and alienate each 
 other's 
 presence. The more extreme the alienation, the more the quality of what is 
 perceived appears mechanical.


 I don't see that you make your point here. How does your vantage point 
 amplifies the insensitivity of your perceptual frame get around anything?


 Because it is not that consciousness follows rules, it is that rules are 
 the result of one conscious experience modeling others. What we can know 
 about the universe outside of our body is limited by our body. The mind has 
 different limitations, but it is much more directly sensitive to physics 
 than our body, and its view of other bodies.


 Right, so the mind transcends the limits of the brain in its ability to 
 make contact with physics? Is this supposed to mean that you are capable of 
 thoughts that are not minutely correlated with some behaviour of your 
 brain? If so, how do you explain how those thoughts acquire their 
 sensitivity to physics or any purchase on the universe outside the body?


You're framing it so that the brain appears as a viable thing on its own 
rather than as the knot of experience that I'm assuming it is. Physics, in 
my view, is nothing more or less than sense sensing itself. It's not that 
there is not minute correlation, it's that the brain activity correlates to 
nothing unless we import our own experience into the correlation.  The 
brain is a character in the experience of those who can relate to having an 
animal's body. A neuron is a character in the experience of those who can 
relate to having a cell, or a group of cells for a body. To be clear, the 
body and brain (as we see them) are just as sensitive to physics as we 
are, but our view of that sensitivity is not direct. Our body filters, 
our brain filters, parts of ourselves are filtered, but part of us is 
unfiltered, and that is 'who' we are. Not a what, or a how, or a why, but 
irreducibly a personal experience of who. Who is the direct (if limited and 
privatized) experience of physics (sense). The what and how of public 
bodies is public physics (indirect sense).


 

  ISTM rather that the quality of what is perceived appears mechanical 
 because when placed under examination at any scale it can be observed to 
 adhere to an unvarying and causally-closed set of rules (the ones we group 
 under the heading of physical).


 That's because the variation is closed to our vantage point. If an alien 
 astronomer looked at any individual or group of people, they would conclude 
 a causally-closed set of rules as well, but that's only because they are 
 looking at the behavior of our bodies. The behavior of bodies is not that 
 interesting compared to the aesthetic content of experiences. You could 
 have a life changing epiphany and the alien astronomer would see nothing 
 very interesting.


 But that, my dear Craig, is my very point, don't you see? Because amongst 
 those uninteresting behaviours is the ability to lay claim to the 
 possession of those very aesthetic experiences and those selfsame 
 epiphanies.


I'm saying that there are no uninteresting behaviors at all. It is not 
accessible from the outside. If it were not for the fact that we can 
correlate our own conscious experience with exotic magnetic resonance 
distribution patterns in the brain, something like a brain would seem no 
more worthy of inspection than the small intestine. It is like looking for 
the meaning of Shakespeare only in the grammar and punctuation of the play. 
It's the wrong place to look. The meaning is not visible there.
 

  

  In effect, it appears to be a mechanism at all scales.


 Appears. What about feels? Why would mechanisms have an experience that 
 feels like something?


 And there you have it! My point exactly - why indeed? But you would have 
 been more correct to say why would mechanisms *claim* to have an 
 experience that feels like something. And, a fortiori, how? Don't look 
 away - this is the POPJ. 


I'm not talking about the claim though. It doesn't make sense to claim 
something that cannot exist to begin with. I'm saying that experience 
cannot be invented in a mechanistic universe. It doesn't have a function.
 


  

  The inexorable progress of this analysis of physical appearances has so 
 far trumped every historical attempt to interpolate novel top-down rules 
 

Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

Consider another case:

Consider every observer in the entire universe. Every one of them is always 
currently in their own local actual time, their present moment. Now 
consider every last one of them all travel to meet up on earth. Every last 
one of them continually brings their own actual time with them through the 
whole trip with no discontinuities and when they meet up they discover that 
every last one of those local actual times turns out to be the exact SAME 
actual time, even if every one of their clock times is different.

Therefore it is clear that the actual times every one of them was always in 
was the exact same actual time as all the others were always in, and that 
demonstrates that the actual times of every observer in the universe is the 
exact same actual time... Thus there must be a common universal present 
moment.

Edgar



On Saturday, February 1, 2014 7:23:19 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 6:46 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.netjavascript:
  wrote:

 Jesse,

 You already told us that the twins ARE at the same point in spacetime when 
 they meet up again.

 Is that not an OBJECTIVE fact? Do we not actually KNOW that? The twins 
 most certainly DO KNOW it because they can shake hands and look at each 
 other's clocks at the same time. How can you claim it if it is not a fact 
 and knowable? Label or not, it is a knowable fact that both twins agree on.


 Uh, I never said it wasn't an objective knowable fact that they meet and 
 compare ages at a single point in spacetime, in fact I very clearly said 
 there is an objective truth about whether two events coincide at the same 
 point in spacetime. There is no objective fact about what specific time 
 coordinate is associated with a given point in spacetime, because that 
 depends entirely on arbitrary what event we choose to label as t=0 and how 
 we define simultaneity.
  


 If we agree then that the twins ARE at the SAME point of spacetime when 
 they meet again, then they must be at the same point in TIME as well as in 
 space.


 With respect to any particular coordinate system for labeling time, 
 sure, that's true. Similarly if two cars meet at the same point in space, 
 they must be at the same y-coordinate as well as the same x-coordiante, 
 regardless of how you choose to define your x and y axes. Are you going to 
 address the 2D geometric analogy as I asked you to in my next-to-last post 
 (the one before the one you are responding to here)? You do have a habit of 
 not addressing questions and arguments that I put to you, even when I 
 repeatedly ask you politely to address them. Whether you choose to address 
 it or not, I will continue to compare all your statements to analogous 
 statements one could make about 2D spatial geometry, in order to 
 demonstrate to anyone reading along that the resulting conclusions would 
 make no sense despite the fact that the argument appears to be precisely 
 analogous.

  

 I call that same point in time what everyone else does, the present moment.

 1. This clearly demonstrates there is an ACTUAL same point of TIME 
 independent of clock time.


 I don't know what you mean by actual. Time is a coordinate, the phrase 
 same point in time has no more coordinate-independent meaning than same 
 y-coordinate. Only statements about spacetime geometry can be meaningful 
 without any notion of a coordinate system--separating them into space and 
 time is an artificial coordinate-dependent notion, just like separating 
 2D space into the x-axis and the y-axis (though in spacetime it is 
 objectively meaningful to distinguish particular *paths* through spacetime 
 depending on whether they are timelike, spacelike or lightlike).

  

 2. This establishes an actual local same time independent of clock time 
 but not a universal actual same time.
 2. But the proof that that actual same point in time is common and 
 universal is simple:

 a. The twins are at the same actual point in time both before and after 
 the trip.


 The two cars in my example, driving along different roads between two 
 points A and B where the two roads cross (analogous to the twins who have 
 different paths through spacetime that cross at the event of the 
 departure and the event of the reunion), are likewise both at the same 
 y-coordinate at A and at B (regardless of what specific coordinate system 
 we choose).
  

 b. The twins are always in their OWN local present moment continuously 
 during the trip.


 The cars are always positioned at their OWN local y-coordinate 
 continuously during the trip (again regardless of what coordinate system we 
 choose).

  

 c. Therefore during the trip there must always be a one to one 
 correspondence between those actual present moments even though the clock 
 times are not in synch. Because they both begin and end in that present 
 moment and never leave it during the trip.


 Do you claim this correspondence would be independent of the choice 

Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread David Nyman
Sorry Craig but I find you a simply impossible discussion partner. It
doesn't seem to matter how directly and specifically one tries to put a
point to you; you seem endlessly capable of deflecting, ignoring or just
changing the subject. It's a real pity too that you seem convinced that all
criticisms of your ideas stem from the most primitive misunderstandings -
it stops you from really evaluating the arguments. In fact I'm not
convinced you bring much that's novel to the party (which in itself is no
cause for shame in such a traditionally intractable subject) but your
reluctance to confront the real difficulties faced by your type of theory
makes further discussion too frustrating to sustain, at least for me. Sorry
if that seems harsh, but there it is. Over and out.

David
On 2 Feb 2014 02:20, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Saturday, February 1, 2014 7:56:29 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 20:33, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Saturday, February 1, 2014 2:53:30 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 16:55, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 I get around that with perceptual relativity. When flying over a city,
 it doesn't look like there are millions of conscious entities - not 
 because
 their behavior is limited to a set of rules, but because your vantage 
 point
 amplifies the insensitivity of your perceptual frame. By modulating
 frequency and scale, perceptual histories diverge and alienate each 
 other's
 presence. The more extreme the alienation, the more the quality of what is
 perceived appears mechanical.


 I don't see that you make your point here. How does your vantage point
 amplifies the insensitivity of your perceptual frame get around anything?


 Because it is not that consciousness follows rules, it is that rules are
 the result of one conscious experience modeling others. What we can know
 about the universe outside of our body is limited by our body. The mind has
 different limitations, but it is much more directly sensitive to physics
 than our body, and its view of other bodies.


 Right, so the mind transcends the limits of the brain in its ability to
 make contact with physics? Is this supposed to mean that you are capable of
 thoughts that are not minutely correlated with some behaviour of your
 brain? If so, how do you explain how those thoughts acquire their
 sensitivity to physics or any purchase on the universe outside the body?


 You're framing it so that the brain appears as a viable thing on its own
 rather than as the knot of experience that I'm assuming it is. Physics, in
 my view, is nothing more or less than sense sensing itself. It's not that
 there is not minute correlation, it's that the brain activity correlates to
 nothing unless we import our own experience into the correlation.  The
 brain is a character in the experience of those who can relate to having an
 animal's body. A neuron is a character in the experience of those who can
 relate to having a cell, or a group of cells for a body. To be clear, the
 body and brain (as we see them) are just as sensitive to physics as we
 are, but our view of that sensitivity is not direct. Our body filters,
 our brain filters, parts of ourselves are filtered, but part of us is
 unfiltered, and that is 'who' we are. Not a what, or a how, or a why, but
 irreducibly a personal experience of who. Who is the direct (if limited and
 privatized) experience of physics (sense). The what and how of public
 bodies is public physics (indirect sense).




  ISTM rather that the quality of what is perceived appears mechanical
 because when placed under examination at any scale it can be observed to
 adhere to an unvarying and causally-closed set of rules (the ones we group
 under the heading of physical).


 That's because the variation is closed to our vantage point. If an alien
 astronomer looked at any individual or group of people, they would conclude
 a causally-closed set of rules as well, but that's only because they are
 looking at the behavior of our bodies. The behavior of bodies is not that
 interesting compared to the aesthetic content of experiences. You could
 have a life changing epiphany and the alien astronomer would see nothing
 very interesting.


 But that, my dear Craig, is my very point, don't you see? Because amongst
 those uninteresting behaviours is the ability to lay claim to the
 possession of those very aesthetic experiences and those selfsame
 epiphanies.


 I'm saying that there are no uninteresting behaviors at all. It is not
 accessible from the outside. If it were not for the fact that we can
 correlate our own conscious experience with exotic magnetic resonance
 distribution patterns in the brain, something like a brain would seem no
 more worthy of inspection than the small intestine. It is like looking for
 the meaning of Shakespeare only in the grammar and punctuation of the play.
 It's the wrong place to look. The meaning is 

Re: Tegmark's new book

2014-02-01 Thread LizR
I will answer that if / when I have read it.


On 2 February 2014 01:23, Ronald Held ronaldh...@gmail.com wrote:

 Liz I should have typed which of the two diametrically opposed camps
 has the most members in it.

 For another try I have read the following:


  arXiv:0704.0646 [pdf, ps, other]
 Title: The Mathematical Universe
 Authors: Max Tegmark (MIT)
 arXiv:0707.2593 [pdf, ps, other]
 Title: Many lives in many worlds
 arXiv:0905.1283 [pdf, ps, other]
 Title: The Multiverse Hierarchy
 Authors: Max Tegmark (MIT)
 arXiv:0905.2182 [pdf, ps, other]
 Title: Many Worlds in Context

  including  arXiv:1401.1219 [pdf, other]
 Title: Consciousness as a State of Matter

 Am I going to getting anything different or more clearly explained in his
 book?
Ronald

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Re: Block Universes

2014-02-01 Thread LizR
On 2 February 2014 04:44, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 07:05, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 Everything we observe takes place in a manner that can be placed within a
 space-time continuum such that a god's eye view (or the relevant
 equations) would see it as static. But of course *we* don't see it like
 that.

 This appears to be the source of the problem a few people have with this
 concept, however - they appear to confuse the god's eye view with ours. But
 of course we're embedded in space-time - along for the ride. So of course
 we see change all the time.


 Hi Liz

 I'd just like to be clear that I'm not one of those attacking block (in
 the sense of co-existent) models in physics or TOEs in general (comp, for
 example). In fact I'd come to this view already some years back after
 finally losing confidence in my previous adherence to presentism -
 despite (or rather because of) trying unsuccessfully to defend it against
 experts. That said, as you may have noticed, I'm rather interested in the
 heuristics people employ to make intuitive sense of the frog view from
 within the block, as Mad Max Tegmark calls it.

 So in that spirit could I ask you to enlarge a little on just what you are
 thinking about when you use the term we in your statements above? Who or
 what are the we who don't see it like that, are along for the ride
 and see change all the time? I'm thinking here specifically of the frog
 or first-person perspective. Should we think of an extended frog, for
 example, that is spread out over a co-existent series of moments, each of
 which encodes a slightly different spatial-temporal perspective? If so, how
 specifically can we account for the momentary frog that believes itself
 always to be restricted to only one moment of that series, but is convinced
 that it's not always the same one? After all, from the frog's perspective,
 the appearance of an irreversible progression through a series of changes
 in a singular spatial-temporal location is the most non-negotiable feature
 of its very life.

 If you feel that the best available answer is that it's all an illusion,
 actually I wouldn't dispute that. But I'm interested in investigating the
 detailed logic of that very illusion, in approximately the sense that we
 can investigate and account logically for other illusions like the apparent
 continuity of vision despite constant rapid ocular saccades. With respect
 to the latter, we could probably say quite a lot about how the brain
 contrives that particular illusion  Funnily enough, physicists also tend to
 appeal loosely to the brain in response to the illusion of the passage of
 time (it's psychology - not my subject). But, presumably we can say a
 little more about what a brain might be doing in deleting the gaps between
 ocular fixations, whereas we might be a bit in the dark about how the
 brain (itself now conceived as a four-dimensional physical object spread
 out over time) might contrive to manage the illusion of change in its own
 apparent spatial-temporal location.

 Is a series of frogs spread out over time, each believing it occupies a
 different spatial-temporal location, equivalent to the apparent experience
 of one frog occupying a single moment that keeps changing? By what logic do
 we suppose this would this be distinguishable from the permanently
 separated experiences of a series of individual frogs? IOW, why wouldn't
 each of us have the permanent experience of being many different frogs
 stuck in time, rather than one frog moving through time? These are not
 intended to be rhetorical questions, by the way. IOW, saying that something
 is an illusion is only the beginning of an explanation, not the conclusion
 of one.

 Comp may fare better here because it sets out on the path of elucidating
 exactly how a we might be defined such that this we might entertain the
 specific illusion of successive changes in its spatial-temporal location.
 But for me, at least, this is more difficult to intuit with any precision
 in a non-comp block concept, precisely because of the under-definition of
 the referent for we. The frog perspective is assumed, rather than
 elucidated. Anyway, as ever, your own thoughts would be much appreciated.


Thank you for those kind words :)

The block universe view requires that our sense of time passing emerges
from whatever the current state of our brain is, of course. However that
requirement isn't limited to the BU view. Any view in which locality is
preserved has the same requirement. In fact, presentism, come to think of
it, has this requirement even more, because it literally says that the past
doesn't exist!

So actually the real problem is how presentism gives rise to the illusion
of time passing, with no past there, why s the present constrained to act
as though it is there? In a BU the past is there, embedded in space-time,
and each state is constrained to follow the last one by the laws of
physics. E.g. 

Re: Better Than the Chinese Room

2014-02-01 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Saturday, February 1, 2014 6:30:52 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 21:49, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript:
  wrote:


 Found it!

 On Friday, January 31, 2014 11:45:24 AM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 31 January 2014 01:52, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 The we of individual human beings relies on physical consistency 
 because that is a common sensory experience of the 
 animalorganismsubstance context. The substance context however relies on 
 the we of the Absolute context. The biological context relies on those 
 wes, and the animal context relies on the biological wes. It's all 
 nested but the bottom of each extrinsic level is being supported by the 
 top 
 of the previous intrinsic level.


 I'm not sure I fully grasp all of the above, but I would like to tackle 
 you again on the POPJ, because I still can't see how your model can succeed 
 in avoiding it. Let me start by telling you about a movie I streamed last 
 night - Inception (I'm a bit behindhand on popular movies!). It was quite 
 an enjoyable yarn, but it struck me as pretty flaky, even as science 
 fiction, not least because the plot is built on the idea that dreams could 
 be experienced (and even nested dream-within-dream) with near-waking 
 physical consistency. This got me reflecting on what does indeed 
 distinguish dreams from waking reality (acknowledging of course that both 
 are virtual presentations from the personal perspective). I don't know 
 about your dreams, but in mine things have the darnedest habit of 
 disappearing or turning into something else when I look away and this, 
 presumably, is because sleeping-dreams are different to waking-dreams in 
 that their appearances are not in general stabilised by anything 
 extrinsic to the brain and body.

 By extrinsic here I am not committing to the ultimate nature of the 
 brain and its environment, merely that all our experiences - metaphorised 
 as dreams, or in a more up-to-date image, a multi-player video-game - must 
 depend on some generalised and consistent system of appearances for 
 consistency and stabilisation. It turns out, indeed, that the system of 
 appearances our internal video game depends on is detailed, consistent and 
 stable to the most extraordinary degree; let us call this stable, 
 exhaustive and reliably causally-complete set of appearances the 
 game-physics. And the avatars that appear to us within the game - bodies 
 and brains, our own and others' - turn out to follow the rules of the 
 game-physics precisely in conformity with the set of appearances as a 
 whole, to the furthermost extent we can explore.

 The logical consequence of the above is just this: Even if you consider 
 that the sensory nature of that-which-exists extends, beyond our personal 
 virtual presentations, to the whole of reality itself, one can still not 
 avoid the encounter in waking-dreams with avatars (including one's own) 
 that cheerfully lay claim to sensory phenomena that are supernumerary in 
 explaining their behaviour in terms of its own rules-of-appearance (i.e. 
 the game-physics), and which they could not logically have access to in 
 terms of those very rules. Hence these sensory phenomena cannot be the 
 cause of these claims. This, again is the POPJ. ISTM that it is unavoidable 
 in any schema, whether primitive-sensory or primitive-physical, in which no 
 further logical entailment is discoverable in the causally-complete 
 machinations of the game-physics.


 The POPJ is not a problem at all for MSR.


 Pleased to hear it. Why?
  

 MSR is a solution to POPJ because judgments are just other kinds of 
 sensations than public facing sensations.


 Doesn't help. In your theory, everything is of course hypothesised to be 
 just one sort of sensation or another - that's obviously the case for any 
 kind of idealist or panpsychist schema. 


I separate my view from idealism or panpsychism in that both of those imply 
a human-like first person experience, so that people might presume we are 
talking about rocks that can feel or rocks that disappear when nobody is 
looking at them. With pansensitivity, I am not talking about a public world 
which is 'maya', but privacy and publicity as opposite ends of a single 
continuum of fantastic and realistic qualities. Everything is not 'just one 
sort of sensation or another', but rather that thing itself is an 
expectation within sense.
 

 The point I'm laboriously trying to get you to acknowledge is that move 
 doesn't get you off this particular hook. See below.
  

 Judgments are cognitive qualia, and qualia is 1) beyond function, and 2) 
 transparent and reflective (metaphorically) to other kinds of qualia.


 That's as may be, but we're precisely talking about 
 qualitatively-instantiated appearances 


There aren't any other kind of appearances.
 

 and likewise the ubiquitous evidence of a rigorous and causally closed set 
 of game-physics followed by those 

Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread Craig Weinberg
It's because you don't listen, and then project that quality onto me. It's 
very common I've found. Not everyone is that way though. I have many 
productive conversations with people also. That would be hard to explain if 
it was my fault.

On Saturday, February 1, 2014 10:28:38 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 Sorry Craig but I find you a simply impossible discussion partner. It 
 doesn't seem to matter how directly and specifically one tries to put a 
 point to you; you seem endlessly capable of deflecting, ignoring or just 
 changing the subject. It's a real pity too that you seem convinced that all 
 criticisms of your ideas stem from the most primitive misunderstandings - 
 it stops you from really evaluating the arguments. In fact I'm not 
 convinced you bring much that's novel to the party (which in itself is no 
 cause for shame in such a traditionally intractable subject) but your 
 reluctance to confront the real difficulties faced by your type of theory 
 makes further discussion too frustrating to sustain, at least for me. Sorry 
 if that seems harsh, but there it is. Over and out.

 David
 On 2 Feb 2014 02:20, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com javascript: 
 wrote:



 On Saturday, February 1, 2014 7:56:29 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 20:33, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Saturday, February 1, 2014 2:53:30 PM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 16:55, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 I get around that with perceptual relativity. When flying over a city, 
 it doesn't look like there are millions of conscious entities - not 
 because 
 their behavior is limited to a set of rules, but because your vantage 
 point 
 amplifies the insensitivity of your perceptual frame. By modulating 
 frequency and scale, perceptual histories diverge and alienate each 
 other's 
 presence. The more extreme the alienation, the more the quality of what 
 is 
 perceived appears mechanical.


 I don't see that you make your point here. How does your vantage 
 point amplifies the insensitivity of your perceptual frame get around 
 anything?


 Because it is not that consciousness follows rules, it is that rules 
 are the result of one conscious experience modeling others. What we can 
 know about the universe outside of our body is limited by our body. The 
 mind has different limitations, but it is much more directly sensitive to 
 physics than our body, and its view of other bodies.


 Right, so the mind transcends the limits of the brain in its ability to 
 make contact with physics? Is this supposed to mean that you are capable of 
 thoughts that are not minutely correlated with some behaviour of your 
 brain? If so, how do you explain how those thoughts acquire their 
 sensitivity to physics or any purchase on the universe outside the body?


 You're framing it so that the brain appears as a viable thing on its own 
 rather than as the knot of experience that I'm assuming it is. Physics, in 
 my view, is nothing more or less than sense sensing itself. It's not that 
 there is not minute correlation, it's that the brain activity correlates to 
 nothing unless we import our own experience into the correlation.  The 
 brain is a character in the experience of those who can relate to having an 
 animal's body. A neuron is a character in the experience of those who can 
 relate to having a cell, or a group of cells for a body. To be clear, the 
 body and brain (as we see them) are just as sensitive to physics as we 
 are, but our view of that sensitivity is not direct. Our body filters, 
 our brain filters, parts of ourselves are filtered, but part of us is 
 unfiltered, and that is 'who' we are. Not a what, or a how, or a why, but 
 irreducibly a personal experience of who. Who is the direct (if limited and 
 privatized) experience of physics (sense). The what and how of public 
 bodies is public physics (indirect sense).


  

  ISTM rather that the quality of what is perceived appears 
 mechanical because when placed under examination at any scale it can be 
 observed to adhere to an unvarying and causally-closed set of rules (the 
 ones we group under the heading of physical).


 That's because the variation is closed to our vantage point. If an 
 alien astronomer looked at any individual or group of people, they would 
 conclude a causally-closed set of rules as well, but that's only because 
 they are looking at the behavior of our bodies. The behavior of bodies is 
 not that interesting compared to the aesthetic content of experiences. You 
 could have a life changing epiphany and the alien astronomer would see 
 nothing very interesting.


 But that, my dear Craig, is my very point, don't you see? Because 
 amongst those uninteresting behaviours is the ability to lay claim to the 
 possession of those very aesthetic experiences and those selfsame 
 epiphanies.


 I'm saying that there are no uninteresting behaviors at all. It is not 
 accessible from the 

Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread LizR
The saga continues...

[image: Inline images 1]

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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Jesse Mazer
On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 10:21 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 Consider another case:

 Consider every observer in the entire universe. Every one of them is
 always currently in their own local actual time, their present moment.



Are you just asserting your presentist views, or are you trying to make an
*argument* for them? Hopefully you agree that if you want to make an
argument, you can't just assume presentism in your argument from the start.
So if you mean there is only one point on each observer's worldline that is
his own actual local time, that's a cheat because it already assumes that
eternalism is false and that all points on a given worldline don't have an
equally real existence. On the other hand, if you just mean that at each
point on an observer's worldline, the observer's mind at that point judges
certain events to be in his local actual time, that's OK--for example at
the point on my worldline where I turned 20 I judged the local date to be
1997, at the point on my worldline where I turned 30 I judged the local
date to be 2007, etc.


 Now consider every last one of them all travel to meet up on earth. Every
 last one of them continually brings their own actual time with them through
 the whole trip with no discontinuities and when they meet up they discover
 that every last one of those local actual times turns out to be the exact
 SAME actual time, even if every one of their clock times is different.


This argument only seems to make sense if you assume the presentist notion
of a unique point on each observer's worldline that's their local actual
time--and as I said, that is simply assuming what you are trying to prove,
so if your argument proceeds from that assumption it's completely circular.

Jesse



On Saturday, February 1, 2014 7:23:19 PM UTC-5, jessem wrote:



 On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 6:46 PM, Edgar L. Owen edga...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 You already told us that the twins ARE at the same point in spacetime when
 they meet up again.

 Is that not an OBJECTIVE fact? Do we not actually KNOW that? The twins
 most certainly DO KNOW it because they can shake hands and look at each
 other's clocks at the same time. How can you claim it if it is not a fact
 and knowable? Label or not, it is a knowable fact that both twins agree on.


 Uh, I never said it wasn't an objective knowable fact that they meet and
 compare ages at a single point in spacetime, in fact I very clearly said
 there is an objective truth about whether two events coincide at the same
 point in spacetime. There is no objective fact about what specific time
 coordinate is associated with a given point in spacetime, because that
 depends entirely on arbitrary what event we choose to label as t=0 and how
 we define simultaneity.



 If we agree then that the twins ARE at the SAME point of spacetime when
 they meet again, then they must be at the same point in TIME as well as in
 space.


 With respect to any particular coordinate system for labeling time,
 sure, that's true. Similarly if two cars meet at the same point in space,
 they must be at the same y-coordinate as well as the same x-coordiante,
 regardless of how you choose to define your x and y axes. Are you going to
 address the 2D geometric analogy as I asked you to in my next-to-last post
 (the one before the one you are responding to here)? You do have a habit of
 not addressing questions and arguments that I put to you, even when I
 repeatedly ask you politely to address them. Whether you choose to address
 it or not, I will continue to compare all your statements to analogous
 statements one could make about 2D spatial geometry, in order to
 demonstrate to anyone reading along that the resulting conclusions would
 make no sense despite the fact that the argument appears to be precisely
 analogous.



 I call that same point in time what everyone else does, the present moment.

 1. This clearly demonstrates there is an ACTUAL same point of TIME
 independent of clock time.


 I don't know what you mean by actual. Time is a coordinate, the phrase
 same point in time has no more coordinate-independent meaning than same
 y-coordinate. Only statements about spacetime geometry can be meaningful
 without any notion of a coordinate system--separating them into space and
 time is an artificial coordinate-dependent notion, just like separating
 2D space into the x-axis and the y-axis (though in spacetime it is
 objectively meaningful to distinguish particular *paths* through spacetime
 depending on whether they are timelike, spacelike or lightlike).



 2. This establishes an actual local same time independent of clock time
 but not a universal actual same time.
 2. But the proof that that actual same point in time is common and
 universal is simple:

 a. The twins are at the same actual point in time both before and after
 the trip.


 The two cars in my example, driving along different roads between two
 points A and B where the two roads cross 

Re: Unput and Onput

2014-02-01 Thread LizR
On 2 February 2014 06:47, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:

 On 1 February 2014 16:55, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

 If you don't see how my 'theory' automatically trumps any logical
 objection then you don't understand my theory fully.


 That is truly hilarious Craig! I cannot help being reminded of Luther's
 admonition that To be a Christian, you must pluck out the eye of reason..
 Are you looking for converts rather than debate? I have no idea how you
 expect me or anyone else to understand your theory if you continue
 sidestep all logical objections to your ideas.


Phew. At least it isn't just me who has this reaction. Maybe Craig and
Edgar can get together and form a church whose motto is I am right, and if
you don't realise that it's because your little brain can't grasp my
magnificent theory.

They could call it C  E ... which happens to be the initials of me and my
other half (not to mention the Church of England).

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Re: Discovery of quantum vibrations in brain microtubules confirms Hameroff/Penrose consciousness theory basis

2014-02-01 Thread LizR
For a trip of interstellar distance, the time dilation caused by getting
into low earth orbit will be insignificant. Alice and Bob can compare their
watches when Alice is in orbit, and see that they are still synchronised to
high accuracy, at least as far as humans are concerned - there might be a
few nano or even microseconds difference, but that will be nothing compared
to the difference that will occur after a trip to another star and back. In
fact there are competing effects here, Alice is travelling at several km/s
relative to Bob, but experiencing a slightly weaker gravitational field.

Then Alice fires up the TC drive and heads off towards interstellar space
at 1g...

On 2 February 2014 14:51, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 2/1/2014 9:46 AM, John Clark wrote:

 On Sat, Feb 1, 2014 at 7:57 AM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

   One might think it was the acceleration that slowed time on A's clock,
 BUT the point is that A's acceleration was only 1g throughout the entire
 trip which was exactly EQUAL to B's gravitational acceleration back on
 earth. So if the accelerations were exactly equal during the entire trip
 how could A's acceleration slow time but B's not slow time by the same
 amount?


  If A were going into space and accelerating upward off the surface of
 the Earth at one g (32 feet per second per second), then he would be
 experiencing 2g, one g from the Earth and one g from his continuing change
 in upward velocity.


 But A would experience acceleration quickly decreasing to 1g as he left
 the vicinity of the Earth. And the result wouldn't change if B entered a
 centrifuge and experienced an exactly equal acceleration while remaining on
 Earth.  This is why I emphasize that it is NOT an effect of acceleration,
 it is a geometric effect of different path lengths.

 Brent



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Re: A theory of dark matter...

2014-02-01 Thread Russell Standish
On Sat, Feb 01, 2014 at 05:36:42PM -0800, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
 Russell,
 
 Sorry, but you miss my argument. The 1:1 correspondence is between actual 
 or present moment time, not clock time. Please refer to my proximate 
 responses to Jesse for the details of the argument.
 
 Edgar
 
 

The only way for your argument to make sense is for the correspondence
to be between proper times along each worldline. You are in the
process of trying to define your present moment. You cannot use what
you are trying to construct as a building block for that
construction. But that correspondence is not unique, as I mentioned.

-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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