Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-17 Thread David Nyman
On 14 July 2014 02:36, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

But from the above I'm led to wonder whether you've actually read the MGA,
 so I repeat them here for convenient reference:


Hi Brent - did you see my response to this?

David

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-16 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 14 Jul 2014, at 21:25, David Nyman wrote:


On 14 July 2014 18:26, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


Such
explanations are bottom up all the way down. Hence there is simply  
no

place in that explanatory hierarchy for any supplementary notion of
computation distinguishable from what is already fully embodied in
physical action.


Hmm... You do the non relevant mistake again (or I misinterpret you
badly). I am afraid that what you say here for physics can be  
applied to

arithmetic too.


No doubt I may be mistaken (I'm trying to be clear enough to be
wrong). Computation per se may indeed be reducible to just the basic
number relations, in something like the sense that matter, under
physicalism (phys), is reducible to just the basic physical
relations.


I think so. With complex nuances which would lead us astray.






But ISTM, that comp is redeemed from (or as you say
vaccinated against) reduction (and by the same token zombie-hood) by
the irreducible emergence of the internal views.


Yes. But the point is that to make sense of this, we will need the  
higher 3p description, like the arithmetical beweisbar, []p,  (or any  
arithmetically sound extensions like you and me if comp is true),  
which despite being a (universal) number, will still have its own  
dynamic, relatively to some master universal numbers (which run it,  
in arithmetic).


The arithmetical truth contains out of time all such relations/ 
computations, and indeed with comp, that defines both the ONE  
(arithmetical truth), and the intelligible (here the part of  
arithmetical truth concerning a machine []p)


Then Gödel's incompleteness, more acuratly Löb's theorem (which  
extends Gödel a bit), makes that if we define knowledge by true  
(justified) belief, or more aptly (to avoid Gerson error) if we  
define knowing p, by (believing p)  p, the knower get its new essence  
(as gerson thinks correctly that the ancient insisted on) *from the  
machine first person view, where the conjunction of probable and truth  
leads to a subject provably undefinable by the machine. The machine's  
intuition will be that she is not a machine, and she will understand  
the transcendence of the bet done when saying yes to a digitalist  
surgeon.






It is much more
difficult to see how phys can be redeemed in any comparable way
without resorting at least tacitly to comp (at which point the
difficulties begin anew).


This in my opinion already does not eliminate the reality of the 3p
high level description, but of course constitutes a threat to  
eliminate the

role of consciousness.


But do you think that the 3p high-level description would be equally
real if (somehow) it were not ultimately redeemable by the internal
views (e.g. if, counter-factually, my own high-level 3p description
merely resulted in zombie-hood)?


I think we have to think so. Arithmetizing meta-arithmetic, does not  
make disappear the meta-arithmetic. We need both that all arithmetical  
formula make sense, or at least the sigma_1 one, to get the UD  
considered existing independently of us, and which define the  
measure which will channel the instantiation of the first person  
consciousness fluxes.


We need arithmetical truth (which includes many levels, not all first  
person perceptible) to see how from inside, consciousness grows with  
the G* minus G (and intensional variants).


Of course all this makes sense only from inside, and consciousness get  
the number sense here through some reminiscence of where it all  
starts.








Here physicalism fails, almost because it is not interested in
consciousness. Here QM (and especially Everett-QM) should open the  
mind of
the physicists that such a reductionism mind = brain state is  
failing.


Yes, this is the point I have been making for some time now.


But the machine itself has a natural knower associated to it.


Forgive me for not commenting more extensively on your remarks (which
I will study) but this seems to me to be the absolutely capital point.



Yes, and as Gerson missed, that has been solved by Theaetetus.  
Socrate (and many philosophers) criticize Theaetetus definition,  
because it does look like a 3p description. But with beweisbar playing  
the role of belief, the arithmetical version of the Theaetetus  
provides a counter-example. []p  p is provably not definable in  
arithmetic, or in any language that a universal can ever understand.  
The machine can still point on it, and give, like God, local nickname,  
like me or you.


I will come back later on how to justify the abyssal difference of  
essence between '[]p and []p  p.





ISTM above all else that a natural knower is the crux of the
redemption of the first person from exhaustive physical reduction and
effective elimination. It's precisely the radical absence of such a
natural knower in the reductive hierarchy of phys - indeed the
irrelevance of such a knower to its defining mode of explanation -
that I've continually had in 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-16 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 15 Jul 2014, at 15:53, Richard Ruquist wrote:





On Tue, Jul 15, 2014 at 4:25 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 14 Jul 2014, at 02:04, meekerdb wrote:
Yet that seems to be what Quentin requires in order to say to  
instances of the MG compute the same function.  Knowing the  
universal number or knowing the function is like the problem of  
knowing all the correct counterfactuals.



The MG is supposed to have been made at some right substitution  
level, by us, by chance (whatever), then (and here I am not sure of  
Quentin's wording, but each computation at some level is emulated  
in parallel at infinitely many coarse grained level in arithmetic,  
that looks like more primitive computations.
To give an example, imagine a Lisp program computing a factorial  
function. You have a well defined computation in term of the  
stepping (tracing) function associated to an interpreter Lisp and  
the input (factorial 5), say.

As Lisp is a universal number, that *counts* as a computation.
But then imagine the computation of the Lisp program emulating a  
boolean Graph (Nor gates and their link and delays) emulating a Z80  
processor, emulating itself a Lisp interpreter computing (factorial  
5) with the same algorithm as above.
Does that comp for a computation of (factorial 5). It does. Is it  
the same computation? Not really. It is a different path in the UD*.  
If that process incarnate the conscious flux, then both does, but  
one if (by construction) at the simplest right level (program in  
Lisp computing fact 5), and the other is, notably, emulating a lower  
level, that is the Boolean graph of the Z80 processor.


Are they the same because they both compute 5!; even if they used  
different algorithms?



No. If they use different algorithm, the function computed is the  
same, but the computation differs. But in the above case, I suppose  
it is the same algorithm, but we look at the implementation at a  
lower level. Again the computation differ at that lower level, and  
does not differ at the higher level. In the UD*, this will  
correspond to different phi_i(j)^n, and thus different computations,  
but equivalent from the point of view of the factorial (say).


Bruno


That suggests the concept of Computation Paths (CP).
And that in cases where two different CPs find the same number,
the CPs form a feedback loop; hence the arithmetic is quickly self- 
referential;



I am not sure why two CP ending on a same number would lead to a  
feedback loop. Self-reference exist through the solution of the second  
recursion theorem of Kleene, basically the Dx = XX, with the  
bizarre quote.






and prime numbers are not self-referential, an indication of their  
importance..


Well, a big prime number might certainly be both universal, self- 
referential, and prime. But universal is not an intrinsic notion  
like prime, it depend on the local universal number.


Bruno





Richard





And, yes, knowing the universal number and its data, you know, or  
can derive, the counterfactuals.














Comp says that there is a level of description of myself such that  
those computation *at the correct level carries my consciousness.


There's where I agree with JKC.  You keep fudging what comp  
means.  The above is *not* the same as betting that the doctor can  
give you a physical brain prosthesis that maintains your  
consciousness.


I don't see this. Please explain.

I think the level description would have to include not only you but  
your world.



Well, I agree, that is why we need to distinguish []p and []p  p,  
and []p  p.


Universal numbers can justify their own incompleteness and they can  
bet, and intuit, the thing with respect to which it is incomplete.


The []p is just a believer. The   p nuance is equivalent with  
giving him a world satisfying p. The   p nuance consists in  
keeping intact the relation between belief and truth (or God, or  
Real world, etc.).


The math shows that such nuances obeys different, but related, laws.



So I could say yes to the doctor even though I don't think the  
computational brain he installs in me is sufficient, by itself, to  
instantiate my consciousness.


Sure, me too.











But Brent, and Peter Jones, adds that the computation have to be  
done by a real thing.
This is a bit like either choosing some particular universal number  
pr, and called it physical reality, and add the axioms that only   
the phi_pr computations counts: the phi_pr (j)^n.


I think Peter, like me, questions the existence of numbers as any  
more than elements fo language.


This is conventionalism. I consider that this view is refuted by  
number theory implicitly, and by mathematical logic explicitly. The  
existence of not of infinitely many prime number twins is everythi,g  
but conventional. With comp, the existence of your dreams in  
arithmetic, and their relative proportions, are not conventional.




So it is not like choosing a universal 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-15 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 14 Jul 2014, at 02:04, meekerdb wrote:
Yet that seems to be what Quentin requires in order to say to  
instances of the MG compute the same function.  Knowing the  
universal number or knowing the function is like the problem of  
knowing all the correct counterfactuals.



The MG is supposed to have been made at some right substitution  
level, by us, by chance (whatever), then (and here I am not sure of  
Quentin's wording, but each computation at some level is emulated  
in parallel at infinitely many coarse grained level in  
arithmetic, that looks like more primitive computations.
To give an example, imagine a Lisp program computing a factorial  
function. You have a well defined computation in term of the  
stepping (tracing) function associated to an interpreter Lisp and  
the input (factorial 5), say.

As Lisp is a universal number, that *counts* as a computation.
But then imagine the computation of the Lisp program emulating a  
boolean Graph (Nor gates and their link and delays) emulating a Z80  
processor, emulating itself a Lisp interpreter computing (factorial  
5) with the same algorithm as above.
Does that comp for a computation of (factorial 5). It does. Is it  
the same computation? Not really. It is a different path in the  
UD*. If that process incarnate the conscious flux, then both does,  
but one if (by construction) at the simplest right level (program  
in Lisp computing fact 5), and the other is, notably, emulating a  
lower level, that is the Boolean graph of the Z80 processor.


Are they the same because they both compute 5!; even if they used  
different algorithms?



No. If they use different algorithm, the function computed is the  
same, but the computation differs. But in the above case, I suppose it  
is the same algorithm, but we look at the implementation at a lower  
level. Again the computation differ at that lower level, and does not  
differ at the higher level. In the UD*, this will correspond to  
different phi_i(j)^n, and thus different computations, but equivalent  
from the point of view of the factorial (say).


Bruno








And, yes, knowing the universal number and its data, you know, or  
can derive, the counterfactuals.


















Comp says that there is a level of description of myself such  
that those computation *at the correct level carries my  
consciousness.


There's where I agree with JKC.  You keep fudging what comp  
means.  The above is *not* the same as betting that the doctor  
can give you a physical brain prosthesis that maintains your  
consciousness.


I don't see this. Please explain.


I think the level description would have to include not only you  
but your world.



Well, I agree, that is why we need to distinguish []p and []p   
p, and []p  p.


Universal numbers can justify their own incompleteness and they can  
bet, and intuit, the thing with respect to which it is incomplete.


The []p is just a believer. The   p nuance is equivalent with  
giving him a world satisfying p. The   p nuance consists in  
keeping intact the relation between belief and truth (or God, or  
Real world, etc.).


The math shows that such nuances obeys different, but related, laws.



So I could say yes to the doctor even though I don't think the  
computational brain he installs in me is sufficient, by itself, to  
instantiate my consciousness.


Sure, me too.















But Brent, and Peter Jones, adds that the computation have to  
be done by a real thing.
This is a bit like either choosing some particular universal  
number pr, and called it physical reality, and add the axioms  
that only  the phi_pr computations counts: the phi_pr (j)^n.


I think Peter, like me, questions the existence of numbers as  
any more than elements fo language.


This is conventionalism. I consider that this view is refuted by  
number theory implicitly, and by mathematical logic explicitly.  
The existence of not of infinitely many prime number twins is  
everythi,g but conventional. With comp, the existence of your  
dreams in arithmetic, and their relative proportions, are not  
conventional.




So it is not like choosing a universal number, it's saying that  
some things exist and some don't.


Define exist. If you say exists physically then you beg the  
question, and I will ask you to define physics.


Define exists.


See the preceding post. The TOE derived from the mechanist  
reincarnation belief, needs only to agree with the first order  
standard definition, mainly that a theory proves that something  
exists having some property P when the theory verifies (proves) P  
for some object.  It is the rule A(x) - B  /  ExA(x) - B, (useful  
in more general setting), or more simply

the classical A(n) / ExA(x).


But that begs the question of whether the axioms are true.  It is  
just existence relative to some axioms and rules of inference.  
Isn't that why you include p...to assume the truth of the axioms  
in some world?




Then the points of 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-15 Thread Richard Ruquist
On Tue, Jul 15, 2014 at 4:25 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 14 Jul 2014, at 02:04, meekerdb wrote:

 Yet that seems to be what Quentin requires in order to say to instances
 of the MG compute the same function.  Knowing the universal number or
 knowing the function is like the problem of knowing all the correct
 counterfactuals.



 The MG is supposed to have been made at some right substitution level,
 by us, by chance (whatever), then (and here I am not sure of Quentin's
 wording, but each computation at some level is emulated in parallel at
 infinitely many coarse grained level in arithmetic, that looks like more
 primitive computations.
 To give an example, imagine a Lisp program computing a factorial
 function. You have a well defined computation in term of the stepping
 (tracing) function associated to an interpreter Lisp and the input
 (factorial 5), say.
 As Lisp is a universal number, that *counts* as a computation.
 But then imagine the computation of the Lisp program emulating a boolean
 Graph (Nor gates and their link and delays) emulating a Z80 processor,
 emulating itself a Lisp interpreter computing (factorial 5) with the same
 algorithm as above.
 Does that comp for a computation of (factorial 5). It does. Is it the
 same computation? Not really. It is a different path in the UD*. If that
 process incarnate the conscious flux, then both does, but one if (by
 construction) at the simplest right level (program in Lisp computing fact
 5), and the other is, notably, emulating a lower level, that is the Boolean
 graph of the Z80 processor.


 Are they the same because they both compute 5!; even if they used
 different algorithms?



 No. If they use different algorithm, the function computed is the same,
 but the computation differs. But in the above case, I suppose it is the
 same algorithm, but we look at the implementation at a lower level. Again
 the computation differ at that lower level, and does not differ at the
 higher level. In the UD*, this will correspond to different phi_i(j)^n, and
 thus different computations, but equivalent from the point of view of the
 factorial (say).

 Bruno


That suggests the concept of Computation Paths (CP).
And that in cases where two different CPs find the same number,
the CPs form a feedback loop; hence the arithmetic is quickly
self-referential;
and prime numbers are not self-referential, an indication of their
importance..
Richard






 And, yes, knowing the universal number and its data, you know, or can
 derive, the counterfactuals.













 Comp says that there is a level of description of myself such that
 those computation *at the correct level carries my consciousness.


 There's where I agree with JKC.  You keep fudging what comp means.
  The above is *not* the same as betting that the doctor can give you a
 physical brain prosthesis that maintains your consciousness.


 I don't see this. Please explain.


 I think the level description would have to include not only you but
 your world.



 Well, I agree, that is why we need to distinguish []p and []p  p, and
 []p  p.

 Universal numbers can justify their own incompleteness and they can bet,
 and intuit, the thing with respect to which it is incomplete.

 The []p is just a believer. The   p nuance is equivalent with
 giving him a world satisfying p. The   p nuance consists in keeping
 intact the relation between belief and truth (or God, or Real world,
 etc.).

 The math shows that such nuances obeys different, but related, laws.



  So I could say yes to the doctor even though I don't think the
 computational brain he installs in me is sufficient, by itself, to
 instantiate my consciousness.


 Sure, me too.











 But Brent, and Peter Jones, adds that the computation have to be
 done by a real thing.
 This is a bit like either choosing some particular universal number
 pr, and called it physical reality, and add the axioms that only  the
 phi_pr computations counts: the phi_pr (j)^n.


 I think Peter, like me, questions the existence of numbers as any
 more than elements fo language.


 This is conventionalism. I consider that this view is refuted by
 number theory implicitly, and by mathematical logic explicitly. The
 existence of not of infinitely many prime number twins is everythi,g but
 conventional. With comp, the existence of your dreams in arithmetic, and
 their relative proportions, are not conventional.



  So it is not like choosing a universal number, it's saying that some
 things exist and some don't.


 Define exist. If you say exists physically then you beg the
 question, and I will ask you to define physics.


 Define exists.


 See the preceding post. The TOE derived from the mechanist reincarnation
 belief, needs only to agree with the first order standard definition,
 mainly that a theory proves that something exists having some property P
 when the theory verifies (proves) P for some object.  It is the rule A(x)
 - B  /  ExA(x) - B, 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-14 Thread David Nyman
On 14 July 2014 02:36, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 I appreciate your granma level explication.

I'm pleased.

  I sometimes find your prose
 difficult to parse.

I'm not so pleased. Sorry :-(

I must admit, parenthetically, that I don't always find it simple to
reconcile the relative brevity demanded by these discussions with the
parallel demand for clarity and lack of ambiguity. Thanks for
persisting.

 But from the above I'm led to wonder whether you've
 actually read the MGA,

I promise you I wouldn't have the temerity to base an argument on
something I hadn't read. However, I haven't re-read it that recently.

 so I repeat them here for convenient reference:

Thanks (re-reads)

 So contrary to your, Indeed the MGA itself exploits this basic insight by
 showing how relations originally accepted as computational can be entirely
 evacuated from a physical system whilst preserving the same net physical
 action (including, pace Brent, the same relations with a physical
 environment). in the argument the physical activity is evacuated (all the
 gates break down, it's only a movie) and the consciousness is
 (hypothetically) preserved.

Well, this is obviously a case where I haven't succeeded in removing
all possible ambiguity, so let me try to clarify. Both MGA1 and MGA2
accept logic gates as the physical embodiment of computation at the
start. In both versions the original physical action of the gates is
disrupted but in some way (fortuitous in MGA1 and pre-determined in
MGA2) the overall net physical action of Alice's electronic or optical
brain is preserved. Since Alice is awake in MGA1 it should be clear
that in this case her physical relation with her environment (i.e. her
performance in the exam) is also unaffected. This is slightly more
opaque in MGA2 as she is now asleep and dreaming, but as Bruno points
out this is merely a detail to simplify the exposition. It would be
possible if more tedious to extend the argument of MGA2 to a scenario
in which Alice is awake and both the net physical action of her brain
and hence its relations with its physical environment are preserved.

I hope it's now clearer what I meant. The computation is evacuated
(because the logic gates that have been accepted as embodying it at
the start have ceased to function as such) but the physical action is
preserved (because the physical system embodying Alice's brain is
contrived to evolve through the equivalent physical states, extending
therefore to the equivalent relation with its physical environment).
To put it in grandma terms again, in either MGA1 or a waking-version
of MGA2, if you were to observe Alice throughout, you would be unable
to notice any difference in her overt behaviour. So now you have to
decide whether she has become a zombie.

The reason I claim that my pet de-construction of the notion of
physical computation is implicit in the MGA is simply that arguments
like this (and you could construct alternatives) are designed to make
it blindingly obvious that, ex hypothesi physicalism, physical action
is always, in the final analysis, what really matters. What cannot
then really matter is any supplementary attribution that may or may
not be applied to that action after the fact, given that the net
physical action is preserved. The question of whether or not we choose
to grant or withhold the attribution of computation to the net
physical action of Alice's brain is irrelevant as long as it is
assumed (as it must be) to act under the sole constraint of physical
law. The physical facts (at whatever level of description you choose)
are that its net action is unaffected and as a consequence no observer
can detect a difference either in Alice's overt behaviour or its
putative meaning. Indeed the question we are faced with is: could she?

 In the end, the point is that, as you argue yourself, computation is a
 fundamentally mathematical (indeed an arithmetical) notion, not a
 physical one.

 This is really crux of your argument, and I find it appealing

Yes, that's really the conclusion my de-constructive argument was
aiming at. I'm interested in what you find appealing about it.

 but not
 absolutely convincing.

I'm not sure I fully understand why, but I'll consider the reasons you
set out below.

 As far as we know all computation is physically
 associated, including our thoughts about it being abstract and immaterial.

Yes, but we must tread very carefully here. If we are scrupulous about
sticking to an explanatory strategy based on physical reduction we are
forced to accept that both computation and our thoughts about it
being abstract and immaterial are fully accountable in terms of some
sort of physical action. Whether we are then still justified, without
tacit supplemental assumptions, in considering such a reduction as
having retroactive explanatory relevance with respect to either
computation, or our thoughts about it, is what is moot.

 And clearly computation as a whole is more extensive
 than 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-14 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 14 Jul 2014, at 02:38, David Nyman wrote:


On 13 July 2014 22:01, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


Well, if you still hold to your earlier opinion, you should agree
that, in terms of an explanatory hierarchy based on an ontology of
molecular kinetics, temperature must be considered to have been
eliminated *ontologically* (i.e. to have been revealed as *nothing
more than* the underlying kinetics).


I can, and see what you mean, but I prefer not, because I am  
realist on the

relations and higher 3p description too.


Well, I'm still not really convinced that the fundamental assumptions
of physical reduction justify your realism on the higher-level
descriptions.


I see, and perhaps I should not have made that remark here, as it is  
distracting from the issue that you discuss with Brent.

I really don't think it is important (here).




But actually I'm not even sure that one need insist on
this to stop the notion of physical computation dead in its tracks.


But only through the MGA, because at step seven, we might still, from  
a logical point of view, make a move toward the assumption that the  
real physical is not robust enough to run a significant part of the  
UD*.
Of course that move is ad hoc, and then MGA attempts to show how much  
that move is ad hoc.


But the existence or not of high level 3p objects is not really  
relevant to kill the notion of physical computation, or of  
primitively physical entities.






And of course if one can do this then it must also, a fortiori, put a
stop to any idea of linking any such notion with consciousness. This
reductio was really the point of my argument and if I had to sum it up
for grandma I would say that the key idea is just that, ex hypothesi
physicalism, action of any sort and at whatever level of description
must always be reducible to *physical action simpliciter*. So
accepting physics as a TOE is equivalent to accepting both that no
possible action can be omitted from its explanatory scope and that no
further class of action need be appealed to in accounting for any
physical state of affairs.

I think from that one can already get the idea that, under such
assumptions, supplementary notions such as computation are simply
*redundant* in explaining physical action. Indeed the MGA itself
exploits this basic insight by showing how relations originally
accepted as computational can be entirely evacuated from a physical
system whilst preserving the same net physical action (including, pace
Brent, the same relations with a physical environment). Even in the
case that we accept a notion of physical computation as an a
posteriori attribution, that attribution cannot retrospectively be
accepted as adding anything to the exhaustive reductive hierarchy of
the physical object or system in question. To put it baldly, under
physicalism, a PC or a brain is, at whatever level of description, a
physical object first last and always. Any action associated with that
object must, under the same assumptions, be exhaustively reducible to
the explanatory basement of physical entities and relations. Such
explanations are bottom up all the way down. Hence there is simply no
place in that explanatory hierarchy for any supplementary notion of
computation distinguishable from what is already fully embodied in
physical action.


Hmm... You do the non relevant mistake again (or I misinterpret you  
badly). I am afraid that what you say here for physics can be applied  
to arithmetic too.


As long as we are interested only in 3p descriptions, with comp, (and  
with or without physicalism) we do explain completely the observable  
or describable action. If my goal is to predicted which next move Deep  
Blue, the chess program,  will do, I can contend myself to start from  
its state description at the boolean gate level, and explain (even  
predict if I am quick enough, or if Deep Blue is put in pause!) the  
next move by just applying (a lot of times) the logical rules of the  
NOR, and its delays, like in principles, I can predict that Jeanne  
will put her hands quickly out of the fire, by solving the quantum  
many body problems involved at some low level. This in my opinion  
already does not eliminate the reality of the 3p high level  
description, but of course constitutes a threat to eliminate the role  
of consciousness.
Here physicalism fails, almost because it is not interested in  
consciousness. Here QM (and especially Everett-QM) should open the  
mind of the physicists that such a reductionism mind = brain state  
is failing.


With comp, in UDA, the mind-body problem is shown to give this new  
problem: explaining why apparently some sophisticated long quantum  
histories (the making of special universe numbers) have won the  
competition between all computations (as simpler concept definable in  
arithmetic, already assumed at some level by the physicists).


At that stage, it is unclear if a solution of that problem (which  
would explain 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-14 Thread David Nyman
On 14 July 2014 18:26, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Such
 explanations are bottom up all the way down. Hence there is simply no
 place in that explanatory hierarchy for any supplementary notion of
 computation distinguishable from what is already fully embodied in
 physical action.

 Hmm... You do the non relevant mistake again (or I misinterpret you
 badly). I am afraid that what you say here for physics can be applied to
 arithmetic too.

No doubt I may be mistaken (I'm trying to be clear enough to be
wrong). Computation per se may indeed be reducible to just the basic
number relations, in something like the sense that matter, under
physicalism (phys), is reducible to just the basic physical
relations. But ISTM, that comp is redeemed from (or as you say
vaccinated against) reduction (and by the same token zombie-hood) by
the irreducible emergence of the internal views. It is much more
difficult to see how phys can be redeemed in any comparable way
without resorting at least tacitly to comp (at which point the
difficulties begin anew).

 This in my opinion already does not eliminate the reality of the 3p
 high level description, but of course constitutes a threat to eliminate the
 role of consciousness.

But do you think that the 3p high-level description would be equally
real if (somehow) it were not ultimately redeemable by the internal
views (e.g. if, counter-factually, my own high-level 3p description
merely resulted in zombie-hood)?

 Here physicalism fails, almost because it is not interested in
 consciousness. Here QM (and especially Everett-QM) should open the mind of
 the physicists that such a reductionism mind = brain state is failing.

Yes, this is the point I have been making for some time now.

 But the machine itself has a natural knower associated to it.

Forgive me for not commenting more extensively on your remarks (which
I will study) but this seems to me to be the absolutely capital point.
ISTM above all else that a natural knower is the crux of the
redemption of the first person from exhaustive physical reduction and
effective elimination. It's precisely the radical absence of such a
natural knower in the reductive hierarchy of phys - indeed the
irrelevance of such a knower to its defining mode of explanation -
that I've continually had in mind. Of course, it may still seem open
to phys to make a grab for the knower associated to the machine,
unless the conjunction of comp and phys can be shown to be
incompatible, or at least lead to the explanatory irrelevance of the
latter.

 I can understand your attitude here, and I draw the same conclusion,
 but I still think it a pity to miss any potential opportunity to
 de-construct the notion of physical computation in its own terms.

 All right, just be careful to not de-construct 3p computer science and
 3p-number theory in the same élan :)

Hmm.. that would be a Pyrrhic victory indeed. However, as I've said,
ISTM that comp, unlike phys, has the internal resources to resist any
analogous de-construction.

David



 On 14 Jul 2014, at 02:38, David Nyman wrote:

 On 13 July 2014 22:01, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Well, if you still hold to your earlier opinion, you should agree
 that, in terms of an explanatory hierarchy based on an ontology of
 molecular kinetics, temperature must be considered to have been
 eliminated *ontologically* (i.e. to have been revealed as *nothing
 more than* the underlying kinetics).


 I can, and see what you mean, but I prefer not, because I am realist on
 the
 relations and higher 3p description too.


 Well, I'm still not really convinced that the fundamental assumptions
 of physical reduction justify your realism on the higher-level
 descriptions.


 I see, and perhaps I should not have made that remark here, as it is
 distracting from the issue that you discuss with Brent.
 I really don't think it is important (here).




 But actually I'm not even sure that one need insist on
 this to stop the notion of physical computation dead in its tracks.


 But only through the MGA, because at step seven, we might still, from a
 logical point of view, make a move toward the assumption that the real
 physical is not robust enough to run a significant part of the UD*.
 Of course that move is ad hoc, and then MGA attempts to show how much that
 move is ad hoc.

 But the existence or not of high level 3p objects is not really relevant to
 kill the notion of physical computation, or of primitively physical
 entities.





 And of course if one can do this then it must also, a fortiori, put a
 stop to any idea of linking any such notion with consciousness. This
 reductio was really the point of my argument and if I had to sum it up
 for grandma I would say that the key idea is just that, ex hypothesi
 physicalism, action of any sort and at whatever level of description
 must always be reducible to *physical action simpliciter*. So
 accepting physics as a TOE is equivalent to accepting both that no
 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-13 Thread Quentin Anciaux
Le 13 juil. 2014 03:31, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au a écrit :

 On Fri, Jul 11, 2014 at 02:01:38AM +0200, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
 
  Either both are the same computation and goes through the same state
  computing the same thing or they're not and don't go through the same
  state.  An infinity of computations goes through the same state on
partial
  run,  up until step n.  All the stopping computation stopping at the
same
  step are one and the same.  So no even if you can imagine a cake made of
  grzeaeftthfey that doesn't make it possible. Two distinct computations
  don't go through the same state, at least one state is different.
 

 Just because two computations go through the same state does not mean
 they are the same computation. They could act differently on
 counterfactuals, for example.

At the moment a counterfactual is different they diverge and do not go
through the same states and as duch are different computations.

Quentin


 I recall having fallen into a similar trap in an earlier discussion
 about the MGA :).

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-13 Thread Quentin Anciaux
Le 13 juil. 2014 09:58, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com a écrit :


 Le 13 juil. 2014 03:31, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au a
écrit :

 
  On Fri, Jul 11, 2014 at 02:01:38AM +0200, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
  
   Either both are the same computation and goes through the same state
   computing the same thing or they're not and don't go through the same
   state.  An infinity of computations goes through the same state on
partial
   run,  up until step n.  All the stopping computation stopping at the
same
   step are one and the same.  So no even if you can imagine a cake made
of
   grzeaeftthfey that doesn't make it possible. Two distinct computations
   don't go through the same state, at least one state is different.
  
 
  Just because two computations go through the same state does not mean
  they are the same computation. They could act differently on
  counterfactuals, for example.

 At the moment a counterfactual is different they diverge and do not go
through the same states and as duch are different computations.

That means that on a given run the two computations could be the same if
the counterfactual that would make them diverge are not triggered.

That 's why there is always an infinity of computations going through the
same state. Up until divergence they are the same.

Quentin


 Quentin

 
  I recall having fallen into a similar trap in an earlier discussion
  about the MGA :).
 
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  Principal, High Performance Coders
  Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
  University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au
 
   Latest project: The Amoeba's Secret
   (http://www.hpcoders.com.au/AmoebasSecret.html)
 

 
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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-13 Thread David Nyman
On 11 July 2014 19:21, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 I agree with Brent, and I think everybody agree,  when he says that reducing
 does not eliminate.

You are a little too quick here with your everybody, since obviously
my whole point has been that I *don't* agree! I would remind you that,
in an earlier iteration of this argument with Peter Jones, you said
that 3p reductive explanation eliminates *ontologically*, but not
*epistemologically*. This, essentially, is the distinction I've been
insisting on.

 But we can't use that to compare consciousness/neurons
 to temperature/molecules-kinetic.
 In that later case we reduce a 3p high
 level to a 3p lower level. And indeed, this does not eliminate temperature.

Well, if you still hold to your earlier opinion, you should agree
that, in terms of an explanatory hierarchy based on an ontology of
molecular kinetics, temperature must be considered to have been
eliminated *ontologically* (i.e. to have been revealed as *nothing
more than* the underlying kinetics). However, it remains as a datum of
epistemology , i.e. as an object of knowledge, perception, or
cognition. Hence it can still be appealed to in explanation *in
general* as long as we don't forget the original distinction at some
later point in the argument when it begins to beg the question at
issue.

 But in the case of consciousness, we have consciousness which is 1p, and
 neurons which are 3p. Here, the whole 3p, be it the arithmetical or physical
 reality fails (when taken as a complete explanation). The higher level 1p
 notions are not just higher 3p description, it is the intimate non
 justifiable (and infinite) part of a person, which wonderfully enough
 provably becomes a non-machine, and a non nameable entity, when we apply  
 the definition of Theaetetus definition to the machine.

I agree with all of this (indeed I've been arguing for it) but I think
that the ontology/epistemology distinction I've been attempting to
defend can be used to construct a reductio against the completeness,
or coherence, of any exclusively 3p explanatory hierarchy. If so, this
may help to further clarify arguments against the compatibility of
physicalism and computationalism such as the MGA. The
ontology/epistemology distinction could also perhaps be seen as
noumenal/phenomenal. ISTM that 3p, in any explanatory strategy, is
noumenal in that it cannot be known directly but stands for whatever
is presumed to account for what we *can* and *do* know. So one might
say that physicalism is the attempt to construct a TOE entirely in
noumenal terms, independent of knowledge: a view from nowhere.
ISTM that the problem this creates is exposed in at least two distinct
ways.

Firstly, it turns out that it is impossible FAPP to construct a
reductive explanation in wholly 3p terms. All such explanations rely
on levels of an explanatory hierarchy that are properly phenomenal in
terms of the putative explanatory noumenon, such as temperature with
respect to molecular kinetics. IOW, temperature is a phenomenon of
molecular kinetics, or to put in terms of epistemology/ontology,
temperature is what can be *known* with respect to molecular kinetics,
as distinct from an ontological *supplement* to that kinetics. Hence
it can be seen that an explanatory strategy that starts as an attempt
to explain everything in terms of a 3p or noumenal ontology can't
help but lay its sticky metaphysical fingers on properly phenomenal or
epistemological explananda. Should it then tacitly use such explananda
to *explain themselves* (as I argue in the case of
computation-consciousness under physicalist assumptions) it cannot
help but place itself in a viciously circular explanatory bind.

OK, one may respond, let's redeem the viciousness of the circularity
by explicitly abandoning the phenomenal or epistemological explananda.
Who needs 'em, after all, ex hypothesi, the 3p basement-level
explanatory machinery is supposed to work by itself, isn't it? But
this immediately exposes the second, or complementary, problem in any
purely 3p explanatory strategy. Although we can still refer to an
ontological schema that is, in principle, complete (I mean, everything
could be just the wave function, couldn't it?) we have now abandoned
that schema entirely to the noumenal. And nothing in the noumenal
explanatory basement can ever be knowable. So it is at this point its
seeming completeness becomes really worrying, because it tends in
the direction of the elimination of phenomena tout court. This would
surely be to argue for zombie existence in a peculiarly radical way,
in that the zombie, or indeed any separable entity, is now not merely
unknowing but unknowable (i.e. non-phenomenal).

Obviously, if comp is to avoid the same criticism, we must be able to
show that it isn't prone to the same inherent deficiencies. IIUC, the
3p or noumenal level of explanation in comp isn't exactly number
relations simpliciter, but rather computation *as emulated by* some

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-13 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jul 2014, at 21:56, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/10/2014 12:19 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2014-07-10 20:39 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:
On 7/10/2014 4:08 AM, David Nyman wrote:


In short, under physicalism, a 'computation' *just is* a  
particular sequence of physical states. Indeed what else could it  
be? The states, so to speak, come first and hence the notion that  
those states 'implement a computation' is always an a posteriori  
attribution that neither need, nor can, bring anything further to  
the party.


I agree with all you wrote.  But as Bruno says it's a reductio.   
Given that it's absurd, the question is what makes it absurd.  I  
think it's the assumption that the sequence of physical states  
constitutes a computation *independent* of any reference to a  
world.  When you talk about your PC and accidental compensation for  
a physical fault, the concept of 'compensation' already assumes a  
correct operation - but what makes an operation correct?...it's  
relation to you and the rest of the world.  A computation, a  
sequence of states simpliciter, could be a computation of anything  
or of nothing.  So the intuition that the computation still exists  
without the physical instantiation


But that's how we know a given physical instantiation is said to  
compute this or that, it's because it has a one/one mapping to the  
abstract computation... the computation is what relates the input  
to the output... if we cannot relate a physical instantiation to  
the abstract algorithm, in what way could we say it computes  
anything ?


That's my point, we need the physical (a world) to impute meaning to  
the computational process so that it is a computation.


We seem to agree that physics is necessary, but that is the whole  
point of the UDA: physics is arithmetically necessary from the  
observational point of view of the average (in some relative sense)  
universal number. Physics is logically necessary = physics is  
derivable from something already admitted as necessary (like  
elementary arithmetic or any universal number).


Ontologically, we need nothing more, for example, than K and S and the  
axioms Kxy = x and Sxyz = xz(yz). Or, if you prefer, RA. (a very tiny  
fragment of Arithmetic).


All we need are universal numbers capable of developing stable  
relations. They provably exist in the theory above.


Then the simplest definition of knowledge (called the standard one  
by Gerson and many philosophers) can justify how meaning appears, and  
seems to be undefinable and non communicable by universal numbers in  
between universal numbers. When universal numbers or combinators are  
looking inward they are confronted to the []p / []p  p separation.


For ontological existence we need only the usual first order logical  
meaning given by the existencial inference rule (p(k) / ExP(x)
Physical or observational existence, with some variants,  are then  
defined (through UDA-AUDA) by something like


[](Ex []P(x, a, b, c)),

with the box and diamond taken from the logic S4Grz1, or Z1*, or X1*,  
P(x, a, b, c) is sigma_1.


Note that the physical existence, and the mathematical existence (here  
just arithmetical) are well kept separated, like the psychological  
(S4Grz) is separated from the ontic (G, G*)and the observational  
(S4Grz1, Z1*; X1*).


Bruno







Brent

It's strange that all the program that run on any physical machine  
are made of abstraction, you never program using electron... you  
program at the basic level with boolean logic, that you can relate  
to physical phenomenon, but never the other way around.


Quentin

is contradicted by the intuition that a computation must be about  
something.  With conflicting absurdities I'm left unconvinced.


Brent
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To post to this 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-13 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 12 Jul 2014, at 21:28, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/12/2014 2:16 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 11 Jul 2014, at 22:26, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/11/2014 11:21 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 11 Jul 2014, at 09:41, David Nyman wrote:


On 11 July 2014 00:54, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

As I understand the MGA it assumes physicalism and then  
purports to show
that computation still exists with minimal or zero physical  
activity - it

evaucates the physics and keeps the computation.

SNIP


That is exactly why our computations, with and without (and in  
between) their environment (with and without oracles) recurre  
infinitely often in the sigma_1 truth (UD*).


So two computations can be the same at some level of description,  
and yet occurs in quite different places in the UD*.


Is there a canonical level of description at which they are the  
same,


Yes. When the level of description is chosen correct, it can be the  
same from your or God (arithmetic truth) view. But it is not a  
constructive or intuitionist notion (like not-halting, computer  
science is full of such type truth).




or are you just saying there exists some mapping which makes them  
the same over a finite number of steps?


No. It is for a possibly infinite number of steps. the number of  
steps is not relevant. It is misleading to define a computation  
only by a sequence of steps. It is a sequence of step + a universal  
machine or number bringing those computational steps. That makes a  
computation well defined.


But this depends on knowing the universal number;



Well, that's a problem for the physicist. It is not a problem for an  
engineer, which implement some universal number, and so can indentify  
some computation, nor for the comp practionners, hoping his doctor bet  
on a right subst level. But for the reasoning, no need to recognize a  
universal numbers for him doing its job (in infinity many solutions of  
diophantine equation.





which cannot be inferred from a finite piece of the computation.


Nor *by* a finite piece of machinery. But that's why we will have to  
take into account the indeterminacies, and other limitations into  
account.






Yet that seems to be what Quentin requires in order to say to  
instances of the MG compute the same function.  Knowing the  
universal number or knowing the function is like the problem of  
knowing all the correct counterfactuals.



The MG is supposed to have been made at some right substitution level,  
by us, by chance (whatever), then (and here I am not sure of Quentin's  
wording, but each computation at some level is emulated in parallel  
at infinitely many coarse grained level in arithmetic, that looks like  
more primitive computations.
To give an example, imagine a Lisp program computing a factorial  
function. You have a well defined computation in term of the stepping  
(tracing) function associated to an interpreter Lisp and the input  
(factorial 5), say.

As Lisp is a universal number, that *counts* as a computation.
But then imagine the computation of the Lisp program emulating a  
boolean Graph (Nor gates and their link and delays) emulating a Z80  
processor, emulating itself a Lisp interpreter computing (factorial 5)  
with the same algorithm as above.
Does that comp for a computation of (factorial 5). It does. Is it the  
same computation? Not really. It is a different path in the UD*. If  
that process incarnate the conscious flux, then both does, but one if  
(by construction) at the simplest right level (program in Lisp  
computing fact 5), and the other is, notably, emulating a lower level,  
that is the Boolean graph of the Z80 processor.


And, yes, knowing the universal number and its data, you know, or can  
derive, the counterfactuals.


















Comp says that there is a level of description of myself such  
that those computation *at the correct level carries my  
consciousness.


There's where I agree with JKC.  You keep fudging what comp  
means.  The above is *not* the same as betting that the doctor can  
give you a physical brain prosthesis that maintains your  
consciousness.


I don't see this. Please explain.


I think the level description would have to include not only you but  
your world.



Well, I agree, that is why we need to distinguish []p and []p  p,  
and []p  p.


Universal numbers can justify their own incompleteness and they can  
bet, and intuit, the thing with respect to which it is incomplete.


The []p is just a believer. The   p nuance is equivalent with  
giving him a world satisfying p. The   p nuance consists in keeping  
intact the relation between belief and truth (or God, or Real  
world, etc.).


The math shows that such nuances obeys different, but related, laws.



 So I could say yes to the doctor even though I don't think the  
computational brain he installs in me is sufficient, by itself, to  
instantiate my consciousness.


Sure, me too.















But Brent, and Peter Jones, 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-13 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 13 Jul 2014, at 10:04, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



Le 13 juil. 2014 09:58, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com a  
écrit :



 Le 13 juil. 2014 03:31, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au  
a écrit :


 
  On Fri, Jul 11, 2014 at 02:01:38AM +0200, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
  
   Either both are the same computation and goes through the same  
state
   computing the same thing or they're not and don't go through  
the same
   state.  An infinity of computations goes through the same  
state on partial
   run,  up until step n.  All the stopping computation stopping  
at the same
   step are one and the same.  So no even if you can imagine a  
cake made of
   grzeaeftthfey that doesn't make it possible. Two distinct  
computations
   don't go through the same state, at least one state is  
different.

  
 
  Just because two computations go through the same state does not  
mean

  they are the same computation. They could act differently on
  counterfactuals, for example.

 At the moment a counterfactual is different they diverge and do  
not go through the same states and as duch are different computations.


That means that on a given run the two computations could be the  
same if the counterfactual that would make them diverge are not  
triggered.


That 's why there is always an infinity of computations going  
through the same state. Up until divergence they are the same.




Also because under the substitution level there are infinitely many  
machines competing to get your relative computational state related to  
your consciousness (just by the FPI on UD*).


Bruno






Quentin


 Quentin

 
  I recall having fallen into a similar trap in an earlier  
discussion

  about the MGA :).
 
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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-13 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 13 Jul 2014, at 14:19, David Nyman wrote:


On 11 July 2014 19:21, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

I agree with Brent, and I think everybody agree,  when he says that  
reducing

does not eliminate.


You are a little too quick here with your everybody, since obviously
my whole point has been that I *don't* agree! I would remind you that,
in an earlier iteration of this argument with Peter Jones, you said
that 3p reductive explanation eliminates *ontologically*, but not
*epistemologically*. This, essentially, is the distinction I've been
insisting on.


The problem is that a pure 3p reduction does not eliminate a 3p  
notion, either, except for consciousness, due to the fact that it is a  
pure 1p notion.


It is not because I can explain prime number in terms of addition and  
multiplication, than prime number would not exist, that is why there  
is a whole 3p higher order 3p science.


But that 3p science is, (and it is there that we agree, and it is the  
key relevant point in the thread with Brent), is that no 3p reduction  
at all can be done for consciousness. The analogy brain/chess playing  
with machine/self-playing works without eliminating the chess player,  
but does eliminate the chess player consciousness if we limit ourself  
on that analogy.










But we can't use that to compare consciousness/neurons
to temperature/molecules-kinetic.
In that later case we reduce a 3p high
level to a 3p lower level. And indeed, this does not eliminate  
temperature.


Well, if you still hold to your earlier opinion, you should agree
that, in terms of an explanatory hierarchy based on an ontology of
molecular kinetics, temperature must be considered to have been
eliminated *ontologically* (i.e. to have been revealed as *nothing
more than* the underlying kinetics).


I can, and see what you mean, but I prefer not, because I am realist  
on the relations and higher 3p description too.


Then I think it helps to single what is precisely difficult in  
consciousness which will be the modal difference, instead of a 3p  
higher description.





However, it remains as a datum of
epistemology , i.e. as an object of knowledge, perception, or
cognition.


Yes, but this will be related (not identified, with an important 3p  
high notion concept, like computation).





Hence it can still be appealed to in explanation *in
general* as long as we don't forget the original distinction at some
later point in the argument when it begins to beg the question at
issue.


I think we agree on the main thing.






But in the case of consciousness, we have consciousness which is  
1p, and
neurons which are 3p. Here, the whole 3p, be it the arithmetical or  
physical
reality fails (when taken as a complete explanation). The higher  
level 1p

notions are not just higher 3p description, it is the intimate non
justifiable (and infinite) part of a person, which wonderfully enough
provably becomes a non-machine, and a non nameable entity, when we  
apply  the definition of Theaetetus definition to the machine.


I agree with all of this (indeed I've been arguing for it) but I think
that the ontology/epistemology distinction I've been attempting to
defend can be used to construct a reductio against the completeness,
or coherence, of any exclusively 3p explanatory hierarchy.


Yes. But with comp, the modalities and the Theaetetus definition  
provides an exclusively 3p explanatory entity (truth), which we can  
explain cannot be recognized as such from inside, making it impossible  
indeed to reduce the internal 1p to that transcendent 3p from inside.






If so, this
may help to further clarify arguments against the compatibility of
physicalism and computationalism such as the MGA. The
ontology/epistemology distinction could also perhaps be seen as
noumenal/phenomenal.


I take it that way, but incompleteness adds nuances, and the literature.





ISTM that 3p, in any explanatory strategy, is
noumenal in that it cannot be known directly but stands for whatever
is presumed to account for what we *can* and *do* know. So one might
say that physicalism is the attempt to construct a TOE entirely in
noumenal terms, independent of knowledge: a view from nowhere.
ISTM that the problem this creates is exposed in at least two distinct
ways.


I would not do that, because, without comp, physicalism could have  
succeeded.
Comp leads to explains everything from such a view of nowhere, but it  
is more like the Outer God of the greek, it is the arithmetical  
reality (which already is not reducible to any finitely or recursively  
presentable theory). The 1p is defined by a link between the 3p  
believer and God (truth), which is unnameable by the creature.


But this distinction could have work for physicalism, except that comp  
truncated the soul and distribute it on infinities of computation,  
leading to a reduction of the physical into an epistemological  
statistics on 1p experiences.








Firstly, it turns out that it 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-13 Thread meekerdb

On 7/13/2014 12:25 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 12 Jul 2014, at 21:28, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/12/2014 2:16 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 11 Jul 2014, at 22:26, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/11/2014 11:21 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 11 Jul 2014, at 09:41, David Nyman wrote:


On 11 July 2014 00:54, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


As I understand the MGA it assumes physicalism and then purports to show
that computation still exists with minimal or zero physical activity - it
evaucates the physics and keeps the computation.

SNIP


That is exactly why our computations, with and without (and in between) their 
environment (with and without oracles) recurre infinitely often in the sigma_1 truth 
(UD*).


So two computations can be the same at some level of description, and yet occurs in 
quite different places in the UD*.


Is there a canonical level of description at which they are the same,


Yes. When the level of description is chosen correct, it can be the same from your or 
God (arithmetic truth) view. But it is not a constructive or intuitionist notion (like 
not-halting, computer science is full of such type truth).




or are you just saying there exists some mapping which makes them the same over a 
finite number of steps?


No. It is for a possibly infinite number of steps. the number of steps is not 
relevant. It is misleading to define a computation only by a sequence of steps. It is 
a sequence of step + a universal machine or number bringing those computational steps. 
That makes a computation well defined.


But this depends on knowing the universal number;



Well, that's a problem for the physicist. It is not a problem for an engineer, which 
implement some universal number, and so can indentify some computation, nor for the comp 
practionners, hoping his doctor bet on a right subst level. But for the reasoning, no 
need to recognize a universal numbers for him doing its job (in infinity many solutions 
of diophantine equation.





which cannot be inferred from a finite piece of the computation.


Nor *by* a finite piece of machinery. But that's why we will have to take into account 
the indeterminacies, and other limitations into account.






Yet that seems to be what Quentin requires in order to say to instances of the MG 
compute the same function.  Knowing the universal number or knowing the function is 
like the problem of knowing all the correct counterfactuals.



The MG is supposed to have been made at some right substitution level, by us, by chance 
(whatever), then (and here I am not sure of Quentin's wording, but each computation at 
some level is emulated in parallel at infinitely many coarse grained level in 
arithmetic, that looks like more primitive computations.
To give an example, imagine a Lisp program computing a factorial function. You have a 
well defined computation in term of the stepping (tracing) function associated to an 
interpreter Lisp and the input (factorial 5), say.

As Lisp is a universal number, that *counts* as a computation.
But then imagine the computation of the Lisp program emulating a boolean Graph (Nor 
gates and their link and delays) emulating a Z80 processor, emulating itself a Lisp 
interpreter computing (factorial 5) with the same algorithm as above.
Does that comp for a computation of (factorial 5). It does. Is it the same computation? 
Not really. It is a different path in the UD*. If that process incarnate the conscious 
flux, then both does, but one if (by construction) at the simplest right level (program 
in Lisp computing fact 5), and the other is, notably, emulating a lower level, that is 
the Boolean graph of the Z80 processor.


Are they the same because they both compute 5!; even if they used different 
algorithms?



And, yes, knowing the universal number and its data, you know, or can derive, the 
counterfactuals.


















Comp says that there is a level of description of myself such that those computation 
*at the correct level carries my consciousness.


There's where I agree with JKC.  You keep fudging what comp means.  The above is 
*not* the same as betting that the doctor can give you a physical brain prosthesis 
that maintains your consciousness.


I don't see this. Please explain.


I think the level description would have to include not only you but your 
world.



Well, I agree, that is why we need to distinguish []p and []p  p, and []p  
p.

Universal numbers can justify their own incompleteness and they can bet, and intuit, the 
thing with respect to which it is incomplete.


The []p is just a believer. The   p nuance is equivalent with giving him a world 
satisfying p. The   p nuance consists in keeping intact the relation between belief 
and truth (or God, or Real world, etc.).


The math shows that such nuances obeys different, but related, laws.



 So I could say yes to the doctor even though I don't think the computational brain 
he installs in me is sufficient, by itself, to instantiate my 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-13 Thread David Nyman
On 13 July 2014 22:01, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Well, if you still hold to your earlier opinion, you should agree
 that, in terms of an explanatory hierarchy based on an ontology of
 molecular kinetics, temperature must be considered to have been
 eliminated *ontologically* (i.e. to have been revealed as *nothing
 more than* the underlying kinetics).

 I can, and see what you mean, but I prefer not, because I am realist on the
 relations and higher 3p description too.

Well, I'm still not really convinced that the fundamental assumptions
of physical reduction justify your realism on the higher-level
descriptions. But actually I'm not even sure that one need insist on
this to stop the notion of physical computation dead in its tracks.
And of course if one can do this then it must also, a fortiori, put a
stop to any idea of linking any such notion with consciousness. This
reductio was really the point of my argument and if I had to sum it up
for grandma I would say that the key idea is just that, ex hypothesi
physicalism, action of any sort and at whatever level of description
must always be reducible to *physical action simpliciter*. So
accepting physics as a TOE is equivalent to accepting both that no
possible action can be omitted from its explanatory scope and that no
further class of action need be appealed to in accounting for any
physical state of affairs.

I think from that one can already get the idea that, under such
assumptions, supplementary notions such as computation are simply
*redundant* in explaining physical action. Indeed the MGA itself
exploits this basic insight by showing how relations originally
accepted as computational can be entirely evacuated from a physical
system whilst preserving the same net physical action (including, pace
Brent, the same relations with a physical environment). Even in the
case that we accept a notion of physical computation as an a
posteriori attribution, that attribution cannot retrospectively be
accepted as adding anything to the exhaustive reductive hierarchy of
the physical object or system in question. To put it baldly, under
physicalism, a PC or a brain is, at whatever level of description, a
physical object first last and always. Any action associated with that
object must, under the same assumptions, be exhaustively reducible to
the explanatory basement of physical entities and relations. Such
explanations are bottom up all the way down. Hence there is simply no
place in that explanatory hierarchy for any supplementary notion of
computation distinguishable from what is already fully embodied in
physical action.

In the end, the point is that, as you argue yourself, computation is a
fundamentally mathematical (indeed an arithmetical) notion, not a
physical one. And clearly computation as a whole is more extensive
than any of its sub-classes. Consequently, it must be the case that,
although one can construct an argument for the emergence of physical
relations in the form of an observer-dependent sub-class of
computation, there simply can be no parallel argument available in the
opposite direction.

 Then I think it helps to single what is precisely difficult in consciousness
 which will be the modal difference, instead of a 3p higher description.

I can understand your attitude here, and I draw the same conclusion,
but I still think it a pity to miss any potential opportunity to
de-construct the notion of physical computation in its own terms.

David



 On 13 Jul 2014, at 14:19, David Nyman wrote:

 On 11 July 2014 19:21, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 I agree with Brent, and I think everybody agree,  when he says that
 reducing
 does not eliminate.


 You are a little too quick here with your everybody, since obviously
 my whole point has been that I *don't* agree! I would remind you that,
 in an earlier iteration of this argument with Peter Jones, you said
 that 3p reductive explanation eliminates *ontologically*, but not
 *epistemologically*. This, essentially, is the distinction I've been
 insisting on.


 The problem is that a pure 3p reduction does not eliminate a 3p notion,
 either, except for consciousness, due to the fact that it is a pure 1p
 notion.

 It is not because I can explain prime number in terms of addition and
 multiplication, than prime number would not exist, that is why there is a
 whole 3p higher order 3p science.

 But that 3p science is, (and it is there that we agree, and it is the key
 relevant point in the thread with Brent), is that no 3p reduction at all can
 be done for consciousness. The analogy brain/chess playing with
 machine/self-playing works without eliminating the chess player, but does
 eliminate the chess player consciousness if we limit ourself on that
 analogy.








 But we can't use that to compare consciousness/neurons
 to temperature/molecules-kinetic.
 In that later case we reduce a 3p high
 level to a 3p lower level. And indeed, this does not eliminate
 temperature.


 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-13 Thread meekerdb

On 7/13/2014 5:38 PM, David Nyman wrote:

On 13 July 2014 22:01, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


Well, if you still hold to your earlier opinion, you should agree
that, in terms of an explanatory hierarchy based on an ontology of
molecular kinetics, temperature must be considered to have been
eliminated *ontologically* (i.e. to have been revealed as *nothing
more than* the underlying kinetics).

I can, and see what you mean, but I prefer not, because I am realist on the
relations and higher 3p description too.

Well, I'm still not really convinced that the fundamental assumptions
of physical reduction justify your realism on the higher-level
descriptions. But actually I'm not even sure that one need insist on
this to stop the notion of physical computation dead in its tracks.
And of course if one can do this then it must also, a fortiori, put a
stop to any idea of linking any such notion with consciousness. This
reductio was really the point of my argument and if I had to sum it up
for grandma I would say that the key idea is just that, ex hypothesi
physicalism, action of any sort and at whatever level of description
must always be reducible to *physical action simpliciter*. So
accepting physics as a TOE is equivalent to accepting both that no
possible action can be omitted from its explanatory scope and that no
further class of action need be appealed to in accounting for any
physical state of affairs.

I think from that one can already get the idea that, under such
assumptions, supplementary notions such as computation are simply
*redundant* in explaining physical action. Indeed the MGA itself
exploits this basic insight by showing how relations originally
accepted as computational can be entirely evacuated from a physical
system whilst preserving the same net physical action (including, pace
Brent, the same relations with a physical environment).


I appreciate your granma level explication.  I sometimes find your prose difficult to 
parse.  But from the above I'm led to wonder whether you've actually read the MGA, so I 
repeat them here for convenient reference:


/THE FIRST THOUGHT EXPERIMENT AND THE FIRST QUESTIONS   (MGA 1) : The //
//lucky cosmic event.//
//
//One billions years ago, at one billion light years away, somewhere in //
//the universe (which exists by the naturalist hypo) a cosmic explosion //
//occurred. And ...//
//
//... Alice had her math exam this afternoon.//
// From 3h to 4h, she solved successfully a problem. She though to //
//herself, oh, easy, Oh careful there is trap, yet I can solve it.//
//
//What really happened is this. Alice already got an artificial brain, //
//since a fatal brain tumor in her early childhood. At 3h17 pm one //
//logical gate did broke, (resp. two logical gates, three, 24, 4567, //
//234987, ... all).//
//
//But Alice was lucky (incredibly lucky). When the logical gate A did //
//break, and for example did not send a bit to logical gate B, an //
//energetic particle coming from the cosmic explosion, by pure chance, //
//did trigger the logical gate B at the right time. And just after this //
//happening another energetic particle fixed the gate problem.//
//
//Question: did this change Alice's consciousness during the exam?//
//
//I ask the same question with 2440 broken gates. They broke, let us say //
//during an oral exam, and each time a gate broke, by sending a wrong //
//info, or by not sending some info, an energetic particle coming from //
//that cosmic explosion do the job, and at some point in time, a bunch //
//of energetic particle fix Alice's brain.//
//
//Suppose that ALL the neurons/logical gates of Alice are broken during //
//the exam, all the time. But Alice, I told you, is incredibly lucky, //
//and that cosmic beam again manage each logical gates to complete their //
//work in the relevant places and times. And again at the end of the //
//exam, a cosmic last beam fixed her brain. In particular she succeed //
//the exam, and she can explain later to her mother, with her sane //
//(artificial) brain, that she thought  tp herself, during the oral //
//exam: oh, easy, Oh careful there is trap, yet I can solve it.//
//
//The last question (of MGA 1) is:  was Alice, in this case, a zombie //
//during the exam?//
//
//I let you think.//
//
//  Bruno/

And

/MGA 2//
//
//
//The second step of the MGA, consists in making a change to MGA 1 so //
//that we don't have to introduce that unreasonable amount of cosmic //
//luck, or of apparent randomness. It shows the lucky aspect of the //
//coming information is not relevant. Jason thought on this sequel.//
//
//
//Let us consider again Alice, which, as you know as an artificial //
//brain, made of logic gates.//
//Now Alice is sleeping, and doing a dream---like Carroll's original //
//Alice.//
//
//Today we know that a REM dream is a conscious experience, or better an //
//experience of consciousness, thanks to the work of Hearne Laberge, //
//Dement, etc.//
//Malcolm's theory of 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 11 Jul 2014, at 23:57, spudboy100 via Everything List wrote:

Thanks for your response, Bruno. Now, I ask the subjective question,  
which may not like the truth, or your truth.


The truth is the same for everyone (by the platonist definition of  
truth). But we never know it *as such*, (except for consciousness) and  
so it can *look* different.






Does knowing this advance the human condition, in your opinion?


This is equivalent with asking do we need the truth?. I would say it  
is always better to search it, no matter what. The lies can never win  
the game against truth in the long run, and truth is what remains when  
the lies vanish.




Do you think knowing this moves our species in a better direction?  
This may be like me asking if knowing that Pluto is not technically  
a planet, reduce unemployment? The two may be unrelated, however,  
since this is your theology, I figured I better ask you then guess  
on my own.


It is the universal machine's theology, and it can be mine only the  
day I would bet on comp.


I do think that, even if comp is false, the theology of machine is a  
nice etalon to compare all theologies. It can be seen as a tool in  
serious comparative theology.


Then machine's theology is a very modest form of  
negative (neoplatonist) theology, and the possibility of its truth  
might help the human in recovering some modesty which could improve  
the quality of the life of everybody.


99,9% of the human suffering due to humans, comes from the arrogance  
of those who dare to believe that they can think at the place of  
others. Usually it is fake, it is a technic to steal your money.


By its protection against reductionism, I think that machine's  
theology is very useful, even if wrong. It illustrates also that we  
can reason in that field, and this already invalidate some strong- 
atheist doctrines. It reminds us to be agnostic when doing  
(fundamental) science, both on universe, god, matter, etc.


Bruno




-Original Message-
From: Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Thu, Jul 10, 2014 10:31 am
Subject: Re: What's the answer? What's the question?


On 09 Jul 2014, at 21:52, spudboy100 via Everything List wrote:

You may have written exhaustively on this before, but, one more  
time please.



No problem. I'm always happy if I can clarify.


How do you build a theology based on mathematics. I don't see  
Pythagoras as being a source of happiness for most earthlings. Of  
yourself, I have no doubt!


The whole idea of doing science consists in trying hard to not be  
influenced in wishful thinking, which of course is part of many  
popular religion. I can understand that some philosophy search  
happiness, that is nice, but it might have nothing to do with the  
theological reality.


So, how to study that theological reality, and why mathematics can  
help. First, please notice that I am using the term theology in  
his initial sense defined by Plato, and which means ultimate truth  
or theory of everything including the visible, like proton and  
galaxies, and the invisible, like numbers, consciousness, math, and  
who knows which possible alien, perhaps divine, entities. At the  
start it is better to have the less prejudices and be the most open  
as possible, given that the field is rather sick very often (the  
most fundamental science is always under the threat of abuse of  
power (not just theology, biology and cosmology were often perverted  
too).


Then as theological assumption, I use the computationalist  
hypothesis/theory, which basically assume that the brain operation  
are Turing emulable, up to preserve my life and identity in case I  
substitute my biological brain for an artificial (and Turing  
emulable) device. This is not a strong hypothesis for a materialist  
or naturalist, as we don't know in nature any non Turing emulable  
phenomena. But it *is* a strong hypothesis in theology, and it  
implies a form of reincarnation, both in rich physical universe and  
in arithmetic. This leads to the mathematical comp measure problem.  
The solution of that problem has already been given at the  
propositional logic level, and the result suggests that people like  
Plotinus, the neoplatonists and the mystics have a discourse which  
is easy to interpret in arithmetic. Indeed arithmetic contains all  
computations, and we can interview the machine in arithmetic about  
their first person expectancy.
 In particular, the arithmetical truth plays the role of  
(neoplatonist) God: it has no name, is transcendent, is responsible  
for all beliefs and knowledge (and realities); the 'theaetetical'  
knower/soul or inner God, already used by Plotinus, works very well  
in that setting too, as it happens non nameable too (cf Ramana  
Maharshi and the koan who am I?), it obeys Brouwer intuitionist  
logic, with an addition of a temporal nuance, which structure the  
space of accessible

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 11 Jul 2014, at 22:26, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/11/2014 11:21 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 11 Jul 2014, at 09:41, David Nyman wrote:


On 11 July 2014 00:54, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

As I understand the MGA it assumes physicalism and then purports  
to show
that computation still exists with minimal or zero physical  
activity - it

evaucates the physics and keeps the computation.


For heaven's sake, Brent! This is what you originally said to Liz.
What you're referring to is Maudlin's argument. It's the  
*opposite* of

my understanding of the MGA, which seeks to show how physical action
can be preserved unchanged even in cases where the original
computational relations have been completely disrupted. I spent
several paragraphs describing this with additional examples. You  
then

commented this with I agree with all you wrote, which led to some
further discussion based (as I thought) on this understanding.

Your comment above now leaves me hopelessly confused. I would be
grateful if you would review our recent discussion and clarify what
you do or do not agree with in my analysis.



I think that it will help to define perhaps more precisely what is  
a computation.


I will reread the thread (many posts) when I have more time, and  
make only one comment.


We have a computation when a universal machine compute something.  
We have an intensional Post-Church thesis 'which follows from the  
usual Post-Church-Turing thesis), which makes possible to translate  
universal machine compute something in term of numbers addition  
and multiplication + one existential quantifier.


Now, when are two computations the same? If we fix a base phi_i, we  
might define a computations by sequences of step of the universal  
base computing some phi_k, that is the nth steps phi_k(j)^n of the  
computation by the base of the program k on the input j, with n =  
0, 1, 2, 3, etc.


But now that very computation will recure infinitely often, and not  
always in (algorithmically) recognizable way.


You can conceive it might not be obvious that the evolution of a  
game of life pattern (GOL is Turing-universal) is simulating a  
Fortran interpreter simulating a Lisp program computing the ph(j)^n  
above.


And is it not the case that there will exist a mapping to a  
different base such that this same evolution of the GOL is  
simulating a Python interpreter computing some different phi.  This  
why I have trouble with the concept to two computations being in  
the same state.  ISTM that same state is relative to the  
enumerated basis functions and the functions cannot be recognized  
from any finite sequence of states.




That is exactly why our computations, with and without (and in  
between) their environment (with and without oracles) recurre  
infinitely often in the sigma_1 truth (UD*).


So two computations can be the same at some level of description,  
and yet occurs in quite different places in the UD*.


Is there a canonical level of description at which they are the same,


Yes. When the level of description is chosen correct, it can be the  
same from your or God (arithmetic truth) view. But it is not a  
constructive or intuitionist notion (like not-halting, computer  
science is full of such type truth).




or are you just saying there exists some mapping which makes them  
the same over a finite number of steps?


No. It is for a possibly infinite number of steps. the number of steps  
is not relevant. It is misleading to define a computation only by a  
sequence of steps. It is a sequence of step + a universal machine or  
number bringing those computational steps. That makes a computation  
well defined.









Comp says that there is a level of description of myself such that  
those computation *at the correct level carries my consciousness.


There's where I agree with JKC.  You keep fudging what comp  
means.  The above is *not* the same as betting that the doctor can  
give you a physical brain prosthesis that maintains your  
consciousness.


I don't see this. Please explain.








But Brent, and Peter Jones, adds that the computation have to be  
done by a real thing.
This is a bit like either choosing some particular universal number  
pr, and called it physical reality, and add the axioms that only   
the phi_pr computations counts: the phi_pr (j)^n.


I think Peter, like me, questions the existence of numbers as any  
more than elements fo language.


This is conventionalism. I consider that this view is refuted by  
number theory implicitly, and by mathematical logic explicitly. The  
existence of not of infinitely many prime number twins is everythi,g  
but conventional. With comp, the existence of your dreams in  
arithmetic, and their relative proportions, are not conventional.




So it is not like choosing a universal number, it's saying that some  
things exist and some don't.


Define exist. If you say exists physically then you beg the  
question, and I will ask 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-12 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 11 Jul 2014, at 01:43, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:

Emil L. Post 1936 Finite Combinatory Processes. Formulation 1. -  
from the concluding paragraph:


The writer expects the present formulation to turn out to be  
logically equivalent to recursiveness in the sense of the Gödel- 
Church development. Its purpose, however, is not only to present a  
system of a certain logical potency but also, in its restricted  
field, of psychological fidelity. In the latter sense wider and  
wider formulations are contemplated. On the other hand, our aim will  
be to show that all such are logically reducible to formulation 1.  
We offer this conclusion at the present moment as a working  
hypothesis. And to our mind such is Church's identification of  
effective calculability with recursiveness.8 Out of this hypothesis,  
and because of its apparent contradiction to all mathematical  
development starting with Cantor's proof of the non-enumerability of  
the points of a line, independently flows a Gödel-Church  
development. The success of the above program would, for us, change  
this hypothesis not so much to a definition or to an axiom but to  
natural law. Only so, it seems to the writer, can Gödel's theorem  
concerning incompleteness of symbolic logics of a certain general  
type and Church's results on the recursive unsolvability of certain  
problems be transformed into conclusions concerning all symbolic  
logics and all methods of solvability.


Footnote:

8 Cf. Church, lock. cit, pp. 346, 356-358. Actually the work  
already done by Church and others carries this identification  
considerably beyond the working hypothesis stage. But to mask this  
identification under a definition hides the fact that a fundamental  
discovery in the limitiations of mathematicizing power of Homo  
Sapiens has been made and blinds us to the need of its continual  
verification.


Effective calculability; Post seems to insist with the incredibly  
clear and simple Formulation1, is merely intuitive notion. I know  
Church wasn't too happy with this. Continual verification, ok. PGC



Nice quote of my favorite logician and (theologian without knowing  
it). That would have been an excellent reply to Bill Taylor, who  
estimated that Church's thesis *is* a definition. The natural law here  
is a foreseen of computationalism when seen as something we infer from  
biological information, which is indeed what made me believe in self- 
duplicability (amoeba) and digital mechanism (Molecular biology,  
molecular genetics) in the first place. And that needs a continual  
verification indeed.


Bruno








On Thu, Jul 10, 2014 at 11:46 PM, Quentin Anciaux  
allco...@gmail.com wrote:


Le 10 juil. 2014 23:40, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net a écrit :



 On 7/10/2014 2:08 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


 Le 10 juil. 2014 22:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net a écrit :
 
  On 7/10/2014 1:21 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
 
 
 
 
  2014-07-10 21:56 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:
 
  On 7/10/2014 12:19 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

  No we need computation to relate a physical instantiation to  
it (that's how we can say two != computers compute the same thing,  
it's because they relate to the same computation),

 
 
  But that's not true.  I have a differential equation integrator  
in my computer and it could be going through exactly the same states  
in two different instances; one computing heat transfer in a disc  
brake and other computing diffusion of pollutant in a pond.  So  
there is not a one-one mapping either way.


 that's not possible... if they compute different thing the state  
machine is different.



 Only when it's printing the headers of the columns of the numbers.

if they are different computations they don't go through the same  
states...  QED What you said is simply false.



 Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-12 Thread meekerdb

On 7/12/2014 2:16 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 11 Jul 2014, at 22:26, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/11/2014 11:21 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 11 Jul 2014, at 09:41, David Nyman wrote:


On 11 July 2014 00:54, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


As I understand the MGA it assumes physicalism and then purports to show
that computation still exists with minimal or zero physical activity - it
evaucates the physics and keeps the computation.


For heaven's sake, Brent! This is what you originally said to Liz.
What you're referring to is Maudlin's argument. It's the *opposite* of
my understanding of the MGA, which seeks to show how physical action
can be preserved unchanged even in cases where the original
computational relations have been completely disrupted. I spent
several paragraphs describing this with additional examples. You then
commented this with I agree with all you wrote, which led to some
further discussion based (as I thought) on this understanding.

Your comment above now leaves me hopelessly confused. I would be
grateful if you would review our recent discussion and clarify what
you do or do not agree with in my analysis.



I think that it will help to define perhaps more precisely what is a 
computation.

I will reread the thread (many posts) when I have more time, and make only one 
comment.

We have a computation when a universal machine compute something. We have an 
intensional Post-Church thesis 'which follows from the usual Post-Church-Turing 
thesis), which makes possible to translate universal machine compute something in 
term of numbers addition and multiplication + one existential quantifier.


Now, when are two computations the same? If we fix a base phi_i, we might define a 
computations by sequences of step of the universal base computing some phi_k, that is 
the nth steps phi_k(j)^n of the computation by the base of the program k on the input 
j, with n = 0, 1, 2, 3, etc.


But now that very computation will recure infinitely often, and not always in 
(algorithmically) recognizable way.


You can conceive it might not be obvious that the evolution of a game of life pattern 
(GOL is Turing-universal) is simulating a Fortran interpreter simulating a Lisp 
program computing the ph(j)^n above.


And is it not the case that there will exist a mapping to a different base such that 
this same evolution of the GOL is simulating a Python interpreter computing some 
different phi. This why I have trouble with the concept to two computations being in 
the same state.  ISTM that same state is relative to the enumerated basis functions 
and the functions cannot be recognized from any finite sequence of states.




That is exactly why our computations, with and without (and in between) their 
environment (with and without oracles) recurre infinitely often in the sigma_1 truth 
(UD*).


So two computations can be the same at some level of description, and yet occurs in 
quite different places in the UD*.


Is there a canonical level of description at which they are the same,


Yes. When the level of description is chosen correct, it can be the same from your or 
God (arithmetic truth) view. But it is not a constructive or intuitionist notion (like 
not-halting, computer science is full of such type truth).




or are you just saying there exists some mapping which makes them the same over a 
finite number of steps?


No. It is for a possibly infinite number of steps. the number of steps is not relevant. 
It is misleading to define a computation only by a sequence of steps. It is a sequence 
of step + a universal machine or number bringing those computational steps. That makes a 
computation well defined.


But this depends on knowing the universal number; which cannot be inferred from a finite 
piece of the computation.  Yet that seems to be what Quentin requires in order to say to 
instances of the MG compute the same function.  Knowing the universal number or knowing 
the function is like the problem of knowing all the correct counterfactuals.











Comp says that there is a level of description of myself such that those computation 
*at the correct level carries my consciousness.


There's where I agree with JKC.  You keep fudging what comp means.  The above is 
*not* the same as betting that the doctor can give you a physical brain prosthesis that 
maintains your consciousness.


I don't see this. Please explain.


I think the level description would have to include not only you but your world.  So I 
could say yes to the doctor even though I don't think the computational brain he 
installs in me is sufficient, by itself, to instantiate my consciousness.











But Brent, and Peter Jones, adds that the computation have to be done by a real 
thing.
This is a bit like either choosing some particular universal number pr, and called it 
physical reality, and add the axioms that only  the phi_pr computations counts: the 
phi_pr (j)^n.


I think Peter, like me, questions the existence 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-12 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2014-07-12 21:28 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

 On 7/12/2014 2:16 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 11 Jul 2014, at 22:26, meekerdb wrote:

  On 7/11/2014 11:21 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 11 Jul 2014, at 09:41, David Nyman wrote:

  On 11 July 2014 00:54, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  As I understand the MGA it assumes physicalism and then purports to
 show
 that computation still exists with minimal or zero physical activity
 - it
 evaucates the physics and keeps the computation.


 For heaven's sake, Brent! This is what you originally said to Liz.
 What you're referring to is Maudlin's argument. It's the *opposite* of
 my understanding of the MGA, which seeks to show how physical action
 can be preserved unchanged even in cases where the original
 computational relations have been completely disrupted. I spent
 several paragraphs describing this with additional examples. You then
 commented this with I agree with all you wrote, which led to some
 further discussion based (as I thought) on this understanding.

 Your comment above now leaves me hopelessly confused. I would be
 grateful if you would review our recent discussion and clarify what
 you do or do not agree with in my analysis.



 I think that it will help to define perhaps more precisely what is a
 computation.

 I will reread the thread (many posts) when I have more time, and make
 only one comment.

 We have a computation when a universal machine compute something. We
 have an intensional Post-Church thesis 'which follows from the usual
 Post-Church-Turing thesis), which makes possible to translate universal
 machine compute something in term of numbers addition and multiplication +
 one existential quantifier.

 Now, when are two computations the same? If we fix a base phi_i, we
 might define a computations by sequences of step of the universal base
 computing some phi_k, that is the nth steps phi_k(j)^n of the computation
 by the base of the program k on the input j, with n = 0, 1, 2, 3, etc.

 But now that very computation will recure infinitely often, and not
 always in (algorithmically) recognizable way.

 You can conceive it might not be obvious that the evolution of a game
 of life pattern (GOL is Turing-universal) is simulating a Fortran
 interpreter simulating a Lisp program computing the ph(j)^n above.


 And is it not the case that there will exist a mapping to a different
 base such that this same evolution of the GOL is simulating a Python
 interpreter computing some different phi. This why I have trouble with the
 concept to two computations being in the same state.  ISTM that same
 state is relative to the enumerated basis functions and the functions
 cannot be recognized from any finite sequence of states.


 That is exactly why our computations, with and without (and in between)
 their environment (with and without oracles) recurre infinitely often in
 the sigma_1 truth (UD*).

 So two computations can be the same at some level of description, and
 yet occurs in quite different places in the UD*.


 Is there a canonical level of description at which they are the same,


 Yes. When the level of description is chosen correct, it can be the same
 from your or God (arithmetic truth) view. But it is not a constructive or
 intuitionist notion (like not-halting, computer science is full of such
 type truth).



  or are you just saying there exists some mapping which makes them the
 same over a finite number of steps?


 No. It is for a possibly infinite number of steps. the number of steps is
 not relevant. It is misleading to define a computation only by a sequence
 of steps. It is a sequence of step + a universal machine or number bringing
 those computational steps. That makes a computation well defined.


 But this depends on knowing the universal number; which cannot be inferred
 from a finite piece of the computation.  Yet that seems to be what Quentin
 requires in order to say to instances of the MG compute the same function.


You need the mapping and the states, that gives you the computation. That
means you need the machine and the states.

But if a computation compute a conscious being, then all the meaning exists
for that conscious being... even if it was computed in a physical computer
here on earth which doesn't output anything usable for us... the conscious
being would be conscious by definition of the experiment which is that we
have a computation of a conscious being running... the fact that under
another intepreter you could map the internal state of that particular
computer to another computation is irrelevant, it's true that if you dump
the current state of that machine and you run it on a particular crafted
machine that when it reads that state is in fact simulating a garden with
birds, that change nothing for the computer with which when fed this states
compute a conscious being. As I said, the state alone means nothing, you
must have the machine... and if the machine + the state is a 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-12 Thread Russell Standish
On Fri, Jul 11, 2014 at 02:01:38AM +0200, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
 
 Either both are the same computation and goes through the same state
 computing the same thing or they're not and don't go through the same
 state.  An infinity of computations goes through the same state on partial
 run,  up until step n.  All the stopping computation stopping at the same
 step are one and the same.  So no even if you can imagine a cake made of
 grzeaeftthfey that doesn't make it possible. Two distinct computations
 don't go through the same state, at least one state is different.
 

Just because two computations go through the same state does not mean
they are the same computation. They could act differently on
counterfactuals, for example.

I recall having fallen into a similar trap in an earlier discussion
about the MGA :).

-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

 Latest project: The Amoeba's Secret 
 (http://www.hpcoders.com.au/AmoebasSecret.html)


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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-12 Thread meekerdb

On 7/12/2014 12:52 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2014-07-12 21:28 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net:

On 7/12/2014 2:16 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 11 Jul 2014, at 22:26, meekerdb wrote:

On 7/11/2014 11:21 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 11 Jul 2014, at 09:41, David Nyman wrote:

On 11 July 2014 00:54, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

As I understand the MGA it assumes physicalism and then 
purports
to show
that computation still exists with minimal or zero 
physical
activity - it
evaucates the physics and keeps the computation.


For heaven's sake, Brent! This is what you originally said 
to Liz.
What you're referring to is Maudlin's argument. It's the 
*opposite* of
my understanding of the MGA, which seeks to show how 
physical action
can be preserved unchanged even in cases where the original
computational relations have been completely disrupted. I 
spent
several paragraphs describing this with additional 
examples. You then
commented this with I agree with all you wrote, which led 
to some
further discussion based (as I thought) on this 
understanding.

Your comment above now leaves me hopelessly confused. I 
would be
grateful if you would review our recent discussion and 
clarify what
you do or do not agree with in my analysis.



I think that it will help to define perhaps more precisely what 
is a
computation.

I will reread the thread (many posts) when I have more time, 
and make
only one comment.

We have a computation when a universal machine compute 
something. We
have an intensional Post-Church thesis 'which follows from the 
usual
Post-Church-Turing thesis), which makes possible to translate 
universal
machine compute something in term of numbers addition and
multiplication + one existential quantifier.

Now, when are two computations the same? If we fix a base 
phi_i, we
might define a computations by sequences of step of the 
universal base
computing some phi_k, that is the nth steps phi_k(j)^n of the
computation by the base of the program k on the input j, with n 
= 0, 1,
2, 3, etc.

But now that very computation will recure infinitely often, and 
not
always in (algorithmically) recognizable way.

You can conceive it might not be obvious that the evolution of 
a game of
life pattern (GOL is Turing-universal) is simulating a Fortran
interpreter simulating a Lisp program computing the ph(j)^n 
above.


And is it not the case that there will exist a mapping to a 
different base
such that this same evolution of the GOL is simulating a Python 
interpreter
computing some different phi. This why I have trouble with the 
concept to
two computations being in the same state.  ISTM that same state 
is
relative to the enumerated basis functions and the functions cannot 
be
recognized from any finite sequence of states.


That is exactly why our computations, with and without (and in 
between)
their environment (with and without oracles) recurre infinitely 
often in
the sigma_1 truth (UD*).

So two computations can be the same at some level of 
description, and
yet occurs in quite different places in the UD*.


Is there a canonical level of description at which they are the 
same,


Yes. When the level of description is chosen correct, it can be the 
same from
your or God (arithmetic truth) view. But it is not a constructive or
intuitionist notion (like not-halting, computer science is full of 
such type
truth).



or are you just saying there exists some mapping which makes them 
the same
over a finite number of steps?


No. It is for a possibly infinite number of steps. the number of steps 
is not
relevant. It is misleading to define a computation only by a sequence 
of steps.
It is a sequence of step + a universal machine or number bringing those
computational steps. That makes a computation well defined.


But this depends on knowing the universal number; which cannot be inferred 
from a
finite piece of the computation.  Yet that seems to be what Quentin 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-11 Thread meekerdb

On 7/10/2014 10:45 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



Le 11 juil. 2014 02:15, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
a écrit :


 On 7/10/2014 5:01 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


  It's my example and ex hypothesi they do go through the same states, they're just 
*about* different things.


 Either both are the same computation and goes through the same state computing the 
same thing



 But same thing is ambiguous.  They may both compute 2.76 but in one case I know it 
means degrees Kelvin and in the other it's parts-per-million.


I don't care what the computation means to you.


And I don't care what you assert without support.


If they go through the same states, they're the same computation.



OK, they can't be conscious of anything on pain of ambiguity.


What you do or not with the output if any is of no concern for that.

 In which case I'm the external world providing the referents.

In case of a conscious computation, it is it that provides the meaning.



OK, was it conscious of computing a temperature or a density?

Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-11 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2014-07-11 8:10 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

  On 7/10/2014 10:45 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


 Le 11 juil. 2014 02:15, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net a écrit :
 
  On 7/10/2014 5:01 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
 
 
   It's my example and ex hypothesi they do go through the same states,
 they're just *about* different things.
 
  Either both are the same computation and goes through the same state
 computing the same thing
 
 
  But same thing is ambiguous.  They may both compute 2.76 but in one
 case I know it means degrees Kelvin and in the other it's
 parts-per-million.

 I don't care what the computation means to you.

 And I don't care what you assert without support.


What ??? A computation compute weither you ascribe meaning to its ouput (if
any)... So it's you who are asserting false thing without any support.



  If they go through the same states, they're the same computation.


 OK, they can't be conscious of anything on pain of ambiguity.


  What you do or not with the output if any is of no concern for that.

  In which case I'm the external world providing the referents.

 In case of a conscious computation, it is it that provides the meaning.


 OK, was it conscious of computing a temperature or a density?


Ask it !!

Quentin


 Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-11 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2014-07-11 8:48 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

  On 7/10/2014 11:45 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




 2014-07-11 8:10 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

  On 7/10/2014 10:45 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


 Le 11 juil. 2014 02:15, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net a écrit :
 
  On 7/10/2014 5:01 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
 
 
   It's my example and ex hypothesi they do go through the same states,
 they're just *about* different things.
 
  Either both are the same computation and goes through the same state
 computing the same thing
 
 
  But same thing is ambiguous.  They may both compute 2.76 but in one
 case I know it means degrees Kelvin and in the other it's
 parts-per-million.

 I don't care what the computation means to you.

  And I don't care what you assert without support.


  What ??? A computation compute weither you ascribe meaning to its ouput
 (if any)... So it's you who are asserting false thing without any support.



  If they go through the same states, they're the same computation.


  OK, they can't be conscious of anything on pain of ambiguity.


  What you do or not with the output if any is of no concern for that.

  In which case I'm the external world providing the referents.

 In case of a conscious computation, it is it that provides the meaning.


  OK, was it conscious of computing a temperature or a density?


  Ask it !!


 Per your version of CMT it must give the same answer in either case.

 ?? What ???

No my version of the CTM (it's not mine, it's just your version is not
CTM at all, I even wonder if you actually know what a program is and how a
computer works) for a conscious program it's that it is it that gives
meaning to its input (weither internal or external). If it calls a
subprogram in a context of computing a temperature it will certainly
ascribe temperature meaning, it it calls it in a context of counting
appless, it will ascribe a counting value of apples...

You're totally non-sensical here.

Quentin


  Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-11 Thread David Nyman
On 11 July 2014 00:54, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 As I understand the MGA it assumes physicalism and then purports to show
 that computation still exists with minimal or zero physical activity - it
 evaucates the physics and keeps the computation.

For heaven's sake, Brent! This is what you originally said to Liz.
What you're referring to is Maudlin's argument. It's the *opposite* of
my understanding of the MGA, which seeks to show how physical action
can be preserved unchanged even in cases where the original
computational relations have been completely disrupted. I spent
several paragraphs describing this with additional examples. You then
commented this with I agree with all you wrote, which led to some
further discussion based (as I thought) on this understanding.

Your comment above now leaves me hopelessly confused. I would be
grateful if you would review our recent discussion and clarify what
you do or do not agree with in my analysis.

David

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-11 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 11 Jul 2014, at 09:41, David Nyman wrote:


On 11 July 2014 00:54, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

As I understand the MGA it assumes physicalism and then purports to  
show
that computation still exists with minimal or zero physical  
activity - it

evaucates the physics and keeps the computation.


For heaven's sake, Brent! This is what you originally said to Liz.
What you're referring to is Maudlin's argument. It's the *opposite* of
my understanding of the MGA, which seeks to show how physical action
can be preserved unchanged even in cases where the original
computational relations have been completely disrupted. I spent
several paragraphs describing this with additional examples. You then
commented this with I agree with all you wrote, which led to some
further discussion based (as I thought) on this understanding.

Your comment above now leaves me hopelessly confused. I would be
grateful if you would review our recent discussion and clarify what
you do or do not agree with in my analysis.



I think that it will help to define perhaps more precisely what is a  
computation.


I will reread the thread (many posts) when I have more time, and make  
only one comment.


We have a computation when a universal machine compute something. We  
have an intensional Post-Church thesis 'which follows from the usual  
Post-Church-Turing thesis), which makes possible to translate  
universal machine compute something in term of numbers addition and  
multiplication + one existential quantifier.


Now, when are two computations the same? If we fix a base phi_i, we  
might define a computations by sequences of step of the universal base  
computing some phi_k, that is the nth steps  phi_k(j)^n of the  
computation by the base of the program k on the input j, with n = 0,  
1, 2, 3, etc.


But now that very computation will recure infinitely often, and not  
always in (algorithmically) recognizable way.


You can conceive it might not be obvious that the evolution of a game  
of life pattern (GOL is Turing-universal) is simulating a Fortran  
interpreter simulating a Lisp program computing the ph(j)^n above.


That is exactly why our computations, with and without (and in  
between) their environment (with and without oracles) recurre  
infinitely often in the sigma_1 truth (UD*).


So two computations can be the same at some level of description, and  
yet occurs in quite different places in the UD*.


Comp says that there is a level of description of myself such that  
those computation *at the correct level carries my consciousness.


But Brent, and Peter Jones, adds that the computation have to be done  
by a real thing.
This is a bit like either choosing some particular universal number  
pr, and called it physical reality, and add the axioms that only   
the phi_pr computations counts: the phi_pr (j)^n.


Well, this would just select (without argument) a special sub- 
universal dovetailing among (any) universal dovetailing. The only  
force here is that somehow the quantum Everet wave, seen as such a  
phi_pr do solve the measure problem (accepting Gleason theorem does  
its job).


But just choosing that phi_pr does not solve the mind-body problem,  
only the body problem in a superficial way (losing the non justifiable  
parts notably).


Or they make that physical reality non computable (as comp needs, but  
they conjecture that it differs from the non (entirely) computable  
physics that we can extract from arithmetic (with comp). But then it  
is just a statement like your plane will not fly.  Let us make the  
test, and up to now it works.


I agree with Brent, and I think everybody agree,  when he says that  
reducing does not eliminate. But we can't use that to compare  
consciousness/neurons to temperature/molecules-kinetic. In that later  
case we reduce a 3p high level to a 3p lower level. And indeed, this  
does not eliminate temperature. But in the case of consciousness, we  
have consciousness which is 1p, and neurons which are 3p. Here, the  
whole 3p, be it the arithmetical or physical reality fails (when taken  
as a complete explanation). The higher level 1p notions are not just  
higher 3p description, it is the intimate non justifiable (and  
infinite) part of a person, which wonderfully enough provably becomes  
a non-machine, and a non nameable entity, when we apply the definition  
of Theaetetus definition to the machine.


Interesting! We are at the crux of the crux!  I see that Gerson(*)  
follows Socrates, and take the Theaetetus definition ([]p  p) as a  
description of knowledge, but the universal machine can understand  
that this is not true when applied on machine (ironically enough). The  
modal []p  p can define knowledge without providing any description  
or code. Worst (but this is why this strategy works!), not only []p  
 p definition does not provide a description of the knower, but it  
is constructively immune against all descriptions. The apparently  
little 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-11 Thread meekerdb

On 7/11/2014 12:41 AM, David Nyman wrote:

On 11 July 2014 00:54, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


As I understand the MGA it assumes physicalism and then purports to show
that computation still exists with minimal or zero physical activity - it
evaucates the physics and keeps the computation.

For heaven's sake, Brent! This is what you originally said to Liz.
What you're referring to is Maudlin's argument. It's the *opposite* of
my understanding of the MGA, which seeks to show how physical action
can be preserved unchanged even in cases where the original
computational relations have been completely disrupted. I spent
several paragraphs describing this with additional examples. You then
commented this with I agree with all you wrote, which led to some
further discussion based (as I thought) on this understanding.

Your comment above now leaves me hopelessly confused. I would be
grateful if you would review our recent discussion and clarify what
you do or do not agree with in my analysis.


You're right. I'm confused.  I'll re-read MGA and Maudlin.  I think the confusion comes 
from them being reductio arguments.  When you find the conclusion absurd then you have 
several choices of which premise to blame.


Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-11 Thread meekerdb

On 7/11/2014 11:21 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 11 Jul 2014, at 09:41, David Nyman wrote:


On 11 July 2014 00:54, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


As I understand the MGA it assumes physicalism and then purports to show
that computation still exists with minimal or zero physical activity - it
evaucates the physics and keeps the computation.


For heaven's sake, Brent! This is what you originally said to Liz.
What you're referring to is Maudlin's argument. It's the *opposite* of
my understanding of the MGA, which seeks to show how physical action
can be preserved unchanged even in cases where the original
computational relations have been completely disrupted. I spent
several paragraphs describing this with additional examples. You then
commented this with I agree with all you wrote, which led to some
further discussion based (as I thought) on this understanding.

Your comment above now leaves me hopelessly confused. I would be
grateful if you would review our recent discussion and clarify what
you do or do not agree with in my analysis.



I think that it will help to define perhaps more precisely what is a 
computation.

I will reread the thread (many posts) when I have more time, and make only one 
comment.

We have a computation when a universal machine compute something. We have an intensional 
Post-Church thesis 'which follows from the usual Post-Church-Turing thesis), which makes 
possible to translate universal machine compute something in term of numbers addition 
and multiplication + one existential quantifier.


Now, when are two computations the same? If we fix a base phi_i, we might define a 
computations by sequences of step of the universal base computing some phi_k, that is 
the nth steps phi_k(j)^n of the computation by the base of the program k on the input j, 
with n = 0, 1, 2, 3, etc.


But now that very computation will recure infinitely often, and not always in 
(algorithmically) recognizable way.


You can conceive it might not be obvious that the evolution of a game of life pattern 
(GOL is Turing-universal) is simulating a Fortran interpreter simulating a Lisp program 
computing the ph(j)^n above.


And is it not the case that there will exist a mapping to a different base such that this 
same evolution of the GOL is simulating a Python interpreter computing some different 
phi.  This why I have trouble with the concept to two computations being in the same 
state.  ISTM that same state is relative to the enumerated basis functions and the 
functions cannot be recognized from any finite sequence of states.




That is exactly why our computations, with and without (and in between) their 
environment (with and without oracles) recurre infinitely often in the sigma_1 truth (UD*).


So two computations can be the same at some level of description, and yet occurs in 
quite different places in the UD*.


Is there a canonical level of description at which they are the same, or are you just 
saying there exists some mapping which makes them the same over a finite number of steps?




Comp says that there is a level of description of myself such that those computation *at 
the correct level carries my consciousness.


There's where I agree with JKC.  You keep fudging what comp means.  The above is *not* 
the same as betting that the doctor can give you a physical brain prosthesis that 
maintains your consciousness.




But Brent, and Peter Jones, adds that the computation have to be done by a real 
thing.
This is a bit like either choosing some particular universal number pr, and called it 
physical reality, and add the axioms that only  the phi_pr computations counts: the 
phi_pr (j)^n.


I think Peter, like me, questions the existence of numbers as any more than elements fo 
language.  So it is not like choosing a universal number, it's saying that some things 
exist and some don't.




Well, this would just select (without argument) 


It's based on observation not axiomatic inference.

a special sub-universal dovetailing among (any) universal dovetailing. The only force 
here is that somehow the quantum Everet wave, seen as such a phi_pr do solve the measure 
problem (accepting Gleason theorem does its job).


But just choosing that phi_pr does not solve the mind-body problem, only the body 
problem in a superficial way (losing the non justifiable parts notably).


Or they make that physical reality non computable (as comp needs, but they conjecture 
that it differs from the non (entirely) computable physics that we can extract from 
arithmetic (with comp). But then it is just a statement like your plane will not fly.  
Let us make the test, and up to now it works.


Yes, I'm willing to accept your argument as an hypothesis.  But it seems to me that it 
proves that consciousness and physics necessarily complement one another.  Starting from 
arithmetic you must solve both the mind problem and the body problem at the same time.  I 
don't see that you've made psychology more 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-11 Thread spudboy100 via Everything List

Thanks for your response, Bruno. Now, I ask the subjective question, which may 
not like the truth, or your truth. Does knowing this advance the human 
condition, in your opinion? Do you think knowing this moves our species in a 
better direction? This may be like me asking if knowing that Pluto is not 
technically a planet, reduce unemployment? The two may be unrelated, however, 
since this is your theology, I figured I better ask you then guess on my own. 

Sincerely,

Mitch
 
 
-Original Message-
From: Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Thu, Jul 10, 2014 10:31 am
Subject: Re: What's the answer? What's the question?




On 09 Jul 2014, at 21:52, spudboy100 via Everything List wrote:


 
You may have written exhaustively on this before, but, one more time please. 





No problem. I'm always happy if I can clarify.




How do you build a theology based on mathematics. I don't see Pythagoras as 
being a source of happiness for most earthlings. Of yourself, I have no doubt! 



The whole idea of doing science consists in trying hard to not be influenced in 
wishful thinking, which of course is part of many popular religion. I can 
understand that some philosophy search happiness, that is nice, but it might 
have nothing to do with the theological reality.


So, how to study that theological reality, and why mathematics can help. First, 
please notice that I am using the term theology in his initial sense defined 
by Plato, and which means ultimate truth or theory of everything including 
the visible, like proton and galaxies, and the invisible, like numbers, 
consciousness, math, and who knows which possible alien, perhaps divine, 
entities. At the start it is better to have the less prejudices and be the 
most open as possible, given that the field is rather sick very often (the most 
fundamental science is always under the threat of abuse of power (not just 
theology, biology and cosmology were often perverted too).


Then as theological assumption, I use the computationalist hypothesis/theory, 
which basically assume that the brain operation are Turing emulable, up to 
preserve my life and identity in case I substitute my biological brain for an 
artificial (and Turing emulable) device. This is not a strong hypothesis for a 
materialist or naturalist, as we don't know in nature any non Turing emulable 
phenomena. But it *is* a strong hypothesis in theology, and it implies a form 
of reincarnation, both in rich physical universe and in arithmetic. This leads 
to the mathematical comp measure problem. The solution of that problem has 
already been given at the propositional logic level, and the result suggests 
that people like Plotinus, the neoplatonists and the mystics have a discourse 
which is easy to interpret in arithmetic. Indeed arithmetic contains all 
computations, and we can interview the machine in arithmetic about their first 
person expectancy.
 In particular, the arithmetical truth plays the role of (neoplatonist) God: it 
has no name, is transcendent, is responsible for all beliefs and knowledge (and 
realities); the 'theaetetical' knower/soul or inner God, already used by 
Plotinus, works very well in that setting too, as it happens non nameable too 
(cf Ramana Maharshi and the koan who am I?), it obeys Brouwer intuitionist 
logic, with an addition of a temporal nuance, which structure the space of 
accessible conscious states. Then Plotinus' matter (inspired from Aristotle, 
but corrected with respect to Plato) gives the skeleton of the space on which 
we can handle the measure problem, at the place where both Plato and Plotinus 
intuited the need of a bastard calculus (their term).
How could Plotinus, and the mystics intuits what took many years to 
mathematicians to find out? Well, the mathematicians just describes what *any* 
entity can prove (and not prove) about itself, and this only suggests that 
Plotinus, by honesty and serious research inward, get close to that ideal 
machine self-referential correctness, so it is hardly a coincidence.


I hope this helped. Ask any precision. Keep in mind that by theology, I mean 
the greek science, not the religious institutionalization which have followed 
it and have mixed with popular religious legends and ad hoc fairy tales, in 
place of assumption/theory, to prevent progresses and questions  instead of 
promoting them.


Also, maybe the God of the Bible all came from Lucid Dreaming. 



Lucid dreaming might have played a part, and is indeed a very interesting 
notion, and experience. The original long version of my PhD thesis contains a 
full chapter on lucid dream neurophysiology, including an appendice with a 
sample of my own lucid dream experiences. Of course, the content of the 
experiences are not used in the reasoning, but the reports illustrate well some 
psycho and theo-logical notions.


Lucid dreams, and above all contralucid dreams (dreams in the narration

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread meekerdb

On 7/9/2014 10:54 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
 That means if the digital brain needed to interact with our environment, the program 
would be linked to sensors giving it inputs to interact with the world out there (the 
sensors are really only things that write in a shared memory space that the program 
can read)... those real sensors can be replaced by fake sensors, that write in the 
same shared memory space but not input from the real world but either from a simulated 
one, or the recording of a previous session with the real world... If the program is 
conscious (and it is if computationalism is true, and you said yes to the doctor),


No that's not true.  I may say yes to the doctor and the program may provide my 
consciousness BUT only relative to the world I live in.  The fake sensors acquire meaning 
for me because they are faking some real sensors.


Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2014-07-10 8:06 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

  On 7/9/2014 10:54 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

  That means if the digital brain needed to interact with our
 environment, the program would be linked to sensors giving it inputs to
 interact with the world out there (the sensors are really only things
 that write in a shared memory space that the program can read)... those
 real sensors can be replaced by fake sensors, that write in the same
 shared memory space but not input from the real world but either from a
 simulated one, or the recording of a previous session with the real
 world... If the program is conscious (and it is if computationalism is
 true, and you said yes to the doctor),


 No that's not true.  I may say yes to the doctor and the program may
 provide my consciousness BUT only relative to the world I live in.  The
 fake sensors acquire meaning for me


No that's not true, there is no meaning at all without consciousness... the
reality would be empty of consciousness, the reality would be devoid of any
meaning... it's us who creates it.


 because they are faking some real sensors.


No they give inputs to your program like the real one (assuming
computationalism), it's the consciousness who is supported by the program
that gives meaning to the input, nothing else, meaning is not an inherent
property of something.

Quentin



 Brent

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-- 
All those moments will be lost in time, like tears in rain. (Roy
Batty/Rutger Hauer)

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread LizR
On 10 July 2014 18:51, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:

 meaning is not an inherent property of something.


That was my argument, too, however I do realise that it *could* be
(perhaps), given various hints from physics that information underlies the
material universe (it from bit). I don't think it's likely. I think
meaning is something created by conscious beings - however it may be
possible IF information is what underlies everything else. (Assuming it
makes sense to say that something underlies physics, etc...)

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread David Nyman
On 10 July 2014 04:35, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 I'm not sure about physics. I think the point of the MGA is that matter
 isn't primary? (As I've already mentioned, I'm not 100% au fait with the
 MGA.)


 It tries to show that by leading you to accept a scenario in which there
 is no physical action but which you believe is computing consciousness (of
 a dream).


That's Maudlin's argument, in which he uses a particular toy model to show
that the degree of physical action needed to implement any given
computation can be *trivialised* (though not in fact entirely eliminated).
However the MGA, in my understanding, exploits a different tack to reach a
different conclusion. It assumes a device, the systematic relation of whose
physical components is accepted as implementing a computation, which in
turn is assumed to correspond to some conscious state. The argument is then
that, even in the case that any or all of the original computational
relations (i.e. logic gates) is disrupted, an equivalent sequence of
physical states can still be made to go through. This can be by fortuitous
accident (cosmic rays or suchlike) or by the deliberate superimposition
of a recording of a prior iteration (for this reason the argument exploits
an optical computer).

So the conclusion is that the same sequence of physical states and the same
end product can persist even in the case that every *systematic relation*
between those states, originally accepted as 'implementing a computation',
has been disrupted. Hence, here it is the notion of *computation* itself,
not physical action, that has been trivialised. Essentially, the nub of the
argument is: You show me a physical device that you claim produces a given
effect *in virtue of its systematically implementing a computation*, and
I'll show you a case in which every trace of said systematic relations can
be evacuated and yet the same sequence of physical states occurs. The real
point of the MGA is to make it obvious that, ex hypothesi physicalism,
derived notions such as computation lack any *effective* role in the
production of a given physical outcome.

An example closer to home would be that the PC on which I am currently
typing might have one or innumerable faults in its logic gates but those
faults are in fact being fortuitously compensated by a series of accidents.
In such a case I would be none the wiser because the same physical results
would be produced and as far as I am concerned those results *just are* the
computation. Or, even closer to home, I may unknowingly suffer disruption
to certain synaptic junctions in my brain, but if these deficiencies happen
fortuitously to be compensated in like manner, my consciousness would be
similarly undisrupted. This latter example is actually rather plausible in
that open brain experiments have shown that external stimulus of brain
cells can elicit memory recall, strongly implying that fortuitous events
do indeed elicit the same, or similar, conscious states as those produced
by normal brain function.

In short, under physicalism, a 'computation' *just is* a particular
sequence of physical states. Indeed what else could it be? The states, so
to speak, come first and hence the notion that those states 'implement a
computation' is always an a posteriori attribution that neither need, nor
can, bring anything further to the party. In this light the particularity
of physical structures such as my PC, for example, is that they happen to
be arrangements in which certain preferred physical outcomes normally have
a greater probability of occurring relatively reliably rather than
fortuitously. In terms of such outcomes the notion of physical
computation can only be a convenient fiction which, in the final analysis
can always be shown to be *effectively* redundant. And this is indeed the
conclusion of my own more general reductio of reductionism.

David

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Bruno Marchal
 seriously instead of referring to fairy tales. You
confirm what I said to John Clark. Atheist defend the God of the
bible. Read Plotinus, forget the bible, unless you find some passage
you like and which inspire you, but that is private, don't make that
public.



-Original Message-
From: Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Sun, Jul 6, 2014 6:29 am
Subject: Re: What's the answer? What's the question?


On 04 Jul 2014, at 20:33, meekerdb wrote:

 On 7/4/2014 9:12 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 On 03 Jul 2014, at 19:46, meekerdb wrote:

 On 7/3/2014 8:08 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 Only a pseudo-scientist would say that the science progresses
 have put any threat on the non literal reading of any sacred
 texts.

 Wouldn't that depend on what the non-literal reading is?  I think
 what you mean is that there is always some non-literal reading
 that is not threatened by science...or by logic, or by empathy, or
 by anything else you care to name, because non-literal is just
 not what it says.  Mein Kampf is also consistent with good
 race relations, on a non-literal reading.

 'Mein Kampf' contains hate. Hate is always literal,

 Is that from the Marchal dictionary of the Engligh language?


 or you are in a Charlie Chaplin movie.

 Or in the Christian bible:

 Proverbs 6:16, 19 These six things doth the LORD hate ... A false
 witness that speaketh lies, and he that soweth discord among  
brethren.


 Luke 14:26 If any man come to me, and hate not his father, and
 mother, and wife, and children, and brethren, and sisters, yea, and
 his own life also, he cannot be my disciple.

 With sufficient non-literalism these become God is love.

let us do theology seriously instead of referring to fairy tales. You
confirm what I said to John Clark. Atheist defend the God of the
bible. Read Plotinus, forget the bible, unless you find some passage
you like and which inspire you, but that is private, don't make that
public.








 You can study the deep non literal meaning in a book like Aldous
 Huxley philosophia perennis. You can sum it by Plato might be
 right, or the laws of physics might have a deeper reason, perhaps
 even a purpose.

 When the meaning is deeply non-literal isn't is likely that it's
 your own ideas you are imposing on the book.

Understanding something is always a question of reducing or
representing it to what you already understand.





 The institutionalist religions are as far of religion than the
 today politics of health is from health. For basically the same
 reason (stealing people's money).

 A scientist interested in religion will always read a sacred text
 with the same equanimity than reading a salvia divinorum report.

 Equanamity is not the same thing as giving it a non-literal meaning.

It consists in remaining open to all interpretations possible.





 Religion, like nationalities, have also social identity role,
 indeed very often perverted, and we (the scientists) have to keep
 calm and try hard to not throw the unsolved questions when
 abstracting from the fairy tales and legends associated with some
 plausible, or not, contact between humans beliefs and truth.

 And to be careful not to insert our hopes and wishes in place of the
 fairy tales.

Yes. Nobody claims that it is easy. That is one reason more to
encourage the reasoning and skeptical attitudes, especially in
fundamental studies, like the theological one.

By deciding that theology is automatically bullshit, we just
perpetuate the institutional bullshit, a bit like making drug
forbidden, we create and and make bigger the illicit drug markets
which control and target the kids.

Bruno




 Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread David Nyman
On 7 July 2014 20:13, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 So no, there's no heresy involved in such an idea
 unless, IMHO, it is a blind for eliminativism.


 Why? Is eliminativism then the heresy?  I'm not even sure what
 'eliminativism' means in this context.  You seem to argue that reductive
 hierarchy in physics eliminates the explananda, but in Bruno's theory the
 reductive hierarchy does not?  I don't think anything is necessarily
 eliminated by explaining it.


But the unfortunate thing is that it is indeed eliminated when it is
explained reductively. And so you might well say that elimination is the
reductionist heresy. I'd be grateful, by the way, if you could be more
explicit about your reasons for disagreement than merely stating that you
don't think I'm right. When I'm wrong (which is doubtless all too
frequently) it would be helpful to know in what particulars. Anyway, what I
originally had in mind was limited to the tacit elimination of the
first-person that occurs in the exhaustive reduction of 'consciousness' to
physical action. But actually, in the course of this discussion, It's borne
in on me, with greater force than before, that it isn't only the
first-person that is eliminated in the course of reductive explanation, but
the entire third-person hierarchy above the basement level.

No explanandum of the hierarchy can be other than a proxy for its
basement-level reduction, in essentially the same sense that society is a
proxy for persons and their relations. So there must be something wrong in
the state of reductionism, at least in this bare form. And if Bruno's
theory were indeed similarly susceptible to bare reduction, the same
criticism would apply. Reductive explanation is like some flesh-eating
microbe - it eats away the structure as it reduces it, until nothing but
the bare explanatory bones remain. That indeed is its power. But, in this
bare form it can't stand alone as a theory of everything, because
manifestly everything does not appear in the form of a bare reduction. So
we need an explanatory vaccine against the microbe of reduction.

I've already said why I believe that Bruno's theory does indeed provide
such a vaccine, essentially by (partly) formalising the relation between
the One and the Many. The One, which I guess is represented here by
Arithmetical Truth, has many modes. These modes can be distinguished (in
part) by reference to detailed character of what appears in the many
points-of-view that are consequential on the self-referential capabilities
of universal computation. The fact that the latter requires us to assume
arithmetic, or something with equivalent combinatorial power, as a minimal
ontology, does not mean that the explanatory strategy then proceeds by
reference to any simple hierarchy of numbers. Of course it is crucial to
the success of this explanatory strategy that a 'physics' emerge as
statistically dominant in these views (indeed, precisely that subset of the
computational 'everything' that is capable of instantiating the manifest
phenomena) and *that physics* will indeed appear as hierarchically
reducible. But such a physics of appearance will in addition be
inextricably bound to modes of self-referential truth that resist such
reduction (the 'internal views').

None of this means that comp per se is true of course, but I suspect this
whole comp contra reduction thing is worthy of a thread by itself.

David

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jul 2014, at 00:46, LizR wrote:


On 10 July 2014 06:14, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 09 Jul 2014, at 04:59, LizR wrote:

On 9 July 2014 14:03, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
On 7/8/2014 6:14 PM, LizR wrote:
So suppose we have a conscious computer frozen in state S1. We  
start it running and let it interact with its environment via,  
say, a body in the form of a Mars Rover. We record all the inputs  
it receives from its sensors, incoming signals from anywhere else,  
etc. After say 10 minutes we stop the recording and we turn to  
another computer, on Earth, with no body, also in state S1, and  
now we play back the inputs we recorded from teh first one. Why  
would the second computer not behave exactly like the first one,  
believing that it's interacting with the surface of Mars? And if  
it does, why would it be any less conscious than the first one?
I'd say that if it instantiates conscious, thoughts then they take  
their meaning from Mars, even though it's second hand.


So you are happy that the replay is conscious, and has the same  
experiences and state of consciousness as the original? If so then  
we may as well drop this stuff about meaning, which only seemed to  
be there to distinguish the really real first time around  
consciousness from the not really real second time around  
consciousness.


I hope you see that the MGA is a reductio ad absurdum, and that you  
are OK with the fact that a record of a computation is not a  
computation, at least assuming comp, as nothing compute in a record  
of a computation. OK?


Yes, I think so. But Brent's point seemed to be questioning  
something slightly different. He was (or appeared to be) saying that  
even allowing the computation to progress with the same inputs  
wouldn't result in consciousness because the computation wouldn't be  
getting the same meaning from its environment. Or something like  
that. The implication was that meaning is some metaphysical or  
supernatural extra, which is what I was arguing against. I was  
arguing that if you assume materialism + consciousness supervening  
on computation, then having the same computing machine starting in  
the same state and having the same inputs would give the same  
conscious experience. This wasn't necessarily an argument for or  
against comp, because we didn't seem to have got far enough to  
discuss that.


Comp *is* the assumption that the same (at some level) computing  
machine starting having the same inputs would give the same conscious  
experience.


Let us not confuse comp and its consequence, at least not when  
discussing if such consequences are indeed consequence.


I knew Brent was discussing this, and its mention of the MGA is a bit  
misleading, as you somehow illustrate.







That is why we just abandon the physical supervenience.  
Consciousness has nothing to do with the physical activity of the  
brain or the computer. Consciousness has everything to do with the  
immaterial person, and all of its realization in arithmetic.  
Eventually a brain is just a way for that consciousness to manifest  
itself relatively to some 1p-plural  stable universal neighbor.


OK, well I said that (more or less) in response to a comment of  
Brent's and got back a rather facetious reply about 787s being  
maifestations of a quantum field - which LOOKED like Brent was just  
saying well that's ridiculous! although after a lot of back and  
forth, he claims he was saying that comp explains too much.  
Unfortunately the (allegedly) very bad phrasing of the original  
comment led to a whole discussion as above which seems to have led  
nowhere, as far as I can see, except to Brent claiming his comment  
meant something completely different from what it appeared to mean  
(again).


Brent seems to be not as clear as usual. His motivation is not clear,  
as he even defended once a form of instrumentalism in science, which  
would only mean that he is not interested in the consciousness  
problem, or fundamental questioning.


Comp is not proposed as a solution, but as a problem, whose solution  
shapes can be derived quickly, but the details give a whole field of  
research, which warns us for an infinity of surprises. We are just at  
the beginning. Unfortunately many scientists (not all!) consider such  
field (mind, consciousness) just a taboo forbidden to inquiry.





I think comp covers this when Bruno says that you may have to  
simulate more than just the person's physical form, but perhaps  
their surroundings too. But in any case depends on is irrelevant  
if consciousness is Turing emulable, as far as I know a state of a  
Turing Machine doesn't care how it got into that state, it's simply  
in it.


OK.
Asking for the presence of the environment is like asking for a  
lower level, and does not change anything when confronted to UD* or  
the arithmetical reality. It only makes the high level used by many  
neuro-philosophers less 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jul 2014, at 01:51, Quentin Anciaux wrote:





2014-07-10 1:44 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:
On 7/9/2014 11:38 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2014-07-09 20:35 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:
On 7/8/2014 11:13 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
That's what I said.  And I think it fails to show that no physical  
instantiation is necessary because it relies on the meaning given  
to the original computational sequence to impute meaning to the MG.


No it relies on its assumption (ie: that a computation can support  
a conscious moment).


That seems to be the implicit assumption.

It is not implicit but explicit *it is assumption number 1* !!

  But that's assuming more than saying yes to the doctor.

?

Saying yes to the doctor *under computationalism* means that a  
computation can support consciousness, if not you're crazy to say  
yes to replace your brain by a digital replacement.


It's saying yes, an artificial brain can maintain my consciousness  
*by interacting with my environment in the same way my natural brain  
did*.


We're talking about *computationalism*, so in this settings, your  
brain would be replaced with a program running on a (turing)  
machine... *the only thing* the program can interact with are the  
inputs... they can come from a real or not  real environment, the  
program cannot tell the difference, there is no little dwarf to tell  
the program if the input is from a real environment out there or a  
recording of a real environment out there or a virtual environment.


The program interact with *inputs* and nothing else.


I think that Brent was in the Peter Jones mode. He seems to defend  
(here) that the program interact with inputs and nothing else, OK, but  
that for a consciousness to exist, those inputs have to be real, or  
more real than virtual or arithmetical input.
Neither the MGA, nor *any* reasoning can't reply to that. What the MGA  
can do is in showing how much that type of move is ad hoc, and that it  
creates a mystery to prevent an explanation of a mystery, and a math  
problem to look at, and the experimental arrangement to test the  
explanation.


Bruno






Quentin



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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jul 2014, at 03:22, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/9/2014 5:15 PM, LizR wrote:

On 10 July 2014 11:44, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

It's saying yes, an artificial brain can maintain my consciousness  
*by interacting with my environment in the same way my natural  
brain did*.


By doing everything your natural brain did, in fact. That is to  
say, if the input is the same and the starting state is the same,  
it will experience the same consciousness your natural brain would  
have experienced.


As already pointed out, it's possible the duplication may have to  
include your environment - e.g. in the teleporter experiment it may  
be necessary to cut and paste the interior of the teleporter, which  
for the sake of argument could be a sealed box like Shcrodinger's  
cat's. (Or it could be a sphere with a radius the size of your age  
in light years.) That doesn't make any difference to the argument,  
however.


But I think ultimately it does.  If you have do include the  
environment in the computation (and Bruno has said maybe you do,  
it's just a matter of level) then I think it makes a metaphysical  
difference.  Going back to my example of the simulated aircraft; if  
we simulate the aircraft in CFD then the meaning the variables  
(lift, drag,...) come from our physical world.  But if we simulate a  
whole world, including the aircraft, so those variables have their  
meaning relative to the simulated world, then there is really no  
sense in saying it's a simulation.  In other words if you simulate  
*all* the physics, then you haven't gotten rid of the physical  
world, you've just created a separate world with it's own physics.


But if you can simulate the whole physical reality, then it a  
simulation among many variants in arithmetic, and physics will be  
reduced, by UDA, to a statistic on a non computable set of  
computations, and a priori this imposes some non Turing emulable  
aspects in physics. They might be *only* the non computable (indeed)  
quantum indeterminacy, and in this case the quantum indetermlinacy  
would the universal Turing machine FPI. That's the kind of thing we  
can test (and crasily enough we get already the quantization making  
such test already successful, but an infinity of others tests are  
awaiting us.


Bruno






Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jul 2014, at 03:48, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/9/2014 6:38 PM, LizR wrote:

On 10 July 2014 13:22, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
But I think ultimately it does.  If you have do include the  
environment in the computation (and Bruno has said maybe you do,  
it's just a matter of level) then I think it makes a metaphysical  
difference.  Going back to my example of the simulated aircraft; if  
we simulate the aircraft in CFD then the meaning the variables  
(lift, drag,...) come from our physical world.  But if we simulate  
a whole world, including the aircraft, so those variables have  
their meaning relative to the simulatedworld, then  
there is really no sense in saying it's a simulation.  In other  
words if you simulate *all* the physics, then you haven't gotten  
rid of the physical world, you've just created a separate world  
with it's own physics.


Only if you think the Mathematical Universe hypothesis is correct.  
Otherwise you've only created a model of a separate world.


However, you're being too obscure, again. I have no idea what your  
argument is supposed to prove,  or what these simulations  
have to do with comp, or what this metaphysical difference  
actually means. Please state your case as clearly as possible, so I  
don't waste more time arguing about something you didn't mean to say.


It proves that Bruno's MGA doesn't dispense with physics.  When  
instantiating consciousness it's necessary to either allow the  
consciousness to act within our physical world or to provide another  
computed world within which it can act.  In either case the physics  
is necessary to the consciousness - to avoid the problem of the rock  
that computes everything.  I don't think Bruon actually claims to  
get rid of physics anyway, it just sounds that way sometimes when  
he's being short, but then it's taken as a refutation of  
materialism.  I take it as an argument for monism; physics is  
necessary for consciousness (it's just not necessary that physics be  
fundamental, whatever that means).



OK. It is more that physics would necessarily not be fundamental. We  
don't get rid of physics at all, we install it comfortably on  
infinities of arithmetical relations, instead on extraoplations from  
observations. In fine, we remain empiric: nature will refute you or  
the machine's classical theory she found inward.


Bruno





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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jul 2014, at 04:08, LizR wrote:


Computation might be able to exist in Numberland, or so I'm told.


And as you can understand by yourself if you look closer to the  
subject. Computation notion and computability have been discovered by  
mathematician, working in the foundation of math problem, at a time  
many paradoxes/contradictions were found in the proposed rich,  
unifying, math theories. Computability theory, known also as recursion  
Theory, is a branch of mathematical logic, itself a branch of math.


It happens that many classes of physical phenomena are Turing- 
complete, and so we can emulate computation in the physical reality,  
and indeed, the mechanist assumes that nature did that with DNA,  
brain, etc. That provides concrete local implementation of that  
mathematical (immaterial) being, a bit like two apples on the table  
implement or realize, or instantiate the immaterial idea-like number 2.


I agree with another point you make. A rock does not compute all  
computations, and actually none of them, except trivial one. A rock  
does not even simulate itself, in the comp 3p sense of simulating.

Careful, a quasi-crystal might already be able to be Turing-complete!
Also, a lot of condensed matter can be Turing-complete, and even  
quantum-Turing-complete. (That defines the same class of computations,  
but the quantum-complete are quicker for a range of tasks).


Actually, I don't  find excessively plausible that our physical  
universe would be robust enough to compute a universal dovetailer  
(even if infinite), unless many other forces are discovered (which is  
not exclude given the mysterious dark matter and invisible energy. So,  
I don't know. But we don't need this to proceed on consciousness and  
matter and their relation.


Bruno



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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jul 2014, at 05:17, LizR wrote:

On 10 July 2014 15:01, spudboy100 via Everything List everything-list@googlegroups.com 
 wrote:


Heres' a question. What would be bigger, genuine AI, or the  
discovery of another technological civilization in the galaxy???


I vote for the discovery of the missing Dr Who episodes!


LOL.





Apart from that - how advanced are these aliens? How far away? How  
are they discovered?



Spudboy, I think that the universal Turing machine (and even more the  
Löbian one, which knows that she is universal) are genuine AI enough  
for me. And yes, I consider that discovery as a creative bomb,  the  
major discovery of all time.
(I have already been considered as crackpot for claiming that they  
will get multiplied and used by quasi-everybody (but that's was a long  
time ago, when a computer far less powerful than an actual smartphone  
was weighting tuns and needed hundred of experts to be handled)).


The universal numbers grows super-exponentially on this planet, since  
the apparition of life, but the explicit (conscious) discovery of the  
universal machine *is* a singularity in that process, announcing  
infinities of universal echoes, like the quantum universal machine  
is the first example, etc.


Of course humans did not find them alone, nature seems to work by  
adding universal layers on universal layers too, at least in biology.


Discovering an alien civilization would be cute, but not as much  
astonishing and fundamental. That would be a geographical event,  
comparable of discovering a neighbor in a neighborhood.


Mathematically, it is the closure of the partial computable functions  
for diagonalization which is the reason of that infinite astonishment  
I have. Gödel saw the miracle, as for the first time, he explains,  
with Church thesis, we get a mathematical definition of a quasi- 
epistemological notion, close for that diagonalization procedure. Yet,  
Gödel did not see the grandeur of the impact of this. Despite his  
interest in (rational) theology, he missed the computer science, AI,  
and ... classical machine's theology. It is normal, discoverer are  
blinded by the fact they have the nose right on the discovery.


Bruno











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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 10 Jul 2014, at 07:52, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

That just show that with the right mapping of the internal of a rock  
you could associate it with any computations. That kind of make the  
point of Mga by invalidating the physical supervenience thesis...


Interesting. I will think about this.

Bruno



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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread meekerdb

On 7/10/2014 4:08 AM, David Nyman wrote:


In short, under physicalism, a 'computation' *just is* a particular sequence of physical 
states. Indeed what else could it be? The states, so to speak, come first and hence the 
notion that those states 'implement a computation' is always an a posteriori attribution 
that neither need, nor can, bring anything further to the party.


I agree with all you wrote.  But as Bruno says it's a reductio.  Given that it's absurd, 
the question is what makes it absurd.  I think it's the assumption that the sequence of 
physical states constitutes a computation *independent* of any reference to a world.  When 
you talk about your PC and accidental compensation for a physical fault, the concept of 
'compensation' already assumes a correct operation - but what makes an operation 
correct?...it's relation to you and the rest of the world.  A computation, a sequence of 
states simpliciter, could be a computation of anything or of nothing.  So the intuition 
that the computation still exists without the physical instantiation is contradicted by 
the intuition that a computation must be about something.  With conflicting absurdities 
I'm left unconvinced.


Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2014-07-10 20:39 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

  On 7/10/2014 4:08 AM, David Nyman wrote:


  In short, under physicalism, a 'computation' *just is* a particular
 sequence of physical states. Indeed what else could it be? The states, so
 to speak, come first and hence the notion that those states 'implement a
 computation' is always an a posteriori attribution that neither need, nor
 can, bring anything further to the party.


 I agree with all you wrote.  But as Bruno says it's a reductio.  Given
 that it's absurd, the question is what makes it absurd.  I think it's the
 assumption that the sequence of physical states constitutes a computation
 *independent* of any reference to a world.  When you talk about your PC and
 accidental compensation for a physical fault, the concept of 'compensation'
 already assumes a correct operation - but what makes an operation
 correct?...it's relation to you and the rest of the world.  A computation,
 a sequence of states simpliciter, could be a computation of anything or of
 nothing.  So the intuition that the computation still exists without the
 physical instantiation


But that's how we know a given physical instantiation is said to compute
this or that, it's because it has a one/one mapping to the abstract
computation... the computation is what relates the input to the output...
if we cannot relate a physical instantiation to the abstract algorithm, in
what way could we say it computes anything ? It's strange that all the
program that run on any physical machine are made of abstraction, you never
program using electron... you program at the basic level with boolean
logic, that you can relate to physical phenomenon, but never the other way
around.

Quentin


 is contradicted by the intuition that a computation must be about
 something.  With conflicting absurdities I'm left unconvinced.



  Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread David Nyman
On 10 July 2014 19:39, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 In short, under physicalism, a 'computation' *just is* a particular
 sequence of physical states. Indeed what else could it be? The states, so
 to speak, come first and hence the notion that those states 'implement a
 computation' is always an a posteriori attribution that neither need, nor
 can, bring anything further to the party.


 I agree with all you wrote.  But as Bruno says it's a reductio.  Given
 that it's absurd, the question is what makes it absurd.  I think it's the
 assumption that the sequence of physical states constitutes a computation
 *independent* of any reference to a world.  When you talk about your PC and
 accidental compensation for a physical fault, the concept of 'compensation'
 already assumes a correct operation - but what makes an operation
 correct?...it's relation to you and the rest of the world.  A computation,
 a sequence of states simpliciter, could be a computation of anything or of
 nothing.  So the intuition that the computation still exists without the
 physical instantiation is contradicted by the intuition that a computation
 must be about something.  With conflicting absurdities I'm left unconvinced.


But the MGA has never been claimed to show that computation exists without
physical instantiation. The consequence it presses on us is rather that it
is absurd to accept a series of physical accidents or a recording as
continuing to implement a computation. Yet that would be the conclusion
forced on us by the conjunction of physicalism and computationalism. Under
physicalism, if it goes on walking and quacking like a computation, then it
*continues to be* a computation; the physical states and outcomes are what
*constitute* a computation. Furthermore, we need not suppose any such
system as the one in question to be isolated from the rest of the world and
hence devoid of reference. The 'relation with the rest of the world', under
physicalism, is fully satisfied by the *physical* relation of the system in
question with the rest of the *physical* world. As long as the relevant
sequence of physical states is unchanged there can be no reason to complain
that this requirement can't be met.

So after all this we are faced with not one, but two, options.

1) CTM is false and physicalism is true but incompatible with
computationalism; hence, if the system in question continues, after the
postulated disruptions, to support some conscious state it can't be in
virtue of its ever having implemented a computation. This leads to its own
nest of puzzles.

2) CTM is salvageable but not in the case that physical activity is the
true 'basement level'. We must hope to elucidate some more deeply concealed
basement where, in some formalisable sense, number relations are sufficient
and computation itself is the key organisational principle. This entails
what Bruno calls the reversal of physics and machine psychology.

David

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread meekerdb

On 7/10/2014 12:19 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2014-07-10 20:39 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net:

On 7/10/2014 4:08 AM, David Nyman wrote:


In short, under physicalism, a 'computation' *just is* a particular 
sequence of
physical states. Indeed what else could it be? The states, so to speak, 
come first
and hence the notion that those states 'implement a computation' is always 
an a
posteriori attribution that neither need, nor can, bring anything further 
to the party.


I agree with all you wrote.  But as Bruno says it's a reductio.  Given that 
it's
absurd, the question is what makes it absurd.  I think it's the assumption 
that the
sequence of physical states constitutes a computation *independent* of any 
reference
to a world.  When you talk about your PC and accidental compensation for a 
physical
fault, the concept of 'compensation' already assumes a correct operation - 
but what
makes an operation correct?...it's relation to you and the rest of the 
world.  A
computation, a sequence of states simpliciter, could be a computation of 
anything or
of nothing.  So the intuition that the computation still exists without the 
physical
instantiation


But that's how we know a given physical instantiation is said to compute this or that, 
it's because it has a one/one mapping to the abstract computation... the computation is 
what relates the input to the output... if we cannot relate a physical instantiation to 
the abstract algorithm, in what way could we say it computes anything ?


That's my point, we need the physical (a world) to impute meaning to the computational 
process so that it is a computation.


Brent

It's strange that all the program that run on any physical machine are made of 
abstraction, you never program using electron... you program at the basic level with 
boolean logic, that you can relate to physical phenomenon, but never the other way around.


Quentin

is contradicted by the intuition that a computation must be about 
something. With
conflicting absurdities I'm left unconvinced.

Brent
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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread meekerdb

On 7/10/2014 12:49 PM, David Nyman wrote:


On 10 July 2014 19:39, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


In short, under physicalism, a 'computation' *just is* a particular 
sequence of
physical states. Indeed what else could it be? The states, so to speak, 
come first
and hence the notion that those states 'implement a computation' is always 
an a
posteriori attribution that neither need, nor can, bring anything further 
to the party.


I agree with all you wrote.  But as Bruno says it's a reductio. Given that 
it's
absurd, the question is what makes it absurd.  I think it's the assumption 
that the
sequence of physical states constitutes a computation *independent* of any 
reference
to a world.  When you talk about your PC and accidental compensation for a 
physical
fault, the concept of 'compensation' already assumes a correct operation - 
but what
makes an operation correct?...it's relation to you and the rest of the 
world.  A
computation, a sequence of states simpliciter, could be a computation of 
anything or
of nothing.  So the intuition that the computation still exists without the 
physical
instantiation is contradicted by the intuition that a computation must be 
about
something.  With conflicting absurdities I'm left unconvinced.


But the MGA has never been claimed to show that computation exists without physical 
instantiation. The consequence it presses on us is rather that it is absurd to accept a 
series of physical accidents or a recording as continuing to implement a computation. 
Yet that would be the conclusion forced on us by the conjunction of physicalism and 
computationalism.


But I think it becomes absurd only because the scenario ignores the fact that it is the 
physical instantiation that provides a reference to the world which then gives the 
computation meaning.  It is the implicit isolation into physical system which is going 
through a computation that gives the impression that it is just the sequence of states 
that instantiates the computation.


I suspect that this is related to Bruno's use of Thaetetus definition of knowledge which 
doesn't require any causal relation between belief in a true proposition and the fact that 
makes it true.


Under physicalism, if it goes on walking and quacking like a computation, then it 
*continues to be* a computation; the physical states and outcomes are what *constitute* 
a computation.


OK, if by physicalism you include that the computation goes on in the physical context 
of a world.


Furthermore, we need not suppose any such system as the one in question to be isolated 
from the rest of the world and hence devoid of reference. The 'relation with the rest of 
the world', under physicalism, is fully satisfied by the *physical* relation of the 
system in question with the rest of the *physical* world.


Right.

As long as the relevant sequence of physical states is unchanged there can be no reason 
to complain that this requirement can't be met.


So after all this we are faced with not one, but two, options.

1) CTM is false and physicalism is true but incompatible with computationalism;


What do you mean by computationalism?  Just saying yes to the doctor?

hence, if the system in question continues, after the postulated disruptions, to support 
some conscious state it can't be in virtue of its ever having implemented a computation. 
This leads to its own nest of puzzles.


2) CTM is salvageable but not in the case that physical activity is the true 'basement 
level'.


Why not?  Why isn't the option that CTM is true but the C must be a sequence of states 
instantiated in the context of a physical world - where the physics need not be 
fundamental (but could be).


We must hope to elucidate some more deeply concealed basement where, in some 
formalisable sense, number relations are sufficient and computation itself is the key 
organisational principle. This entails what Bruno calls the reversal of physics and 
machine psychology.


That's possible, but I don't see it as the only possibility.

Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2014-07-10 21:56 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

  On 7/10/2014 12:19 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




 2014-07-10 20:39 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

  On 7/10/2014 4:08 AM, David Nyman wrote:


  In short, under physicalism, a 'computation' *just is* a particular
 sequence of physical states. Indeed what else could it be? The states, so
 to speak, come first and hence the notion that those states 'implement a
 computation' is always an a posteriori attribution that neither need, nor
 can, bring anything further to the party.


  I agree with all you wrote.  But as Bruno says it's a reductio.  Given
 that it's absurd, the question is what makes it absurd.  I think it's the
 assumption that the sequence of physical states constitutes a computation
 *independent* of any reference to a world.  When you talk about your PC and
 accidental compensation for a physical fault, the concept of 'compensation'
 already assumes a correct operation - but what makes an operation
 correct?...it's relation to you and the rest of the world.  A computation,
 a sequence of states simpliciter, could be a computation of anything or of
 nothing.  So the intuition that the computation still exists without the
 physical instantiation


  But that's how we know a given physical instantiation is said to compute
 this or that, it's because it has a one/one mapping to the abstract
 computation... the computation is what relates the input to the output...
 if we cannot relate a physical instantiation to the abstract algorithm, in
 what way could we say it computes anything ?


 That's my point, we need the physical (a world) to impute meaning to the
 computational process


No we need computation to relate a physical instantiation to it (that's how
we can say two != computers compute the same thing, it's because they
relate to the same computation), that couldn't work the other way around...
meaning is related to us, there is no meaning without consciousness, it
seems to me nonsense to argue otherwise, but please add arguments to that
instead of asserting it. Meaning is a consciousness construct.

Quentin


 so that it is a computation.

 Brent


   It's strange that all the program that run on any physical machine are
 made of abstraction, you never program using electron... you program at the
 basic level with boolean logic, that you can relate to physical phenomenon,
 but never the other way around.

  Quentin


  is contradicted by the intuition that a computation must be about
 something.  With conflicting absurdities I'm left unconvinced.



  Brent
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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2014-07-10 22:21 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

  On 7/10/2014 12:49 PM, David Nyman wrote:


 On 10 July 2014 19:39, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  In short, under physicalism, a 'computation' *just is* a particular
 sequence of physical states. Indeed what else could it be? The states, so
 to speak, come first and hence the notion that those states 'implement a
 computation' is always an a posteriori attribution that neither need, nor
 can, bring anything further to the party.


  I agree with all you wrote.  But as Bruno says it's a reductio.  Given
 that it's absurd, the question is what makes it absurd.  I think it's the
 assumption that the sequence of physical states constitutes a computation
 *independent* of any reference to a world.  When you talk about your PC and
 accidental compensation for a physical fault, the concept of 'compensation'
 already assumes a correct operation - but what makes an operation
 correct?...it's relation to you and the rest of the world.  A computation,
 a sequence of states simpliciter, could be a computation of anything or of
 nothing.  So the intuition that the computation still exists without the
 physical instantiation is contradicted by the intuition that a computation
 must be about something.  With conflicting absurdities I'm left unconvinced.


 But the MGA has never been claimed to show that computation exists without
 physical instantiation. The consequence it presses on us is rather that it
 is absurd to accept a series of physical accidents or a recording as
 continuing to implement a computation. Yet that would be the conclusion
 forced on us by the conjunction of physicalism and computationalism.


 But I think it becomes absurd only because the scenario ignores the fact
 that it is the physical instantiation that provides a reference to the
 world which then gives the computation meaning.  It is the implicit
 isolation into physical system which is going through a computation that
 gives the impression that it is just the sequence of states that
 instantiates the computation.

 I suspect that this is related to Bruno's use of Thaetetus definition of
 knowledge which doesn't require any causal relation between belief in a
 true proposition and the fact that makes it true.


  Under physicalism, if it goes on walking and quacking like a
 computation, then it *continues to be* a computation; the physical states
 and outcomes are what *constitute* a computation.


 OK, if by physicalism you include that the computation goes on in the
 physical context of a world.


  Furthermore, we need not suppose any such system as the one in question
 to be isolated from the rest of the world and hence devoid of reference.
 The 'relation with the rest of the world', under physicalism, is fully
 satisfied by the *physical* relation of the system in question with the
 rest of the *physical* world.


 Right.


  As long as the relevant sequence of physical states is unchanged there
 can be no reason to complain that this requirement can't be met.

  So after all this we are faced with not one, but two, options.

  1) CTM is false and physicalism is true but incompatible with
 computationalism;


 What do you mean by computationalism?  Just saying yes to the doctor?


That consciousness can be supported by a digital computation ie: it can be
run on a turing machine... that consciousness can be supported by a
program... yes doctor is broader than computationalism alone, you could say
yes to a brain replacement without computationalism true, for example, that
brain replacement keep an unknown non computational feature of your
original brain, you would say yes, yet computationalism would be false (as
the brain and the replacement would need this extra special non
computational feature).

Quentin




  hence, if the system in question continues, after the postulated
 disruptions, to support some conscious state it can't be in virtue of its
 ever having implemented a computation. This leads to its own nest of
 puzzles.

  2) CTM is salvageable but not in the case that physical activity is the
 true 'basement level'.


 Why not?  Why isn't the option that CTM is true but the C must be a
 sequence of states instantiated in the context of a physical world - where
 the physics need not be fundamental (but could be).


  We must hope to elucidate some more deeply concealed basement where, in
 some formalisable sense, number relations are sufficient and computation
 itself is the key organisational principle. This entails what Bruno calls
 the reversal of physics and machine psychology.


 That's possible, but I don't see it as the only possibility.

 Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread meekerdb

On 7/10/2014 1:21 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2014-07-10 21:56 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net:

On 7/10/2014 12:19 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2014-07-10 20:39 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net:

On 7/10/2014 4:08 AM, David Nyman wrote:


In short, under physicalism, a 'computation' *just is* a particular 
sequence
of physical states. Indeed what else could it be? The states, so to 
speak,
come first and hence the notion that those states 'implement a 
computation' is
always an a posteriori attribution that neither need, nor can, bring 
anything
further to the party.


I agree with all you wrote. But as Bruno says it's a reductio. Given 
that it's
absurd, the question is what makes it absurd.  I think it's the 
assumption that
the sequence of physical states constitutes a computation *independent* 
of any
reference to a world.  When you talk about your PC and accidental 
compensation
for a physical fault, the concept of 'compensation' already assumes a 
correct
operation - but what makes an operation correct?...it's relation to you 
and the
rest of the world.  A computation, a sequence of states simpliciter, 
could be a
computation of anything or of nothing.  So the intuition that the 
computation
still exists without the physical instantiation


But that's how we know a given physical instantiation is said to compute 
this or
that, it's because it has a one/one mapping to the abstract computation... 
the
computation is what relates the input to the output... if we cannot relate a
physical instantiation to the abstract algorithm, in what way could we say 
it
computes anything ?


That's my point, we need the physical (a world) to impute meaning to the
computational process


No we need computation to relate a physical instantiation to it (that's how we can say 
two != computers compute the same thing, it's because they relate to the same computation),


But that's not true.  I have a differential equation integrator in my computer and it 
could be going through exactly the same states in two different instances; one computing 
heat transfer in a disc brake and other computing diffusion of pollutant in a pond.  So 
there is not a one-one mapping either way.


that couldn't work the other way around... meaning is related to us, there is no meaning 
without consciousness, it seems to me nonsense to argue otherwise, but please add 
arguments to that instead of asserting it. Meaning is a consciousness construct.




That's just an assertion.  Can you define consciousness without assuming meaning, 
consciousness that it not consciousness *of* something?


Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread meekerdb

On 7/10/2014 1:24 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2014-07-10 22:21 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net:

On 7/10/2014 12:49 PM, David Nyman wrote:


On 10 July 2014 19:39, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


In short, under physicalism, a 'computation' *just is* a particular 
sequence
of physical states. Indeed what else could it be? The states, so to 
speak,
come first and hence the notion that those states 'implement a 
computation' is
always an a posteriori attribution that neither need, nor can, bring 
anything
further to the party.


I agree with all you wrote.  But as Bruno says it's a reductio.  Given 
that
it's absurd, the question is what makes it absurd.  I think it's the 
assumption
that the sequence of physical states constitutes a computation 
*independent* of
any reference to a world.  When you talk about your PC and accidental
compensation for a physical fault, the concept of 'compensation' already
assumes a correct operation - but what makes an operation 
correct?...it's
relation to you and the rest of the world.  A computation, a sequence 
of states
simpliciter, could be a computation of anything or of nothing.  So the
intuition that the computation still exists without the physical 
instantiation
is contradicted by the intuition that a computation must be about something. 
With conflicting absurdities I'm left unconvinced.



But the MGA has never been claimed to show that computation exists without 
physical
instantiation. The consequence it presses on us is rather that it is absurd 
to
accept a series of physical accidents or a recording as continuing to 
implement a
computation. Yet that would be the conclusion forced on us by the 
conjunction of
physicalism and computationalism.


But I think it becomes absurd only because the scenario ignores the fact 
that it is
the physical instantiation that provides a reference to the world which 
then gives
the computation meaning.  It is the implicit isolation into physical 
system which
is going through a computation that gives the impression that it is just 
the
sequence of states that instantiates the computation.

I suspect that this is related to Bruno's use of Thaetetus definition of 
knowledge
which doesn't require any causal relation between belief in a true 
proposition and
the fact that makes it true.



Under physicalism, if it goes on walking and quacking like a computation, 
then it
*continues to be* a computation; the physical states and outcomes are what
*constitute* a computation.


OK, if by physicalism you include that the computation goes on in the 
physical
context of a world.



Furthermore, we need not suppose any such system as the one in question to 
be
isolated from the rest of the world and hence devoid of reference. The 
'relation
with the rest of the world', under physicalism, is fully satisfied by the
*physical* relation of the system in question with the rest of the 
*physical* world.


Right.



As long as the relevant sequence of physical states is unchanged there can 
be no
reason to complain that this requirement can't be met.

So after all this we are faced with not one, but two, options.

1) CTM is false and physicalism is true but incompatible with 
computationalism;


What do you mean by computationalism?  Just saying yes to the doctor?


That consciousness can be supported by a digital computation ie: it can be run on a 
turing machine... that consciousness can be supported by a program... yes doctor is 
broader than computationalism alone, you could say yes to a brain replacement without 
computationalism true, for example, that brain replacement keep an unknown non 
computational feature of your original brain, you would say yes, yet computationalism 
would be false (as the brain and the replacement would need this extra special non 
computational feature).


But what if the feature was the relation to the external world (whether it's physical or a 
simulation)?  You would still say yes to the doctor (because that relation would be 
preserved) and CTM would still be true.  But consciousness would not be instantiated by 
computation simpliciter.


Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Quentin Anciaux
ni
Le 10 juil. 2014 22:49, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net a écrit :

 On 7/10/2014 1:24 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




 2014-07-10 22:21 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

 On 7/10/2014 12:49 PM, David Nyman wrote:


 On 10 July 2014 19:39, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 In short, under physicalism, a 'computation' *just is* a particular
sequence of physical states. Indeed what else could it be? The states, so
to speak, come first and hence the notion that those states 'implement a
computation' is always an a posteriori attribution that neither need, nor
can, bring anything further to the party.


 I agree with all you wrote.  But as Bruno says it's a reductio.
Given that it's absurd, the question is what makes it absurd.  I think it's
the assumption that the sequence of physical states constitutes a
computation *independent* of any reference to a world.  When you talk about
your PC and accidental compensation for a physical fault, the concept of
'compensation' already assumes a correct operation - but what makes an
operation correct?...it's relation to you and the rest of the world.  A
computation, a sequence of states simpliciter, could be a computation of
anything or of nothing.  So the intuition that the computation still exists
without the physical instantiation is contradicted by the intuition that a
computation must be about something.  With conflicting absurdities I'm left
unconvinced.


 But the MGA has never been claimed to show that computation exists
without physical instantiation. The consequence it presses on us is rather
that it is absurd to accept a series of physical accidents or a recording
as continuing to implement a computation. Yet that would be the conclusion
forced on us by the conjunction of physicalism and computationalism.


 But I think it becomes absurd only because the scenario ignores the
fact that it is the physical instantiation that provides a reference to the
world which then gives the computation meaning.  It is the implicit
isolation into physical system which is going through a computation that
gives the impression that it is just the sequence of states that
instantiates the computation.

 I suspect that this is related to Bruno's use of Thaetetus definition
of knowledge which doesn't require any causal relation between belief in a
true proposition and the fact that makes it true.


 Under physicalism, if it goes on walking and quacking like a
computation, then it *continues to be* a computation; the physical states
and outcomes are what *constitute* a computation.


 OK, if by physicalism you include that the computation goes on in
the physical context of a world.


 Furthermore, we need not suppose any such system as the one in
question to be isolated from the rest of the world and hence devoid of
reference. The 'relation with the rest of the world', under physicalism, is
fully satisfied by the *physical* relation of the system in question with
the rest of the *physical* world.


 Right.


 As long as the relevant sequence of physical states is unchanged there
can be no reason to complain that this requirement can't be met.

 So after all this we are faced with not one, but two, options.

 1) CTM is false and physicalism is true but incompatible with
computationalism;


 What do you mean by computationalism?  Just saying yes to the
doctor?


 That consciousness can be supported by a digital computation ie: it can
be run on a turing machine... that consciousness can be supported by a
program... yes doctor is broader than computationalism alone, you could say
yes to a brain replacement without computationalism true, for example, that
brain replacement keep an unknown non computational feature of your
original brain, you would say yes, yet computationalism would be false (as
the brain and the replacement would need this extra special non
computational feature).


 But what if the feature was the relation to the external world (whether
it's physical or a simulation)?  You would still say yes to the doctor
(because that relation would be preserved) and CTM would still be true.

No it wouldn't... it would not be in virtue of the computation alone.

But consciousness would not be instantiated by computation simpliciter.

 Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Quentin Anciaux
Le 10 juil. 2014 22:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net a écrit :

 On 7/10/2014 1:21 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




 2014-07-10 21:56 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

 On 7/10/2014 12:19 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




 2014-07-10 20:39 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

 On 7/10/2014 4:08 AM, David Nyman wrote:


 In short, under physicalism, a 'computation' *just is* a particular
sequence of physical states. Indeed what else could it be? The states, so
to speak, come first and hence the notion that those states 'implement a
computation' is always an a posteriori attribution that neither need, nor
can, bring anything further to the party.


 I agree with all you wrote.  But as Bruno says it's a reductio.
Given that it's absurd, the question is what makes it absurd.  I think it's
the assumption that the sequence of physical states constitutes a
computation *independent* of any reference to a world.  When you talk about
your PC and accidental compensation for a physical fault, the concept of
'compensation' already assumes a correct operation - but what makes an
operation correct?...it's relation to you and the rest of the world.  A
computation, a sequence of states simpliciter, could be a computation of
anything or of nothing.  So the intuition that the computation still exists
without the physical instantiation


 But that's how we know a given physical instantiation is said to
compute this or that, it's because it has a one/one mapping to the abstract
computation... the computation is what relates the input to the output...
if we cannot relate a physical instantiation to the abstract algorithm, in
what way could we say it computes anything ?


 That's my point, we need the physical (a world) to impute meaning to
the computational process


 No we need computation to relate a physical instantiation to it (that's
how we can say two != computers compute the same thing, it's because they
relate to the same computation),


 But that's not true.  I have a differential equation integrator in my
computer and it could be going through exactly the same states in two
different instances; one computing heat transfer in a disc brake and other
computing diffusion of pollutant in a pond.  So there is not a one-one
mapping either way.

that's not possible... if they compute different thing the state machine is
different.



 that couldn't work the other way around... meaning is related to us,
there is no meaning without consciousness, it seems to me nonsense to argue
otherwise, but please add arguments to that instead of asserting it.
Meaning is a consciousness construct.


 That's just an assertion.  Can you define consciousness without assuming
meaning, consciousness that it not consciousness *of* something?

 Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread meekerdb

On 7/10/2014 2:06 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


 But what if the feature was the relation to the external world (whether it's physical 
or a simulation)?  You would still say yes to the doctor (because that relation would 
be preserved) and CTM would still be true.


No it wouldn't... it would not be in virtue of the computation alone.



Well then we just disagree on the semantics.  I don't think computation alone means 
anything, it just a sequence of states like letters in a novel.  It is only consciousness, 
i.e. is about something, in the context of a world where it forms models, decisions, 
inferences, actions, etc.  I'd still call it CTM, because it implies that I can create a 
mind by suitable computations in the context of this world.  But if you want to confine 
CTM to just sequences of states of a Turing machine with no context that's OK.  I just 
think it leaves the paradox of the conscious rock.


Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread meekerdb

On 7/10/2014 2:08 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



Le 10 juil. 2014 22:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
a écrit :


 On 7/10/2014 1:21 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




 2014-07-10 21:56 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net:

 On 7/10/2014 12:19 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

 No we need computation to relate a physical instantiation to it (that's how we can 
say two != computers compute the same thing, it's because they relate to the same 
computation),



 But that's not true.  I have a differential equation integrator in my computer and it 
could be going through exactly the same states in two different instances; one computing 
heat transfer in a disc brake and other computing diffusion of pollutant in a pond.  So 
there is not a one-one mapping either way.


that's not possible... if they compute different thing the state machine is 
different.



Only when it's printing the headers of the columns of the numbers.

Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread David Nyman
On 10 July 2014 21:21, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 But I think it becomes absurd only because the scenario ignores the fact
 that it is the physical instantiation that provides a reference to the world
 which then gives the computation meaning.  It is the implicit isolation into
 physical system which is going through a computation that gives the
 impression that it is just the sequence of states that instantiates the
 computation.

It might save you some typing if you read the whole post before you
comment on a part of it. I dealt with this point a couple of sentences
later.

 Under physicalism, if it goes on walking and quacking like a computation,
 then it *continues to be* a computation; the physical states and outcomes
 are what *constitute* a computation.

 OK, if by physicalism you include that the computation goes on in the
 physical context of a world.

Yes, just so; now read on.

 Furthermore, we need not suppose any such system as the one in question to
 be isolated from the rest of the world and hence devoid of reference. The
 'relation with the rest of the world', under physicalism, is fully satisfied
 by the *physical* relation of the system in question with the rest of the
 *physical* world.

 Right.

Yeah, right indeed. The system as described continues to relate
physically, in the relevant ways, with the rest of the physical world.
If I may quote my next sentence As long as the relevant sequence of
physical states is unchanged there can be no reason to complain that
this requirement can't be met.

So what precisely is your remaining objection?

 So after all this we are faced with not one, but two, options.

 1) CTM is false and physicalism is true but incompatible with
 computationalism;

 What do you mean by computationalism?  Just saying yes to the doctor?

No, I mean the assumption that a physical system can be conscious
simply in virtue of its implementing a computation. Since in the
gedanken experiment we have succeeded in evacuating any trace of
computation from the system, whilst preserving its net physical
action, if it remains conscious, it can't be in virtue of its ever
having implemented a computation. If on the contrary we conclude that
it loses consciousness, we then have the mystery of how this can be
the case given that the sequence of physical states remains the same.
Either way the conjunction is shown to be incompatible and it would be
unsafe on this understanding to say yes to the computationalist
doctor.

 2) CTM is salvageable but not in the case that physical activity is the true
 'basement level'.

 Why not?  Why isn't the option that CTM is true but the C must be a
 sequence of states instantiated in the context of a physical world - where
 the physics need not be fundamental (but could be).

? If you still want to claim this either you haven't yet quite grasped
all the implications of the MGA, or the physical world to which you
now refer can't be the one that has featured in the argument to this
point. We've already shown that we can evacuate all traces of
computation from *that* world whilst preserving its sequences of
physical states complete with all relevant relations to an external
physical environment. Hence to hang on to the C we must look to
computational relations to be primary, rather than secondary, in our
explanatory strategy.

This in turn implies that any physical world below computation
would have to be consigned to some explanatory sub-basement; IOW a
world of ur-physics that existed merely in order to implement
computational relations. It is the latter that must do all the work in
our explanatory basement. Hence, to appropriate an image of Bruno's,
the putative ur-physical sub-basement would merely be there to stable
a sort of supernumerary invisible horse whose sole purpose is to
pull the numbers around. Sure, we could posit its existence, but
it couldn't otherwise feature in our explanations.

 This entails what Bruno calls the
 reversal of physics and machine psychology.

 That's possible, but I don't see it as the only possibility.

Granted, I guess. But would you care to suggest some viable alternatives?

David




 On 7/10/2014 12:49 PM, David Nyman wrote:


 On 10 July 2014 19:39, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 In short, under physicalism, a 'computation' *just is* a particular
 sequence of physical states. Indeed what else could it be? The states, so to
 speak, come first and hence the notion that those states 'implement a
 computation' is always an a posteriori attribution that neither need, nor
 can, bring anything further to the party.


 I agree with all you wrote.  But as Bruno says it's a reductio.  Given
 that it's absurd, the question is what makes it absurd.  I think it's the
 assumption that the sequence of physical states constitutes a computation
 *independent* of any reference to a world.  When you talk about your PC and
 accidental compensation for a physical fault, the concept of 'compensation'
 already 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Quentin Anciaux
Le 10 juil. 2014 23:40, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net a écrit :

 On 7/10/2014 2:08 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


 Le 10 juil. 2014 22:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net a écrit :
 
  On 7/10/2014 1:21 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
 
 
 
 
  2014-07-10 21:56 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:
 
  On 7/10/2014 12:19 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

  No we need computation to relate a physical instantiation to it
(that's how we can say two != computers compute the same thing, it's
because they relate to the same computation),
 
 
  But that's not true.  I have a differential equation integrator in my
computer and it could be going through exactly the same states in two
different instances; one computing heat transfer in a disc brake and other
computing diffusion of pollutant in a pond.  So there is not a one-one
mapping either way.

 that's not possible... if they compute different thing the state machine
is different.


 Only when it's printing the headers of the columns of the numbers.

if they are different computations they don't go through the same
states...  QED What you said is simply false.

 Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
Emil L. Post 1936 Finite Combinatory Processes. Formulation 1. - from the
concluding paragraph:

The writer expects the present formulation to turn out to be logically
equivalent to recursiveness in the sense of the Gödel-Church development.
Its purpose, however, is not only to present a system of a certain logical
potency but also, in its restricted field, of psychological fidelity. In
the latter sense wider and wider formulations are contemplated. On the
other hand, our aim will be to show that all such are logically reducible
to formulation 1. We offer this conclusion at the present moment as a *working
hypothesis*. And to our mind such is Church's identification of effective
calculability with recursiveness.8 Out of this hypothesis, and because of
its apparent contradiction to all mathematical development starting with
Cantor's proof of the non-enumerability of the points of a line,
independently flows a Gödel-Church development. The success of the above
program would, for us, change this hypothesis not so much to a definition
or to an axiom but to *natural law*. Only so, it seems to the writer, can
Gödel's theorem concerning incompleteness of symbolic logics of a certain
general type and Church's results on the recursive unsolvability of certain
problems be transformed into conclusions concerning all symbolic logics and
all methods of solvability.

Footnote:

8 Cf. Church, lock. cit, pp. 346, 356-358. Actually the work already done
by Church and others carries this identification considerably beyond the
working hypothesis stage. *But to mask this identification under a
definition hides the fact* that a fundamental discovery in the limitiations
of mathematicizing power of Homo Sapiens has been made *and blinds us to
the need of its continual verification*.

Effective calculability; Post seems to insist with the incredibly clear and
simple Formulation1, is merely intuitive notion. I know Church wasn't too
happy with this. Continual verification, ok. PGC




On Thu, Jul 10, 2014 at 11:46 PM, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com
wrote:


 Le 10 juil. 2014 23:40, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net a écrit :

 
  On 7/10/2014 2:08 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
 
 
  Le 10 juil. 2014 22:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net a écrit :
  
   On 7/10/2014 1:21 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
  
  
  
  
   2014-07-10 21:56 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:
  
   On 7/10/2014 12:19 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
 
   No we need computation to relate a physical instantiation to it
 (that's how we can say two != computers compute the same thing, it's
 because they relate to the same computation),
  
  
   But that's not true.  I have a differential equation integrator in my
 computer and it could be going through exactly the same states in two
 different instances; one computing heat transfer in a disc brake and other
 computing diffusion of pollutant in a pond.  So there is not a one-one
 mapping either way.
 
  that's not possible... if they compute different thing the state
 machine is different.
 
 
  Only when it's printing the headers of the columns of the numbers.

 if they are different computations they don't go through the same
 states...  QED What you said is simply false.
 
  Brent
 
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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread meekerdb

On 7/10/2014 2:41 PM, David Nyman wrote:

On 10 July 2014 21:21, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


But I think it becomes absurd only because the scenario ignores the fact
that it is the physical instantiation that provides a reference to the world
which then gives the computation meaning.  It is the implicit isolation into
physical system which is going through a computation that gives the
impression that it is just the sequence of states that instantiates the
computation.

It might save you some typing if you read the whole post before you
comment on a part of it. I dealt with this point a couple of sentences
later.


Under physicalism, if it goes on walking and quacking like a computation,
then it *continues to be* a computation; the physical states and outcomes
are what *constitute* a computation.

OK, if by physicalism you include that the computation goes on in the
physical context of a world.

Yes, just so; now read on.


Furthermore, we need not suppose any such system as the one in question to
be isolated from the rest of the world and hence devoid of reference. The
'relation with the rest of the world', under physicalism, is fully satisfied
by the *physical* relation of the system in question with the rest of the
*physical* world.

Right.

Yeah, right indeed. The system as described continues to relate
physically, in the relevant ways, with the rest of the physical world.
If I may quote my next sentence As long as the relevant sequence of
physical states is unchanged there can be no reason to complain that
this requirement can't be met.

So what precisely is your remaining objection?


That this has not achieved the puted reversal of psychology and physics.  The physics 
(of the external world) is still necessary (but not necessarily fundamental).





So after all this we are faced with not one, but two, options.

1) CTM is false and physicalism is true but incompatible with
computationalism;

What do you mean by computationalism?  Just saying yes to the doctor?

No, I mean the assumption that a physical system can be conscious
simply in virtue of its implementing a computation. Since in the
gedanken experiment we have succeeded in evacuating any trace of
computation from the system, whilst preserving its net physical
action, if it remains conscious, it can't be in virtue of its ever
having implemented a computation.


You mean *this* gedanken experiment:

///Under physicalism, if it goes on walking and quacking like a computation,//
// then it *continues to be* a computation; the physical states and outcomes//
// are what *constitute* a computation.//
// Furthermore, we need not suppose any such system as the one in question to//
// be isolated from the rest of the world and hence devoid of reference. The//
// 'relation with the rest of the world', under physicalism, is fully 
satisfied//
// by the *physical* relation of the system in question with the rest of the//
// *physical* world./

ISTM you've introduced a difference.  The physical system is not conscious simply in 
virtue of its implementing a computation; its consciousness also depends on that 
implementations relation to the external world.  In the first sentence you say that the 
computation is constituted by a sequence of physical states (implicitly, by this alone).  
But in the third sentence you say it also still has the same physical relation to the 
world, which is something beyond simply a succession of states.



If on the contrary we conclude that
it loses consciousness, we then have the mystery of how this can be
the case given that the sequence of physical states remains the same.


Given that the sequence of physical states is the same *and* they have the same relation 
to the world.



Either way the conjunction is shown to be incompatible and it would be
unsafe on this understanding to say yes to the computationalist
doctor.


But it's not.  Even if the consciousness of the computation depends on its relation to the 
world, it's still safe to say yes to the doctor because he's going to leave the rest of 
the world in place.





2) CTM is salvageable but not in the case that physical activity is the true
'basement level'.

Why not?  Why isn't the option that CTM is true but the C must be a
sequence of states instantiated in the context of a physical world - where
the physics need not be fundamental (but could be).

? If you still want to claim this either you haven't yet quite grasped
all the implications of the MGA, or the physical world to which you
now refer can't be the one that has featured in the argument to this
point. We've already shown that we can evacuate all traces of
computation from *that* world whilst preserving its sequences of
physical states complete with all relevant relations to an external
physical environment. Hence to hang on to the C we must look to
computational relations to be primary, rather than secondary, in our
explanatory strategy.


I don't see that this follows.  It seems 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread meekerdb

On 7/10/2014 2:46 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



Le 10 juil. 2014 23:40, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
a écrit :


 On 7/10/2014 2:08 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


 Le 10 juil. 2014 22:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net a écrit :

 
  On 7/10/2014 1:21 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
 
 
 
 
  2014-07-10 21:56 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net:

 
  On 7/10/2014 12:19 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

  No we need computation to relate a physical instantiation to it (that's how we can 
say two != computers compute the same thing, it's because they relate to the same 
computation),

 
 
  But that's not true.  I have a differential equation integrator in my computer and 
it could be going through exactly the same states in two different instances; one 
computing heat transfer in a disc brake and other computing diffusion of pollutant in a 
pond.  So there is not a one-one mapping either way.


 that's not possible... if they compute different thing the state machine is 
different.


 Only when it's printing the headers of the columns of the numbers.

if they are different computations they don't go through the same states...  QED What 
you said is simply false.




It's my example and ex hypothesi they do go through the same states, they're just *about* 
different things.


Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Quentin Anciaux
Le 11 juil. 2014 01:55, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net a écrit :

 On 7/10/2014 2:46 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


 Le 10 juil. 2014 23:40, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net a écrit :
 
  On 7/10/2014 2:08 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
 
 
  Le 10 juil. 2014 22:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net a écrit :
  
   On 7/10/2014 1:21 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
  
  
  
  
   2014-07-10 21:56 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:
  
   On 7/10/2014 12:19 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
 
   No we need computation to relate a physical instantiation to it
(that's how we can say two != computers compute the same thing, it's
because they relate to the same computation),
  
  
   But that's not true.  I have a differential equation integrator in
my computer and it could be going through exactly the same states in two
different instances; one computing heat transfer in a disc brake and other
computing diffusion of pollutant in a pond.  So there is not a one-one
mapping either way.
 
  that's not possible... if they compute different thing the state
machine is different.
 
 
  Only when it's printing the headers of the columns of the numbers.

 if they are different computations they don't go through the same
states...  QED What you said is simply false.


 It's my example and ex hypothesi they do go through the same states,
they're just *about* different things.

Either both are the same computation and goes through the same state
computing the same thing or they're not and don't go through the same
state.  An infinity of computations goes through the same state on partial
run,  up until step n.  All the stopping computation stopping at the same
step are one and the same.  So no even if you can imagine a cake made of
grzeaeftthfey that doesn't make it possible. Two distinct computations
don't go through the same state, at least one state is different.


 Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread meekerdb

On 7/10/2014 5:01 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


 It's my example and ex hypothesi they do go through the same states, they're just 
*about* different things.


Either both are the same computation and goes through the same state computing the same 
thing




But same thing is ambiguous.  They may both compute 2.76 but in one case I know it means 
degrees Kelvin and in the other it's parts-per-million.  In which case I'm the external 
world providing the referents.


Brent

or they're not and don't go through the same state. An infinity of computations goes 
through the same state on partial run,  up until step n.  All the stopping computation 
stopping at the same step are one and the same.  So no even if you can imagine a cake 
made of grzeaeftthfey that doesn't make it possible. Two distinct computations don't go 
through the same state, at least one state is different.




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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
On Fri, Jul 11, 2014 at 2:15 AM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 On 7/10/2014 5:01 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


  It's my example and ex hypothesi they do go through the same states,
 they're just *about* different things.

 Either both are the same computation and goes through the same state
 computing the same thing


 But same thing is ambiguous.  They may both compute 2.76 but in one case
 I know it means degrees Kelvin and in the other it's parts-per-million.  In
 which case I'm the external world providing the referents.


And I'm the external world providing the references is less ambiguous? PGC

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread meekerdb

On 7/10/2014 5:25 PM, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:




On Fri, Jul 11, 2014 at 2:15 AM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 7/10/2014 5:01 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


 It's my example and ex hypothesi they do go through the same states, 
they're
just *about* different things.

Either both are the same computation and goes through the same state 
computing
the same thing


But same thing is ambiguous.  They may both compute 2.76 but in one case 
I know it
means degrees Kelvin and in the other it's parts-per-million.  In which 
case I'm the
external world providing the referents.


And I'm the external world providing the references is less ambiguous? PGC


It can be disambiguated by the action I take on it, what I tell other people, what they 
do.  Which is why I think the question of what is being computed can only be answered 
with reference to a big context environment, essentially a whole world.


Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
On Fri, Jul 11, 2014 at 3:03 AM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 7/10/2014 5:25 PM, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:




 On Fri, Jul 11, 2014 at 2:15 AM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 On 7/10/2014 5:01 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


  It's my example and ex hypothesi they do go through the same states,
 they're just *about* different things.

 Either both are the same computation and goes through the same state
 computing the same thing


  But same thing is ambiguous.  They may both compute 2.76 but in one
 case I know it means degrees Kelvin and in the other it's
 parts-per-million.  In which case I'm the external world providing the
 referents.


  And I'm the external world providing the references is less ambiguous?
 PGC


 It can be disambiguated by the action I take on it, what I tell other
 people, what they do.  Which is why I think the question of what is being
 computed can only be answered with reference to a big context environment,
 essentially a whole world.


Yes, but I'd say both of you are right.

For example, I follow you on  But that's not true.  I have a differential
equation integrator in my computer and it could be going through exactly
the same states in two different instances; one computing heat transfer in
a disc brake and other computing diffusion of pollutant in a pond.  So
there is not a one-one mapping either way.

The ambiguity ISTM is that linguistic plausibility of a finite actions,
communication between people, what they do/what they refer to/what outputs
they read at some step, is blended with logical possibility of infinite
computation in arithmetic.

It vanishes when we don't blend. PGC



 Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread Quentin Anciaux
Le 11 juil. 2014 02:15, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net a écrit :

 On 7/10/2014 5:01 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


  It's my example and ex hypothesi they do go through the same states,
they're just *about* different things.

 Either both are the same computation and goes through the same state
computing the same thing


 But same thing is ambiguous.  They may both compute 2.76 but in one
case I know it means degrees Kelvin and in the other it's
parts-per-million.

I don't care what the computation means to you. If they go through the same
states, they're the same computation. What you do or not with the output if
any is of no concern for that.

 In which case I'm the external world providing the referents.

In case of a conscious computation, it is it that provides the meaning.


 Brent


 or they're not and don't go through the same state. An infinity of
computations goes through the same state on partial run,  up until step n.
 All the stopping computation stopping at the same step are one and the
same.  So no even if you can imagine a cake made of grzeaeftthfey that
doesn't make it possible. Two distinct computations don't go through the
same state, at least one state is different.


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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2014-07-09 2:36 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

  On 7/8/2014 4:26 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


 Le 9 juil. 2014 01:09, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net a écrit :
 
  On 7/8/2014 3:26 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
 
 
  Le 8 juil. 2014 22:56, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net a écrit :
  
   On 7/8/2014 12:57 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
  
  
  
  
   2014-07-08 21:23 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:
  
   On 7/8/2014 11:56 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:
  
  
  
  
   2014-07-08 20:47 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:
  
   On 7/8/2014 10:43 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
  
  
   On 07 Jul 2014, at 21:13, meekerdb wrote:
  
   On 7/7/2014 8:14 AM, David Nyman wrote:
  
   On 6 July 2014 04:18, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
  
 Yes, but it's a theory of epistemology after the
 physical fact. It
 assumes without further justification what it wishes to
 prove,

No, it defines a certain kind of belief, just as Bruno
 identifies
   belief with provable in some axiomatic system (which you
   must admit is not a standard  meaning of belief) one can
 identify
   belief with certain actions in context.   I  don't know what
 you
   mean by after the physical fact.  If it's a physical theory
 of
   belief then of course it's explained in terms of physical
 facts.  You
   seem to  reject this as though it's obviously wrong.
  
  
   Not wrong, just not the whole story. My argument has been that
 any
   mechanism of belief that is hierarchically reducible to a
 finite set
   of (assumptive) primitives cannot thereafter rely on the
 (supposedly)
   independent effectiveness of derivative notions such as
 computation as
   the basis of its mechanism of knowledge.
  
  
   That sentence seems to just assume what it purports to argue.
 Why idependent; why not dependent?  What exactly does it mean to rely
 on in an explanation?  I think it only means that the explanan is
 understandable.  Your argument would appear to apply to every reductive
 explanation in the hierarchy - but the hierarchy only exists in virtue of
 the explanations.
  
   This is essentially the
   same conclusion as MGA or Maudlin and amounts to an insistence
 on what
   is most powerful in reductive explanation (i.e. the redundancy
 of
   intermediate levels of effectiveness) .
  
  
   But, as I've argued elsewhere, the MGA and Olympia arguments
 don't prove what they are generally taken to prove.  Reduction must always
 be applied to an isolated system, which MGA attempts to sneak in by
 assuming a dream state.  But even dreams obtain their meaning from outside
 referents.
  
  
  
   But you don't ask the doctor to copy the outside referents, and
 that is enough to make the MGA doing its job.
  
  
   My not asking is enough??  I think you mean that if he did copy
 the outside referents then the argument would go through.
  
  
   So for MGA to go through, he does not have to... because MGA is
 the following.
  
   Assumptions:
  
   1- You have a digital conscious program
   2- You can record the input of that program (and of course you
 can, because of assumption 1)
   3- You effectively record the input of the program for a certain
 period of time (with the correct timing) where it is conscious in our
 world/reality
   4- you *replay* that input
  
   It is clear by 4 that at that stage you do not need any external
 world beside the recorded input. By assumption 1, if the program is
 conscious, it is still conscious while having the recorded input as input.
  
  
   But would it still be consciousness if there were no world that
 provided referents for the program?  It's the relation to an external world
 that allows digits and numbers to be *about* something;
  
  
   No the relations are to the machine running the program, any
 universal machine does the job.
  
  
   That makes no sense to me.  It would mean that when I'm running a
 simulation of an aircraft that the variables that mean latitude and
 longitude get that meaning from the Intel CPU.
 
  The meaning is relative to the interpreter, so relative to the program
 itself. What you're saying is that if you run a simulation of a flying
 aircraft it has no meaning if you don't look at it... would you go as far
 as to say nothing was computed/simulated if you don't look at it?
 
 
  No, not necessarily me.  But it needs to interact with the world.

 No a program interacts with its inputs and that's all.

   The computation might be in the aircraft's navigation computer in which
 case it might deflect control surfaces to keep the aircraft on course - so
 it's meaning would be clear from the action.  My consciousness is no
 different than the computer's, my brain instantiates meaning by reference
 to my relation with the world.
 
 
  also with Mga by hypothesis the computation support a conscious moment
 
 
  Isn't it supposed to be a proof,

 No it's assumption number 1!

 not an hypothesis, that shows no physical action is necessary to
 instantiate 

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Jul 2014, at 01:15, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/8/2014 10:59 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 05 Jul 2014, at 07:27, meekerdb wrote:

Yes, that's an interesting aspect of Bruno's theory.  He  
identifies provable with believes.  But the the same kind of  
thing can be done in a physical theory: believes = acts as if  
it were true. There's even a whole theory of Bayesian inference  
based on bets.  It may not be right, but it's a theory of  
epistemology.


[]p models rational beliefs by any correct machine, talking about  
itself (in the 3p) at the correct substitution level.


Isn't that a very idealized rationality in which every theorem of  
the axioms is known?


Only in which every theorem is believable. Not known as truth per se.  
Nor is it is needed for as our goal (to get the observable) to  
distinguished between believed from believable.








It works on your instantaneous state, when you discuss with the  
doctor who plans the teleportation. In fact it provides the logic  
of any machines talking in a self-referentially correct way about  
its own abilities, provided she is a machine and that she believes  
in a first order logic specification of its representation at some  
level.


[]p  t is closer for bets. It already concern already a not  
completely bayesian theory of (quantum sort of) bet (the  
certainty case, still different from the knowing for sure, which  
basically does not exist except for consciousness).


I don't have to identify provable and believe. It is that the  
notion of provability, thanks Gödel, share enough of the axiomatic  
of belief to allow an ideal case study of the correct person. It is  
enough to derive physics along its FPI statistics (re)definition.


So it's an approximation that provable=believed; sort of like  
the physicists who says, Suppose the cow is a sphere...



More like the sun and planet are seen as weighty points. It explains  
already the basic of the planets' moves.


G and G* described *essential* undecidability, which continue to apply  
for all arithmetically sound consistent extensions. It works on you,  
as far as you are correct (when saying 'yes for the doctor choice of a  
level), in case you do believe in elementary arithmetic, which I am  
sure you do. It remains correct when you talk on higher order  
description of your body, like in term of arms instead of the gödel  
number code on the doctor hard disk.


Bruno






Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Jul 2014, at 03:51, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/8/2014 6:03 PM, LizR wrote:
I still can't see how the computation can know that it's got a real  
world to relate to, rather than a replay of the inputs recorded  
previously. Which as far as I know is all the MGA relies on.
I can't see how a conscious digital computer programme being  
started in the same state as the first time around, and having the  
same inputs replayed to it as before, would not be just as  
conscious as it was the first time around. Either it's conscious  
as it was before, OR it wasn't conscious the first time, OR there  
is some weird supernatural stuff going on that somehow makes a  
difference. (This isn't the point at which I have problems with  
the MGA.)

And you're irritated because I don't take a definite position. ;-)

Not exactly. It's because you appear to take a definite position,  
speaking out loudly and forcefully in support of it - then back  
down when anyone points out that you've done so. Thefact  
that it's always the same position is a bit of a giveaway, though.


It's a position which I think shows some gaps in comp.  But that  
doesn't mean I have my own TOE.



I insist that comp is not presented as a solution, but as making two  
times more difficult the mind-body problem.
Then the math part shows how hard it would be to use that to defeat  
mechanism, as the machine can already show a part of the solution of  
the matter problem. She explains also why for the consciousness and  
true part, some gap are simply not 3p sharable, and some might even be  
not first person accessible (or at least that is not yet clear and we  
can formulate the questions).


Comp is rampant in the human mind since he build tools, and comp get  
precise mathematically with the discovery of the universal numbers/ 
machines. It is a rather seemingly innocent hypothesis in biology and  
physics, but it is a strong hypothesis in theology which leads to that  
problematic reversal, but which offers the math to tackle it, and  
even test it experimentally.


Bruno




Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Jul 2014, at 04:03, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/8/2014 6:14 PM, LizR wrote:

On 9 July 2014 12:36, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
the proof that mga gives is a reductio assumibg it's the physical  
instantiation that gives the computation reality. The conscious  
computation is assumed at the start given the requirement that we  
are in a computationalist settings...
Yes, it assumes a computation can have meaning in itself without  
referents.


Aren't the referents supplied by recording the original  
computation? But I'm not sure what meaning is here. Do brain  
cells have meaning while operating, or is it something that emerges  
from their operation?


But that seems like a dubious assumption to me.  How then do you  
answer the paradox of the conscious rock?


Do you need to? Rocks apparently emerge from infinite computational  
traces in comp anyway...! (So perhaps they can support  
consciousness acccording to comp, or at least they can instantiate  
some of the infinite computations that support it?)

mga is about physical instantiation.

That's what I said.  And I think it fails to show that no physical  
instantiation is necessary because it relies on the meaning given  
to the original computational sequence to impute meaning to the MG.


This is a good point, and one I think I have got my head around  
now. However, it appears to imply that meaning is the supernatural  
extra stuff I mentioned earlier, which is supposed to  
differentiate an original computation from a replay.


So suppose we have a conscious computer frozen in state S1. We  
start it running and let it interact with its environment via, say,  
a body in the form of a Mars Rover. We record all the inputs it  
receives from its sensors, incoming signals from anywhere else,  
etc. After say 10 minutes we stop the recording and we turn to  
another computer, on Earth, with no body, also in state S1, and now  
we play back the inputs we recorded from teh first one. Why would  
the second computer not behave exactly like the first one,  
believing that it's interacting with the surface of Mars? And if it  
does, why would it be any less conscious than the first one?


I'd say that if it instantiates conscious, thoughts then they take  
their meaning from Mars, even though it's second hand.  Maudlin  
adds extra machinery to provide counterfactual computations.  This  
must assume interaction with some environment in order that the  
counterfactual events can be defined.


You miss the point. maudlin extra-machinery to get the a machine which  
is counterfactually correct, yet the machinery will not interact and  
be physically inactive for the precise computation considered. maudlin  
shows that we can incarnate any particular computations with basically  
any physical activity (and indeed I showed we can diminish the  
physical activity up to nothing).






Or looked at another way, suppose there were a different Europa  
rover which had different sensors and programs and actuators, but by  
coincidence of it's interaction with the environment it happened to  
have a sequence of inputs and outputs from it's cpu exactly the same  
as a sequence that occurred in Mars rover.  So when the sequence is  
played back in asimulation on Earth, does the simulation  
experience being on Mars or on Europa?




Or am I missing the point?


Dunno.  My point is that consciousness may be more holistic than  
supposed, i.e. it depends on environment and maybe even on the  
evolutionary history.


That is close to the comp consequence, where consciousness depends on  
all possible environments, and on all possible computations going  
through classes of states (corresponding to stable enough first person  
experiences). An environment is always a universal machine in *your*  
or our (first person plural) neighborhoods. The cooperation makes  
rarer the individual relative aberant continuation, plausibly. To  
stabilize on individual histories, consciousness might require some  
depth (in Bennett sense of (simplifying a lot) intrinsic long runtime  
computations) and requires or cannot avoid, the big self- 
multiplication).


Bruno



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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Jul 2014, at 04:59, LizR wrote:


On 9 July 2014 14:03, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
On 7/8/2014 6:14 PM, LizR wrote:
So suppose we have a conscious computer frozen in state S1. We  
start it running and let it interact with its environment via, say,  
a body in the form of a Mars Rover. We record all the inputs it  
receives from its sensors, incoming signals from anywhere else,  
etc. After say 10 minutes we stop the recording and we turn to  
another computer, on Earth, with no body, also in state S1, and now  
we play back the inputs we recorded from teh first one. Why would  
the second computer not behave exactly like the first one,  
believing that it's interacting with the surface of Mars? And if it  
does, why would it be any less conscious than the first one?
I'd say that if it instantiates conscious, thoughts then they take  
their meaning from Mars, even though it's second hand.


So you are happy that the replay is conscious, and has the same  
experiences and state of consciousness as the original? If so then  
we may as well drop this stuff about meaning, which only seemed to  
be there to distinguish the really real first time around  
consciousness from the not really real second time around  
consciousness.


I hope you see that the MGA is a reductio ad absurdum, and that you  
are OK with the fact that a record of a computation is not a  
computation, at least assuming comp, as nothing compute in a record of  
a computation. OK?


That is why we just abandon the physical supervenience. Consciousness  
has nothing to do with the physical activity of the brain or the  
computer. Consciousness has everything to do with the immaterial  
person, and all of its realization in arithmetic. Eventually a brain  
is just a way for that consciousness to manifest itself relatively to  
some 1p-plural  stable universal neighbor.







Maudlin adds extra machinery to provide counterfactual  
computations.  This must assume interaction with some environment in  
order that the counterfactual events can be defined.


Yes, I didn't get that. All that unused machinery ... the MGA seems  
a lot tidier, at least.


Or looked at another way, suppose there were a different Europa  
rover which had differentsensors and programs and actuators, but  
by coincidence of it's interaction with the environment it happened  
to have a sequence of inputs and outputs from it's cpu exactly the  
same as a sequence that occurred in Mars rover.  So when the  
sequence is played back in a simulation on Earth, does the  
simulation experience being on Mars or on Europa?


If they are the SAME inputs then it experiences whatever the Mars  
AND Europa rovers experienced, according to comp (or according to  
materialism, for that matter). At least it does assuming the two  
rovers have identical experiences, by which I assume you mean they  
started at some point in time in the same machine state (otherwise  
the Mars one knows its on Mars anyway, and can't have the same  
conscious states as the Europa one, which knows it's on Europa).


So if you make their states of consciousness identical at the start  
time (by hypothesis, this means that they are both equivalent to  
Turing machines in a specific state) and they happen to have the  
same inputs, and the whole thing gets replayed by a Turing machine  
on Earth, then that machine has the same experience (which would  
have to be along the lines of Where am I? I don't know, but it  
looks like a bunch of rocks... Or whatever it happens to look like.


The MGA assumes you start the system in some specified state and  
replay the inputs. I can't see any wiggle room for this to be a  
different conscious experience no matter how many times you do it.  
Comp says it's literally the same states of consciousness.
My point is that consciousness may be more holistic than supposed,  
i.e. it depends on environment and maybe even on the evolutionary  
history.


I think comp covers this when Bruno says that you may have to  
simulate more than just the person's physical form, but perhaps  
their surroundings too. But in any case depends on is irrelevant  
if consciousness is Turing emulable, as far as I know a state of a  
Turing Machine doesn't care how it got into that state, it's simply  
in it.


OK.
Asking for the presence of the environment is like asking for a lower  
level, and does not change anything when confronted to UD* or the  
arithmetical reality. It only makes the high level used by many neuro- 
philosophers less plausible, and makes step 1-6 harder, without  
reason, as the step 7 works for all level, with all sort of Turing  
emulable *generalized* brains, including oracles.


Bruno







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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread meekerdb

On 7/8/2014 11:13 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


That's what I said.  And I think it fails to show that no physical 
instantiation is
necessary because it relies on the meaning given to the original 
computational
sequence to impute meaning to the MG.


No it relies on its assumption (ie: that a computation can support a conscious 
moment).


That seems to be the implicit assumption.  But that's assuming more than saying yes to 
the doctor.


Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2014-07-09 20:35 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

  On 7/8/2014 11:13 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

  That's what I said.  And I think it fails to show that no physical
 instantiation is necessary because it relies on the meaning given to the
 original computational sequence to impute meaning to the MG.


  No it relies on its assumption (ie: that a computation can support a
 conscious moment).


 That seems to be the implicit assumption.


It is not implicit but explicit *it is assumption number 1* !!


   But that's assuming more than saying yes to the doctor.


?

Saying yes to the doctor *under computationalism* means that a computation
can support consciousness, if not you're crazy to say yes to replace your
brain by a digital replacement.

Quentin



 Brent

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-- 
All those moments will be lost in time, like tears in rain. (Roy
Batty/Rutger Hauer)

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread spudboy100 via Everything List

You may have written exhaustively on this before, but, one more time please. 
How do you build a theology based on mathematics. I don't see Pythagoras as 
being a source of happiness for most earthlings. Of yourself, I have no doubt! 
Also, maybe the God of the Bible all came from Lucid Dreaming. One US academic 
psychologist claimed as much with the writings of Ezekiel. Lucid dreams are 
where you become aware one is dreaming, but feel like normal life, sensorially. 
 

let us do theology seriously instead of referring to fairy tales. You  
confirm what I said to John Clark. Atheist defend the God of the  
bible. Read Plotinus, forget the bible, unless you find some passage  
you like and which inspire you, but that is private, don't make that  
public.


 
 
 
-Original Message-
From: Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Sun, Jul 6, 2014 6:29 am
Subject: Re: What's the answer? What's the question?



On 04 Jul 2014, at 20:33, meekerdb wrote:

 On 7/4/2014 9:12 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 On 03 Jul 2014, at 19:46, meekerdb wrote:

 On 7/3/2014 8:08 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 Only a pseudo-scientist would say that the science progresses  
 have put any threat on the non literal reading of any sacred  
 texts.

 Wouldn't that depend on what the non-literal reading is?  I think  
 what you mean is that there is always some non-literal reading  
 that is not threatened by science...or by logic, or by empathy, or  
 by anything else you care to name, because non-literal is just  
 not what it says.  Mein Kampf is also consistent with good  
 race relations, on a non-literal reading.

 'Mein Kampf' contains hate. Hate is always literal,

 Is that from the Marchal dictionary of the Engligh language?


 or you are in a Charlie Chaplin movie.

 Or in the Christian bible:

 Proverbs 6:16, 19 These six things doth the LORD hate ... A false  
 witness that speaketh lies, and he that soweth discord among brethren.

 Luke 14:26 If any man come to me, and hate not his father, and  
 mother, and wife, and children, and brethren, and sisters, yea, and  
 his own life also, he cannot be my disciple.

 With sufficient non-literalism these become God is love.

let us do theology seriously instead of referring to fairy tales. You  
confirm what I said to John Clark. Atheist defend the God of the  
bible. Read Plotinus, forget the bible, unless you find some passage  
you like and which inspire you, but that is private, don't make that  
public.








 You can study the deep non literal meaning in a book like Aldous  
 Huxley philosophia perennis. You can sum it by Plato might be  
 right, or the laws of physics might have a deeper reason, perhaps  
 even a purpose.

 When the meaning is deeply non-literal isn't is likely that it's  
 your own ideas you are imposing on the book.

Understanding something is always a question of reducing or  
representing it to what you already understand.





 The institutionalist religions are as far of religion than the  
 today politics of health is from health. For basically the same  
 reason (stealing people's money).

 A scientist interested in religion will always read a sacred text  
 with the same equanimity than reading a salvia divinorum report.

 Equanamity is not the same thing as giving it a non-literal meaning.

It consists in remaining open to all interpretations possible.





 Religion, like nationalities, have also social identity role,  
 indeed very often perverted, and we (the scientists) have to keep  
 calm and try hard to not throw the unsolved questions when  
 abstracting from the fairy tales and legends associated with some  
 plausible, or not, contact between humans beliefs and truth.

 And to be careful not to insert our hopes and wishes in place of the  
 fairy tales.

Yes. Nobody claims that it is easy. That is one reason more to  
encourage the reasoning and skeptical attitudes, especially in  
fundamental studies, like the theological one.

By deciding that theology is automatically bullshit, we just  
perpetuate the institutional bullshit, a bit like making drug  
forbidden, we create and and make bigger the illicit drug markets  
which control and target the kids.

Bruno




 Brent

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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread Richard Ruquist
Lucid dreaming has been used by Kurt Leland to observe the afterlife and
communicate with its inhabitants.
http://www.kurtleland.com/


On Wed, Jul 9, 2014 at 3:52 PM, spudboy100 via Everything List 
everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:

 You may have written exhaustively on this before, but, one more time
 please. How do you build a theology based on mathematics. I don't see
 Pythagoras as being a source of happiness for most earthlings. Of yourself,
 I have no doubt! Also, maybe the God of the Bible all came from Lucid
 Dreaming. One US academic psychologist claimed as much with the writings of
 Ezekiel. Lucid dreams are where you become aware one is dreaming, but feel
 like normal life, sensorially.

 let us do theology seriously instead of referring to fairy tales. You
 confirm what I said to John Clark. Atheist defend the God of the
 bible. Read Plotinus, forget the bible, unless you find some passage
 you like and which inspire you, but that is private, don't make that
 public.




 -Original Message-
 From: Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be
 To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Sun, Jul 6, 2014 6:29 am
 Subject: Re: What's the answer? What's the question?


 On 04 Jul 2014, at 20:33, meekerdb wrote:

  On 7/4/2014 9:12 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
  On 03 Jul 2014, at 19:46, meekerdb wrote:
 
  On 7/3/2014 8:08 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
  Only a pseudo-scientist would say that the science progresses
  have put any threat on the non literal reading of any sacred
  texts.
 
  Wouldn't that depend on what the non-literal reading is?  I think
  what you mean is that there is always some non-literal reading
  that is not threatened by science...or by logic, or by empathy, or
  by anything else you care to name, because non-literal is just
  not what it says.  Mein Kampf is also consistent with good
  race relations, on a non-literal reading.
 
  'Mein Kampf' contains hate. Hate is always literal,
 
  Is that from the Marchal dictionary of the Engligh language?
 
 
  or you are in a Charlie Chaplin movie.
 
  Or in the Christian bible:
 
  Proverbs 6:16, 19 These six things doth the LORD hate ... A false
  witness that speaketh lies, and he that soweth discord among brethren.
 
  Luke 14:26 If any man come to me, and hate not his father, and
  mother, and wife, and children, and brethren, and sisters, yea, and
  his own life also, he cannot be my disciple.
 
  With sufficient non-literalism these become God is love.

 let us do theology seriously instead of referring to fairy tales. You
 confirm what I said to John Clark. Atheist defend the God of the
 bible. Read Plotinus, forget the bible, unless you find some passage
 you like and which inspire you, but that is private, don't make that
 public.






 
 
  You can study the deep non literal meaning in a book like Aldous
  Huxley philosophia perennis. You can sum it by Plato might be
  right, or the laws of physics might have a deeper reason, perhaps
  even a purpose.
 
  When the meaning is deeply non-literal isn't is likely that it's
  your own ideas you are imposing on the book.

 Understanding something is always a question of reducing or
 representing it to what you already understand.




 
  The institutionalist religions are as far of religion than the
  today politics of health is from health. For basically the same
  reason (stealing people's money).
 
  A scientist interested in religion will always read a sacred text
  with the same equanimity than reading a salvia divinorum report.
 
  Equanamity is not the same thing as giving it a non-literal meaning.

 It consists in remaining open to all interpretations possible.



 
 
  Religion, like nationalities, have also social identity role,
  indeed very often perverted, and we (the scientists) have to keep
  calm and try hard to not throw the unsolved questions when
  abstracting from the fairy tales and legends associated with some
  plausible, or not, contact between humans beliefs and truth.
 
  And to be careful not to insert our hopes and wishes in place of the
  fairy tales.

 Yes. Nobody claims that it is easy. That is one reason more to
 encourage the reasoning and skeptical attitudes, especially in
 fundamental studies, like the theological one.

 By deciding that theology is automatically bullshit, we just
 perpetuate the institutional bullshit, a bit like making drug
 forbidden, we create and and make bigger the illicit drug markets
 which control and target the kids.

 Bruno



 
  Brent
 
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 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread spudboy100 via Everything List


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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread spudboy100 via Everything List


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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread LizR
On 10 July 2014 06:14, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 09 Jul 2014, at 04:59, LizR wrote:

 On 9 July 2014 14:03, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 7/8/2014 6:14 PM, LizR wrote:

  So suppose we have a conscious computer frozen in state S1. We start it
 running and let it interact with its environment via, say, a body in the
 form of a Mars Rover. We record all the inputs it receives from its
 sensors, incoming signals from anywhere else, etc. After say 10 minutes we
 stop the recording and we turn to another computer, on Earth, with no body,
 also in state S1, and now we play back the inputs we recorded from teh
 first one. Why would the second computer not behave exactly like the first
 one, believing that it's interacting with the surface of Mars? And if it
 does, why would it be any less conscious than the first one?

 I'd say that if it instantiates conscious, thoughts then they take their
 meaning from Mars, even though it's second hand.


 So you are happy that the replay is conscious, and has the same
 experiences and state of consciousness as the original? If so then we may
 as well drop this stuff about meaning, which only seemed to be there to
 distinguish the really real first time around consciousness from the not
 really real second time around consciousness.

 I hope you see that the MGA is a reductio ad absurdum, and that you are OK
 with the fact that a record of a computation is not a computation, at least
 assuming comp, as nothing compute in a record of a computation. OK?


Yes, I think so. But Brent's point seemed to be questioning something
slightly different. He was (or appeared to be) saying that even allowing
the computation to progress with the same inputs wouldn't result in
consciousness because the computation wouldn't be getting the same
meaning from its environment. Or something like that. The implication was
that meaning is some metaphysical or supernatural extra, which is what I
was arguing against. I was arguing that if you assume materialism +
consciousness supervening on computation, then having the same computing
machine starting in the same state and having the same inputs would give
the same conscious experience. This wasn't necessarily an argument for or
against comp, because we didn't seem to have got far enough to discuss that.


 That is why we just abandon the physical supervenience. Consciousness has
 nothing to do with the physical activity of the brain or the computer.
 Consciousness has everything to do with the immaterial person, and all of
 its realization in arithmetic. Eventually a brain is just a way for that
 consciousness to manifest itself relatively to some 1p-plural  stable
 universal neighbor.


OK, well I said that (more or less) in response to a comment of Brent's and
got back a rather facetious reply about 787s being maifestations of a
quantum field - which LOOKED like Brent was just saying well that's
ridiculous! although after a lot of back and forth, he claims he was
saying that comp explains too much. Unfortunately the (allegedly) very
bad phrasing of the original comment led to a whole discussion as above
which seems to have led nowhere, as far as I can see, except to Brent
claiming his comment meant something completely different from what it
appeared to mean (again).

 I think comp covers this when Bruno says that you may have to simulate
 more than just the person's physical form, but perhaps their surroundings
 too. But in any case depends on is irrelevant if consciousness is Turing
 emulable, as far as I know a state of a Turing Machine doesn't care how it
 got into that state, it's simply in it.

 OK.
 Asking for the presence of the environment is like asking for a lower
 level, and does not change anything when confronted to UD* or the
 arithmetical reality. It only makes the high level used by many
 neuro-philosophers less plausible, and makes step 1-6 harder, without
 reason, as the step 7 works for all level, with all sort of Turing emulable
 *generalized* brains, including oracles.

 Yes, I see that. It is certainly easier to discuss if you just restrict it
to a guy in a teleporter, rather than saying well, you may have to cut and
paste the visible universe. So I was trying to point out that you had
covered this and vague talk about consciousness being more holistic had
already been covered, and was just missed out for convenience.

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread LizR
I wish I could just do normal dreaming lucidly enough to remember what I
dreamt, but I almost always forget. I think my short term memory is VERY
short term, dammit.

What were we talking about again?

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread LizR
I have a cousin who claims to do this sort of thing. I try to avoid being
cornered by him at parties (and I try to ignore the fact that his
supernatural powers let him know I'm trying to avoid him...)


On 10 July 2014 09:13, Richard Ruquist yann...@gmail.com wrote:

 Lucid dreaming has been used by Kurt Leland to observe the afterlife and
 communicate with its inhabitants.
 http://www.kurtleland.com/


 On Wed, Jul 9, 2014 at 3:52 PM, spudboy100 via Everything List 
 everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:

 You may have written exhaustively on this before, but, one more time
 please. How do you build a theology based on mathematics. I don't see
 Pythagoras as being a source of happiness for most earthlings. Of yourself,
 I have no doubt! Also, maybe the God of the Bible all came from Lucid
 Dreaming. One US academic psychologist claimed as much with the writings of
 Ezekiel. Lucid dreams are where you become aware one is dreaming, but feel
 like normal life, sensorially.

 let us do theology seriously instead of referring to fairy tales. You
 confirm what I said to John Clark. Atheist defend the God of the
 bible. Read Plotinus, forget the bible, unless you find some passage
 you like and which inspire you, but that is private, don't make that
 public.




 -Original Message-
 From: Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be
 To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Sun, Jul 6, 2014 6:29 am
 Subject: Re: What's the answer? What's the question?


 On 04 Jul 2014, at 20:33, meekerdb wrote:

  On 7/4/2014 9:12 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
  On 03 Jul 2014, at 19:46, meekerdb wrote:
 
  On 7/3/2014 8:08 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
  Only a pseudo-scientist would say that the science progresses
  have put any threat on the non literal reading of any sacred
  texts.
 
  Wouldn't that depend on what the non-literal reading is?  I think
  what you mean is that there is always some non-literal reading
  that is not threatened by science...or by logic, or by empathy, or
  by anything else you care to name, because non-literal is just
  not what it says.  Mein Kampf is also consistent with good
  race relations, on a non-literal reading.
 
  'Mein Kampf' contains hate. Hate is always literal,
 
  Is that from the Marchal dictionary of the Engligh language?
 
 
  or you are in a Charlie Chaplin movie.
 
  Or in the Christian bible:
 
  Proverbs 6:16, 19 These six things doth the LORD hate ... A false
  witness that speaketh lies, and he that soweth discord among brethren.
 
  Luke 14:26 If any man come to me, and hate not his father, and
  mother, and wife, and children, and brethren, and sisters, yea, and
  his own life also, he cannot be my disciple.
 
  With sufficient non-literalism these become God is love.

 let us do theology seriously instead of referring to fairy tales. You
 confirm what I said to John Clark. Atheist defend the God of the
 bible. Read Plotinus, forget the bible, unless you find some passage
 you like and which inspire you, but that is private, don't make that
 public.






 
 
  You can study the deep non literal meaning in a book like Aldous
  Huxley philosophia perennis. You can sum it by Plato might be
  right, or the laws of physics might have a deeper reason, perhaps
  even a purpose.
 
  When the meaning is deeply non-literal isn't is likely that it's
  your own ideas you are imposing on the book.

 Understanding something is always a question of reducing or
 representing it to what you already understand.




 
  The institutionalist religions are as far of religion than the
  today politics of health is from health. For basically the same
  reason (stealing people's money).
 
  A scientist interested in religion will always read a sacred text
  with the same equanimity than reading a salvia divinorum report.
 
  Equanamity is not the same thing as giving it a non-literal meaning.

 It consists in remaining open to all interpretations possible.



 
 
  Religion, like nationalities, have also social identity role,
  indeed very often perverted, and we (the scientists) have to keep
  calm and try hard to not throw the unsolved questions when
  abstracting from the fairy tales and legends associated with some
  plausible, or not, contact between humans beliefs and truth.
 
  And to be careful not to insert our hopes and wishes in place of the
  fairy tales.

 Yes. Nobody claims that it is easy. That is one reason more to
 encourage the reasoning and skeptical attitudes, especially in
 fundamental studies, like the theological one.

 By deciding that theology is automatically bullshit, we just
 perpetuate the institutional bullshit, a bit like making drug
 forbidden, we create and and make bigger the illicit drug markets
 which control and target the kids.

 Bruno



 
  Brent
 
  --
  You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google
  Groups Everything List group.
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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread meekerdb

On 7/9/2014 11:38 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2014-07-09 20:35 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net:

On 7/8/2014 11:13 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


That's what I said.  And I think it fails to show that no physical
instantiation is necessary because it relies on the meaning given to the
original computational sequence to impute meaning to the MG.


No it relies on its assumption (ie: that a computation can support a 
conscious moment).


That seems to be the implicit assumption.


It is not implicit but explicit *it is assumption number 1* !!

  But that's assuming more than saying yes to the doctor.


?

Saying yes to the doctor *under computationalism* means that a computation can support 
consciousness, if not you're crazy to say yes to replace your brain by a digital 
replacement.


It's saying yes, an artificial brain can maintain my consciousness *by interacting with my 
environment in the same way my natural brain did*.


Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2014-07-10 1:44 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

  On 7/9/2014 11:38 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




 2014-07-09 20:35 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

  On 7/8/2014 11:13 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

  That's what I said.  And I think it fails to show that no physical
 instantiation is necessary because it relies on the meaning given to the
 original computational sequence to impute meaning to the MG.


  No it relies on its assumption (ie: that a computation can support a
 conscious moment).


  That seems to be the implicit assumption.


  It is not implicit but explicit *it is assumption number 1* !!


   But that's assuming more than saying yes to the doctor.


  ?

  Saying yes to the doctor *under computationalism* means that a
 computation can support consciousness, if not you're crazy to say yes to
 replace your brain by a digital replacement.


 It's saying yes, an artificial brain can maintain my consciousness *by
 interacting with my environment in the same way my natural brain did*.


We're talking about *computationalism*, so in this settings, your brain
would be replaced with a program running on a (turing) machine... *the only
thing* the program can interact with are the inputs... they can come from a
real or not  real environment, the program cannot tell the difference,
there is no little dwarf to tell the program if the input is from a real
environment out there or a recording of a real environment out there or a
virtual environment.

The program interact with *inputs* and nothing else.

Quentin




 Brent

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-- 
All those moments will be lost in time, like tears in rain. (Roy
Batty/Rutger Hauer)

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2014-07-10 1:51 GMT+02:00 Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com:




 2014-07-10 1:44 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

  On 7/9/2014 11:38 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




 2014-07-09 20:35 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

  On 7/8/2014 11:13 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:

  That's what I said.  And I think it fails to show that no physical
 instantiation is necessary because it relies on the meaning given to the
 original computational sequence to impute meaning to the MG.


  No it relies on its assumption (ie: that a computation can support a
 conscious moment).


  That seems to be the implicit assumption.


  It is not implicit but explicit *it is assumption number 1* !!


   But that's assuming more than saying yes to the doctor.


  ?

  Saying yes to the doctor *under computationalism* means that a
 computation can support consciousness, if not you're crazy to say yes to
 replace your brain by a digital replacement.


 It's saying yes, an artificial brain can maintain my consciousness *by
 interacting with my environment in the same way my natural brain did*.


 We're talking about *computationalism*, so in this settings, your brain
 would be replaced with a program running on a (turing) machine... *the only
 thing* the program can interact with are the inputs... they can come from a
 real or not  real environment, the program cannot tell the difference,
 there is no little dwarf to tell the program if the input is from a real
 environment out there or a recording of a real environment out there or a
 virtual environment.

 The program interact with *inputs* and nothing else.


That means if the digital brain needed to interact with our environment,
the program would be linked to sensors giving it inputs to interact with
the world out there (the sensors are really only things that write in a
shared memory space that the program can read)... those real sensors can
be replaced by fake sensors, that write in the same shared memory space
but not input from the real world but either from a simulated one, or the
recording of a previous session with the real world... If the program is
conscious (and it is if computationalism is true, and you said yes to the
doctor), it is *in every cases* wherever the inputs came from... and the
meaning of these inputs are relative to the consciousness supported by
the computation and nothing else.

Quentin



 Quentin




 Brent

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 --
 All those moments will be lost in time, like tears in rain. (Roy
 Batty/Rutger Hauer)




-- 
All those moments will be lost in time, like tears in rain. (Roy
Batty/Rutger Hauer)

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread LizR
On 10 July 2014 11:44, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


 It's saying yes, an artificial brain can maintain my consciousness *by
 interacting with my environment in the same way my natural brain did*.


By doing everything your natural brain did, in fact. That is to say, if the
input is the same and the starting state is the same, it will experience
the same consciousness your natural brain would have experienced.

As already pointed out, it's possible the duplication may have to include
your environment - e.g. in the teleporter experiment it may be necessary to
cut and paste the interior of the teleporter, which for the sake of
argument could be a sealed box like Shcrodinger's cat's. (Or it could be a
sphere with a radius the size of your age in light years.) That doesn't
make any difference to the argument, however.

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread meekerdb

On 7/9/2014 4:51 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2014-07-10 1:44 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net:

On 7/9/2014 11:38 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2014-07-09 20:35 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net:

On 7/8/2014 11:13 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


That's what I said.  And I think it fails to show that no physical
instantiation is necessary because it relies on the meaning given 
to the
original computational sequence to impute meaning to the MG.


No it relies on its assumption (ie: that a computation can support a 
conscious
moment).


That seems to be the implicit assumption.


It is not implicit but explicit *it is assumption number 1* !!

But that's assuming more than saying yes to the doctor.


?

Saying yes to the doctor *under computationalism* means that a computation 
can
support consciousness, if not you're crazy to say yes to replace your brain 
by a
digital replacement.


It's saying yes, an artificial brain can maintain my consciousness *by 
interacting
with my environment in the same way my natural brain did*.


We're talking about *computationalism*, so in this settings, your brain would be 
replaced with a program running on a (turing) machine... *the only thing* the program 
can interact with are the inputs... they can come from a real or not  real environment, 
the program cannot tell the difference, there is no little dwarf to tell the program if 
the input is from a real environment out there or a recording of a real environment out 
there or a virtual environment.


Then how do you know when a program is about something?  How do you answer the paradox of 
the rock that computes everything?  So much of this argumentation about consciousness 
depends on intuition and reductios, but you need to keep your sensitivity to what is 
absurd working all the time - not just when you want to reject and argument.


Brent






The program interact with *inputs* and nothing else.

Quentin


Brent
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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread meekerdb

On 7/9/2014 4:59 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2014-07-10 1:51 GMT+02:00 Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com 
mailto:allco...@gmail.com:




2014-07-10 1:44 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net:

On 7/9/2014 11:38 AM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2014-07-09 20:35 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net:

On 7/8/2014 11:13 PM, Quentin Anciaux wrote:


That's what I said.  And I think it fails to show that no 
physical
instantiation is necessary because it relies on the meaning 
given to
the original computational sequence to impute meaning to the MG.


No it relies on its assumption (ie: that a computation can support a
conscious moment).


That seems to be the implicit assumption.


It is not implicit but explicit *it is assumption number 1* !!

  But that's assuming more than saying yes to the doctor.


?

Saying yes to the doctor *under computationalism* means that a 
computation can
support consciousness, if not you're crazy to say yes to replace your 
brain by
a digital replacement.


It's saying yes, an artificial brain can maintain my consciousness *by
interacting with my environment in the same way my natural brain did*.


We're talking about *computationalism*, so in this settings, your brain 
would be
replaced with a program running on a (turing) machine... *the only thing* 
the
program can interact with are the inputs... they can come from a real or 
not  real
environment, the program cannot tell the difference, there is no little 
dwarf to
tell the program if the input is from a real environment out there or a 
recording of
a real environment out there or a virtual environment.

The program interact with *inputs* and nothing else.


That means if the digital brain needed to interact with our environment, the program 
would be linked to sensors giving it inputs to interact with the world out there (the 
sensors are really only things that write in a shared memory space that the program 
can read)... those real sensors can be replaced by fake sensors, that write in the 
same shared memory space but not input from the real world but either from a simulated 
one, or the recording of a previous session with the real world... If the program is 
conscious (and it is if computationalism is true, and you said yes to the doctor), it is 
*in every cases* wherever the inputs came from... and the meaning of these inputs 
are relative to the consciousness supported by the computation and nothing else.


No, the meaning is relative to world of perception and action.  It's seems absurdly 
circular to say the meaning of computation is relative to the computation itself.  Even 
fake sensors have to be faking something.


Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread meekerdb

On 7/9/2014 5:15 PM, LizR wrote:

On 10 July 2014 11:44, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


It's saying yes, an artificial brain can maintain my consciousness *by 
interacting
with my environment in the same way my natural brain did*.


By doing everything your natural brain did, in fact. That is to say, if the input is the 
same and the starting state is the same, it will experience the same consciousness your 
natural brain would have experienced.


As already pointed out, it's possible the duplication may have to include your 
environment - e.g. in the teleporter experiment it may be necessary to cut and paste the 
interior of the teleporter, which for the sake of argument could be a sealed box like 
Shcrodinger's cat's. (Or it could be a sphere with a radius the size of your age in 
light years.) That doesn't make any difference to the argument, however.


But I think ultimately it does.  If you have do include the environment in the computation 
(and Bruno has said maybe you do, it's just a matter of level) then I think it makes a 
metaphysical difference.  Going back to my example of the simulated aircraft; if we 
simulate the aircraft in CFD then the meaning the variables (lift, drag,...) come from our 
physical world.  But if we simulate a whole world, including the aircraft, so those 
variables have their meaning relative to the simulated world, then there is really no 
sense in saying it's a simulation.  In other words if you simulate *all* the physics, then 
you haven't gotten rid of the physical world, you've just created a separate world with 
it's own physics.


Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread LizR
On 10 July 2014 13:15, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 That means if the digital brain needed to interact with our environment,
 the program would be linked to sensors giving it inputs to interact with
 the world out there (the sensors are really only things that write in a
 shared memory space that the program can read)... those real sensors can
 be replaced by fake sensors, that write in the same shared memory space
 but not input from the real world but either from a simulated one, or the
 recording of a previous session with the real world... If the program is
 conscious (and it is if computationalism is true, and you said yes to the
 doctor), it is *in every cases* wherever the inputs came from... and the
 meaning of these inputs are relative to the consciousness supported by
 the computation and nothing else.

   No, the meaning is relative to world of perception and action.  It's
 seems absurdly circular to say the meaning of computation is relative to
 the computation itself.  Even fake sensors have to be faking something.


I think it's fair to say that the meaning of the inputs are hypotheses
about the world outside the consciousness. Obviously they could all be
faked in the sense of the apparent world being a virtual reality, for
example, or the inputs being wrongly interpreted (e.g. seeing a mirage) -
but whatever their origin, meaning is what the consciousness extracts from
the inputs by comparing them to an internal model it has constructed about
how the outside world works.

The internal model has been (mainly) built by making educated guesses about
previous inputs, plus it is partly hard wired - some of the guesses
about how the world works, for an evolved organism, are the results of the
experiences of its ancestors. This could give the creature an instinctive
fear of heights, or of swooping birds, or the dark, and an instinctive
liking for certain foods, attraction to mates, etc.

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread LizR
On 10 July 2014 13:22, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 But I think ultimately it does.  If you have do include the environment in
 the computation (and Bruno has said maybe you do, it's just a matter of
 level) then I think it makes a metaphysical difference.  Going back to my
 example of the simulated aircraft; if we simulate the aircraft in CFD then
 the meaning the variables (lift, drag,...) come from our physical world.
 But if we simulate a whole world, including the aircraft, so those
 variables have their meaning relative to the simulated world, then there is
 really no sense in saying it's a simulation.  In other words if you
 simulate *all* the physics, then you haven't gotten rid of the physical
 world, you've just created a separate world with it's own physics.


Only if you think the Mathematical Universe hypothesis is correct.
Otherwise you've only created a model of a separate world.

However, you're being too obscure, again. I have no idea what your argument
is supposed to prove, or what these simulations have to do with comp, or
what this metaphysical difference actually means. Please state your case
as clearly as possible, so I don't waste more time arguing about something
you didn't mean to say.

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread meekerdb

On 7/9/2014 6:38 PM, LizR wrote:

On 10 July 2014 13:22, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

But I think ultimately it does.  If you have do include the environment in 
the
computation (and Bruno has said maybe you do, it's just a matter of 
level) then I
think it makes a metaphysical difference.  Going back to my example of the 
simulated
aircraft; if we simulate the aircraft in CFD then the meaning the variables 
(lift,
drag,...) come from our physical world.  But if we simulate a whole world, 
including
the aircraft, so those variables have their meaning relative to the 
simulated world,
then there is really no sense in saying it's a simulation.  In other words 
if you
simulate *all* the physics, then you haven't gotten rid of the physical 
world,
you've just created a separate world with it's own physics.


Only if you think the Mathematical Universe hypothesis is correct. Otherwise you've only 
created a model of a separate world.


However, you're being too obscure, again. I have no idea what your argument is supposed 
to prove, or what these simulations have to do with comp, or what this metaphysical 
difference actually means. Please state your case as clearly as possible, so I don't 
waste more time arguing about something you didn't mean to say.


It proves that Bruno's MGA doesn't dispense with physics.  When instantiating 
consciousness it's necessary to either allow the consciousness to act within our physical 
world or to provide another computed world within which it can act.  In either case the 
physics is necessary to the consciousness - to avoid the problem of the rock that computes 
everything.  I don't think Bruon actually claims to get rid of physics anyway, it just 
sounds that way sometimes when he's being short, but then it's taken as a refutation of 
materialism.  I take it as an argument for monism; physics is necessary for consciousness 
(it's just not necessary that physics be fundamental, whatever that means).


Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread LizR
On 10 July 2014 13:48, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


 It proves that Bruno's MGA doesn't dispense with physics.  When
 instantiating consciousness it's necessary to either allow the
 consciousness to act within our physical world or to provide another
 computed world within which it can act.


Or provide inputs which give the appearance of a world, yes. Otherwise you
have a consciousness that is in sensory isolation (although it could still
dream).


 In either case the physics is necessary to the consciousness - to avoid
 the problem of the rock that computes everything.


The rock wouldn't compute *everything*, not being a UD with infinite time,
but it might compute some things. I'm not sure why this is a problem,
however. Can you explain why?


 I don't think Bruon actually claims to get rid of physics anyway, it just
 sounds that way sometimes when he's being short, but then it's taken as a
 refutation of materialism.


I'm not sure about physics. I think the point of the MGA is that matter
isn't primary? (As I've already mentioned, I'm not 100% au fait with the
MGA.)


 I take it as an argument for monism; physics is necessary for
 consciousness


I'm not sure what this means. Comp assumes that computation is necessary
for consciousness, and in practice, for us to carry out computation
requires physics to support it, of course - but that doesn't mean it's
*necessary* for computation. Computation might be able to exist in
Numberland, or so I'm told.


 (it's just not necessary that physics be fundamental, whatever that means).


It means it doesn't emerge from anything else. But if physics isn't primary
then there's no argument anyway, because as far as I can tell comp seems
quite happy with non-primary physics.

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread spudboy100 via Everything List


Heres' a question. What would be bigger, genuine AI, or the discovery 
of another technological civilization in the galaxy???








-Original Message-
From: LizR lizj...@gmail.com
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Wed, Jul 9, 2014 9:34 pm
Subject: Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

On 10 July 2014 13:15, meekerdb lt;meeke...@verizon.netgt; wrote:
  That means if the digital brain needed to interact with   
   our environment, the program would be linked to sensors  
giving it inputs to interact with the world out there 
 (the sensors are really only things that write in a  
shared memory space that the program can read)... those  
real sensors can be replaced by fake sensors, that  
write in the same shared memory space but not input from  
the real world but either from a simulated one, or the  
recording of a previous session with the real world...  
If the program is conscious (and it is if computationalism  
is true, and you said yes to the doctor), it is *in every  
cases* wherever the inputs came from... and the meaning  
of these inputs are relative to the consciousness  
supported by the computation and nothing else.




No, the meaning is relative to world of perception and 
action.  It'sseems absurdly circular to say the meaning of 
computation isrelative to the computation itself.  Even fake 
sensors have to befaking something.





I think it's fair to say that the meaning of the inputs are hypotheses 
about the world outside the consciousness. Obviously they could all be 
faked in the sense of the apparent world being a virtual reality, for 
example, or the inputs being wrongly interpreted (e.g. seeing a mirage) 
- but whatever their origin, meaning is what the consciousness extracts 
from the inputs by comparing them to an internal model it has 
constructed about how the outside world works.



The internal model has been (mainly) built by making educated guesses 
about previous inputs, plus it is partly hard wired - some of the 
guesses about how the world works, for an evolved organism, are the 
results of the experiences of its ancestors. This could give the 
creature an instinctive fear of heights, or of swooping birds, or the 
dark, and an instinctive liking for certain foods, attraction to mates, 
etc.





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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread meekerdb

On 7/9/2014 6:34 PM, LizR wrote:

On 10 July 2014 13:15, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

That means if the digital brain needed to interact with our environment, 
the program
would be linked to sensors giving it inputs to interact with the world out 
there
(the sensors are really only things that write in a shared memory space 
that the
program can read)... those real sensors can be replaced by fake 
sensors, that
write in the same shared memory space but not input from the real world 
but either
from a simulated one, or the recording of a previous session with the real
world... If the program is conscious (and it is if computationalism is 
true, and you
said yes to the doctor), it is *in every cases* wherever the inputs came 
from... and
the meaning of these inputs are relative to the consciousness supported 
by the
computation and nothing else.
No, the meaning is relative to world of perception and action.  It's seems 
absurdly
circular to say the meaning of computation is relative to the computation 
itself.
Even fake sensors have to be faking something.


I think it's fair to say that the meaning of the inputs are hypotheses about the world 
outside the consciousness. Obviously they could all be faked in the sense of the 
apparent world being a virtual reality, for example, or the inputs being wrongly 
interpreted (e.g. seeing a mirage) - but whatever their origin, meaning is what the 
consciousness extracts from the inputs by comparing them to an internal model it has 
constructed about how the outside world works.


The internal model has been (mainly) built by making educated guesses about previous 
inputs, plus it is partly hard wired - some of the guesses about how the world 
works, for an evolved organism, are the results of the experiences of its ancestors. 
This could give the creature an instinctive fear of heights, or of swooping birds, or 
the dark, and an instinctive liking for certain foods, attraction to mates, etc.


Yes, I think that's well put.

Brent

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread LizR
On 10 July 2014 15:01, spudboy100 via Everything List 
everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:


 Heres' a question. What would be bigger, genuine AI, or the discovery of
 another technological civilization in the galaxy???


I vote for the discovery of the missing Dr Who episodes!

Apart from that - how advanced are these aliens? How far away? How are they
discovered?

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread meekerdb

On 7/9/2014 7:08 PM, LizR wrote:

On 10 July 2014 13:48, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


It proves that Bruno's MGA doesn't dispense with physics.  When 
instantiating
consciousness it's necessary to either allow the consciousness to act 
within our
physical world or to provide another computed world within which it can act.


Or provide inputs which give the appearance of a world, yes. Otherwise you have a 
consciousness that is in sensory isolation (although it could still dream).


In either case the physics is necessary to the consciousness - to avoid the 
problem
of the rock that computes everything.


The rock wouldn't compute /everything/, not being a UD with infinite time, but it might 
compute some things. I'm not sure why this is a problem, however. Can you explain why?


It's a problem because most of the argument about comp depends on intuititions and 
reductios: You must believe in arithmetic (every body does, it's absurd not to) therefore 
you believe in the existence of the UD because it's just a number and relations between 
numbers.  But when an argument implies that I should believe in X because the contrary is 
absurd and then I realize that the argument also implies Y which I find absurd it makes 
the argument less convincing.



I don't think Bruon actually claims to get rid of physics anyway, it just 
sounds
that way sometimes when he's being short, but then it's taken as a 
refutation of
materialism.


I'm not sure about physics. I think the point of the MGA is that matter isn't primary? 
(As I've already mentioned, I'm not 100% au fait with the MGA.)


It tries to show that by leading you to accept a scenario in which there is no physical 
action but which you believe is computing consciousness (of a dream).



I take it as an argument for monism; physics is necessary for consciousness


I'm not sure what this means. Comp assumes that computation is necessary for 
consciousness, and in practice, for us to carry out computation requires physics to 
support it,


That's the point of Bruno's argument, physics is not necessary to support it - rather 
computation supports physics AND consciousness.


of course - but that doesn't mean it's /necessary/ for computation. Computation might be 
able to exist in Numberland, or so I'm told.


(it's just not necessary that physics be fundamental, whatever that means).


It means it doesn't emerge from anything else.


But what is it?  I think physics is just whatever we intersubjectively agree on (aka 
objective).  That's why physics went from inherent tendencies in substances 
(Aristotle) to particles (Laplace) to fields (Maxwell) to Hilbert space (Dirac) to the MUH 
(Tegmark).  So can we agree on something being fundamental without it being physics?


But if physics isn't primary then there's no argument anyway, because as far as I can 
tell comp seems quite happy with non-primary physics.


Bruno's happy along as long as there's theology.

Brent
He's like a philosopher who says, I know it's possible in
practice. Now I'd like to know whether it's possible in
principle.
  --- Daniel Dennett, on Michael Behe

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-09 Thread LizR
On 10 July 2014 15:35, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 7/9/2014 7:08 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 10 July 2014 13:48, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


  It proves that Bruno's MGA doesn't dispense with physics.  When
 instantiating consciousness it's necessary to either allow the
 consciousness to act within our physical world or to provide another
 computed world within which it can act.


  Or provide inputs which give the appearance of a world, yes. Otherwise
 you have a consciousness that is in sensory isolation (although it could
 still dream).


 In either case the physics is necessary to the consciousness - to avoid
 the problem of the rock that computes everything.


  The rock wouldn't compute *everything*, not being a UD with infinite
 time, but it might compute some things. I'm not sure why this is a problem,
 however. Can you explain why?

 It's a problem because most of the argument about comp depends on
 intuititions and reductios: You must believe in arithmetic (every body
 does, it's absurd not to) therefore you believe in the existence of the UD
 because it's just a number and relations between numbers.  But when an
 argument implies that I should believe in X because the contrary is absurd
 and then I realize that the argument also implies Y which I find absurd it
 makes the argument less convincing.

 That seems fair enough. However I'm still not sure why a rock can compute
everything, or why that is a consequence of comp (but I assume not a
consequence of normal physics, or there wouldn't be any point in mentioning
it) ?

  I don't think Bruon actually claims to get rid of physics anyway, it
 just sounds that way sometimes when he's being short, but then it's taken
 as a refutation of materialism.


  I'm not sure about physics. I think the point of the MGA is that matter
 isn't primary? (As I've already mentioned, I'm not 100% au fait with the
 MGA.)

 It tries to show that by leading you to accept a scenario in which there
 is no physical action but which you believe is computing consciousness (of
 a dream).


So the dream is consciousness, by hypothesis a computation, which is given
the same inputs that it received on a previous run - am I right so far?
But why is there no physical action if the inputs are replicated?  Surely
something has to do the playback?

  I take it as an argument for monism; physics is necessary for
 consciousness


  I'm not sure what this means. Comp assumes that computation is necessary
 for consciousness, and in practice, for us to carry out computation
 requires physics to support it,

 That's the point of Bruno's argument, physics is not necessary to support
 it - rather computation supports physics AND consciousness.


Unfortunately I still don't quite get how you've proved that the MGA
doesn't dispense with physics. (That may be due to me being rather vague on
the MGA of course.)

   of course - but that doesn't mean it's *necessary* for computation.
 Computation might be able to exist in Numberland, or so I'm told.


 (it's just not necessary that physics be fundamental, whatever that
 means).


  It means it doesn't emerge from anything else.

 But what is it?  I think physics is just whatever we intersubjectively
 agree on (aka objective).


I don't think physics (or anything else) can be any more than what we agree
on, can it? The thing that makes physics different from other
intersubjective agreements is that it's about stuff that kicks back, which
(more or less) forces us - or at least physicists - to agree on a large
range of things, whether they want to or not, and confines disagreement to
the Nth decimal point and the murky waters of what it all actually means.


 That's why physics went from inherent tendencies in substances
 (Aristotle) to particles (Laplace) to fields (Maxwell) to Hilbert space
 (Dirac) to the MUH (Tegmark).


That's scientific progress for you. (I'm reliably informed it goes
boink!) We find out stuff, guess a reason for it, check that our reason
works to the limits of accuracy of our experiments, repeat. It would be a
miracle if we'd hit on the right explanation the first time around. I don't
see any particular problem with this (or even a fieldlike or Hilbert spacey
problem) ... do you?


 So can we agree on something being fundamental without it being physics?


Well, as mentioned already *ad nauseum*, maths (or simple arithmetic) seems
like a good candidate. Everyone can agree that 17 is prime.

 But if physics isn't primary then there's no argument anyway, because as
 far as I can tell comp seems quite happy with non-primary physics.

 Bruno's happy along as long as there's theology.


Sorry but THAT looks suspiciously like another facetious comment which
carefully avoids the point that was being made. Since the point was one
that kicked away the props from everything you'd said previously, I can see
why you'd want to do that, but - bad Brent. Must do better.

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