The Plant Teachers

2013-02-07 Thread Kim Jones
Graham Hancock's experiences with Ayahuasca

Of course some will immediately denounce this post as irrelevant to the search 
for a TOE. But, recall that CONSCIOUSNESS is the ultimate final frontier in 
science and that voyagers in consciousness-altering substances have a 
perspective to contribute here. This blog I find to be one of the more 
convincingly serious and thought-provoking essays on the use of DMT that I have 
yet encountered. In many ways, the experience of Ayahuasca seems to dovetail 
with the experience of Salvia Divinorum, as I'm sure Bruno will agree. I have 
tried neither, but would leap at the opportunity were it to present itself to 
me. 

Fascinating, Captain, fascinating.

Kim Jones.

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Re: How can intelligence be physical ?

2013-02-07 Thread Telmo Menezes
On Wed, Feb 6, 2013 at 7:04 PM, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Tue, Feb 5, 2013 at 6:00 PM, Telmo Menezes te...@telmomenezes.comwrote:

   I'm not claiming that intelligence == mind.


  Do you believe that your fellow human beings have minds? If so why?


  Yes (weakly).


 You believe that only weakly?! Do you really think there is a 49% chance
 that you are the only conscious being in the universe?


I don't know how to assign a probability to that. I guess I believe it's in
]0.5, 1] because I would bet on it, but that's all I can say.

I say weakly because the only thing I have to back this belief is an
heuristic, which I find to be a weaker form of approximating the truth than
mathematical proof or experimental confirmation.


 By the way, I don't believe other people have minds when they are sleeping
 or under anesthesia or dead because when they are in those states they
 don't behave very intelligently.


But that is because you believe that intelligence == mind. I don't. Certain
experiences that you can do on yourself might make you doubt that belief,
but I don't know of any way to convince you except suggesting that you do
those experiences.



  Occam's razor. If I'm the only human being with a mind, then, for some
 mysterious reason, there are two types of human beings: me (with a mind)
 and the others (zombies). So heuristically I'm inclined to believe that all
 human beings have a mind,


 OK, but if you also believe in Darwin's theory of Evolution then you must
 also believe that consciousness MUST be a byproduct of intelligence because
 Evolution can't directly see consciousness any better than we can and so
 cannot select for it, and yet you and probably other people are conscious.
 Thus you must also believe that if a computer is intelligent then it is
 conscious. Then you must also believe that intelligence == mind.


You are begging the question. You're assuming, to begin with, that
intelligence == mind and then you claim to prove that intelligence == mind.

By the way, for evolution to generate consciousness there has to exist a
gradient to climb. Unless the evolutionary process just stumbles into
consciousness, but in that case it is not a valid theory of it's origin. So
you are implicitly assuming that there is some measure of consciousness,
where you can say that entity A is more conscious than entity B. What would
that even mean? My cat seems conscious to me (but I can't know for sure).
Is he less conscious than me? Well I know stuff that he doesn't, but he
also knows stuff that I don't -- for example he knows how it feels to be a
cat.




  although I know I will never be able to prove it.


 I agree on that point.

   John K Clark









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Re: How can intelligence be physical ?

2013-02-07 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On Thu, Feb 7, 2013 at 1:02 AM, Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net wrote:

 Hi Stathis,

 The simulation of our 'self' that our brain generates *is* good enough
 to fool oneself! I speculate that schizophrenia and autism are caused by
 failures of the self-simulation system... The former is a failure where
 multiple self-simulations are generated and no stability on their convergent
 occurs and the latter is where the self-simulation fails altogether. Mind
 version of autism, such as Aspergers syndrome are where bad simulations
 occur and/or the self-simulation fails to update properly.

That's an interesting idea, but schizophrenia is where the the
connections between functional subsystems in the brain is disrupted,
so that you get perceptions, beliefs, emotions occurring without the
normal chain of causation, while autism is where the concept of other
minds is disrupted. I think the self-image is present but distorted.

 If we consider that the Libet experiments show that we are making
 decisions
 without knowing it, and Blindsight shows that we are able to see without
 being conscious of it, then there is no reason why we should suddenly
 trust
 our own reporting of what we think that we know about the sense of
 interacting with a living person. A true Turing test would require a
 face-to-face interaction, so that none of our natural sensory
 capabilities
 would be blocked as they would with just a text or video interaction.

 That's the situation that is assumed in the idea of a philosophical
 zombie: you interact with the being face to face. If at the end of
 several days' interaction (or however long you think you need) you are
 completely convinced that it is conscious, does that mean it is
 conscious?


 As I see things, the only coherent concept of a zombie is what we see in
 the autistic case. Such is 'conscious' with no self-image/self-awareness,
 thus it has no ability to report on its 1p content.

I think of autistic people as differently conscious, not unconscious.
Incidentally, there is a movement among higher functioning autistic
people whereby they resent being labelled as disabled, but assert that
their way of thinking is just as valid and intrinsically worthwhile as
that of the neurotypicals.

 I think that it is important to remember that in theory, logically,
 consciousness cannot exist. It is only through our own undeniable
 experience
 of consciousness that we feel the need to justify it with logic - but so
 far
 we have only projected the religious miracles of the past into a science
 fiction future. If it was up to logic alone, there could not, and would
 not
 every be a such thing as experience.

 You could as well say that logically there's no reason for anything to
 exist, but it does.



 How about that! Does this not tell us that we must start, in our musing
 about existence with the postulate that something exists?

Perhaps, but there are other ways to look at it. A primary
mathematical/Platonic universe necessarily rather than contingently
exists.


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: How can intelligence be physical ?

2013-02-07 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On Thu, Feb 7, 2013 at 4:01 AM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

 That's just because the simulation of a person isn't good enough. The
 question is what if the simulation *is* good enough to completely fool
 you.


 Fooling me is meaningless. I think that you think therefore you are fails
 to account for the subjective thinker in the first place. If someone kills
 you, but they then find a nifty way to use your cadaver as a ventriloquist's
 dummy, does it matter if it fools someone into thinking that you are still
 alive?

You have said that you can just sense the consciousness of other
minds but you have contradicted that, or at least admitted that the
sensing faculty can be fooled. If you have no sure test for
consciousness that means you might see it where it isn't present or
miss it where it is present. So your friend might be unconscious
despite your feeling that he is, and your computer might be conscious
despite your feeling that it is not.


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Re: HOW YOU CAN BECOME A LIBERAL THEOLOGIAN IN JUST 4 STEPS.

2013-02-07 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2013/2/7 Platonist Guitar Cowboy multiplecit...@gmail.com



 On Wed, Feb 6, 2013 at 8:11 PM, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.comwrote:



 2013/2/6 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net

  On 2/6/2013 1:25 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


  On 06 Feb 2013, at 04:00, meekerdb wrote:

  On 2/5/2013 11:02 AM, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Tuesday, February 5, 2013 1:14:07 PM UTC-5, John Clark wrote:

 On Tue, Feb 5, 2013  PM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:


   Unpopular religions are denounced as cults.


 A religion is just a cult with good PR.


 It's interesting. I would be curious to know whether every established
 religion intentionally sought legitimacy at some point,


 What would that mean? Legal? Where there is official government
 recognition of religion (and probably tax breaks) the answer would be that
 they sought the recognition.  And all that you can consider 'established'
 have sought adherents.  But legitimacy??  I'm not sure how that world can
 be attached to religion.


  In my country, that is the case. Religions have to be recognized by
 the government. If not they are classified as sect, and are forbidden (like
 scientology). It is awkward and arbitrary, but that's simply the case.


 I'm curious.  How do they get recognized?  Do they  have to apply,


 They have to apply. But contrary to what Bruno claims, sect are not
 illegal, some sects can and have been declared illegal (as any group can
 be). But for example, scientology is not illegal in Belgium (for now) but
 they are often brought to justice by ex-member (for good reason I think).



 Sorry to be frank, but if this is serious (I miss some joke), then it is
 naive: the mechanism that serves to monitor and regulate the founding of
 religions in Western Europe, is the same judicial tool to control and
 finally repress religious groups- by seemingly integrating them.

 The moment any of these groups moves to do things like:


Well they have to conform to the laws (same as in the USA)... So no sects
are not illegal in belgium, they can't be declared illegal as long as they
conform to the laws like anywhere else on earth. And as I said, scientology
*is not* illegal in belgium and it is *in practice* not in theory.

No if you rant about the laws it's a totally different subject and you
should not conflate the two.

Regards,
Quentin



 - change conceptions of marriage

 - change conceptions of family

 - import for example its sacred ceremonial brew from South America, that
 has a controlled substance in it for thousands of years

 - want more appropriate economic frameworks for taxation for their
 conceptions of groups and individuals (why not marriages, as Judith Butler
 often put forward, between 3,4,5 or more partners, if their financial
 strategy and survival is solid with every partner consenting? Today: If a
 community of six partners works and lives together, hopefully they pair off
 to 3 males and 3 females, and still they would be taxed as 3 couples)

 - or simply make too much money: the western democracy rears its
 totalitarian face; less obvious than in North Korea, but let's stop telling
 ourselves stories about our democracy vs. China etc. We have learned
 nothing from totalitarian times and wars.

 Just because we hide the totalitarian tendencies in different judicial
 spots of cultural prejudice, doesn't mean freedom of religion.

 A Rastafarian wanting some of his sacred herb in France: fat chance, if he
 were to cite his religious reasons in court.

 So yes, you can apply for official recognition of your religion if you are
 interested in playing poker in pairs with plastic money beside your bed.

 Sorry, prohibition applies here too. So yes, alternate religious groupings
 are in practice illegal in Western Europe, if not on paper.

 PGC


 



 Quentin


 or does the government have some standard (numbers?) by which they
 automatically get recognized?  Do they have to file some statement of
 doctrine/theology/dogma with the government so that it can be determined
 whether a group is a splinter sect or a different religion?  Is Mormonism
 recognized?

 Brent


  The result is that sect become secret societies, so it is even harder
 to get rid of them, or for adherent to ever been able to get out of the
 influence. It is a real social dramatic problem. Then corruption makes also
 some sect still developing, like notably scientology.

  Bruno


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Re: Lee Smolin and Darwin's Uncommon Success

2013-02-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Feb 2013, at 17:39, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Wednesday, February 6, 2013 9:50:35 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 05 Feb 2013, at 21:34, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Tuesday, February 5, 2013 3:27:27 PM UTC-5, Alberto G.Corona  
wrote:




2013/2/5 Stephen P. King step...@charter.net
Hi,

ISTM that purpose is a 1p, so to ask the question in a 3p sense  
is to make it meaningless.



That´s it.


But to insist into make the question in 3p may  force the  
introduction of an implicit  1p that contemplate the 3p, that is,   
a metamind , with a metatime etc. (To avoid pavlovian responses, i  
don´t mention the G. world). That is the meaning of my previous  
response.


Why doesn't the metamind need a metamind?


In fact arithmetic explains the presence of mind, in both the 3p and  
1p view. Even without comp actually, by using the definition of mind  
by self-reference, and true self-reference (with truth guven by  
Tarski theory applied to arithmetic).


Bruno


What explains the presence of arithmetic?


It is mysterious. But it is the least mysterious thing that we have to  
assume to talk on anything else.






Or if we assume arithmetic, why should there be the presence of  
anything else?


That's the point. There isn't anything else.

Arithmetic is quite enough to explain how immaterial beings can get  
lost in terrestrial realities, and why those realities obeys laws, and  
which laws.


Bruno





Craig









On 2/5/2013 6:23 AM, Russell Standish wrote:
Only in the same sense that evolution is teleological, ie not really.

Cheers

On Tue, Feb 05, 2013 at 06:59:01PM +1100, Kim Jones wrote:
So does this explain the PURPOSE of the universe or merely a  
dominant FUNCTION? The blind exercise of function doesn't seem to  
me to include the global concept of purpose. The use of this word  
is about my only gripe with it. I could be wrong.


Cheers,

K




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Re: Comp: Geometry Is A Zombie

2013-02-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Feb 2013, at 17:50, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Wednesday, February 6, 2013 9:55:45 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 05 Feb 2013, at 11:19, Simon Forman wrote:


On Monday, February 4, 2013 12:22:53 PM UTC-8, Craig Weinberg wrote:


On Monday, February 4, 2013 3:09:16 PM UTC-5, Alberto G.Corona wrote:

but there is a self reference when we try to imagine how the brain  
or a computer process geometry, and we imagine them embedded in the  
space and time that they create, which is not a correct intuition.  
we must imagine it in no time and no space. IMHO.


That's what I think too, geometry without space isn't geometry, so  
that there is no reason to assume that mathematics produces  
geometric presentations, or that it could possibly produce them. If  
we want mathematics to occupy space, we have to pull that  
possibility out of thin air, as well as the capacity for numbers to  
suddenly do that (and why would they need to?)


Craig



Doesn't the quantum physical reality of information mean that all  
math *is* geometry?


Put another way, math without a substratum would be in some  
platonic world, and not the real one,


How do you know that? See the paper below(*) for an argument showing  
that if we are machine, then the physical reality is *only* emergent  
from arithmetic. Moon and stars are coherent number's dream, and  
this can be tested. So if you want a material substratum, you need  
to assume that you and your brain are not Turing emulable.


(*) http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/publications/SANE2004MARCHALAbstract.html

I'm just talking about geometric presentations though. If we accept  
that Moon and stars are coherent number's dreams, then why are  
they not presented that way, but instead, as a-signifying shape  
relations? Where does the shapeness come from?


Moon and stars are not not numbers dreams, but image appearing *in*  
the content of those dreams. The shapeness is easy to explain from the  
number relations and number self-reference, as I illustrate with some  
details.


Bruno






Craig

Bruno

so aren't you basically asking if there's some way to do math  
without form?


Forgive me if I'm being an idoit. ;)

~Simon

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Re: context, comp, and multiverses

2013-02-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Feb 2013, at 18:02, Telmo Menezes wrote:





On Wed, Feb 6, 2013 at 5:01 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 06 Feb 2013, at 12:19, Telmo Menezes wrote:





On Tue, Feb 5, 2013 at 6:17 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 05 Feb 2013, at 14:14, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno,

The definitons of simulation and emulation I can find both use the  
word imitation.
Can you explain what you mean as being the difference between the  
two ?


A computer can simulate a storm. It can also simulate another  
computer. In this case, when we simulate digital events by a  
digital machine, we can define a notion of totally faithful  
simulation. This what is called an emulation. Some mac, for  
example,  emulate some PC.
In fact any universal machine can emulate all possible digital  
machinery. This is why they are said universal.


I would argue that totally faithful simulation is not enough.  
Simulation implies a simulated environment, while emulation has to  
work in the emulated thing's environment. This is trivial for a mac  
emulating a PC. It already has a keyboard, a display and a mouse.  
If you want to emulate fire, it actually has to be able to burn  
you. Or emulating a complete human being would require a robot.


This is not the standard definition in computer science. It has  
nothing to so with emulating the environment (the data) or not.


Bruno,

For what it's worth, wikipedia agrees with me:

In computing, an emulator is hardware or software or both that  
duplicates (or emulates) the functions of a first computer system  
(the guest) in a different second computer system (the host), so  
that the emulated behavior closely resembles the behavior of the  
real system. This focus on exact reproduction of behavior is in  
contrast to some other forms of computer simulation, in which an  
abstract model of a system is being simulated. For example, a  
computer simulation of a hurricane or a chemical reaction is not  
emulation.


This concurs with what I said: the emulator does not need to be  
hardware, still less to contain an environment.
That was all I was saying. May be you were just ambiguous on this or I  
misunderstood you. I have no problem with the Wiki, here.





http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Emulator


It just means that there is an exact simulation. The intensional  
Church thesis (which is a simple consequence of the usual Church's  
thesis) makes all programs emulable by all universal programs. With  
a mac, you can emiulate a PC, but you can also emulate a complete PC  
with the keyboard, and if comp is correct you can emulate the PC,  
its keyboard, and the user. You can emulate fire on a MAC, and it  
can burn anyone emulated on that mac and interacting with the  
emulated fire (again assuming comp). The correct level of comp is  
defined by the one which make yourself being emulated by the  
artificial brain or body, or local universe.


Ok, I agree with what you say here. You can turn a very good  
simulation into an emulation (for me) iff you emulate my mind inside  
the simulation.


Yes. And this might help to understand why we don't need a primary  
(assumed) physical reality, as the number relations contains all  
possible emulations. Note that the MGA says something stronger: it  
says that not only we don't need a physical primary reality, but that  
even if that existed, we can't use it to relate any form of  
consciousness to it. By the usual Occam, weak-materialism is made into  
a sort of useless principle, a bit like vitalism in biology.


Bruno






Bruno








Bruno






Simulation - Definition and More from the Free Merriam-Webster ...

www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/simulation
a : the imitative representation of the functioning of one system  
or process by means of the functioning of another a computer  
simulation of an industrial process ...


Definition of EMULATION

1
obsolete : ambitious or envious rivalry
2
: ambition or endeavor to equal or excel others (as in achievement)
3
a : imitation
b : the use of or technique of using an emulator
— em·u·la·tive adjective
— em·u·la·tive·ly adverb


- Receiving the following content -
From: Telmo Menezes
Receiver: everything-list
Time: 2013-02-04, 17:07:32
Subject: Re: context, comp, and multiverses




On Mon, Feb 4, 2013 at 6:05 PM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com 
 wrote:



On Monday, February 4, 2013 9:59:09 AM UTC-5, telmo_menezes wrote:



On Mon, Feb 4, 2013 at 2:31 PM, Craig Weinberg  
whats...@gmail.com wrote:



On Sunday, February 3, 2013 12:11:17 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 01 Feb 2013, at 16:42, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi Bruno Marchal
�
I would think that each universe provides its own distinctive
context to any燾alculation, including comp.


Comp is the assumption that we are Turing emulable.
That notion is made very solid by Church's thesis.


I don't think that we can assume that a Turing emulation of us is  
actually us. To the contrary, a 

Re: Topical combination

2013-02-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Feb 2013, at 18:07, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Wednesday, February 6, 2013 9:37:22 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 05 Feb 2013, at 19:01, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Tuesday, February 5, 2013 12:51:10 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 05 Feb 2013, at 18:10, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2013/2/5 Bruno Marchal mar...@ulb.ac.be

On 05 Feb 2013, at 14:34, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi meekerdb


There's nothing wrong with science as science.
But a problem arises when you apply the results to theology.

Two completely different worlds.


That's indeed a point where string atheists agree with string  
christian. Let us try to be not serious on theology, so we can  
assert the fairy tales. Strong Christian are happy because they  
feel like they can contradict the scientific evidences, and the  
atheists are happy so they can continue to mock the christians,  
and continue to sleep on their own (materialist) dogma.


You put meaning in atheism which is not there... an atheist can  
perfectly be an idealist... materialism is not part of the  
definition of atheism.


Definition here are often contradictory. Some years ago, the  
definition keep changing.


Can you give me the name of an atheist who is idealist?

I would consider Sam Harris and Daniel Dennet idealists, in the  
sense that the ideal is reduced to function rather than a material.



That is not idealism. That's only the common functionalism.

Idealists believe that matter is a production of the mind.


I think that the common belief of Harris and Dennett is that the  
function of mind creates the illusion of matter as we know it.


That contradicts what I read. You might give a reference.




Beyond our view of matter, I would guess that both of them would  
agree that matter is a function of quantum functions, which to me is  
the same thing as an image of the mind made impersonal.


But that is not what people means by quantum, which need to refer to  
the *assumed* (not derived like in comp) physics.








Dennett made clear that he is physicalist, naturalist, and weak  
materialist.


I don't know any scientist being idealist, and even in philosophy of  
mind, most dictionaries describe it as being abandoned.


I agree in the sense that you intend, but I think that functionalism  
is the same thing as impersonal idealism.


You can't provide new meaning to terms having standard definition.  
Most functionalist are weak-materialist today. Most scientists believe  
that comp needs materialism. They are still completely unaware of the  
first person indeterminacy, and the immaterialist consequences.  
Functionalism might imply immaterialism, as comp does (comp is that  
there is a level where functionalism is correct. Functionalism is  
usually vague on the level, which is implicitly given by some neuro- 
level, comp is just a much weaker hypothesis).


Bruno






Craig


That explain probably why people take time to swallow the  
consequences of comp. Comp is the favorite theory of the (weak)  
materialist, and so it is hard for them to get that comp and  
materialism, and the usual weak Occam razor, are contradictory.


Bruno

Bruno






Craig


Bruno





Quentin

That does not give much place for the genuine inquiry, I think.

Bruno





- Receiving the following content -
From: meekerdb
Receiver: everything-list
Time: 2013-02-04, 13:48:50
Subject: Re: Topical combination

On 2/4/2013 7:56 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 03 Feb 2013, at 12:30, Roger Clough wrote:


Hi John Mikes
�
It says
�
The Fabric of Eternity is the author's personal view of the  
Universe that allows for science and theology to explore the  
wonders of creation in peaceful unison.'

�
IMHO that is completely misguided, because the worlds they  
understand燼re separate magisteria, to use�
Stephan Jay Gould's phrase.� Science deals with the physical  
world, and theology deals with

the nonphysical world.


Only an Aristotelian can say science deals with the physical  
world. This sums up physicalism.


A Platonist says that science is just the modest tool/method to  
deal with any subject.


Except it was Plato who thought he could understand the world by  
just thinking about it, while it was Aristotle who went out to  
observe and let the world teach him.� So who was modest and who  
was arrogant?


Brent

Allowing the abandon of science in the theological field can  
only be an invitation to the bad faith in there, and to the  
don't ask mentality.


Bruno



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Re: How can intelligence be physical ?

2013-02-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Feb 2013, at 19:04, John Clark wrote:




On Tue, Feb 5, 2013 at 6:00 PM, Telmo Menezes  
te...@telmomenezes.com wrote:


 I'm not claiming that intelligence == mind.

 Do you believe that your fellow human beings have minds? If so why?

 Yes (weakly).

You believe that only weakly?! Do you really think there is a 49%  
chance that you are the only conscious being in the universe?  By  
the way, I don't believe other people have minds when they are  
sleeping or under anesthesia or dead because when they are in those  
states they don't behave very intelligently.


 Occam's razor. If I'm the only human being with a mind, then, for  
some mysterious reason, there are two types of human beings: me  
(with a mind) and the others (zombies). So heuristically I'm  
inclined to believe that all human beings have a mind,


OK, but if you also believe in Darwin's theory of Evolution then you  
must also believe that consciousness MUST be a byproduct of  
intelligence because Evolution can't directly see consciousness any  
better than we can and so cannot select for it, and yet you and  
probably other people are conscious.


This not valid. You don't need to believe in any religion to see why  
that point is just not valid.


Bruno




Thus you must also believe that if a computer is intelligent then it  
is conscious. Then you must also believe that intelligence == mind.


 although I know I will never be able to prove it.

I agree on that point.

  John K Clark









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Re: HOW YOU CAN BECOME A LIBERAL THEOLOGIAN IN JUST 4 STEPS.

2013-02-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Feb 2013, at 20:06, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/6/2013 1:25 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:



On 06 Feb 2013, at 04:00, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/5/2013 11:02 AM, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Tuesday, February 5, 2013 1:14:07 PM UTC-5, John Clark wrote:
On Tue, Feb 5, 2013  PM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 Unpopular religions are denounced as cults.

A religion is just a cult with good PR.

It's interesting. I would be curious to know whether every  
established religion intentionally sought legitimacy at some point,


What would that mean? Legal? Where there is official government  
recognition of religion (and probably tax breaks) the answer would  
be that they sought the recognition.  And all that you can  
consider 'established' have sought adherents.  But legitimacy??   
I'm not sure how that world can be attached to religion.


In my country, that is the case. Religions have to be recognized by  
the government. If not they are classified as sect, and are  
forbidden (like scientology). It is awkward and arbitrary, but  
that's simply the case.


I'm curious.  How do they get recognized?


Arbitrarily. basically great known religion are accepted (the  
Abramanic one and, Hinduism, Buddhism). With the other you have to be  
careful when recruiting, and try to look like an association without  
financial interests. Typically a sect will be considered as such if  
people complain on sectarian activity, the most typical one being the  
subtraction of the children from the parents.



Do they  have to apply, or does the government have some standard  
(numbers?) by which they automatically get recognized?  Do they have  
to file some statement of doctrine/theology/dogma with the  
government so that it can be determined whether a group is a  
splinter sect or a different religion?  Is Mormonism recognized?


It is not. Now if there are enough people adhering, and if the  
religion is widespread in some places, they can have a chance. Most  
people accept this state of affair, because we do have an history of  
bad sects leading to collective suicide. Scientology has oscillated  
between some form of acceptance and reject. Eventually, when too much  
people complains, like it has been the case for scientology, the  
government get its attention turned on them, and they disintegrate the  
sect, which sometimes come back with another name.
Jehovah witness are tolerated because they are numerous, and  
considered as a variant of christians. Most male members were sent to  
jail, though, because they refused the military service, when it was  
obligatory for all.


Bruno






Brent

The result is that sect become secret societies, so it is even  
harder to get rid of them, or for adherent to ever been able to get  
out of the influence. It is a real social dramatic problem. Then  
corruption makes also some sect still developing, like notably  
scientology.


Bruno



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Re: HOW YOU CAN BECOME A LIBERAL THEOLOGIAN IN JUST 4 STEPS.

2013-02-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Feb 2013, at 20:11, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2013/2/6 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
On 2/6/2013 1:25 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:



On 06 Feb 2013, at 04:00, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/5/2013 11:02 AM, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Tuesday, February 5, 2013 1:14:07 PM UTC-5, John Clark wrote:
On Tue, Feb 5, 2013  PM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 Unpopular religions are denounced as cults.

A religion is just a cult with good PR.

It's interesting. I would be curious to know whether every  
established religion intentionally sought legitimacy at some point,


What would that mean? Legal? Where there is official government  
recognition of religion (and probably tax breaks) the answer would  
be that they sought the recognition.  And all that you can  
consider 'established' have sought adherents.  But legitimacy??   
I'm not sure how that world can be attached to religion.


In my country, that is the case. Religions have to be recognized by  
the government. If not they are classified as sect, and are  
forbidden (like scientology). It is awkward and arbitrary, but  
that's simply the case.


I'm curious.  How do they get recognized?  Do they  have to apply,

They have to apply. But contrary to what Bruno claims, sect are not  
illegal, some sects can and have been declared illegal (as any group  
can be). But for example, scientology is not illegal in Belgium (for  
now)


OK. With enough money on the table, anything is legal in Belgium, and  
many countries.




but they are often brought to justice by ex-member (for good reason  
I think).


Also, I am talking about the legislation I knew about many years ago.  
Maybe today they focus only on sectarian behavior (which would be  
more reasonable).


Bruno







Quentin

or does the government have some standard (numbers?) by which they  
automatically get recognized?  Do they have to file some statement  
of doctrine/theology/dogma with the government so that it can be  
determined whether a group is a splinter sect or a different  
religion?  Is Mormonism recognized?


Brent


The result is that sect become secret societies, so it is even  
harder to get rid of them, or for adherent to ever been able to get  
out of the influence. It is a real social dramatic problem. Then  
corruption makes also some sect still developing, like notably  
scientology.


Bruno



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Re: Topical combination

2013-02-07 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2013/2/7 Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be


 On 06 Feb 2013, at 18:07, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Wednesday, February 6, 2013 9:37:22 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 05 Feb 2013, at 19:01, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Tuesday, February 5, 2013 12:51:10 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 05 Feb 2013, at 18:10, Quentin Anciaux wrote:



 2013/2/5 Bruno Marchal mar...@ulb.ac.be


 On 05 Feb 2013, at 14:34, Roger Clough wrote:

  Hi meekerdb


 There's nothing wrong with science as science.
 But a problem arises when you apply the results to theology.

 Two completely different worlds.


 That's indeed a point where string atheists agree with string
 christian. Let us try to be not serious on theology, so we can assert the
 fairy tales. Strong Christian are happy because they feel like they can
 contradict the scientific evidences, and the atheists are happy so they can
 continue to mock the christians, and continue to sleep on their own
 (materialist) dogma.


 You put meaning in atheism which is not there... an atheist can
 perfectly be an idealist... materialism is not part of the definition of
 atheism.


 Definition here are often contradictory. Some years ago, the definition
 keep changing.

 Can you give me the name of an atheist who is idealist?


 I would consider Sam Harris and Daniel Dennet idealists, in the sense
 that the ideal is reduced to function rather than a material.



 That is not idealism. That's only the common functionalism.

 Idealists believe that matter is a production of the mind.



 I think that the common belief of Harris and Dennett is that the function
 of mind creates the illusion of matter as we know it.


 That contradicts what I read. You might give a reference.




 Beyond our view of matter, I would guess that both of them would agree
 that matter is a function of quantum functions, which to me is the same
 thing as an image of the mind made impersonal.


 But that is not what people means by quantum, which need to refer to the
 *assumed* (not derived like in comp) physics.







 Dennett made clear that he is physicalist, naturalist, and weak
 materialist.

 I don't know any scientist being idealist, and even in philosophy of
 mind, most dictionaries describe it as being abandoned.


 I agree in the sense that you intend, but I think that functionalism is
 the same thing as impersonal idealism.


 You can't provide new meaning to terms having standard definition.


As you do with term such as God ?


  Most functionalist are weak-materialist today.


Most people that believe in God, believe it is a supreme being/person which
answers the prayer. Do you deny that ?

Do you really think a lot of people use your god = arithmetical
truth/existential absolute ?

If you talk about God to people not reading this list, they would never
come to your meaning, as such your usage is a misuse and leads to confusion.

Regards,
Quentin


 Most scientists believe that comp needs materialism. They are still
 completely unaware of the first person indeterminacy, and the immaterialist
 consequences. Functionalism might imply immaterialism, as comp does (comp
 is that there is a level where functionalism is correct. Functionalism is
 usually vague on the level, which is implicitly given by some neuro-level,
 comp is just a much weaker hypothesis).

 Bruno





 Craig


 That explain probably why people take time to swallow the consequences of
 comp. Comp is the favorite theory of the (weak) materialist, and so it is
 hard for them to get that comp and materialism, and the usual weak Occam
 razor, are contradictory.

 Bruno

 Bruno





 Craig



 Bruno




 Quentin


 That does not give much place for the genuine inquiry, I think.

 Bruno





  - Receiving the following content -
 *From:* meekerdb
  *Receiver:* everything-list
  *Time:* 2013-02-04, 13:48:50
  *Subject:* Re: Topical combination

  On 2/4/2013 7:56 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


  On 03 Feb 2013, at 12:30, Roger Clough wrote:

  Hi John Mikes
 �
 It says
 �
 The Fabric of Eternity is the author's personal view of the Universe
 that allows for science and theology to explore the wonders of creation in
 peaceful unison.'
 �
 IMHO that is completely misguided, because the worlds they
 understand燼re separate magisteria, to use�
 Stephan Jay Gould's phrase.� Science deals with the physical world, and
 theology deals with
 the nonphysical world.


 Only an Aristotelian can say science deals with the physical world.
 This sums up physicalism.

 A Platonist says that science is just the modest tool/method to deal
 with any subject.


 Except it was Plato who thought he could understand the world by just
 thinking about it, while it was Aristotle who went out to observe and let
 the world teach him.� So who was modest and who was arrogant?

 Brent

  Allowing the abandon of science in the theological field can only be
 an invitation to the bad faith in there, and to the don't ask mentality.

 Bruno


 

Re: Lee Smolin and Darwin's Uncommon Success

2013-02-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Feb 2013, at 20:36, Alberto G. Corona wrote:





2013/2/6 Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be

On 06 Feb 2013, at 10:22, Alberto G. Corona wrote:





2013/2/6 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net
On 2/5/2013 3:27 PM, Alberto G. Corona wrote:




2013/2/5 Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net
Hi,

ISTM that purpose is a 1p, so to ask the question in a 3p  
sense is to make it meaningless.



That´s it.


But to insist into make the question in 3p may  force the  
introduction of an implicit  1p that contemplate the 3p, that is,   
a metamind , with a metatime etc. (To avoid pavlovian responses, i  
don´t mention the G. world). That is the meaning of my previous  
response.


Hi Alberto,

But the meta versions would be 1p's in their own right, no?


Absolutely.  Not only when talking about purpose. Most of the  
concepts we use are 1p,  so it is supposed that they are  
meaningless when used in the description of a multiverse .  
Precisely because the multiverse is a design with the explicit goal  
of eliminate purpose as an axiom.


But at the end, as I mentioned, this goal is not possible, because  
we can not avoid the infinite regression in the search for causes,  
and causality is 1p indeed.


I agree that causality is 1p, but that makes causality emergent, and  
secondary, not fundamental.
We can stop the regression at the place we postulate the theory. I  
have explained why arithmetic is a good starting places. It explains  
the physical and non physical 1p and 3p, and it explains why we  
cannot take less than arithmetic (or Turing equivalent).




Se inadvertently, when we talk about what exist and what do not  
exist in a multiverse, we turn into looking at an implicit 1p  
designer of the multiverse


Arithmetic is enough. It is 3p.





At the end we can not think outside 1p. Scientific inquiry is   
comunicable 1p.


If it is communicable, it can be 1p, but it is genuinely 3p too. The  
1p part is not relevant, I think. Unless you assume that the whole  
arithmetic truth is conscious. That's an open problem, but we don't  
need to solve it to extract physics from the number's dreams.



Math is ambiguous on that.


A priori, yes. But once we assume computationalism in cognitive  
science, then we can accept that when numbers, relatively to other  
numbers, behave in some ways (self-reference, etc.) they get mind, or  
at least some mind can be associate to them (and then on the infinity  
of them).



We can postulate a 3p mathematical existence apart from any mind  
and  any reality.


That is clear for arithmetic, but already not so clear for more than  
arithmetic. With the exception of the very rare ultrafinitsis,  
mathematicians agree on arithmetic, and then disagree on anything  
else, even if most mathematician will agree on large part of analysis,  
but apparently, when they do, soon or later some logicians shows that  
they were agreeing on a part which can be re-explained in arithmetical  
terms.





We can imagine that, but this is probably because we assume an  
implicit 1p mind or meta-mind that is contemplating the mathematical  
thing. That is my guess and this is the most coherent notion of  
existence, related to a mind,, even for mathematical existence   
(apart form a null hypothesis in which everything exist). That is  
indeed the  neoplatonic view. Its´nt it?


It becomes close to neoplatonism, if you made the everything into the  
meta-mind, perhaps. The everything exist is not a null hypothesis,  
because the everything, once made precise, needs to define what we  
mean by thing (set? categories? numbers? computations?).
Almost all attempts to define everything in math has led to  
contradictory theories. To avoid the contradiction, some restriction  
principles must be introduced, and then we can show that some  
reasonable mathematical objects get lost. In fact the only exception  
is all computations, which, thanks to the non trivial Church thesis,  
and the closure of the computations for Cantor diagonalization,  
leads to a quite conceptually solid notion of everything. This is the  
strongest point in favor of comp: it has a non trivial and solid  
notion of everything on its ontological side. Then it can explain  
why we live the appearance from inside of more than arithmetic.


Bruno










Because the world of the mind -where we live- is and ever will be  
teleological.


OK with this. In a sense, matter is teleological with comp.

Bruno







On 2/5/2013 6:23 AM, Russell Standish wrote:
Only in the same sense that evolution is teleological, ie not  
really.


Cheers

On Tue, Feb 05, 2013 at 06:59:01PM +1100, Kim Jones wrote:
So does this explain the PURPOSE of the universe or merely a  
dominant FUNCTION? The blind exercise of function doesn't seem to  
me to include the global concept of purpose. The use of this word  
is about my only gripe with it. I could be wrong.


Cheers,

K







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Onward!

Stephen

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Re: Comp: Geometry Is A Zombie

2013-02-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Feb 2013, at 20:46, Alberto G. Corona wrote:





2013/2/6 Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be

On 05 Feb 2013, at 11:19, Simon Forman wrote:


On Monday, February 4, 2013 12:22:53 PM UTC-8, Craig Weinberg wrote:


On Monday, February 4, 2013 3:09:16 PM UTC-5, Alberto G.Corona wrote:

but there is a self reference when we try to imagine how the brain  
or a computer process geometry, and we imagine them embedded in the  
space and time that they create, which is not a correct intuition.  
we must imagine it in no time and no space. IMHO.


That's what I think too, geometry without space isn't geometry, so  
that there is no reason to assume that mathematics produces  
geometric presentations, or that it could possibly produce them. If  
we want mathematics to occupy space, we have to pull that  
possibility out of thin air, as well as the capacity for numbers to  
suddenly do that (and why would they need to?)


Craig



Doesn't the quantum physical reality of information mean that all  
math *is* geometry?


Put another way, math without a substratum would be in some  
platonic world, and not the real one,


How do you know that? See the paper below(*) for an argument showing  
that if we are machine, then the physical reality is *only* emergent  
from arithmetic. Moon and stars are coherent number's dream, and  
this can be tested. So if you want a material substratum, you need  
to assume that you and your brain are not Turing emulable.


(*) http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/publications/SANE2004MARCHALAbstract.html

Bruno. Just a question:

THe non emulability of a brain made of a real material substratum  
is  because the non computability of the continuum, that is, of real  
numbers I suppose. Am I right?


Yes, I think you are right, although a part of computability on  
natural numbers can be enlarged on real numbers, but then we lost  
the equivalent of Church's thesis, and the universal machines. There  
are different theory of computability on the reals.


Note also that a notion of  a constructive or computable real can be  
defined by a computable function from N to N. What is mainly not  
computable in the apparent substratum of matter, is the first person  
indeterminacy on the continuum of possible computational extensions,  
notably because the reals appearing there are statistically arbitrary,  
a bit like in the infinite iteration of WM-duplication experiences.  
The probability is near ONE that we will obtain a non computable real  
number, indeed we will obtain a non algorithmically compressible real  
number.


Bruno






Bruno

so aren't you basically asking if there's some way to do math  
without form?


Forgive me if I'm being an idoit. ;)

~Simon

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Re: Origin of probabilities and their application to the multiverse

2013-02-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 06 Feb 2013, at 21:57, meekerdb wrote:

OK, Bruno, I keep looking for some place that your theory might  
predict something  (which is much more impressive than  
'explaining').


Comp + Theaetetus (to be short) gives the whole physics. (the whole  
theology, to be more exact).


So the observable, in particular, are given by the material  
hypostases: the S4Grz1, Z1* and X1* logics.


Anything not predictable by such theories must be out of the domain of  
physics per se, and probably be geographical contingencies.


The math are not well known by those supposed to have interest in the  
subject, that's all.

The physics is already given.

I wrote a theorem prover for Z1*, it answers NIL when given a  
physical tautologies, and it gives a finite Kripke models, when he  
find a counter-examples, and this can be seen as a description of  
experimental setting which can be tested. Up to now, we get NIL for  
the empirical quantum setting. Unfortunately they cannot be too much  
complex because even a relation as simple as the simplest Bell  
inequality becomes untractable for my theorem prover. We need to  
optimize G and G*, or top find simpler direct algorithm for the Z and  
X logics. Ad we need to study the Z and X logic in the first order  
real, for which there are no theorem provers, and evidence that there  
will never be.


Normally, the Z logics should give a logic already searched by von  
Neumann, but not yet found by physicists, which should give the exact  
arithmetical ortholattice on which only one probability measure can be  
shown to exist and be unique, in a manner similar to Gleason.


Then this approach explains both the quanta and the qualia, and their  
relations.


I will take a look on the paper below, but I suspect that they assume  
the multiverse, or the quantum, which is what I show cannot work,  
neither for the quanta, nor for the qualia, once we assume comp.


Bruno




Here's a problem, essentially the measure problem in the multiverse,  
that COMP might have something to say about:


Origin of probabilities and their application to the multiverse
Andreas Albrecht and Daniel Phillips
University of California at Davis; Department of Physics
One Shields Avenue; Davis, CA 95616
We argue using simple models that all successful practical uses of  
probabilities originate in quan-
tum fluctuations in the microscopic physical world around us, often  
propagated to macroscopic
scales. Thus we claim there is no physically verified fully  
classical theory of probability. We com-
ment on the general implications of this view, and specifically  
question the application of classical
probability theory to cosmology in cases where key questions are  
known to have no quantum answer.



http://arxiv.org/pdf/1212.0953v1.pdf

Brent

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Re: Comp: Geometry Is A Zombie

2013-02-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 07 Feb 2013, at 00:12, Simon Forman wrote:


On 2/6/13, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


On 05 Feb 2013, at 11:19, Simon Forman wrote:


On Monday, February 4, 2013 12:22:53 PM UTC-8, Craig Weinberg wrote:


On Monday, February 4, 2013 3:09:16 PM UTC-5, Alberto G.Corona  
wrote:


but there is a self reference when we try to imagine how the brain
or a computer process geometry, and we imagine them embedded in the
space and time that they create, which is not a correct intuition.
we must imagine it in no time and no space. IMHO.

That's what I think too, geometry without space isn't geometry, so
that there is no reason to assume that mathematics produces
geometric presentations, or that it could possibly produce them. If
we want mathematics to occupy space, we have to pull that
possibility out of thin air, as well as the capacity for numbers to
suddenly do that (and why would they need to?)

Craig



Doesn't the quantum physical reality of information mean that all
math *is* geometry?

Put another way, math without a substratum would be in some platonic
world, and not the real one,


How do you know that? See the paper below(*) for an argument showing
that if we are machine, then the physical reality is *only* emergent
from arithmetic. Moon and stars are coherent number's dream, and
this can be tested. So if you want a material substratum, you need to
assume that you and your brain are not Turing emulable.

(*)
http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/publications/SANE2004MARCHALAbstract.html

Bruno



That paper is fascinating. If I can understand it and come up with
anything to say I will. :) Thank you for sharing it.



Thanks for saying. If you can't understand it, don't hesitate to ask  
any question.


The first part (the UDA, Universal Dovetailer Argument) requires only  
some passive understanding of elementary computer science, and it  
makes the main point. The second part requires some knowledge in  
mathematical logic. It makes the same point, more constructively, and  
in a language accessible to all sufficiently rich (Löbian) universal  
machine.


Bruno






~Simon

--

The history of mankind for the last four centuries is rather like  
that of
an imprisoned sleeper, stirring clumsily and uneasily while the  
prison that
restrains and shelters him catches fire, not waking but  
incorporating the
crackling and warmth of the fire with ancient and incongruous  
dreams, than
like that of a man consciously awake to danger and opportunity.  -- 
H. P.

Wells, A Short History of the World

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Re: How can intelligence be physical ?

2013-02-07 Thread meekerdb

On 2/7/2013 3:52 AM, Telmo Menezes wrote:
On Wed, Feb 6, 2013 at 7:04 PM, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com 
mailto:johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:




On Tue, Feb 5, 2013 at 6:00 PM, Telmo Menezes te...@telmomenezes.com
mailto:te...@telmomenezes.com wrote:

 I'm not claiming that intelligence == mind.


 Do you believe that your fellow human beings have minds? If so 
why?


 Yes (weakly).


You believe that only weakly?! Do you really think there is a 49% chance 
that you
are the only conscious being in the universe?


I don't know how to assign a probability to that. I guess I believe it's in ]0.5, 1] 
because I would bet on it, but that's all I can say.


I say weakly because the only thing I have to back this belief is an heuristic, which I 
find to be a weaker form of approximating the truth than mathematical proof or 
experimental confirmation.


By the way, I don't believe other people have minds when they are sleeping 
or under
anesthesia or dead because when they are in those states they don't behave 
very
intelligently.


But that is because you believe that intelligence == mind. I don't. Certain experiences 
that you can do on yourself might make you doubt that belief, but I don't know of any 
way to convince you except suggesting that you do those experiences.



 Occam's razor. If I'm the only human being with a mind, then, for some
mysterious reason, there are two types of human beings: me (with a 
mind) and the
others (zombies). So heuristically I'm inclined to believe that all 
human beings
have a mind,


OK, but if you also believe in Darwin's theory of Evolution then you must 
also
believe that consciousness MUST be a byproduct of intelligence because 
Evolution
can't directly see consciousness any better than we can and so cannot 
select for it,
and yet you and probably other people are conscious. Thus you must also 
believe that
if a computer is intelligent then it is conscious. Then you must also 
believe that
intelligence == mind.


You are begging the question. You're assuming, to begin with, that intelligence == mind 
and then you claim to prove that intelligence == mind.


By the way, for evolution to generate consciousness there has to exist a gradient to 
climb. Unless the evolutionary process just stumbles into consciousness, but in that 
case it is not a valid theory of it's origin. So you are implicitly assuming that there 
is some measure of consciousness, where you can say that entity A is more conscious than 
entity B. What would that even mean? My cat seems conscious to me (but I can't know for 
sure). Is he less conscious than me? Well I know stuff that he doesn't, but he also 
knows stuff that I don't -- for example he knows how it feels to be a cat.


But that doesn't mean there's something magic about being a cat.  I think it might be 
possible to change your brain, and your sensory organs, so that it implemented 
consciousness very similar to a cat's (it couldn't be exact because you'd need a cat's 
body for that).  Of course it wouldn't be Telmo Menezes any more.


And yes I think there are degrees and kinds of consciousness and that a cat's 
consciousness differs in both respects.  There's consciousness of being an individual and 
of being located in 3-space and in time.  You and the cat have both of those (whereas a 
Mars rover only has the latter).  But there's language and narrative memory that you have 
and the cat doesn't.  There's reflective thought,I'm Telmo and I'm thinking about myself 
and where I fit in the world.  The cat probably doesn't have this because it's not social 
- but a dog might.


Brent

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Re: HOW YOU CAN BECOME A LIBERAL THEOLOGIAN IN JUST 4 STEPS.

2013-02-07 Thread meekerdb

On 2/7/2013 7:12 AM, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:



On Wed, Feb 6, 2013 at 8:11 PM, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com 
mailto:allco...@gmail.com wrote:




2013/2/6 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net

On 2/6/2013 1:25 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 06 Feb 2013, at 04:00, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/5/2013 11:02 AM, Craig Weinberg wrote:



On Tuesday, February 5, 2013 1:14:07 PM UTC-5, John Clark wrote:

On Tue, Feb 5, 2013  PM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 Unpopular religions are denounced as cults.


A religion is just a cult with good PR.


It's interesting. I would be curious to know whether every established
religion intentionally sought legitimacy at some point,


What would that mean? Legal? Where there is official government 
recognition of
religion (and probably tax breaks) the answer would be that they sought 
the
recognition.  And all that you can consider 'established' have sought
adherents.  But legitimacy??  I'm not sure how that world can be 
attached to
religion.


In my country, that is the case. Religions have to be recognized by the
government. If not they are classified as sect, and are forbidden (like
scientology). It is awkward and arbitrary, but that's simply the case.


I'm curious.  How do they get recognized?  Do they  have to apply,


They have to apply. But contrary to what Bruno claims, sect are not 
illegal, some
sects can and have been declared illegal (as any group can be). But for 
example,
scientology is not illegal in Belgium (for now) but they are often brought 
to
justice by ex-member (for good reason I think).



Sorry to be frank, but if this is serious (I miss some joke), then it is naive: the 
mechanism that serves to monitor and regulate the founding of religions in Western 
Europe, is the same judicial tool to control and finally repress religious groups- by 
seemingly integrating them.


The moment any of these groups moves to do things like:

- change conceptions of marriage

- change conceptions of family

- import for example its sacred ceremonial brew from South America, that has a 
controlled substance in it for thousands of years


- want more appropriate economic frameworks for taxation for their conceptions of groups 
and individuals (why not marriages, as Judith Butler often put forward, between 3,4,5 or 
more partners, if their financial strategy and survival is solid with every partner 
consenting? Today: If a community of six partners works and lives together, hopefully 
they pair off to 3 males and 3 females, and still they would be taxed as 3 couples)


- or simply make too much money: the western democracy rears its totalitarian face; less 
obvious than in North Korea, but let's stop telling ourselves stories about our 
democracy vs. China etc. We have learned nothing from totalitarian times and wars.


Just because we hide the totalitarian tendencies in different judicial spots of cultural 
prejudice, doesn't mean freedom of religion.


A Rastafarian wanting some of his sacred herb in France: fat chance, if he were to cite 
his religious reasons in court.


One can invent a religion and cite it for anything from eating hallucinogenic mushrooms to 
burning Jews.  In the U.S. the general rule is that a legal prohibition must serve a 
secular purpose (not be directed specifically at a religion) and laws apply equally to 
everyone.  So if your religion says you can beat women who show their face in public, 
that's just too bad for your religion.




So yes, you can apply for official recognition of your religion if you are interested in 
playing poker in pairs with plastic money beside your bed.


Sorry, prohibition applies here too. So yes, alternate religious groupings are in 
practice illegal in Western Europe, if not on paper.


PGC


So what's the advantage of being recognized?  Will some authority prevent you praying at a 
shrine or from reading your sacred text if you're not recognized?  Will you get some tax 
advantage if you are?  And when a religion is recognized that must imply that it is 
somehow defined.  How is that done?   And how finely are religions defined...is 
Christianity recognized as one religion, or do they distinguish Catholics from Baptists 
from Mormons?  This all seems impossibly messy.


Brent

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Re: Topical combination

2013-02-07 Thread meekerdb

On 2/7/2013 8:09 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


Beyond our view of matter, I would guess that both of them would agree that matter is a 
function of quantum functions, which to me is the same thing as an image of the mind 
made impersonal.


But that is not what people means by quantum, which need to refer to the *assumed* (not 
derived like in comp) physics.


Comp is derived from an assumption.  Physics is derived from observation.








Dennett made clear that he is physicalist, naturalist, and weak materialist.

I don't know any scientist being idealist, and even in philosophy of mind, 
most
dictionaries describe it as being abandoned.


I agree in the sense that you intend, but I think that functionalism is the same thing 
as impersonal idealism.


You can't provide new meaning to terms having standard definition.


That's pretty funny from a guy who redefines God, theology, and 
mechanism. :-)

Brent

Most functionalist are weak-materialist today. Most scientists believe that comp needs 
materialism. They are still completely unaware of the first person indeterminacy, and 
the immaterialist consequences. Functionalism might imply immaterialism, as comp does 
(comp is that there is a level where functionalism is correct. Functionalism is usually 
vague on the level, which is implicitly given by some neuro-level, comp is just a much 
weaker hypothesis).


Bruno


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Re: HOW YOU CAN BECOME A LIBERAL THEOLOGIAN IN JUST 4 STEPS.

2013-02-07 Thread meekerdb

On 2/7/2013 8:23 AM, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:



On Thu, Feb 7, 2013 at 4:47 PM, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com 
mailto:allco...@gmail.com wrote:




2013/2/7 Platonist Guitar Cowboy multiplecit...@gmail.com
mailto:multiplecit...@gmail.com



On Wed, Feb 6, 2013 at 8:11 PM, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com
mailto:allco...@gmail.com wrote:



2013/2/6 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net

On 2/6/2013 1:25 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 06 Feb 2013, at 04:00, meekerdb wrote:


On 2/5/2013 11:02 AM, Craig Weinberg wrote:



On Tuesday, February 5, 2013 1:14:07 PM UTC-5, John Clark wrote:

On Tue, Feb 5, 2013  PM, Craig Weinberg 
whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 Unpopular religions are denounced as cults.


A religion is just a cult with good PR.


It's interesting. I would be curious to know whether every
established religion intentionally sought legitimacy at some 
point,


What would that mean? Legal? Where there is official government
recognition of religion (and probably tax breaks) the answer 
would be
that they sought the recognition.  And all that you can consider
'established' have sought adherents.  But legitimacy??  I'm 
not sure
how that world can be attached to religion.


In my country, that is the case. Religions have to be 
recognized by the
government. If not they are classified as sect, and are 
forbidden (like
scientology). It is awkward and arbitrary, but that's simply 
the case.


I'm curious.  How do they get recognized?  Do they  have to 
apply,


They have to apply. But contrary to what Bruno claims, sect are not 
illegal,
some sects can and have been declared illegal (as any group can 
be). But for
example, scientology is not illegal in Belgium (for now) but they 
are often
brought to justice by ex-member (for good reason I think).



Sorry to be frank, but if this is serious (I miss some joke), then it 
is naive:
the mechanism that serves to monitor and regulate the founding of 
religions in
Western Europe, is the same judicial tool to control and finally repress
religious groups- by seemingly integrating them.

The moment any of these groups moves to do things like:


Well they have to conform to the laws (same as in the USA)... So no sects 
are not
illegal in belgium, they can't be declared illegal as long as they conform 
to the
laws like anywhere else on earth. And as I said, scientology *is not* 
illegal in
belgium and it is *in practice* not in theory.

No if you rant about the laws it's a totally different subject and you 
should not
conflate the two.


Why? Because religious beliefs have nothing to do with judicial concepts?

Our judicial marriage model has nothing to do with the Christian conception of 
marriage?

There is no freedom of religion,


You seem to jump from there are some restrictions on practices that claimed to be 
religious, to there is NO freedom of religion.  Is it your position that freedom of 
religion only exists when every practice called 'religion' by its adherents is permitted?  
I hope you don't have freedom of religion for Aztecs.


no freedom of thought, no legality of sects that stray from Western European 
Christian-Secular legal conceptions = this is conflated via history, so don't blame 
the messenger á la thou shalt not conflate... also you take this conflation for 
granted in arbitrary manner suiting your argument, but not when I raise religious 
freedom issues + you legitimize via because they conform to the laws like everywhere 
else on earth, which is not an argument.


Discriminatory laws have been passed before and continue to be passed.

The legality of sects you cite is peanuts given to caged animals, to be a bit 
hyperbolic :)


The freedom of religion you seek is like letting the lions run free in the zoo - to be a 
little hyperbolic.


Brent

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Re: Lee Smolin and Darwin's Uncommon Success

2013-02-07 Thread meekerdb

On 2/7/2013 8:55 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

Math is ambiguous on that.


A priori, yes. But once we assume computationalism in cognitive science, then we can 
accept that when numbers, relatively to other numbers, behave in some ways 
(self-reference, etc.) they get mind, or at least some mind can be associate to them 
(and then on the infinity of them).


But this is very vague.  Why should there be more than one mind. What picks out individual 
minds?  And why are they associated with brains?  And why do they agree on a common 
physical world?  Arithmetic only shows that some numbers can refer to other numbers, where 
'refer' is in terms arithmetic operations.  That is very far from showing they are 'minds'.


Brent


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Re: HOW YOU CAN BECOME A LIBERAL THEOLOGIAN IN JUST 4 STEPS.

2013-02-07 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
On Thu, Feb 7, 2013 at 8:34 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 2/7/2013 8:23 AM, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:



 On Thu, Feb 7, 2013 at 4:47 PM, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.comwrote:



  2013/2/7 Platonist Guitar Cowboy multiplecit...@gmail.com



  On Wed, Feb 6, 2013 at 8:11 PM, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.comwrote:



  2013/2/6 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net

  On 2/6/2013 1:25 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


  On 06 Feb 2013, at 04:00, meekerdb wrote:

  On 2/5/2013 11:02 AM, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Tuesday, February 5, 2013 1:14:07 PM UTC-5, John Clark wrote:

 On Tue, Feb 5, 2013  PM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:


   Unpopular religions are denounced as cults.


 A religion is just a cult with good PR.


 It's interesting. I would be curious to know whether every established
 religion intentionally sought legitimacy at some point,


 What would that mean? Legal? Where there is official government
 recognition of religion (and probably tax breaks) the answer would be that
 they sought the recognition.  And all that you can consider 'established'
 have sought adherents.  But legitimacy??  I'm not sure how that world 
 can
 be attached to religion.


  In my country, that is the case. Religions have to be recognized by
 the government. If not they are classified as sect, and are forbidden 
 (like
 scientology). It is awkward and arbitrary, but that's simply the case.


  I'm curious.  How do they get recognized?  Do they  have to apply,


 They have to apply. But contrary to what Bruno claims, sect are not
 illegal, some sects can and have been declared illegal (as any group can
 be). But for example, scientology is not illegal in Belgium (for now) but
 they are often brought to justice by ex-member (for good reason I think).



 Sorry to be frank, but if this is serious (I miss some joke), then it is
 naive: the mechanism that serves to monitor and regulate the founding of
 religions in Western Europe, is the same judicial tool to control and
 finally repress religious groups- by seemingly integrating them.

 The moment any of these groups moves to do things like:


 Well they have to conform to the laws (same as in the USA)... So no sects
 are not illegal in belgium, they can't be declared illegal as long as they
 conform to the laws like anywhere else on earth. And as I said, scientology
 *is not* illegal in belgium and it is *in practice* not in theory.

 No if you rant about the laws it's a totally different subject and you
 should not conflate the two.


 Why? Because religious beliefs have nothing to do with judicial concepts?

 Our judicial marriage model has nothing to do with the Christian
 conception of marriage?

 There is no freedom of religion,


 You seem to jump from there are some restrictions on practices that
 claimed to be religious, to there is NO freedom of religion.  Is it your
 position that freedom of religion only exists when every practice called
 'religion' by its adherents is permitted?  I hope you don't have freedom of
 religion for Aztecs.


Yes, that is what I am after Brent. You want me to take this seriously? Ok:
you got me. Should I step outside put my hands on the car now, or what?
Damn it! I was so close to world domination, and then Brent stepped in...
DAMN YOU BRENT :)



  no freedom of thought, no legality of sects that stray from Western
 European Christian-Secular legal conceptions = this is conflated via
 history, so don't blame the messenger á la thou shalt not conflate...
 also you take this conflation for granted in arbitrary manner suiting your
 argument, but not when I raise religious freedom issues + you legitimize
 via because they conform to the laws like everywhere else on earth, which
 is not an argument.

 Discriminatory laws have been passed before and continue to be passed.

 The legality of sects you cite is peanuts given to caged animals, to be a
 bit hyperbolic :)


 The freedom of religion you seek is like letting the lions run free in the
 zoo - to be a little hyperbolic.


I just don't like to confuse necessary and possible in absolute reductive
sense, particularly when considering danger in a broad sense, which you do
in every line here. I am not being hyperbolic this time.

PGC




Brent

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Re: Science is a religion by itself.

2013-02-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 07 Feb 2013, at 08:03, socra...@bezeqint.net wrote:


 Does somebody know what  Vacuum is ?
No, we don’t know what  Vacuum is.



From below I see that you meant here the physical vacuum.

If comp is correct the physical vacuum is the statistical sum on all  
(arithmetical) computations. Why and if that behaves like the  
observable quantum vacuum remains to be seen in detail, but it has  
to be, or we are not Turing emulable. In that case the physical vacuum  
might be less or more than such a sum.


Bruno





1
Paul Dirac wrote:
‘ The problem of the exact description of vacuum, in my opinion,
is the basic problem now before physics. Really, if you can’t
correctly
describe the vacuum, how it is possible to expect a correct
description
of something more complex? ‘
2.
The most fundamental question facing 21st century physics will be:
What is the vacuum? As quantum mechanics teaches us, with
its zero point energy this vacuum is not empty and the word
vacuum is a gross misnomer!
  / Prof. Friedwardt Winterberg /
3.
Wikipedia :
“ Unfortunately neither the concept of space nor of time is well
defined,
resulting in a dilemma. If we don't know the character of time nor of
space,
how can we characterize either? “
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spacetime
4.
Now we know that the vacuum can have all sorts of wonderful effects
over an enormous range of scales, from the microscopic to the cosmic,
said Peter Milonni
from the Los Alamos National Laboratory in New Mexico.
5.
‘ All kinds of electromagnetic waves ( including light’s)
spread in vacuum  . . . .  thanks to the vacuum, to the specific
ability of empty space  these electromagnetic waves  can exist.’
/ Book : To what physics was come,  page 32. R. K. Utiyama. /
==.
So, we know that the vacuum is very important conception in physics
and nature, but . . .  but . . . we don’t know what vacuum is, and
therefore
is possible to have many speculations including metaphysical too.
For example:   Danah  Zohar  wrote:

‘It might even give us some ground to speculate that
the vacuum itself (and hence the universe) is ‘conscious’.
/ Book  ‘The quantum self ’ page 208. /
#
‘If we were looking for something that we could conceive
of as God within the universe of the new physics, this ground
state, coherent quantum vacuum might be a good place to start.’
/ Book  ‘The quantum self ’ page 208,  by Danah Zohar. /
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Danah_Zohar

The question is:
How is it possible to prove Zohar’s metaphysical  confirmation
with physical laws and formulas?
==.
Socratus
===.

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Re: HOW YOU CAN BECOME A LIBERAL THEOLOGIAN IN JUST 4 STEPS.

2013-02-07 Thread meekerdb

On 2/7/2013 12:01 PM, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:

There might be confusion between necessary and possible dangers.


If there is, you haven't cleared it up.



Necessary danger: It’s legal for your neighbor to walk on to your property and shoot you 
for emotional reasons or it’s legal to burn a minority on racial grounds etc.


What's 'necessary' about either one of those events?  First, if it were legal it would 
still be extremely unlikely (my neighbor likes me) and certainly no necessary.  Second, it 
can happen even though it is illegal.  So it's a possible danger - but not necessitated by 
anything.




Possible danger: eating hallucinogenic mushrooms or driving a car (more die of the 
latter on % basis).


These involve some degree of danger, so you are required to meet certain criteria and get 
a license to drive a car and there are various rules for traffic to reduce the degree of 
danger.  That more people die of car accidents than eating hallucinogenic mushrooms is not 
really to the point.  Many more people drive and ride in cars that eat hallucinogenic 
mushrooms and they thereby accomplish many things useful to society as well as too 
themselves, while of hallucinating is of dubious value.  In any case eating hallucinogenic 
mushrooms is widely tolerated in the U.S. and it's not even clear that it is illegal under 
federal law, independent of any religious claims.




Beating people in public/private again: necessary, forced harm; no matter how you look 
at it. Smoking a herb: possibly, depends on how you look at it.


“A secular purpose” is a nice ruse, because it is “theology-free”, right? 


Yes it is.  It's not dependent on any ultimate foundation of the universe (per Bruno's 
definition of 'theology') or even any agreement about what that might be.  It only depends 
on the public subjective non-religious values of society as expressed in their laws.  
That's what 'secular' means.


Brent

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Re: The Plant Teachers

2013-02-07 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 07 Feb 2013, at 10:57, Kim Jones wrote:


Graham Hancock's experiences with Ayahuasca

Of course some will immediately denounce this post as irrelevant to  
the search for a TOE. But, recall that CONSCIOUSNESS is the ultimate  
final frontier in science and that voyagers in consciousness- 
altering substances have a perspective to contribute here. This blog  
I find to be one of the more convincingly serious and thought- 
provoking essays on the use of DMT that I have yet encountered. In  
many ways, the experience of Ayahuasca seems to dovetail with the  
experience of Salvia Divinorum, as I'm sure Bruno will agree. I have  
tried neither, but would leap at the opportunity were it to present  
itself to me.


Yes, Plant teacher might be not completely out of topic, if we want  
study consciousness. Dale Pendell, the chemist and expert in  
psychedelic  wrote, provocatively, I think, that humans and animals  
have no consciousness, and that only plants have it, and that animal  
are conscious by eating plant.


About DMT and salvia comparison, this is the object of a lasting  
debate among those who appreciate them for spiritual purpose. My own  
experience, perhaps not successful for having not well done the  
extraction, is that DMT is just like some strong mushrooms.  
Interesting but not so incredible compared to salvia, about the  
nature of consciousness and reality.
Salvia, like Ketamine, (but quite less dangerous, and anti-addictive)  
has a dissociative effect which might illustrate the Galois  
connection between 1p-mind (consciousness) and its 3p local handlings  
(the 3p-brains). By making a peculiar dissociation at some place in  
the brain, one are left with the feeling that we are *less* than we  
are used to think, and that we are consequently in front of *more*  
possibilities. That Galois connection occurs in many place in math:  
less equations = more solutions, or less axioms = more interpretations/ 
models. Somehow less brain = more experience, or more intense and  
richer feeling of experience. This would make the brain being more a  
filter of consciousness than a producer of consciousness.


Technically, I still have no real clue if this really follows from  
comp, but the relation between G and Z suggests that there might be  
some truth there. There is something similar already between the box  
[] and the diamond  in all modal logics, but to apply it to the  
brain, we need this between G and Z, and this is partially confirmed  
(for example t is true and non provable in G, and it is []t which  
becomes true but not provable in Z (with the intuitive meanings that  
self-consistency is not provable by the correct machines, and that  
truth is not an observable for the self-observing machine. There might  
be a partial Galois connection here.


Now, if it is obvious that altered conscious states can be a gold mine  
for the researcher in consciousness, there is the obvious problem that  
they concern 1p experiences, which are not communicable. Statistics  
can be done on many reports, but the texts are usually hard to  
interpret, and the texts can get influences by each others, etc. So  
extreme cautiousness is asked before jumping on conclusion. Especially  
with salvia which lead to experience that you can hardly describe to  
yourself, and from which you get amnesic in some systematic way.


But words, here too, are not so important, at least for its most  
peculiar and easy aspects.
When the Mexican Mazatec get christianized, they probably did not  
understand what the Spanish were talking about when they mentioned the  
Mother of God, or the Virgin Mary, until some exclaimed  Ah but that  
must be the lady we met when we use salvia, and everything was clear,  
then  :)


Bruno












Fascinating, Captain, fascinating.

Kim Jones.

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Re: Lee Smolin and Darwin's Uncommon Success

2013-02-07 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Thursday, February 7, 2013 10:50:23 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 06 Feb 2013, at 17:39, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Wednesday, February 6, 2013 9:50:35 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 05 Feb 2013, at 21:34, Craig Weinberg wrote:



 On Tuesday, February 5, 2013 3:27:27 PM UTC-5, Alberto G.Corona wrote:




 2013/2/5 Stephen P. King step...@charter.net

 Hi,

 ISTM that purpose is a 1p, so to ask the question in a 3p sense is 
 to make it meaningless.


 That´s it.


 But to insist into make the question in 3p may  force the introduction 
 of an implicit  1p that contemplate the 3p, that is,  a metamind , with a 
 metatime etc. (To avoid pavlovian responses, i don´t mention the G. world). 
 That is the meaning of my previous response.


 Why doesn't the metamind need a metamind?


 In fact arithmetic explains the presence of mind, in both the 3p and 1p 
 view. Even without comp actually, by using the definition of mind by 
 self-reference, and true self-reference (with truth guven by Tarski theory 
 applied to arithmetic).

 Bruno


 What explains the presence of arithmetic?


 It is mysterious. But it is the least mysterious thing that we have to 
 assume to talk on anything else.


Sense is less mysterious because we experience it first hand. It is most 
mysterious because it cannot be explained. It cannot be explained because 
there is nothing more primitive than sense with which to explain it. To 
begin to talk arithmetically, you have to first have a way to talk. That is 
sensory-motor participation. Input and output. Without I/O, there is no 
reason for numbers, as the purpose of numbers is to represent figurative 
relations discretely - not to manifest material objects or subjective 
experiences (even if they can be used to figuratively represent one to the 
other).
 






 Or if we assume arithmetic, why should there be the presence of anything 
 else?


 That's the point. There isn't anything else. 


But you are always saying 'no, that's not arithmetic, that's the dreams of 
numbers, or the contents of the dreams of numbers.' How can you have it 
both ways? 


 Arithmetic is quite enough to explain how immaterial beings can get lost 
 in terrestrial realities, and why those realities obeys laws, and which 
 laws.


Only if you assume terrestrial qualities and realism and beings in advance. 
If there isn't anything but arithmetic, then why should such qualities and 
experiences exist?

Craig
 


 Bruno




 Craig
  





  

  

 On 2/5/2013 6:23 AM, Russell Standish wrote:

 Only in the same sense that evolution is teleological, ie not really.

 Cheers

 On Tue, Feb 05, 2013 at 06:59:01PM +1100, Kim Jones wrote:

 So does this explain the PURPOSE of the universe or merely a dominant 
 FUNCTION? The blind exercise of function doesn't seem to me to include 
 the 
 global concept of purpose. The use of this word is about my only gripe 
 with 
 it. I could be wrong.

 Cheers,

 K


  

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 Onward!

 Stephen



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Re: How can intelligence be physical ?

2013-02-07 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Thursday, February 7, 2013 7:12:08 AM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:

 On Thu, Feb 7, 2013 at 4:01 AM, Craig Weinberg 
 whats...@gmail.comjavascript: 
 wrote: 

  That's just because the simulation of a person isn't good enough. The 
  question is what if the simulation *is* good enough to completely fool 
  you. 
  
  
  Fooling me is meaningless. I think that you think therefore you are 
 fails 
  to account for the subjective thinker in the first place. If someone 
 kills 
  you, but they then find a nifty way to use your cadaver as a 
 ventriloquist's 
  dummy, does it matter if it fools someone into thinking that you are 
 still 
  alive? 

 You have said that you can just sense the consciousness of other 
 minds but you have contradicted that, or at least admitted that the 
 sensing faculty can be fooled. 


An individual's sense can be fooled, but not necessarily fooled forever, 
and not everyone can be fooled. That doesn't mean that when we look at a 
beercan in the trash we can't tell that it doesn't literally feel crushed 
and abandoned.
 

 If you have no sure test for 
 consciousness that means you might see it where it isn't present or 
 miss it where it is present. So your friend might be unconscious 
 despite your feeling that he is, 


Of course. People have been buried alive because the undertaker was fooled.
 

 and your computer might be conscious 
 despite your feeling that it is not. 


Except my feeling is backed up with my knowledge of what it is - a human 
artifact designed to mimic certain mental functions. That knowledge should 
augment my personal intuition, as well as social and cultural 
reinforcements that indeed there is no reason to suspect that this map of 
mind is sentient territory.

Craig
 



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Re: How can intelligence be physical ?

2013-02-07 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On Fri, Feb 8, 2013 at 9:20 AM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Thursday, February 7, 2013 7:12:08 AM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:

 On Thu, Feb 7, 2013 at 4:01 AM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

  That's just because the simulation of a person isn't good enough. The
  question is what if the simulation *is* good enough to completely fool
  you.
 
 
  Fooling me is meaningless. I think that you think therefore you are
  fails
  to account for the subjective thinker in the first place. If someone
  kills
  you, but they then find a nifty way to use your cadaver as a
  ventriloquist's
  dummy, does it matter if it fools someone into thinking that you are
  still
  alive?

 You have said that you can just sense the consciousness of other
 minds but you have contradicted that, or at least admitted that the
 sensing faculty can be fooled.


 An individual's sense can be fooled, but not necessarily fooled forever, and
 not everyone can be fooled. That doesn't mean that when we look at a beercan
 in the trash we can't tell that it doesn't literally feel crushed and
 abandoned.


 If you have no sure test for
 consciousness that means you might see it where it isn't present or
 miss it where it is present. So your friend might be unconscious
 despite your feeling that he is,


 Of course. People have been buried alive because the undertaker was fooled.


 and your computer might be conscious
 despite your feeling that it is not.


 Except my feeling is backed up with my knowledge of what it is - a human
 artifact designed to mimic certain mental functions. That knowledge should
 augment my personal intuition, as well as social and cultural reinforcements
 that indeed there is no reason to suspect that this map of mind is sentient
 territory.

You're avoiding the question. What is your definitive test for
consciousness? If you don't have one, then you have to admit that your
friend (who talks to you and behaves like people do, not in a coma,
not on a video recording, not dead in the morgue) may not be conscious
and your computer may be conscious. You talk with authority on what
can and can't have consciousness but it seems you don't have even an
operational definition of the word. I am not asking for an explanation
or theory of consciousness, just for a test to indicate its presence,
which is a much weaker requirement.


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: HOW YOU CAN BECOME A LIBERAL THEOLOGIAN IN JUST 4 STEPS.

2013-02-07 Thread meekerdb

On 2/7/2013 3:15 PM, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:



On Thu, Feb 7, 2013 at 10:53 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 2/7/2013 12:01 PM, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:

“A secular purpose” is a nice ruse, because it is “theology-free”, 
right?


Yes it is.  It's not dependent on any ultimate foundation of the universe 
(per
Bruno's definition of 'theology') or even any agreement about what that 
might be.
 It only depends on the public subjective non-religious values of society as
expressed in their laws.  That's what 'secular' means.


By what mechanism does a value become non-religious? How did marriage become secular 
for instance?


Can you define non-religious values?


I can where religions are certified by the state.

Brent

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Re: How can intelligence be physical ?

2013-02-07 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Thursday, February 7, 2013 6:28:39 PM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:

 On Fri, Feb 8, 2013 at 9:20 AM, Craig Weinberg 
 whats...@gmail.comjavascript: 
 wrote: 
  
  
  On Thursday, February 7, 2013 7:12:08 AM UTC-5, stathisp wrote: 
  
  On Thu, Feb 7, 2013 at 4:01 AM, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com 
 wrote: 
  
   That's just because the simulation of a person isn't good enough. 
 The 
   question is what if the simulation *is* good enough to completely 
 fool 
   you. 
   
   
   Fooling me is meaningless. I think that you think therefore you are 
   fails 
   to account for the subjective thinker in the first place. If someone 
   kills 
   you, but they then find a nifty way to use your cadaver as a 
   ventriloquist's 
   dummy, does it matter if it fools someone into thinking that you are 
   still 
   alive? 
  
  You have said that you can just sense the consciousness of other 
  minds but you have contradicted that, or at least admitted that the 
  sensing faculty can be fooled. 
  
  
  An individual's sense can be fooled, but not necessarily fooled forever, 
 and 
  not everyone can be fooled. That doesn't mean that when we look at a 
 beercan 
  in the trash we can't tell that it doesn't literally feel crushed and 
  abandoned. 
  
  
  If you have no sure test for 
  consciousness that means you might see it where it isn't present or 
  miss it where it is present. So your friend might be unconscious 
  despite your feeling that he is, 
  
  
  Of course. People have been buried alive because the undertaker was 
 fooled. 
  
  
  and your computer might be conscious 
  despite your feeling that it is not. 
  
  
  Except my feeling is backed up with my knowledge of what it is - a human 
  artifact designed to mimic certain mental functions. That knowledge 
 should 
  augment my personal intuition, as well as social and cultural 
 reinforcements 
  that indeed there is no reason to suspect that this map of mind is 
 sentient 
  territory. 

 You're avoiding the question. What is your definitive test for 
 consciousness? If you don't have one, then you have to admit that your 
 friend (who talks to you and behaves like people do, not in a coma, 
 not on a video recording, not dead in the morgue) may not be conscious 
 and your computer may be conscious. 


No, you are avoiding my answer. What is your definitive test for your own 
consciousness?

My point is that sense is broader, deeper, and more primitive than our 
cognitive ability to examine it, since cognitive qualities are only the tip 
of the iceberg of sense. To test is to circumvent direct sense in favor of 
indirect sense - which is a good thing, but it is by definition not 
applicable to consciousness itself in any way. There is no test to tell if 
you are conscious, because none is required. If you need to ask if you are 
conscious, then you are probably having a lucid dream or in some phase of 
shock. In those cases, no test will help you as you can dream a test result 
as easily as you can experience one while awake. 

The only test for consciousness is the test of time. If you are fooled by 
some inanimate object, eventually you will probably see through it or 
outgrow the fantasy. 
 

 You talk with authority on what 
 can and can't have consciousness but it seems you don't have even an 
 operational definition of the word. 


Consciousness is what defines, not what can be defined.
 

 I am not asking for an explanation 
 or theory of consciousness, just for a test to indicate its presence, 
 which is a much weaker requirement. 


That is too much to ask, since all tests supervene upon the consciousness 
to evaluate results.

Craig
 



 -- 
 Stathis Papaioannou 


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Re: How can intelligence be physical ?

2013-02-07 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On Fri, Feb 8, 2013 at 11:52 AM, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

 You're avoiding the question. What is your definitive test for
 consciousness? If you don't have one, then you have to admit that your
 friend (who talks to you and behaves like people do, not in a coma,
 not on a video recording, not dead in the morgue) may not be conscious
 and your computer may be conscious.


 No, you are avoiding my answer. What is your definitive test for your own
 consciousness?

The test for my own consciousness is that I feel I am conscious. That
is not at issue. At issue is the test for *other* entities'
consciousness. You are convinced that computers and other machines
don't have consciousness, but you can't say what test you will apply
to them and see them fail.

 My point is that sense is broader, deeper, and more primitive than our
 cognitive ability to examine it, since cognitive qualities are only the tip
 of the iceberg of sense. To test is to circumvent direct sense in favor of
 indirect sense - which is a good thing, but it is by definition not
 applicable to consciousness itself in any way. There is no test to tell if
 you are conscious, because none is required. If you need to ask if you are
 conscious, then you are probably having a lucid dream or in some phase of
 shock. In those cases, no test will help you as you can dream a test result
 as easily as you can experience one while awake.

 The only test for consciousness is the test of time. If you are fooled by
 some inanimate object, eventually you will probably see through it or
 outgrow the fantasy.

So if, in future, robots live among us for years and are accepted by
most people as conscious, does that mean they are conscious? This is
essentially a form of the Turing test.

 You talk with authority on what
 can and can't have consciousness but it seems you don't have even an
 operational definition of the word.


 Consciousness is what defines, not what can be defined.

 I am not asking for an explanation
 or theory of consciousness, just for a test to indicate its presence,
 which is a much weaker requirement.


 That is too much to ask, since all tests supervene upon the consciousness to
 evaluate results.

It's the case for any test that you will use your consciousness to
evaluate the results.


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: How can intelligence be physical ?

2013-02-07 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Thursday, February 7, 2013 8:50:09 PM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:

 On Fri, Feb 8, 2013 at 11:52 AM, Craig Weinberg 
 whats...@gmail.comjavascript: 
 wrote: 

  You're avoiding the question. What is your definitive test for 
  consciousness? If you don't have one, then you have to admit that your 
  friend (who talks to you and behaves like people do, not in a coma, 
  not on a video recording, not dead in the morgue) may not be conscious 
  and your computer may be conscious. 
  
  
  No, you are avoiding my answer. What is your definitive test for your 
 own 
  consciousness? 

 The test for my own consciousness is that I feel I am conscious. That 
 is not at issue. At issue is the test for *other* entities' 
 consciousness. 


Why would the test be any different?
 

 You are convinced that computers and other machines 
 don't have consciousness, but you can't say what test you will apply 
 to them and see them fail. 


I'm convinced of that because I understand why there is no reason why they 
would have consciousness... there is no 'they' there. Computers are not 
born in a single moment through cell fertilization, they are assembled by 
people. Computers have to be programmed to do absolutely everything, they 
have no capacity to make sense of anything which is not explicitly defined. 
This is the polar opposite of living organisms which are general purpose 
entities who explore and adapt when they can, on their own, for their own 
internally generated motives. Computers lack that completely. We use 
objects to compute for us, but those objects are not actually computing 
themselves, just as these letters don't actually mean anything for 
themselves.
 


  My point is that sense is broader, deeper, and more primitive than our 
  cognitive ability to examine it, since cognitive qualities are only the 
 tip 
  of the iceberg of sense. To test is to circumvent direct sense in favor 
 of 
  indirect sense - which is a good thing, but it is by definition not 
  applicable to consciousness itself in any way. There is no test to tell 
 if 
  you are conscious, because none is required. If you need to ask if you 
 are 
  conscious, then you are probably having a lucid dream or in some phase 
 of 
  shock. In those cases, no test will help you as you can dream a test 
 result 
  as easily as you can experience one while awake. 
  
  The only test for consciousness is the test of time. If you are fooled 
 by 
  some inanimate object, eventually you will probably see through it or 
  outgrow the fantasy. 

 So if, in future, robots live among us for years and are accepted by 
 most people as conscious, does that mean they are conscious? This is 
 essentially a form of the Turing test. 


I don't think that will happen unless they aren't robots. The whole point 
is that the degree to which an organism is conscious is inversely 
proportionate to the degree that the organism is 100% controllable. That's 
the purpose of intelligence - to advance your own agenda rather than to be 
overpowered by your environment. So if something is a robot, it will never 
be accepted by anyone as conscious, and if something is conscious it will 
never be useful to anyone as a robot - it would in fact be a slave.
 


  You talk with authority on what 
  can and can't have consciousness but it seems you don't have even an 
  operational definition of the word. 
  
  
  Consciousness is what defines, not what can be defined. 
  
  I am not asking for an explanation 
  or theory of consciousness, just for a test to indicate its presence, 
  which is a much weaker requirement. 
  
  
  That is too much to ask, since all tests supervene upon the 
 consciousness to 
  evaluate results. 

 It's the case for any test that you will use your consciousness to 
 evaluate the results. 


Sure, but for most things you can corroborate and triangulate what you are 
testing by using a control. With consciousness itself, there is no control 
possible. You can do tests on the water because you can get out of the 
water. You can do tests on air because you can evacuate a glass beaker of 
air and compare your results. With consciousness though, there is no escape 
possible. You can personally lose your own consciousness, but there is no 
experience which is not experienced through consciousness.

Craig
 



 -- 
 Stathis Papaioannou 


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Re: How can intelligence be physical ?

2013-02-07 Thread Stephen P. King

On 2/7/2013 7:04 AM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

On Thu, Feb 7, 2013 at 1:02 AM, Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net wrote:


Hi Stathis,

 The simulation of our 'self' that our brain generates *is* good enough
to fool oneself! I speculate that schizophrenia and autism are caused by
failures of the self-simulation system... The former is a failure where
multiple self-simulations are generated and no stability on their convergent
occurs and the latter is where the self-simulation fails altogether. Mind
version of autism, such as Aspergers syndrome are where bad simulations
occur and/or the self-simulation fails to update properly.

That's an interesting idea, but schizophrenia is where the the
connections between functional subsystems in the brain is disrupted,
so that you get perceptions, beliefs, emotions occurring without the
normal chain of causation, while autism is where the concept of other
minds is disrupted. I think the self-image is present but distorted.


Hi Stathis,

I'm OK with that, a distortion of a self-image can go far enough to 
reduce the self-image to noise... but this is just a theoretical 
discussion. I am not even sure if this idea is correct.. Just testing it 
for plausibility...





If we consider that the Libet experiments show that we are making
decisions
without knowing it, and Blindsight shows that we are able to see without
being conscious of it, then there is no reason why we should suddenly
trust
our own reporting of what we think that we know about the sense of
interacting with a living person. A true Turing test would require a
face-to-face interaction, so that none of our natural sensory
capabilities
would be blocked as they would with just a text or video interaction.

That's the situation that is assumed in the idea of a philosophical
zombie: you interact with the being face to face. If at the end of
several days' interaction (or however long you think you need) you are
completely convinced that it is conscious, does that mean it is
conscious?


 As I see things, the only coherent concept of a zombie is what we see in
the autistic case. Such is 'conscious' with no self-image/self-awareness,
thus it has no ability to report on its 1p content.

I think of autistic people as differently conscious, not unconscious.


OK, I would agree, but how could we find out for sure? One thing 
that I am 100% sure about is that the full scope of the content of an 
entities consciousness is a strictly 1p thing. I cannot know what it is 
like to be you unless I am you. But we can speculate and see where the 
idea takes us.



Incidentally, there is a movement among higher functioning autistic
people whereby they resent being labelled as disabled, but assert that
their way of thinking is just as valid and intrinsically worthwhile as
that of the neurotypicals.


Well! Those people would not be so autistic, now would they! It 
they are indeed aware that other entities have minds of their own, then 
my hypothesis is wrong or needs reworking... I an proposing that autists 
are natural solipsists.



I think that it is important to remember that in theory, logically,
consciousness cannot exist. It is only through our own undeniable
experience
of consciousness that we feel the need to justify it with logic - but so
far
we have only projected the religious miracles of the past into a science
fiction future. If it was up to logic alone, there could not, and would
not
every be a such thing as experience.

You could as well say that logically there's no reason for anything to
exist, but it does.



 How about that! Does this not tell us that we must start, in our musing
about existence with the postulate that something exists?

Perhaps, but there are other ways to look at it. A primary
mathematical/Platonic universe necessarily rather than contingently
exists.


That is merely a conjecture unless there is a genuine 3p way of 
testing it. We can freely haev the belief in a Platonia and that A 
primary mathematical/Platonic universe necessarily rather than 
contingently exists. But without something that connects the truth of 
that belief to a physical fact, it is not a scientific fact, it is 
merely a belief, like a belief in a God. I have come to the conclusion 
that I don't believe in Platonia nor any other realm or entity or 
whatever that allows me to by-pass the rules of objective evidence that 
science demands if I am to make what I would claim to be 'scientific' 
statements.
Platonia allows computers to run in violation of the laws of 
thermodynamics, that bothers me.



--
Onward!

Stephen


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Re: How can intelligence be physical ?

2013-02-07 Thread Stephen P. King

On 2/7/2013 9:42 PM, Craig Weinberg wrote:



On Thursday, February 7, 2013 8:50:09 PM UTC-5, stathisp wrote:

On Fri, Feb 8, 2013 at 11:52 AM, Craig Weinberg
whats...@gmail.com javascript: wrote:

 You're avoiding the question. What is your definitive test for
 consciousness? If you don't have one, then you have to admit
that your
 friend (who talks to you and behaves like people do, not in a
coma,
 not on a video recording, not dead in the morgue) may not be
conscious
 and your computer may be conscious.


 No, you are avoiding my answer. What is your definitive test for
your own
 consciousness?

The test for my own consciousness is that I feel I am conscious. That
is not at issue. At issue is the test for *other* entities'
consciousness. 



Why would the test be any different?

You are convinced that computers and other machines
don't have consciousness, but you can't say what test you will apply
to them and see them fail.


I'm convinced of that because I understand why there is no reason why 
they would have consciousness... there is no 'they' there. Computers 
are not born in a single moment through cell fertilization, they are 
assembled by people. Computers have to be programmed to do absolutely 
everything, they have no capacity to make sense of anything which is 
not explicitly defined. This is the polar opposite of living organisms 
which are general purpose entities who explore and adapt when they 
can, on their own, for their own internally generated motives. 
Computers lack that completely. We use objects to compute for us, but 
those objects are not actually computing themselves, just as these 
letters don't actually mean anything for themselves.




When objects can compute 'for themselves' they are conscious. Maybe?




 My point is that sense is broader, deeper, and more primitive
than our
 cognitive ability to examine it, since cognitive qualities are
only the tip
 of the iceberg of sense. To test is to circumvent direct sense
in favor of
 indirect sense - which is a good thing, but it is by definition not
 applicable to consciousness itself in any way. There is no test
to tell if
 you are conscious, because none is required. If you need to ask
if you are
 conscious, then you are probably having a lucid dream or in some
phase of
 shock. In those cases, no test will help you as you can dream a
test result
 as easily as you can experience one while awake.

 The only test for consciousness is the test of time. If you are
fooled by
 some inanimate object, eventually you will probably see through
it or
 outgrow the fantasy.

So if, in future, robots live among us for years and are accepted by
most people as conscious, does that mean they are conscious? This is
essentially a form of the Turing test.


I don't think that will happen unless they aren't robots. The whole 
point is that the degree to which an organism is conscious is 
inversely proportionate to the degree that the organism is 100% 
controllable. That's the purpose of intelligence - to advance your own 
agenda rather than to be overpowered by your environment. So if 
something is a robot, it will never be accepted by anyone as 
conscious, and if something is conscious it will never be useful to 
anyone as a robot - it would in fact be a slave.


/L'homme est d'abord ce qui se jette vers un avenir, et ce qui est 
conscient de se projeter dans l'avenir./ ~ Jean Paul Satre


(Man is, before all else, something which propels itself toward a 
future and is aware that it is doing so.)







 You talk with authority on what
 can and can't have consciousness but it seems you don't have
even an
 operational definition of the word.


 Consciousness is what defines, not what can be defined.

 I am not asking for an explanation
 or theory of consciousness, just for a test to indicate its
presence,
 which is a much weaker requirement.


 That is too much to ask, since all tests supervene upon the
consciousness to
 evaluate results.

It's the case for any test that you will use your consciousness to
evaluate the results.


Sure, but for most things you can corroborate and triangulate what you 
are testing by using a control. With consciousness itself, there is no 
control possible. You can do tests on the water because you can get 
out of the water. You can do tests on air because you can evacuate a 
glass beaker of air and compare your results. With consciousness 
though, there is no escape possible. You can personally lose your own 
consciousness, but there is no experience which is not experienced 
through consciousness.


Craig



Indeed! This makes consciousness a subject forever removed from the 
instruments of the scientific method


--
Onward!

Stephen

--
You 

Re: How can intelligence be physical ?

2013-02-07 Thread meekerdb

On 2/7/2013 8:35 PM, Stephen P. King wrote:
I don't think that will happen unless they aren't robots. The whole point is that the 
degree to which an organism is conscious is inversely proportionate to the degree that 
the organism is 100% controllable. That's the purpose of intelligence - to advance your 
own agenda rather than to be overpowered by your environment. So if something is a 
robot, it will never be accepted by anyone as conscious, and if something is conscious 
it will never be useful to anyone as a robot - it would in fact be a slave.


You don't think slaves were useful??  Tell it to the Romans, Greeks, Syrians, Babylonians, 
Egyptians,...  Do you think oxen are conscious?  Dogs?  Horses?


Brent

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