Re: The free will function

2012-02-21 Thread 1Z


On Feb 20, 7:43 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 20 Feb 2012, at 14:45, Craig Weinberg wrote:


  How do you know? Comp says we can't know whether we are artificial
  simulation or not.

 I am sorry, but I think this is false. I would say that comp says that
 we are in infinitely many simulations at once, from a third person
 point of view on the first person points of view. This leads to
 verifiable (empirically) constraints.

 With comp we are in a complex matrix whose existence is deducible
 from the existence of universal numbers, whose existence is deducible
 from numbers and their two fist basic simple laws of + and *.

Of course, Platonism/AR cannot be deduced mathematically: it is
ontology.


  Both. What would be the meaning of any form of computationalism
  without the notion of computational realism?

 Peter alludes to the fact that most materialist ignores the
 incompatibility between comp and weak materialism, including
 physicalism.

There is no such incompatibility. It is mutual redundancy, not  mutual
contradiction. What BM calls incompatibility actually
hinges on Occams Razor, and O's R cuts both ways: AR/Platonism is
redundant
given materialism.


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Re: The free will function

2012-02-21 Thread 1Z



On Feb 20, 6:37 pm, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Feb 20, 10:32 am, acw a...@lavabit.com wrote:

  On 2/20/2012 13:45, Craig Weinberg wrote: On Feb 19, 11:57 pm, 
  1Zpeterdjo...@yahoo.com  wrote:
   On Feb 20, 4:41 am, Craig Weinbergwhatsons...@gmail.com  wrote:
  ..
   Believable falsehoods are falsehoods and convincing illusions
   still aren't reality

   It doesn't matter if they believe in the simulation or not, the belief
   itself is only possible because of the particular reality generated by
   the program. Comp precludes the possibility of contacting any truer
   reality than the simulation.

  If those observers are generally intelligent and capable of
  Turing-equivalent computation, they might theorize about many things,
  true or not. Just like we do, and just like we can't know if we're right.

 Right, but true = a true reflection of the simulation.

No. True = true of unsimulated reality.

 If I make a
 simulation where I regularly stop the program and make miraculous
 changes, then the most intelligent observers might rightly conclude
 that there is an omnipotent entity

They can only wrongly conclude that since you are not omnipotent.

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Re: The free will function

2012-02-21 Thread 1Z


On Feb 20, 5:38 pm, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Sun, Feb 19, 2012 at 11:52 AM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.comwrote:

  There could an infinite number of the Many Worlds with all kinds of Gods.

 But then why did you say There is something that prevents infinite
 nonsense universes? How did you find this out, did you somehow check on
 every one of those infinite number of Many Worlds to see?

  John K Clark

Good question. CW doesn't seem to be subject to the same epistemic
contraints
as the rest of us. Maybe he IS God!

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Re: The free will function

2012-02-21 Thread 1Z


On Feb 20, 1:45 pm, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Feb 19, 11:57 pm, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

  On Feb 20, 4:41 am, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:


I don;t have to agree that essentiallytechnological
control means god or supernaural

   You don't have to agree, but if you are being honest you would have to
   admit that it's irrational. If I can stop your universe, make changes
   to your mind, your memory, your environment, the laws of your universe
   and then start it back up, how does that not make me your God?

  You are natural.

 How do you know? Comp says we can't know whether we are artificial
 simulation or not.

That doens't make you supernatural.

 You can fire a horse through the air usign a giant
  catapuilt, but I don't have to agree it's Pegasus.

 No but you have to agree that it is possible to believe that it is a
 Pegasus

The ability to beieve falsehoods has no interesting implications.

and that is all that is required.


 But we are natural so they would be wrong.

 They wouldn't and couldn't know they were wrong though.

So? Is appearance reality?

   That is what comp says.

  Bruno;s theory or the Computational Theory of Mind.

 Both.

Nonsense. CTM is a scientific theory.

What would be the meaning of any form of computationalism
 without the notion of computational realism?

What do you mean by computational realism?

  The simulation is reality as far as the
   simulatees are concerned.

  And if they are wrong, it still isn't the
  real reality.

 It doesn't matter if they are right or wrong, the simulation is still
 their reality.

their reality=appearance=/= reality.

 Pac Man could believe that he is Bugs Bunny but the
 possibility of that belief is generated by the simulation logic behind
 Pac Man. For Pac Man, the Pac Man game is the real reality. That is
 what comp is all about - proving that our experience of the universe
 is indistinguishable from a simulation of that same experience.

But it it is in reality simulated, it is in reality simulated,
and our reality is delusional.

  You seem to be arguing
  appearance=reality on the premise that
  opinion=truth.

 Not at all. I think that you are injecting that because you need me to
 be wrong. Comp implies that appearance is not the whole reality, but
 the possibility of an appearance arises from the whole reality, which
 is in fact a logical program.

That is uncontentious. It is also not what you are
saying elsewhere.

   Appearances may not reflect the truest level
   of the simulation, but appearances all reflect some believable
   representation of the simulation's function.

  Believable falsehoods are falsehoods and convincing illusions
  still aren't reality

 It doesn't matter if they believe in the simulation or not, the belief
 itself is only possible because of the particular reality generated by
 the program. Comp precludes the possibility of contacting any truer
 reality than the simulation.


Can't a red pill be programmed in?


  If you know yourself to be natural, you cannot regard
  your creations as supernatural. The denizens of a sim
  might regard their programmer as God, but he knows better.

 Our Gods may know better too. What I am saying is that Comp + MWI +
 Anthropic principle guarantees an infinite number of universes in
 which some entity can program machines to worship them *correctly* as
 *their* Gods.

ANd I am saying that is fallacious. CTM, MWI and AP are all
sceintific princples with no room for the supernatural. SInce gods
are supernatural by definition, no belief in a god arising in such
circumsntances is *correct*, be it every so persuasive.

Did  say those mushrooms were nutiritios? Silly me, i mean
poisonous.

   Poisonous is a term with a more literal meaning. 'Natural' has no
   place in MWI, comp, or the anthropic principle. I'm surprised that you
   would use it. I thought most people here were on board with comp's
   view that silicon machines could be no less natural as conscious
   agents than living organisms.

  What we are arguing about is the supernatural.

 No. What you are arguing about is the supernatural. What I am arguing
 about are gods

Gods are supernatural by definition.

 (entities with absolute superiority or omnipotence over
 the subordinate entities who inhabit the simulations they create) and
 their inevitability in MWI.

That's superbeings, not gods.



  You
  do not rescue the supernatural by rendering the natural
  meaningless.

 Why not?

Because, if the one is meaningless, so is the other.

 Besides, as I keep saying, I am not trying to rescue the
 supernatural, I am pointing out that God is not supernatural at all,
 it is an accurate description of the relationship between the
 programmer and the programmed.

Gods are superntarual by definition. You can  no more
provide evidecne of a natural god than of a married bachelor.


I don't know. Who?

   You.

  No, you have 

Re: The free will function

2012-02-21 Thread 1Z


On Feb 20, 8:52 pm, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
 2012/2/20 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com

 He said and I quote and emphasis:  Now comp makes **almost all** (not any)
 UMs' physics identical. 



Note that there will still be an infinite variety of HP/WR physics
even
if it is a small subset of the whole.

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Re: The free will function

2012-02-21 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2012/2/21 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com



 On Feb 20, 8:52 pm, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
  2012/2/20 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com

  He said and I quote and emphasis:  Now comp makes **almost all** (not
 any)
  UMs' physics identical. 
 


 Note that there will still be an infinite variety of HP/WR physics
 even
 if it is a small subset of the whole.


Sure but it must be of low measure... and this is compatible with QM.

Quentin


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Re: The free will function

2012-02-21 Thread Stephen P. King

On 2/21/2012 5:41 AM, 1Z wrote:


On Feb 20, 1:45 pm, Craig Weinbergwhatsons...@gmail.com  wrote:

On Feb 19, 11:57 pm, 1Zpeterdjo...@yahoo.com  wrote:

On Feb 20, 4:41 am, Craig Weinbergwhatsons...@gmail.com  wrote:

I don;t have to agree that essentiallytechnological
control means god or supernaural

You don't have to agree, but if you are being honest you would have to
admit that it's irrational. If I can stop your universe, make changes
to your mind, your memory, your environment, the laws of your universe
and then start it back up, how does that not make me your God?

You are natural.

How do you know? Comp says we can't know whether we are artificial
simulation or not.

That doens't make you supernatural.


  Hi Craig,

I think that you are missing a point here. COMP is showing us how 
there is no inherent bias on what we can believe ourselves to be, thus 
it is throwing open the options. This is a good with with regards to 
Free Will for without the multiplicity of options or alternatives there 
is no choice. We just would be one thing and there would be no debate on 
free will.





You can fire a horse through the air usign a giant
catapuilt, but I don't have to agree it's Pegasus.

No but you have to agree that it is possible to believe that it is a
Pegasus

The ability to beieve falsehoods has no interesting implications.


False, Semantics is said to only be possible because we can lie, 
i.e. if we cannot lie then we cannot tell truths either. See Umberto 
Echo's Semiotics Theory 
http://books.google.com/books?id=RaFrIAAJq=lie#search_anchor pg. 7.





and that is all that is required.



But we are natural so they would be wrong.
They wouldn't and couldn't know they were wrong though.

So? Is appearance reality?

That is what comp says.

Bruno;s theory or the Computational Theory of Mind.

Both.

Nonsense. CTM is a scientific theory.


It is scientific if it is falsifiable. Is it?




What would be the meaning of any form of computationalism
without the notion of computational realism?

What do you mean by computational realism?


The belief that what is real is what is computable or expressible 
with enumerable recursive functions.





The simulation is reality as far as the
simulatees are concerned.

And if they are wrong, it still isn't the
real reality.

It doesn't matter if they are right or wrong, the simulation is still
their reality.

their reality=appearance=/= reality.


This is really a debate about Realism, no?





Pac Man could believe that he is Bugs Bunny but the
possibility of that belief is generated by the simulation logic behind
Pac Man. For Pac Man, the Pac Man game is the real reality. That is
what comp is all about - proving that our experience of the universe
is indistinguishable from a simulation of that same experience.

But it it is in reality simulated, it is in reality simulated,
and our reality is delusional.


It is delusion only if there are alternative realities against 
which we can judge the validity of such statements as what I am 
experiencing at this moment is not real.





You seem to be arguing
appearance=reality on the premise that
opinion=truth.

Not at all. I think that you are injecting that because you need me to
be wrong. Comp implies that appearance is not the whole reality, but
the possibility of an appearance arises from the whole reality, which
is in fact a logical program.

That is uncontentious. It is also not what you are
saying elsewhere.


Appearances may not reflect the truest level
of the simulation, but appearances all reflect some believable
representation of the simulation's function.

Believable falsehoods are falsehoods and convincing illusions
still aren't reality

It doesn't matter if they believe in the simulation or not, the belief
itself is only possible because of the particular reality generated by
the program. Comp precludes the possibility of contacting any truer
reality than the simulation.


Can't a red pill be programmed in?


No, as that would render the entire edifice of alternatives 
impossible and thus not even conceivable.






If you know yourself to be natural, you cannot regard
your creations as supernatural. The denizens of a sim
might regard their programmer as God, but he knows better.

Our Gods may know better too. What I am saying is that Comp + MWI +
Anthropic principle guarantees an infinite number of universes in
which some entity can program machines to worship them *correctly* as
*their* Gods.

ANd I am saying that is fallacious. CTM, MWI and AP are all
sceintific princples with no room for the supernatural. SInce gods
are supernatural by definition, no belief in a god arising in such
circumsntances is *correct*, be it every so persuasive.


Would A.C. Clarck's dictum have an answer to this all sufficiently 
advanced technology appears to be magic?





Did  say those mushrooms were nutiritios? Silly me, i mean
poisonous.

Poisonous is a term with a more literal 

Re: The free will function

2012-02-21 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 20 Feb 2012, at 17:02, 1Z wrote:




On Feb 20, 3:32 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 20 Feb 2012, at 09:59, 1Z wrote:












On Feb 20, 6:52 am, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 20 Feb 2012, at 05:20, 1Z wrote:



On Feb 20, 4:10 am, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

On Feb 19, 10:57 pm, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
Comp says that any UM's
experience is indistinguishable from primitive physics, right?



Computaionalism or Bruno's comp?



We have already discussed this. Comp, as I use it, is a much weaker
hypothesis than most forms of CTM,






?




given that comp allows the
substitution level to be arbitrarily low, and is based on the  
notion

of generalized brain. So comp's logical consequences are
automatically
lifted on all forms of CTM, which presuppose some high subst.  
level.



Now comp makes almost all (not any) UMs' physics identical.



That is not a weak assumption. In CTM, there is just physics, not
one physics for each UTM,


?
That's exactly what I am saying above.



No it's the opposite. One global physics is a weaker, simpler ontology
than multiple solipsistic physicses.


I show that the CTM theory entais that physics is the same for all  
Löbian entity (machine or not), so that we canb derive physics from  
machine's introspection. The general shape is given by a relative sum  
on all computations. It depends for each machine to the competition  
between infinities of machines. Negative amplitude of probability  
comes from the formula p-[]p satisfied by the sigma_1 arithmetical  
sentences (that is the UD). Without this I would have already conclude  
that comp and/or the classical theory of knowledge is refuted.









and
there is a physical hardware platform at level 0.


A level 0 that nobody has ever seen, nor even defined or use in
physics.


Occam;s razor says we should assume what we see is level 0.


Occam razor says that we must not assume ontologicaly what we can  
explain phenomenologically.

That why QM + Occam = MWI = QM without collapse.
With CTM, we have that the theory of everything is arithmetic, for it  
explains why and how numbers, relatively to other numbers develop  
stable and persistent beliefs and knowledge about quanta and qualia.







And which comp shows to be the bullet preventing progress in
fundamental cognitive science.





Computationalism is just epistemologically incompatible with
materialism (weak materialism).



According to a string of controversial arguments.


You have already acknowledge that there is no error in UDA1-7,


I never said anything of the kind.


I asked you, after a summing up of the argument, and we got into a  
long conversation on step 8 only. I debunked earlier critics of the  
step 0 (the definition of comp) because you asserted it was platonist,  
when I insist that it is only realist on arithmetic, and this means  
that we just agree with the validity of (A V ~A) for arithmetical  
sentences.







and
when I asked you about the UDA-8 (MGA), you did not mention an error,
but make a confession of faith in Primitive Matter instead. Then I
asked you to define it, and I am still waiting for a reply making  
sense.



Not according
to computationalists, 99% of whom have have never questioned  
computers

and brains are
made of matter.


Give me definition and proof. Physicists acknowledge the fuzziness of
the notion of matter, even with the MWI, even more with any candidate
for marrying GR and QM.


Not being able to define matter and disbelieving in it are two
very different issues.


I am OK with this. For example consciousness, reality, truth, etc. are  
all concept which are intuitively not definable, and have been proved  
to be not definable in the comp (meta) theory, and in the machines'  
discourse (that is formally).
But primitive matter is different. Not only we cannot define it, but  
we cannot experiment with it, we cannot experience it, nor find any  
use of the notion in physics, nor even mention of it. It is only a  
vague everyday-like extrapolation from our animal experience. In  
occident, science is born from taking some distance from such kind of  
idea.
Given more than 2000 years of not being able to solve the mind body  
problem, we should not take it for granted, at the least.







It is true that almost all computationalist philosophers believe in
matter, but they are unaware of both computer science and of the UDA
reasoning.


Lucky them. The UDA argument rests on Platonism.


Oh no! You are coming back with this?
I already answer this by asking you to prove this. To show me where in  
the paper I assume Platonism. The Platonism comes from the conclusion.
I use only the minimal amount of arithmetical realism to give sense to  
Church thesis. Nothing else.





Non Patonists
are fully entitled to disregard it. Others might wish to treat it
as a reductio of Platonism.


This is philosophical nonsense.
COMP + the usual occam used in 

Re: The free will function

2012-02-21 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 21 Feb 2012, at 14:03, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2012/2/21 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com


On Feb 20, 8:52 pm, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
 2012/2/20 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com

 He said and I quote and emphasis:  Now comp makes **almost all**  
(not any)

 UMs' physics identical. 



Note that there will still be an infinite variety of HP/WR physics
even
if it is a small subset of the whole.


Sure but it must be of low measure... and this is compatible with QM.


Yes. With QM without collapse, there are also infinite varieties of HP/ 
WR first person (even plural) realities. But they are relatively rare,  
and when plural, they are very unstable. The probability to get there  
is something like 1/big number, and the probability to stay there is  
(1/bib number)^big number.


--Why do you build each week a lottery ticket, given that you have  
never won?
--Oh, I continue to play *every week* because my goal is to win ten  
times in a row ...

:)

Bruno





Quentin

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Re: COMP theology

2012-02-21 Thread John Clark
On Sun, Feb 19, 2012  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 it is important to conceive that comp might be false.

Why? If it's false I don't see how there could be a way to prove it false,
and as we can not function unless we assume it's true it would seem
pointless to worry about it. I mean it's not as if there were not other
important things to think about.

  Intelligent behavior and consciousness might be related, but should not
 be equated, because those are different things.

Yes they are different things. And you can have consciousness without
intelligent behavior but you can't have intelligent behavior without
consciousness; I can't prove that last part but I could not function if I
didn't believe it as strongly as I believe anything.

  it is generally accepted that we are conscious during the dreams.

But the REM dream state occurs  for only about 20% of the total time you
sleep.

  The same for some comatose state.

As I said you can be conscious even when no intelligent behavior is
observed, but even so it is generally accepted that cadavers are not
conscious.

  That shows that consciousness can be independent of macro-behavior

Yes, but if that macro-behavior is intelligent then even without proof I
don't believe and can not believe the reverse is true.

  Actually I argue that comp, when taken seriously enough, has to reduce
 physics to the 'theology of numbers', like biochemistry can be said to have
 been reduced to quantum mechanics.

I think I know what you mean but I don't see what the word theology adds
to the above, all it does is muddy the waters and give respect to something
that does not deserve it.

  Beyond arithmetic you can already doubt.

Are you sure?

  We can point to many non computable real number, called non computable
 function in modern computability theory. [...] There is the famous
 Chaitin number, etc.

Chaitin proved that such a number, now called Omega or Chaitin's constant
exists, and it is greater than 0 but less than 1 but he could be no more
specific than that; he could not point to it but he could at least prove
that nobody could ever do better, nobody else would ever be able to point
to it either.

What he actually did is show that if by some magical power you knew what
Omega's value is you could use that information to determine the truth or
falsehood of every mathematical statement, and that would contradict the
proofs of Godel and Turing, thus Chaitin proved such magical powers do not
exist and nobody will ever know what the numeric value of Chaitin's
constant is.

  non-computable numbers were only discovered by Turing in the 1930's



  Emil Post discovered them in 1922. Others were close.

Alonzo Church discovered them independently about the same time as Turing
but as far as I know Emil Post's work in the early 1920's involved
propositional logic, a system not powerful enough to perform arithmetic.

  Comp is an hypothesis concerning consciousness. Why should we must to
 assume it.

Because it's important but nobody will ever be able to prove or disprove it
and most of all because nobody can function if they thought they were the
only conscious being in the universe.

  Atheist and materialist often use comp (even a stronger version) like if
 it solves the mind-body problem.

Atheist and materialist are under no obligation to solve this problem
because their competition, Bible thumpers, can't solve it either. And what
exactly is this mind body problem anyway, it has never been entirely clear
to me.

  comp can only help to formulate the problem.

In a nutshell, comp seems to be incompatible with an already weak form of
materialism (the belief in an ontological primitive matter).

It is far from clear that there is even a problem to be solved, if
consciousness is really fundamental, and most think it is, then after you
say that consciousness is the way data feels like when it is being
processed then there is simply nothing more to be said on the subject of
consciousness. If you can explain something that is fundamental then it
can't be fundamental, the things in your explanation are.

  I argue that comp reduces the mind-body problem into a
 appearance-of-body problem in arithmetic. In a nutshell, comp seems to be
 incompatible with an already weak form of materialism (the belief in an
 ontological primitive matter).



Maybe that's because consciousness is a adjective not a noun and has
nothing to do with what matter is but has to do with the way matter
behaves, theoretically if something other than matter behaved that way it
would be conscious too.

  Even for the layman, there is a general belief that modern science has
 solved everything, when, in my opinion, it has not

Obviously I agree, science has done a lot but it hasn't solved everything,
but the difference is that religion hasn't solved anything.

  When you say: If God is omnipotent he could certainly make his
 existence obvious to even the stupidest most unobservant person if he
 

UD* and consciousness

2012-02-21 Thread Terren Suydam
Bruno and others,

Here's a thought experiment that for me casts doubt on the notion that
consciousness requires 1p indeterminacy.

Imagine that we have scanned my friend Mary so that we have a complete
functional description of her brain (down to some substitution level
that we are betting on). We run the scan in a simulated classical
physics. The simulation is completely closed, which is to say,
deterministic. In other words, we can run the simulation a million
times for a million years each time, and the state of all them will be
identical. Now, when we run the simulation, we can ask her (within the
context of the simulation) Are you conscious, Mary?  Are you aware of
your thoughts? She replies yes.

Next, we tweak the simulation in the following way. We plug in a
source of quantum randomness (random numbers from a quantum random
number generator) into a simulated water fountain. Now, the simulation
is no longer deterministic. A million runs of the simulation will
result in a million different computational states after a million
years. We ask the same questions of Mary and she replies yes.

In the deterministic scenario, Mary's computational state is traced an
infinite number of times in the UD*, but only because of the infinite
number of ways a particular computational state can be instantiated in
the UD* (different levels, UD implementing other UDs recursively,
iteration along the reals, etc). It's a stretch however to say that
there is 1p indeterminacy, because her computational state as
implemented in the simulation is deterministic.

In the second scenario, her computational state is traced in the UD*
and it is clear there is 1p indeterminacy, as the splitting entailed
by the quantum number generator brings Mary along, so to speak.

So if Mary is not conscious in the deterministic scenario, she is a
zombie. The only way to be consistent with this conclusion is to
insist that the substitution level must be at the quantum level.

If OTOH she is conscious, then consciousness does not require 1p indeterminacy.

Terren

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Re: The free will function

2012-02-21 Thread meekerdb

On 2/21/2012 5:43 AM, Stephen P. King wrote:


I think that you are missing a point here. COMP is showing us how there is no 
inherent bias on what we can believe ourselves to be, thus it is throwing open the 
options. This is a good with with regards to Free Will for without the multiplicity of 
options or alternatives there is no choice.


Options implies one-or-the-other.  All the theories based on COMP and MWI assume there is 
no choice and everything happens.


Brent

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Re: COMP theology

2012-02-21 Thread 1Z


On Feb 21, 4:16 pm, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Sun, Feb 19, 2012  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  it is important to conceive that comp might be false.

 Why? If it's false I don't see how there could be a way to prove it false,

Huh? Hardly anything is exactly computer-emulable. Flight
simulators don't fly. The Computational Theory of X
has been disproved (or never even entertained) for many values of X

 and as we can not function unless we assume it's true

WHT??? How did we function before the 20th century???



   Comp is an hypothesis concerning consciousness. Why should we must to
  assume it.

 Because it's important but nobody will ever be able to prove or disprove it
 and most of all because nobody can function if they thought they were the
 only conscious being in the universe.

What the hell has solipsism got to do with CTM?



   I argue that comp reduces the mind-body problem into a
  appearance-of-body problem in arithmetic. In a nutshell, comp seems to be
  incompatible with an already weak form of materialism (the belief in an
  ontological primitive matter).

 Maybe that's because consciousness is a adjective not a noun

It isn;t

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Re: The free will function

2012-02-21 Thread meekerdb

On 2/21/2012 7:38 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Negative amplitude of probability comes from the formula p-[]p satisfied by the 
sigma_1 arithmetical sentences (that is the UD).


How does that work?

Brent

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Re: COMP theology

2012-02-21 Thread meekerdb

On 2/21/2012 8:16 AM, John Clark wrote:


 it is important to conceive that comp might be false. 

Why? If it's false I don't see how there could be a way to prove it false, and as we can 
not function unless we assume it's true it would seem pointless to worry about it. I 
mean it's not as if there were not other important things to think about.




I have the impression that John and Bruno are using two different meanings of comp.  
Maybe they could explicate.


Brent

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Re: COMP theology

2012-02-21 Thread meekerdb

On 2/21/2012 8:16 AM, John Clark wrote:
Yes they are different things. And you can have consciousness without intelligent 
behavior but you can't have intelligent behavior without consciousness; I can't prove 
that last part but I could not function if I didn't believe it as strongly as I believe 
anything. 


Why not?  I think it pretty likely too.  But if, for example Watson behaved intelligently 
I'm not sure I would have to believe it's conscious, at least not in a human way.  A robot 
could behave intelligently but with different values (e.g. no personal ego, think of The 
Borg) such that I would think its consciousness must be very different.


Brent

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Re: UD* and consciousness

2012-02-21 Thread meekerdb

On 2/21/2012 8:32 AM, Terren Suydam wrote:

Bruno and others,

Here's a thought experiment that for me casts doubt on the notion that
consciousness requires 1p indeterminacy.

Imagine that we have scanned my friend Mary so that we have a complete
functional description of her brain (down to some substitution level
that we are betting on). We run the scan in a simulated classical
physics. The simulation is completely closed, which is to say,
deterministic. In other words, we can run the simulation a million
times for a million years each time, and the state of all them will be
identical. Now, when we run the simulation, we can ask her (within the
context of the simulation) Are you conscious, Mary?  Are you aware of
your thoughts? She replies yes.

Next, we tweak the simulation in the following way. We plug in a
source of quantum randomness (random numbers from a quantum random
number generator) into a simulated water fountain. Now, the simulation
is no longer deterministic. A million runs of the simulation will
result in a million different computational states after a million
years. We ask the same questions of Mary and she replies yes.

In the deterministic scenario, Mary's computational state is traced an
infinite number of times in the UD*, but only because of the infinite
number of ways a particular computational state can be instantiated in
the UD* (different levels, UD implementing other UDs recursively,
iteration along the reals, etc). It's a stretch however to say that
there is 1p indeterminacy, because her computational state as
implemented in the simulation is deterministic.

In the second scenario, her computational state is traced in the UD*
and it is clear there is 1p indeterminacy, as the splitting entailed
by the quantum number generator brings Mary along, so to speak.

So if Mary is not conscious in the deterministic scenario, she is a
zombie. The only way to be consistent with this conclusion is to
insist that the substitution level must be at the quantum level.

If OTOH she is conscious, then consciousness does not require 1p indeterminacy.


But is it really either-or?  Isn't it likely there are different kinds and degrees of 
consciousness.  I'm not clear on what Bruno's theory says about this.  On the one hand he 
says all Lobian machines are (equally?) conscious, but then he says it depends on the 
program they are executing.


Brent

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Re: The free will function

2012-02-21 Thread Stephen P. King

On 2/21/2012 10:38 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 20 Feb 2012, at 17:02, 1Z wrote:




On Feb 20, 3:32 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 20 Feb 2012, at 09:59, 1Z wrote:












On Feb 20, 6:52 am, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 20 Feb 2012, at 05:20, 1Z wrote:



On Feb 20, 4:10 am, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

On Feb 19, 10:57 pm, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
Comp says that any UM's
experience is indistinguishable from primitive physics, right?



Computaionalism or Bruno's comp?



We have already discussed this. Comp, as I use it, is a much weaker
hypothesis than most forms of CTM,






?




given that comp allows the
substitution level to be arbitrarily low, and is based on the notion
of generalized brain. So comp's logical consequences are
automatically
lifted on all forms of CTM, which presuppose some high subst. level.



Now comp makes almost all (not any) UMs' physics identical.



That is not a weak assumption. In CTM, there is just physics, not
one physics for each UTM,


?
That's exactly what I am saying above.



No it's the opposite. One global physics is a weaker, simpler ontology
than multiple solipsistic physicses.


I show that the CTM theory entais that physics is the same for all 
Löbian entity (machine or not), so that we canb derive physics from 
machine's introspection. The general shape is given by a relative sum 
on all computations. It depends for each machine to the competition 
between infinities of machines. Negative amplitude of probability 
comes from the formula p-[]p satisfied by the sigma_1 arithmetical 
sentences (that is the UD). Without this I would have already conclude 
that comp and/or the classical theory of knowledge is refuted.




Does this introspection manifest all possible means of generating 
the appearance of other minds?







and
there is a physical hardware platform at level 0.


A level 0 that nobody has ever seen, nor even defined or use in
physics.


Occam;s razor says we should assume what we see is level 0.


Occam razor says that we must not assume ontologicaly what we can 
explain phenomenologically.

That why QM + Occam = MWI = QM without collapse.
With CTM, we have that the theory of everything is arithmetic, for it 
explains why and how numbers, relatively to other numbers develop 
stable and persistent beliefs and knowledge about quanta and qualia.







And which comp shows to be the bullet preventing progress in
fundamental cognitive science.





Computationalism is just epistemologically incompatible with
materialism (weak materialism).



According to a string of controversial arguments.


You have already acknowledge that there is no error in UDA1-7,


I never said anything of the kind.


I asked you, after a summing up of the argument, and we got into a 
long conversation on step 8 only. I debunked earlier critics of the 
step 0 (the definition of comp) because you asserted it was platonist, 
when I insist that it is only realist on arithmetic, and this means 
that we just agree with the validity of (A V ~A) for arithmetical 
sentences.







and
when I asked you about the UDA-8 (MGA), you did not mention an error,
but make a confession of faith in Primitive Matter instead. Then I
asked you to define it, and I am still waiting for a reply making 
sense.



Not according
to computationalists, 99% of whom have have never questioned computers
and brains are
made of matter.


Give me definition and proof. Physicists acknowledge the fuzziness of
the notion of matter, even with the MWI, even more with any candidate
for marrying GR and QM.


Not being able to define matter and disbelieving in it are two
very different issues.


I am OK with this. For example consciousness, reality, truth, etc. are 
all concept which are intuitively not definable, and have been proved 
to be not definable in the comp (meta) theory, and in the machines' 
discourse (that is formally).
But primitive matter is different. Not only we cannot define it, but 
we cannot experiment with it, we cannot experience it, nor find any 
use of the notion in physics, nor even mention of it. It is only a 
vague everyday-like extrapolation from our animal experience. In 
occident, science is born from taking some distance from such kind of 
idea.
Given more than 2000 years of not being able to solve the mind body 
problem, we should not take it for granted, at the least.







It is true that almost all computationalist philosophers believe in
matter, but they are unaware of both computer science and of the UDA
reasoning.


Lucky them. The UDA argument rests on Platonism.


Oh no! You are coming back with this?
I already answer this by asking you to prove this. To show me where in 
the paper I assume Platonism. The Platonism comes from the conclusion.
I use only the minimal amount of arithmetical realism to give sense to 
Church thesis. Nothing else.





Non Patonists
are fully entitled to disregard it. Others 

Re: The free will function

2012-02-21 Thread Stephen P. King

On 2/21/2012 11:45 AM, meekerdb wrote:

On 2/21/2012 5:43 AM, Stephen P. King wrote:


I think that you are missing a point here. COMP is showing us how 
there is no inherent bias on what we can believe ourselves to be, 
thus it is throwing open the options. This is a good with with 
regards to Free Will for without the multiplicity of options or 
alternatives there is no choice.


Options implies one-or-the-other.  All the theories based on COMP and 
MWI assume there is no choice and everything happens.


Brent


Hi Brent,

Your assertion is true but irrelevant because the agency aspect of 
choice does not span all of the happenings simultaneously. We have a 
notion of free will because we cannot be conscious of all the superposed 
possibilities. The point is that we can conveive multiple possibility 
from which we can imagine making a choice. Ben Goertzel's paper, found 
here 
http://www.google.com/url?sa=trct=jq=%22hyperset+models+of+self%2C+Will+and+Reflective+consciousness%22source=webcd=1ved=0CCEQFjAAurl=http%3A%2F%2Fgoertzel.org%2Fconsciousness%2Fconsciousness_paper.pdfei=t-NDT4m_O5CUtwft1tyaBQusg=AFQjCNGPbt16jLOtezl_8Cg0vfBxcOYdhwcad=rja, 
explains this quite well IMHO.


Onward!

Stephen

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Re: COMP theology

2012-02-21 Thread Stephen P. King

On 2/21/2012 11:53 AM, 1Z wrote:


On Feb 21, 4:16 pm, John Clarkjohnkcl...@gmail.com  wrote:

On Sun, Feb 19, 2012  Bruno Marchalmarc...@ulb.ac.be  wrote:


it is important to conceive that comp might be false.

Why? If it's false I don't see how there could be a way to prove it false,

Huh? Hardly anything is exactly computer-emulable. Flight
simulators don't fly. The Computational Theory of X
has been disproved (or never even entertained) for many values of X


and as we can not function unless we assume it's true

WHT??? How did we function before the 20th century???




Comp is an hypothesis concerning consciousness. Why should we must to

assume it.

Because it's important but nobody will ever be able to prove or disprove it
and most of all because nobody can function if they thought they were the
only conscious being in the universe.

What the hell has solipsism got to do with CTM?


What Craig wrote is not solipsism.




I argue that comp reduces the mind-body problem into a

appearance-of-body problem in arithmetic. In a nutshell, comp seems to be
incompatible with an already weak form of materialism (the belief in an
ontological primitive matter).

Maybe that's because consciousness is a adjective not a noun

It isn;t



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A cosmologist laments his fate

2012-02-21 Thread David Nyman
http://harpers.org/archive/2011/12/0083720 

Excerpted from the above article on multiverse theories:
“The reason I went into theoretical physics,” Guth tells me, “is that I 
liked the idea that we could understand everything—i.e., the universe—in 
terms of mathematics and logic.” He gives a bitter laugh. We have been 
talking about the multiverse. 

Perhaps he should have a word with Bruno?

David

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Re: COMP theology

2012-02-21 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 21 Feb 2012, at 17:16, John Clark wrote:


On Sun, Feb 19, 2012  Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 it is important to conceive that comp might be false.
Why? If it's false I don't see how there could be a way to prove it  
false,




You have to study UDA a little bit perhaps. Comp makes physics a  
branch of arithmetic. I provide a constructive proof, (accepting the  
most admitted classical theory of knowledge). This makes comp  
refutable. Just compare the comp-physics and the inferred physics.
I want to be short and non technical, the details are a bit more  
subtle, for example, we might also conclude that we are in a relative  
simulation, if the difference between comp-physics and empiric-physics  
belongs to a certain type.




and as we can not function unless we assume it's true it would seem  
pointless to worry about it.


Here I really do not understand what you say. Why would the falsity of  
comp prevent us to function. I know some people who disbelieve in  
comp, they do function. Comp is a theory. We cannot prove it to be  
true (like any applied theory), but we might refute it one day (like  
any serious theory).




I mean it's not as if there were not other important things to think  
about.


I think it is crucially important for the consequence. Comp eventually  
teach a respect for machine, which seems to be rather sleepy for  
humans (like with prohibition, NDAA bill, etc.).


Comp also illustrates that physicalism might be false, and that  
rationalism might come back to the original quite different conception  
conceived by the Platonist and the neo-platonists, instead of the  
primary matter dogma common to Chirstians and Atheists (and the non  
Sufi Muslim, or non Cabbala judaism).




 Intelligent behavior and consciousness might be related, but  
should not be equated, because those are different things.


Yes they are different things. And you can have consciousness  
without intelligent behavior but you can't have intelligent behavior  
without consciousness;


That is not obvious, for me. Perhaps. It depends on possible  
(approximation of) definition of intelligence, and consciousness.




I can't prove that last part but I could not function if I didn't  
believe it as strongly as I believe anything.


You might not let your functioning be so dependent of your beliefs. It  
is not good for the health. Seriously, you should doubt *all* your  
belief everyday before breakfast.





 it is generally accepted that we are conscious during the dreams.

But the REM dream state occurs  for only about 20% of the total time  
you sleep.


Yes. But with some training you can remember your experience, and that  
can help to understand that we should not make conclusion on reality  
and the nature of reality too much quickly from experience. This plays  
some role in the UDA reasoning.




 The same for some comatose state.

As I said you can be conscious even when no intelligent behavior is  
observed, but even so it is generally accepted that cadavers are not  
conscious.


I do agree on this. but with comp living bodies are not conscious  
either. They just make able for a person to manifest her consciousness  
relatively to some collection of universal numbers (the neighbors  
person, and universal entities).





 That shows that consciousness can be independent of macro-behavior

Yes, but if that macro-behavior is intelligent then even without  
proof I don't believe and can not believe the reverse is true.



This is a bit unclear.


 Actually I argue that comp, when taken seriously enough, has to  
reduce physics to the 'theology of numbers', like biochemistry can  
be said to have been reduced to quantum mechanics.


I think I know what you mean but I don't see what the word  
theology adds to the above, all it does is muddy the waters and  
give respect to something that does not deserve it.



Here are the reason why I call it theology:

1) to avoid the situation where people could enforce the use of a  
digital brain, withoiut permission of parents or of the candidates  
(avoid the pro-life trap, if you want).


2) to tell the patient that he has to make an act of faith for it, and  
that his survive is not guarantied by any theory, not even comp  
(paradoxically enough). Comp meta-guaranties it, but only by  
justifying that it is itself machine's unbelievable. So the brain  
transplant is as much a medical operation, than a death ritual.


3) Comp implies a vast complex spectrum of notion of afterlife. Is it  
not natural to call theology a science which admits as sub-branch the  
study of afterlives?


4) Plato's God, according to Hirschberger, and through my own reading,  
is basically Truth, with the understanding that conviction is private,  
not public. Defining the God of the machine, or the theology of the  
machine by the truth *about* the machine helps to distinguish truth  
and provability in simple term. Arithmetical truth does beg-have like  
a 

Re: UD* and consciousness

2012-02-21 Thread Craig Weinberg
On Feb 21, 11:32 am, Terren Suydam terren.suy...@gmail.com wrote:


 So if Mary is not conscious in the deterministic scenario, she is a
 zombie. The only way to be consistent with this conclusion is to
 insist that the substitution level must be at the quantum level.

 If OTOH she is conscious, then consciousness does not require 1p 
 indeterminacy.


Or, there may be no substitution level at all, in which case the
deterministic simulation is a brain puppet, which responds 'yes' when
you pull the right string. For the other simulation, I'm not sure why
the quantum-random numbers wouldn't change 'Mary' enough to give
different answers. You have a brain puppet which is flipping
coins...what is the presumed effect of these flips?

If we consider instead that the brain (and all of physics) is more
like a mass-shadow of experienced events, then we can understand how
duplicating the shadow of a tree precisely doesn't render a living
tree as the result. To apply this metaphor to our reality, you would
have to turn it around to realize that in place of a tree and shadow,
there is a dialectic unity where Thesis = Figurative private
phenomenology (tree-like experience) and Antithesis = Literal public
empiricism (material tree).

Since the thesis is fundamental, any change to the antithesis will
simultaneously be changing the thesis, as the thesis is an
*experience* - a sensorimotive fugue. Emulating the antithesis
however, like trying to cast a shadow of a shadow, yields back only
universal generic defaults and not idiosyncratic identity grounded in
cohesive experience. There is no 'here' there. You have a hologram of
a human brain with no I associated with it.

The indeterminacy of 1p is caused by the authoritative authenticity of
the thesis, not by randomness. 1p awareness could even be
deterministic (and it probably is in matter below the cellular
threshold) but as awareness scales up through experience over
generations and lifetimes, it condenses as qualitative mass:
significance. This is figurative mass, not literal mass of a
pseudosubstance. It is 'importance', 'specialness', 'meaning',
'feeling', etc. If this signifying condensation is the thesis, we can
understand it by looking at the a-signifying antithesis of mass
through gravity and density. What happens to motive power and autonomy
under high gravity? It is crushed and absorbed into the collective
inertia. Separate bodies lose their power to escape the pull...they
fall. When this happens to us subjectively, our thesis falls as well -
asleep. We feel 'down'. We are 'crushed', depressed, deflated, low,
bummed, etc.

Because the thesis and antithesis are symmetrical however,
significance scales up as freedom, autonomy, high spirits, lifted
moods, grandeur, delusions of grandeur, mania, etc. As celebrity and
wealth are associated with super-power, freedom, and luxury, the
increased autonomy of living organisms is arrived at through
historical narrative. You cannot clone Beyonce and expect to make a
celebrity automatically. The celebrity-ness is not in her body
(although her body image is already part of a cultural narrative which
is being exalted at this time, so body similarity gives a head start).

What I'm getting at is that human consciousness is the latest chapter
in a long story of famous molecules that became famous cells who
became famous organisms. A simulation is a mere portrait of the fruits
of this fame. The costumes and scenery are there, but not the heroes
and heroines. The simulation is not from the right family, has not
attended the right schools, did not win American Idol. It isn't a who,
it is a pretender - a what. It has no why, only how.

Don't be fooled by the four dimensionality of matter's appearance. It
is still a shadow/antithesis of our perception of all perceptions of
it.

Craig

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Re: The free will function

2012-02-21 Thread Craig Weinberg
On Feb 21, 5:21 am, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:
 On Feb 20, 6:37 pm, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:


  Right, but true = a true reflection of the simulation.

 No. True = true of unsimulated reality.

Where is there unsimulated reality in comp?


  If I make a
  simulation where I regularly stop the program and make miraculous
  changes, then the most intelligent observers might rightly conclude
  that there is an omnipotent entity

 They can only wrongly conclude that since you are not omnipotent.

Those who I find doubting my omnipotence will find that there are more
important things than not being wrong.

Craig

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Re: The thermodynamics of computation

2012-02-21 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

On 20.02.2012 22:43 Russell Standish said the following:

On Mon, Feb 20, 2012 at 07:33:13PM +0100, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:


I have nothing against Adami's book as such. His description of
his software avida and his experiments with it are okay. My point
was about his claim that his work has something to do with
thermodynamics. It is definitely not. The thermodynamic entropy is
not there. The quotes from the book displays this pretty clear.

You have written about an analogous role. I would not object if


Chris uses the word analogy to connect mutation and temperature. But
not between information and entropy.


This what I have meant and this is the point where I disagree. Adami 
comes to the conclusion that the thermodynamic entropy is subjective. 
Let me quote him again


p. 96 “If an observer gains knowledge about the system and thus 
determines that a number of states that were previously deemed probable 
are in fact unlikely, the entropy of the system (which now has turned 
into a conditional entropy), is lowered, simply because the number of 
different possible states in the lower. (Note that such a change in 
uncertainty is usually due to a measurement).


p. 97 “Clearly, the entropy can also depend on what we consider 
“different”. For example, one may count states as different that differ 
by, at most, del_x in some observable x (for example, the color of a 
ball drawn from an ensemble of differently shaded balls in an urn). Such 
entropies are then called fine-grained (if del_x is small), or 
course-grained (if del_x is large) entropies.”


The entropy he is talking about in these quotes has nothing to do with 
the thermodynamic entropy. You can close or open your eyes, the 
entropies as determined in the JANAF Tables do not change.






you say that there is an analogy between the thermodynamic entropy
and information. Yet, I am against the statement that the
thermodynamic entropy is information and I believe that I have
given many examples that show this. Thermodynamic entropy is not
subjective and not context dependent*, so my claim is that Adami
does not understand what the thermodynamic entropy is. He has
never taken a class in experimental thermodynamics, this is the
problem.



I can't speak for Chris, but somehow I doubt that very much.


* I would accept the notation that the entropy is context
dependent in a sense that its definition depends on the
thermodynamics theory. If we change the theory, then the entropy
could have some other meaning. But it seems not what you have
meant.




It is true that in thermodynamics, there is usually little argument
about what the macroscopic variables are. As a consequence, entropy
is essentially an objective quantity, and the context fades into the
background.

But even between (micro-/grand-) canonical ensembles, there are
subtle differences between what macroscopic variables are
significant, hence difference between the entropies, which vanish in
the thermodynamic limit.



What does it mean for the application I have mentioned and for 
information in the IT? I still do not understand this, as the numerical 
values of information in IT and as derived from the thermodynamic 
entropy are quite different. Hence it is completely unclear how to use 
this in practical applications. Then what does it bring?


You have written about semiotics

I've never seen one useful conjecture come out of it.

What are useful conjecture from saying that because the equations for 
information and the entropy are the same, they must be the same thing?


Evgenii

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Re: COMP theology

2012-02-21 Thread meekerdb

On 2/21/2012 11:52 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
7) I have used biology and psychology for years, but it leads to more confusion, 
including exclamation like it is theology, which I can't answer, except by accepting 
that it is theology. It concerns indeed what machine's can hope, not what they can prove.


You should call it aletheology, the study of truth.

Brent

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Re: The thermodynamics of computation

2012-02-21 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

On 20.02.2012 21:20 meekerdb said the following:

On 2/20/2012 12:02 PM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:


...


I am ready to learn the meaning of information in thermodynamics.
Please just explain it by means of practical examples.



The link I sent below works out the entropy of an ideal gas using
information. You keep asking for practical examples but that's like
 asking for practical examples of calculating molecular reaction free
 energy from quantum mechanics. It is very difficult because it
depends on the electron energy levels. It has been done in a few
simple (not necessarily practical) cases as a proof of principle. But
it is not the way engineering or chemistry is done because it is both
easier and more reliable to measure them. But that doesn't mean that
they don't have energy or that the concept of energy doesn't apply.
No one calculates the strength of steel from carbon and iron atomic
bonds and crystal structure either. But that doesn't mean the
strength of steel is a separate, independent property.


I do not get your point. Chemists use molecular simulation extensively 
and you will find the works where even phase diagram are computed from 
the first principle. Please run


phase diagram from the first principles

on the Google Scholar. Yet, information is not there. Hence I am lost.

...


If you would like to show that information is very useful in
thermodynamics,


Other, smarter people have already done that.


Could you please give an example? Then it would be easier to understand 
your position.



please apply it to simple thermodynamic problems to show how the
concept of information has simplified for example the computation
of the phase diagram (or equilibrium composition between N2, H2 and
NH3). Should I repeat my examples?


No, you should consider why chemists don't just calculate all
reactions and structure from atomic theory and QM.


You underestimate chemists. As I have mentioned they use molecular 
simulation extensively. You can find some examples in my old lectures 
(they are a bit outdated though as they are about eight years old)


http://evgenii.rudnyi.ru/teaching.html#md

But Shannon's information is not there.

Evgenii


Brent


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Re: UD* and consciousness

2012-02-21 Thread Terren Suydam
On Tue, Feb 21, 2012 at 2:56 PM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Feb 21, 11:32 am, Terren Suydam terren.suy...@gmail.com wrote:

 So if Mary is not conscious in the deterministic scenario, she is a
 zombie. The only way to be consistent with this conclusion is to
 insist that the substitution level must be at the quantum level.

 If OTOH she is conscious, then consciousness does not require 1p 
 indeterminacy.


 Or, there may be no substitution level at all
snip
(I only included the relevant parts of your response)

My thought experiment assumes comp.

T

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Re: UD* and consciousness

2012-02-21 Thread Terren Suydam
On Tue, Feb 21, 2012 at 12:05 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
 On 2/21/2012 8:32 AM, Terren Suydam wrote:
 So if Mary is not conscious in the deterministic scenario, she is a
 zombie. The only way to be consistent with this conclusion is to
 insist that the substitution level must be at the quantum level.

 If OTOH she is conscious, then consciousness does not require 1p
 indeterminacy.


 But is it really either-or?  Isn't it likely there are different kinds and
 degrees of consciousness.  I'm not clear on what Bruno's theory says about
 this.  On the one hand he says all Lobian machines are (equally?) conscious,
 but then he says it depends on the program they are executing.

 Brent

I'm not too keen on 'partial zombies'. Partial zombies admit full
zombies, as far as I'm concerned.

The idea that consciousness depends on the program a UM executes is
the point of this thought experiment. The idea that consciousness
itself depends on a multiplicity of computational paths going through
the current computational state is what I'm questioning.

Terren

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Re: UD* and consciousness

2012-02-21 Thread meekerdb

On 2/21/2012 12:34 PM, Terren Suydam wrote:

On Tue, Feb 21, 2012 at 12:05 PM, meekerdbmeeke...@verizon.net  wrote:

On 2/21/2012 8:32 AM, Terren Suydam wrote:

So if Mary is not conscious in the deterministic scenario, she is a
zombie. The only way to be consistent with this conclusion is to
insist that the substitution level must be at the quantum level.

If OTOH she is conscious, then consciousness does not require 1p
indeterminacy.


But is it really either-or?  Isn't it likely there are different kinds and
degrees of consciousness.  I'm not clear on what Bruno's theory says about
this.  On the one hand he says all Lobian machines are (equally?) conscious,
but then he says it depends on the program they are executing.

Brent

I'm not too keen on 'partial zombies'. Partial zombies admit full
zombies, as far as I'm concerned.


When I refer to degrees of consciousness I'm not talking about partial zombies (beings 
that act exactly like humans but are not fully conscious).  I'm talking about dogs and 
chimpanzees and Watson and spiders.




The idea that consciousness depends on the program a UM executes is
the point of this thought experiment. The idea that consciousness
itself depends on a multiplicity of computational paths going through
the current computational state is what I'm questioning.


Yes, I think that's a dubious proposition.  Although brains no doubt have some degree of 
inherent quantum randomness it's clear that intelligent behavior need not depend on that.


But I'm not sure your thought experiment proves its point.  It's about simulated Mary.  
Suppose consciousness depended on quantum entanglements of brain structures with the 
environment (and they must in order for the brain to quasi-classical).  Then in your 
simulation Mary would be a zombie (because your computation is purely classical and you're 
not simulating the quantum entanglements).  But an actual macroscopic device substituted 
for part of real Mary's brain would be quantum entangled with the environment even if were 
at the neuron level.  So consciousness would, ex hypothesi, still occur - although it 
might be different in some way.


Brent



Terren



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Re: The free will function

2012-02-21 Thread Craig Weinberg
On Feb 21, 5:41 am, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

   You are natural.

  How do you know? Comp says we can't know whether we are artificial
  simulation or not.

 That doens't make you supernatural.

Why would I be? I'm not the administrator of a virtual universe.



  You can fire a horse through the air usign a giant
   catapuilt, but I don't have to agree it's Pegasus.

  No but you have to agree that it is possible to believe that it is a
  Pegasus

 The ability to beieve falsehoods has no interesting implications.

Why not? Fiction is arguably the basis for all culture. I'm not
talking about that though, I'm referring to comp's view of
epistemology. That's the whole question is whether the truths of our
universe are as true as any to us.


 and that is all that is required.
  But we are natural so they would be wrong.

  They wouldn't and couldn't know they were wrong though.

 So? Is appearance reality?

That is what comp says.

   Bruno;s theory or the Computational Theory of Mind.

  Both.

 Nonsense. CTM is a scientific theory.

What does that have to do with it's conception of in-simulation
epistemology?


 What would be the meaning of any form of computationalism
  without the notion of computational realism?

 What do you mean by computational realism?

That the reality within any simulation derives from computation rather
than material substance.


   The simulation is reality as far as the
simulatees are concerned.

   And if they are wrong, it still isn't the
   real reality.

  It doesn't matter if they are right or wrong, the simulation is still
  their reality.

 their reality=appearance=/= reality.

What is reality without an appearance? If the only world I know is not
my reality, then what is it?


  Pac Man could believe that he is Bugs Bunny but the
  possibility of that belief is generated by the simulation logic behind
  Pac Man. For Pac Man, the Pac Man game is the real reality. That is
  what comp is all about - proving that our experience of the universe
  is indistinguishable from a simulation of that same experience.

 But it it is in reality simulated, it is in reality simulated,
 and our reality is delusional.

It's simulated from our perspective, but from inside the simulation
it's the only reality there is - according to comp. Of course I
disagree with comp.


   You seem to be arguing
   appearance=reality on the premise that
   opinion=truth.

  Not at all. I think that you are injecting that because you need me to
  be wrong. Comp implies that appearance is not the whole reality, but
  the possibility of an appearance arises from the whole reality, which
  is in fact a logical program.

 That is uncontentious. It is also not what you are
 saying elsewhere.

I'm giving you the comp version.  I don't subscribe to it personally,
so I have no reason to talk about it elsewhere.


Appearances may not reflect the truest level
of the simulation, but appearances all reflect some believable
representation of the simulation's function.

   Believable falsehoods are falsehoods and convincing illusions
   still aren't reality

  It doesn't matter if they believe in the simulation or not, the belief
  itself is only possible because of the particular reality generated by
  the program. Comp precludes the possibility of contacting any truer
  reality than the simulation.

 Can't a red pill be programmed in?

Not unless you are already a being outside the simulation who is
participating vicariously. Different than being a native entity born
within a simulation.


   If you know yourself to be natural, you cannot regard
   your creations as supernatural. The denizens of a sim
   might regard their programmer as God, but he knows better.

  Our Gods may know better too. What I am saying is that Comp + MWI +
  Anthropic principle guarantees an infinite number of universes in
  which some entity can program machines to worship them *correctly* as
  *their* Gods.

 ANd I am saying that is fallacious. CTM, MWI and AP are all
 sceintific princples with no room for the supernatural. SInce gods
 are supernatural by definition

This is just begging the question and arguing from authority. Your
claim is that the word 'scientific' wards off the supernatural and
that alone makes anything that anyone decides is supernatural
impossible. I'm telling you that because

1. comp makes godlike influence over a simulation possible
2. MWI makes such influence and simulations inevitable
3. AP makes the relative numbers of MWI universes with godlike
simulation influence irrelevant.
4. comp makes it impossible to tell whether such influence is physics
or extra-simulation intervention from inside the sim.

Therefore, whatever your reality, if you believe Comp and AP, then you
could be in a simulation subject to godlike intervention.

, no belief in a god arising in such
 circumsntances is *correct*, be it every so persuasive.

Are you saying that a belief can only be true if it 

Re: UD* and consciousness

2012-02-21 Thread Terren Suydam
On Tue, Feb 21, 2012 at 4:01 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
 On 2/21/2012 12:34 PM, Terren Suydam wrote:
 The idea that consciousness depends on the program a UM executes is
 the point of this thought experiment. The idea that consciousness
 itself depends on a multiplicity of computational paths going through
 the current computational state is what I'm questioning.


 Yes, I think that's a dubious proposition.  Although brains no doubt have
 some degree of inherent quantum randomness it's clear that intelligent
 behavior need not depend on that.

 But I'm not sure your thought experiment proves its point.  It's about
 simulated Mary.  Suppose consciousness depended on quantum entanglements of
 brain structures with the environment (and they must in order for the brain
 to quasi-classical).  Then in your simulation Mary would be a zombie
 (because your computation is purely classical and you're not simulating the
 quantum entanglements).  But an actual macroscopic device substituted for
 part of real Mary's brain would be quantum entangled with the environment
 even if were at the neuron level.  So consciousness would, ex hypothesi,
 still occur - although it might be different in some way.

 Brent

Why must consciousness depend on quantum entanglements for the brain
to be quasi-classical?

Terren

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Re: The free will function

2012-02-21 Thread 1Z


On Feb 21, 8:03 pm, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Feb 21, 5:21 am, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

  On Feb 20, 6:37 pm, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

   Right, but true = a true reflection of the simulation.

  No. True = true of unsimulated reality.

 Where is there unsimulated reality in comp?

As ever, that depends what you mean by comp.
CTM doens't require anything to be simulated at all.
in Bruno;s Platonic COMP, the unsimulated reailty
is a Plato's heaven full of numbers.

   If I make a
   simulation where I regularly stop the program and make miraculous
   changes, then the most intelligent observers might rightly conclude
   that there is an omnipotent entity

  They can only wrongly conclude that since you are not omnipotent.

 Those who I find doubting my omnipotence will find that there are more
 important things than not being wrong.

Well, you're not simulating me, so i remain unpersuaded.

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Re: The free will function

2012-02-21 Thread 1Z


On Feb 21, 10:41 pm, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Feb 21, 5:41 am, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

   How do you know? Comp says we can't know whether we are artificial
   simulation or not.

  That doens't make you supernatural.

 Why would I be? I'm not the administrator of a virtual universe.

You would not be supernatural if you were.

  The ability to beieve falsehoods has no interesting implications.

 Why not? Fiction is arguably the basis for all culture.

Only it arguably isn't, because without the fiction/fact distinction,
science would not be science.

 I'm not
 talking about that though, I'm referring to comp's view of
 epistemology.

Comp has to justify itself in the face of epistemology
not vice versa.

That's the whole question is whether the truths of our
 universe are as true as any to us.



   Both.

  Nonsense. CTM is a scientific theory.

 What does that have to do with it's conception of in-simulation
 epistemology?


The issue is whether Bruno's Comp = science's CTM.
Since CTM requires nothing to be simulated, and has
no epistemoloogical implications, the two are not the same.

  What would be the meaning of any form of computationalism
   without the notion of computational realism?

  What do you mean by computational realism?

 That the reality within any simulation derives from computation rather
 than material substance.


OK. Then the answer to What would be the meaning of any form of
computationalism
 without the notion of computational realism? would be
something like There is a real reality, containing humans and their
brains,
and human the human mind is like software running on the hardware
of the real physical brain, and that is the Computational
Theory of Mind.

The simulation is reality as far as the
 simulatees are concerned.

   It doesn't matter if they are right or wrong, the simulation is still
   their reality.

  their reality=appearance=/= reality.

 What is reality without an appearance?

If the only world I know is not
 my reality, then what is it?

The answer is supplied by the Simulation Hypothesis,
the Deception Hypothesis, etc. if you world is simulated,
then reality is the place where and means wheresby
it is being simulatd. The Simulation Hypothesis--which
you call comp-- is a claim about reality. To claim that
what you know is not reality because it is simulated
is to claim something else is reality.


  But it it is in reality simulated, it is in reality simulated,
  and our reality is delusional.

 It's simulated from our perspective, but from inside the simulation
 it's the only reality there is - according to comp.r

False. It is not the Only Reality There Is Accoding to Comp,
because there hypothses state that there is  a ground level...
the lab where the sim is running (or Platonia in Bruno's case).


   Not at all. I think that you are injecting that because you need me to
   be wrong. Comp implies that appearance is not the whole reality, but
   the possibility of an appearance arises from the whole reality, which
   is in fact a logical program.

  That is uncontentious. It is also not what you are
  saying elsewhere.

 I'm giving you the comp version.  I don't subscribe to it personally,
 so I have no reason to talk about it elsewhere.


You have given me two versions of comp.


   It doesn't matter if they believe in the simulation or not, the belief
   itself is only possible because of the particular reality generated by
   the program. Comp precludes the possibility of contacting any truer
   reality than the simulation.

  Can't a red pill be programmed in?

 Not unless you are already a being outside the simulation who is
 participating vicariously.

Prove that.

   Our Gods may know better too. What I am saying is that Comp + MWI +
   Anthropic principle guarantees an infinite number of universes in
   which some entity can program machines to worship them *correctly* as
   *their* Gods.

  ANd I am saying that is fallacious. CTM, MWI and AP are all
  sceintific princples with no room for the supernatural. SInce gods
  are supernatural by definition

 This is just begging the question and arguing from authority.

No, it is valid analytical apriori argument.

 Your
 claim is that the word 'scientific' wards off the supernatural and
 that alone makes anything that anyone decides is supernatural
 impossible. I'm telling you that because

 1. comp makes godlike influence over a simulation possible

Godlike only in a delusional sense.

 2. MWI makes such influence and simulations inevitable

not necessarily. Depends on the flavour.

 3. AP makes the relative numbers of MWI universes with godlike
 simulation influence irrelevant.
 4. comp makes it impossible to tell whether such influence is physics
 or extra-simulation intervention from inside the sim.

Yep. and impossible to tell--epistemic inaccessibility--
still doens't mean there is no fact of the matter. You
assume absolute, transcendent facts when you 

Re: UD* and consciousness

2012-02-21 Thread meekerdb

On 2/21/2012 2:45 PM, Terren Suydam wrote:

On Tue, Feb 21, 2012 at 4:01 PM, meekerdbmeeke...@verizon.net  wrote:

On 2/21/2012 12:34 PM, Terren Suydam wrote:

The idea that consciousness depends on the program a UM executes is
the point of this thought experiment. The idea that consciousness
itself depends on a multiplicity of computational paths going through
the current computational state is what I'm questioning.


Yes, I think that's a dubious proposition.  Although brains no doubt have
some degree of inherent quantum randomness it's clear that intelligent
behavior need not depend on that.

But I'm not sure your thought experiment proves its point.  It's about
simulated Mary.  Suppose consciousness depended on quantum entanglements of
brain structures with the environment (and they must in order for the brain
to quasi-classical).  Then in your simulation Mary would be a zombie
(because your computation is purely classical and you're not simulating the
quantum entanglements).  But an actual macroscopic device substituted for
part of real Mary's brain would be quantum entangled with the environment
even if were at the neuron level.  So consciousness would, ex hypothesi,
still occur - although it might be different in some way.

Brent

Why must consciousness depend on quantum entanglements for the brain
to be quasi-classical?


The best theory of how the (quasi) classical world arises from the underlying quantum 
world depends on decoherence, i.e. macroscopic things appear classical because they are 
entangled with the environment which makes a few variables, like position and momentum, 
quasi-classical (c.f. Zurek or Schlosshauer).  If a thing is isolated from the environment 
it may be able to exist in a superposition of states, i.e. be non-classical; although 
internal degrees of freedom might also produce quasi-classical dynamics.


Brent



Terren



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Re: UD* and consciousness

2012-02-21 Thread Terren Suydam
On Tue, Feb 21, 2012 at 7:47 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
 On 2/21/2012 2:45 PM, Terren Suydam wrote:

 On Tue, Feb 21, 2012 at 4:01 PM, meekerdbmeeke...@verizon.net  wrote:

 On 2/21/2012 12:34 PM, Terren Suydam wrote:

 The idea that consciousness depends on the program a UM executes is
 the point of this thought experiment. The idea that consciousness
 itself depends on a multiplicity of computational paths going through
 the current computational state is what I'm questioning.


 Yes, I think that's a dubious proposition.  Although brains no doubt have
 some degree of inherent quantum randomness it's clear that intelligent
 behavior need not depend on that.

 But I'm not sure your thought experiment proves its point.  It's about
 simulated Mary.  Suppose consciousness depended on quantum entanglements
 of
 brain structures with the environment (and they must in order for the
 brain
 to quasi-classical).  Then in your simulation Mary would be a zombie
 (because your computation is purely classical and you're not simulating
 the
 quantum entanglements).  But an actual macroscopic device substituted for
 part of real Mary's brain would be quantum entangled with the environment
 even if were at the neuron level.  So consciousness would, ex hypothesi,
 still occur - although it might be different in some way.

 Brent

 Why must consciousness depend on quantum entanglements for the brain
 to be quasi-classical?


 The best theory of how the (quasi) classical world arises from the
 underlying quantum world depends on decoherence, i.e. macroscopic things
 appear classical because they are entangled with the environment which makes
 a few variables, like position and momentum, quasi-classical (c.f. Zurek or
 Schlosshauer).  If a thing is isolated from the environment it may be able
 to exist in a superposition of states, i.e. be non-classical; although
 internal degrees of freedom might also produce quasi-classical dynamics.

OK, but that assumes more than is necessary for the argument. I don't
think Bruno's theory demands an account of how the classical arises
from the quantum. The brain (or its functional equivalent) just
implements computations at or above some substitution level we are
willing to bet on... whether they are entangled with a level lower
than the substitution level is irrelevant.

Terren

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Yes Doctor circularity

2012-02-21 Thread Craig Weinberg
Has someone already mentioned this?

I woke up in the middle of the night with this, so it might not make
sense...or...

The idea of saying yes to the doctor presumes that we, in the thought
experiment, bring to the thought experiment universe:

1. our sense of own significance (we have to be able to care about
ourselves and our fate in the first place)
2. our perceptual capacity to jump to conclusions without logic (we
have to be able feel what it seems like rather than know what it
simply is.)

Because of 1, it is assumed that the thought experiment universe
includes the subjective experience of personal value - that the
patient has a stake, or 'money to bet'. Because of 2, it is assumed
that libertarian free will exists in the scenario - we have to be able
to 'bet' in the first place. As far as I know, comp can only answer
'True, doctor', 'False, doctor', or 'I don't know, or I can't answer,
doctor.'

So, what this means is that in the scenario, while not precluding that
a form of comp based consciousness could exist, does preclude that it
is the only form of consciousness that exists, so therefore does not
prove that in comp consciousness must arise from comp since it relies
on non-comp to prove it. The same goes for the Turing Test, which
after all is only about betting on imitation. Does the robot seem real
to me? Bruno adds another layer to this by forcing our thought
experimenter to care whether they are or not.

What say ye, mighty logicians? Both of these tests succeed
unintentionally at revealing the essentials of consciousness, not in
front of our eyes with the thought experiment, but behind our backs.
The sleight of hand is hidden innocently in the assumption of free
will (and significance). In any universe where consciousness arises
from comp, consciousness may be able to pass or fail the test as the
tested object, but it cannot receive the test as a testing subject
unless free will and significance are already presumed to be comp.

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