Re: DNA Wormholes can cause cancer (what!?)

2015-04-06 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
 

 *Subject:* Re: DNA Wormholes can cause cancer (what!?)

 Chris,


Hi.  It sounds like you might be in computing since you mentioned some 
terms like reposited (I've never heard of that in bio!)?  If so, you are 
very well educated in biology.  Nice job!  Your knowledge of the complexity 
of a cell and of things moving around via motor proteins and the 
cytoskeleton as opposed to diffusion only, etc. are real impressive.  Many 
of the computer and engineering guys I know seem to be allergic to biology 
knowledge.  Although, I admit I know almost nothing about computing either, 
except for stuff from a few simple classes in Pascal, Fortran, etc. a long, 
long time ago.

I'd never heard of that  model where they ran it backwards to find the 
genesis of life, but it sounds pretty neat.  I think it's certainly 
possible that life started in a far away stellar nursery and then came to 
Earth on a comet or something.  Although, I kind of liked that Star Trek 
(The Next Gen.) episode where some ancient race of bald people seeded lots 
of different oceans with their DNA and put a code in their that, once we 
decipher it, will play a video of the bald people talking to us.  I thought 
that was one of their best episodes.  But, the final question is still 
there.  How did the life originate where ever it came from?  I can't rule 
out anything, but I bet they'll be able to someday figure out a chemical 
mechanism for things to start replicating themselves.

One big advantage that computing and engineering have over drug 
discovery is that the scientist can design a system he or she wants to make 
when it's code or a chip or something.  But, because everything is so wet, 
bouncing around, cross-reacting and squishy in bio, it's hard to design 
things to work just the way you want them.  Cells are always mutating, 
proteins are always moving around and chemicals are always cross-reacting. 
 I think we'll eventually need to combine small mol. drugs and biological 
drugs with nanotechnological devices and tiny molecular computers to cure 
diseases.  

I checked out that article on microbes being passed from generation to 
generation.  It was very interesting; although, it kind of sounded like it 
was passed via an environmental route because the next generation of 
animals lived in the same environment as the previous generation, and the 
microbes are probably all over the environment in the form of feces, shed 
fur, surfaces, animals touching each other, etc.  I'd have to read more 
about it, but it sounded like not quite a direct mechanism of transmission.

One more pontification, and I promise I'll stop, but I think some of 
the physics guys could learn from biochemists because biochemists are 
always looking for mechanisms of action for how things work.  But, it seems 
like the physicists are more content to say something works and we have the 
math to describe it.  For instance, I don't think they really know even why 
positive and negative charges attract or two positive charges repel, do 
they?  I know there are fields of force, and exchange of photons (or other 
force particles for other forces), but how exactly does this lead to 
attraction or repulsion?  I admit I know very little about it, but this 
kind of thing frustrates me when reading popular physics articles.  In 
their defense, though, force particles are much smaller than proteins!

At least, Monday is over!  Have a good week.  

Roger 


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Re: DNA Wormholes can cause cancer (what!?)

2015-04-05 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
Chris,

Hi.  It is kind of an interesting job in that I can keep up with the 
latest stuff and I do find the idea of organizing scientific information 
very interesting.  But, it can be a little boring sometimes, too.  But, I 
guess most people would say that about their jobs, though.

Epigenetics is pretty neat.  When the histones are 
methylated/demethylated and acetylated/deacetylated by various enzymes, 
this can cause the DNA wrapped around them to become less or more compact, 
which affects how the genes in that area are expressed.  

You're sure right about their finding more levels of operation than 
ever before.  Since they developed what they call next generation 
sequencing about 2005 or so, they've been able to find out a lot more 
levels in all areas.  One thing that's kind of neat is that the supposedly 
junk DNA between genes can encode small RNAs that regulate the expression 
of the genes.  These microRNAs are really a hot area of research now. 
 Another big breakthrough was the combination of various techniques to make 
very large scale analysis of proteins (proteomics) possible.  So, they're 
combining gene expression, protein studies, epigenetics, etc. to see how it 
all fits together in the body.  They call that systems biology, and it's 
bringing more progress.  But, there are so many interacting molecules 
inside a single cel, they've got a long way to go.
  
I'll check out the link you provided on bacterial heredity right after 
this post.  These microbiome (microbes in intestinal tract, mouth, skin, 
etc.) studies are pretty neat, too.  One neat thing the next-gen. 
sequencing has allowed is that they can now get a big glob of all different 
kinds of microbes from a site (intestine, environment), sequence it all and 
map the resulting reads to known genomes to find out what microbes are 
present at that site.  

Sorry to write so much.  Biochemistry is one area I know a little about 
(real little!) as opposed to metaphysics.

I wish tomorrow weren't Monday.  Have a good week!

   Roger 



On Sunday, April 5, 2015 at 1:11:14 PM UTC-4, cdemorsella wrote:

  

  

 *From:* everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript: [mailto:
 everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript:] 

  

  

 Chris,

 Roger – what an interesting job, if you like reading this kind of stuff 
 that is J

  

 I knew about DNA being wound around a supporting matrix – e.g. the 
 histones – but I never knew that this non-DNA structural protein had any 
 interactions with the DNA Wrapped around it) that could control expressing 
 sections of encoding DNA. Of course this implies that the histone does more 
 than just provide a structural matrix for the DNA to become tightly packed 
 in, and that was news to me.

 I have been following epigenetic stuff for a while, especially well 
 documented for the methylation pathway, but this appears to be yet a 
 separate pathway for genomic expression and hereditary transmission of 
 information. 

 The story of heredity is getting more and more interesting. For example, 
 check out the link to the story below; life (and living systems) seem like 
 they have more levels of operation than previously believed.

  

 *Mothers can pass traits to offspring through bacteria's DNA, mouse study 
 shows http://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2015/02/150216125425.htm *
 http://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2015/02/150216125425.htm

  

 Cheers,

 Chris

  

 Hi.  It's good that they have new studies confirming this stuff, but 
 the looping of DNA into 3D structures inside the nucleus  has been known 
 for awhile.   I think they're even starting to map these interactions just 
 like the human genome project.  One of the methods they use is to crosslink 
 the DNA in the nucleus so that the shape it's currently in is saved, and 
 then sequence the crosslinked areas to identify the crosslinked segments of 
 DNA.  But, I admit calling this a wormhole is kind of just good marketing. 
  I guess the everything list is kind of like a wormhole that brings 
 together distant people so they can talk about everything! :-)

  

 Also, on the epigenetic inheritance thing via histones, it's also good 
 that new studies are proving this stuff, but epigenetic changes (changes in 
 gene expression caused by things other than changes to the DNA sequence) 
 that can be inherited have also been known for 10 years or so.  So far, 
 what they know are that these changes are caused by adding or removing 
 methyl groups to the DNA bases or methyl and acetyl groups to the histones. 
  That affects how the genes are expressed.  These changes can be affected 
 by the environment and your own activities (like exercise).   So, your 
 descendants may thank you for exercising and eating right!

  

 The only reason I know some stuff about this is that I have kind of a 
 weird job where I read biochem. articles all day and put the new stuff into 
 a database. 

  

 See you

Re: DNA Wormholes can cause cancer (what!?)

2015-04-04 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
Chris,

Hi.  It's good that they have new studies confirming this stuff, but 
the looping of DNA into 3D structures inside the nucleus  has been known 
for awhile.   I think they're even starting to map these interactions just 
like the human genome project.  One of the methods they use is to crosslink 
the DNA in the nucleus so that the shape it's currently in is saved, and 
then sequence the crosslinked areas to identify the crosslinked segments of 
DNA.  But, I admit calling this a wormhole is kind of just good marketing. 
 I guess the everything list is kind of like a wormhole that brings 
together distant people so they can talk about everything! :-)

Also, on the epigenetic inheritance thing via histones, it's also good 
that new studies are proving this stuff, but epigenetic changes (changes in 
gene expression caused by things other than changes to the DNA sequence) 
that can be inherited have also been known for 10 years or so.  So far, 
what they know are that these changes are caused by adding or removing 
methyl groups to the DNA bases or methyl and acetyl groups to the histones. 
 That affects how the genes are expressed.  These changes can be affected 
by the environment and your own activities (like exercise).   So, your 
descendants may thank you for exercising and eating right!

The only reason I know some stuff about this is that I have kind of a 
weird job where I read biochem. articles all day and put the new stuff into 
a database. 

See you!

Roger 

 


On Saturday, April 4, 2015 at 3:08:19 PM UTC-4, cdemorsella wrote:



 -Original Message- 
 From: everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript: [mailto:
 everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript:] On Behalf Of Russell Standish 
 Sent: Thursday, February 26, 2015 1:44 PM 
 To: 'Chris de Morsella' via Everything List 
 Subject: Re: DNA Wormholes can cause cancer (what!?) 

 Of course, this is what Australia's John Mattick has been saying for 
 decades (I heard him talk on this nearly 15 years ago, for instance, and 
 he'd been railing at the establishment sometime before that). 

  But wormholes? Really? Someone in marketing has been given far too 
 liberal a rein. 

 They're always on the hunt for that catchy title aren't they; I find them 
 amusing :)   
 Still, in seriousness, it's an interesting idea: that previously 
 overlooked, non-local effects,  naturally operating within an organisms DNA 
 may be playing a more fundamental role in life than previously believed (or 
 even considered to be occurring at all) 
 Chris 

 Cheers 


 On Thu, Feb 26, 2015 at 05:26:16PM +, 'Chris de Morsella' via 
 Everything List wrote: 
  [Have been very busy on a new software project and have not had time 
  to follow and participate on this list... such an active list :). ] 
  Came across this article and found it interesting also from an 
  information science point of view -- taking the perspective of DNA 
  being a fairly dynamic information repository. It seems like the 
  butterfly effect is operating in DNA... a small difference one place 
  can result in effects being triggered in very distant DNA locations... 
  or as the researchers said... kind of like a wormhole.-Chris 
  
  Cancer risk linked to DNA ‘wormholes’ 
  
  February 25, 2015 
  Single-letter genetic variations within parts of the genome once 
 dismissed as “junk DNA” can increase cancer risk through remote effects on 
 far-off genes, new research by scientists at The Institute of Cancer 
 Research, London shows.The researchers found that DNA sequences within 
 “gene deserts” — so called because they are completely devoid of genes — 
 can regulate gene activity elsewhere by forming DNA loops across relatively 
 large distances.The study helps solve a mystery about how genetic 
 variations in parts of the genome that don’t appear to be doing very much 
 can increase cancer risk.Their study, published in Nature Communications, 
 also has implications for the study of other complex genetic diseases.The 
 researchers developed a technique called Capture Hi-C to investigate 
 long-range physical interactions between stretches of DNA – allowing them 
 to look at how specific areas of chromosomes interact physically in more 
 detail.The researchers assessed 14 regions of DNA that contain 
 single-letter variations previously linked to bowel cancer risk. They 
 detected significant long-range interactions for all 14 regions, confirming 
 their role in gene regulation.“Our new technique shows that genetic 
 variations are able to increase cancer risk through long-range looping 
 interactions with cancer-causing genes elsewhere in the genome,” study 
 leader Professor Richard Houlston, Professor of Molecular and Population 
 Genetics at The Institute of Cancer Research, London said.“It is sometimes 
 described as analogous to a wormhole, where distortions in space and time 
 could in theory bring together distant parts

Re: Something from nothing -- my attempt of derivation of a UTM.

2015-03-29 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
Mindey,

Hi.   I basically agree with you especially about the ball/sphere part 
and have posted similar ideas here and elsewhere in the past.  The whole 
something/nothing/empty-set thing has been discussed here extensively for 
probably at least 15 years and was last discussed about 3-4 months ago. I 
won't repeat the whole thing, but my view is that:

1. A thing exists if it's a grouping defining what is contained within.

2. If we consider what we've always called the absolute lack-of-all or 
nothingness (no energy/matter, space/volume, time, laws of math/physics, 
and no minds to consider this lack-of-all), that situation would be the 
entirety of all there is; that's it; there's nothing else; it would be the 
all.

3. Entirety, all, etc. are groupings defining what is contained within.  
Therefore, what we've always considered to be the absolute lack-of-all 
isn't really the lack of all existent entities because it itself is an 
existent entity.   In terms of empty sets, this lack-of-all could be 
thought of as both the contents of an empty set if looked at from the 
traditional nothingness point of view and the brackets around 
nothingness (e.g., the set containing nothingness) if looked at from 
the grouping defining what is contained within point of view.  They're both 
the same lack-of-all, just thought about in two different ways.

4. As an existent entity, and in fact the most fundamental of existent 
entities, it must have at least 3 dimensions.  I can't picture any actually 
existing entity having one of it's dimensions be zero.  If so, it would be 
gone; it would be not there.

4. This existent entity contains no information specifying specific shapes, 
corners.  Therefore, it would be the same diameter in all directions; that 
is, it would be a sphere.

Most people on this list seem to disagree with my rationale because, if 
I remember correctly, they think that abstract arithmetical propositions 
exist and are the basis of the universe.  I don't personally agree, but 
everyone here is mostly very nice and everyone's got their own methods of 
working on the problem.  For me, I'm trying to use the above reasoning 
about non-existence and spheres to build a primitive model of the 
universe to try and eventually make testable predictions.  It's a long way 
off, needless to say.  In this area of thought, evidence always speaks 
louder than ideas.  If you're interested, I've got more on the 
nothingness and spheres stuff at my websites at:

https://sites.google.com/site/whydoesanythingexist/
(4 page summary, but no spheres stuff)

https://sites.google.com/site/ralphthewebsite/filecabinet/why-is-there-something-rather-than-nothing
(more detail, philosophical background and stuff on spheres in section 
called Use of the proposed solution to build a model of the universe.

Anyways, I think you're on the right track.  Thanks!

   Roger 





On Saturday, March 28, 2015 at 5:22:50 AM UTC-4, Mindey wrote:

 Hi Everyone, 

 so, my background: http://mindey.com/42 -- I always wanted to know its 
 origin precisely. 

 The understanding of the origin of Universe(=Everything, Multiverse, 
 and our Life experience included) was likely never fully successful. 
 Fundamental obstacle for succeeding in it has been the logical 
 inconsistency of the concepts Origin and Universe, because an 
 attempt to explain Everything by Something, makes the Something part 
 of Everything, which leaves us with Nothingness, as the only viable 
 candidate for Origin. 

 Universe to us subjectively appears as a complex and diverse 
 experience. In fact, except for some regularity (which we call laws of 
 physics), the patterns we see every day appear so complex, that only 
 something like a universal computer with large memory could possibly 
 generate it. We had recently even done so by creating 3D computer 
 games and worlds running on Universal Turing Machines (UTMs) -- our 
 computers. 

 From here, we can conclude: 

   (1) It follows that, _if_ we could come up with a UTM from 
 Nothingness, we could explain pretty much everything that is 
 computable. 

 Our experiences rely on finite numbers of receptors with limited 
 granularity (selectivity), and limited lifespan, which seem to imply 
 finite number of possible experiences (as their Cartesian product) by 
 a being. 

   (2) It follows that, our life experience is likely computable. 

 To come up with a UTM from Nothingness, let's: 

 1. assume Nothingness 
 2. conclude Equidistance 
 (because Nothingness means equal absence of information regarding 
 any aspect whatsoever) 
 3. see the definition of a ball 
 4. see the computation of Pi number with varying precision, i.e.: 

 Remember balls from degenerate ones in low-dimensional spaces with 
 special coordinate systems and weird distance metrics, to quite 
 standard Euclidean ones, to hypersphere, to the most near-perfect 
 conceivable ball regading any

Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-25 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
What you're describing sounds a little bit like cellular automata, which 
start with a single cell (maybe the existent entity called nothing?) and 
a rule and out of that comes emergent stuff possibly like our universe.   
But, anyways I once again agree with what you're saying that the emergent 
properties of nothing can be pretty amazing, IMHO.

On Sunday, January 25, 2015 at 2:57:29 AM UTC-5, cdemorsella wrote:

  

  

 *From:* everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript: [mailto:
 everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript:] 
 *Sent:* Saturday, January 24, 2015 9:52 PM
 *To:* everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript:
 *Subject:* Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum 
 theory to dialectics?

  

  

  

 Roger: It's possible that what we see as existing is a simulation in some 
 other computer.   But, even if we are a simulation, the simulation that is 
 us exists as does the computer and the code we're a simulation in.  My 
 thinking is aimed at trying to figure out there are existent entities, 
 whether we call them simulations, singular arithmetic 
 computations/propositions, or whatever, instead of there not being existent 
 entities.

 Existence and non-existence can be viewed as different perspectives on 
 nothing…. existence and non-existence are emergent and understood in 
 dialectic opposition to each other… they arise out of each other, and are 
 defined in terms of each other.

 -Chris

  

 Chris,

  

 I totally agree and that's what I've been trying to get at in my 
 thinking and at the website.   Well put!

  

 Well… it does seem we agree about nothing J

  

 Have been pondering something I read a while ago when I began reading 
 Russell’s book (online first and now in the much better form of a real book)

 It is this bit of information about information. A very simple 
 mathematical operation that can be described – defined by a simple 
 recursive program produces an unending stream of numbers defining it to an 
 ever more precise numeric precision… to infinity. Some such numbers say 
 10/3 are highly ordered and repetitive though never ending.

 The example Russell gave is an unending numeric stream that is however 
 different from – say 10/3 --  in that the resulting stream of numbers that 
 it outputs is highly chaotic and unordered very much resembling the number 
 streams generated by the best random algorithms.

 The very simple operation of defining the square root of two generates an 
 -- (as far as we know infinitely extending) – number stream that is 
 characterized by a high degree of randomness.

 Now say you are an observer from a parallel universe who somehow gets a 
 kind of sample set through some absurd imaginary portal that deluges the 
 poor fellow with reams upon reams of seemingly random data – each one of 
 them, let’s give it a data dimension say a KB, MB, GB doesn’t matter, but 
 constrained to a given chunk or window size. These inter-dimensional data 
 packets unfortunately arrive to our observer in a scrambled order…. The 
 data deluge arrives for eternity… but will the recipient ever be able to 
 derive the function from the data. I doubt a highly random data stream – 
 generated by a very simple operation – could be re-ordered.

 What could those observers deduce from this endless series of out of order 
 packets containing numeric data of a given range of degrees of precision in 
 the infinite stream resulting from the eternal recursive refinement of this 
 operation?

 Would they ever be able to work back to the function from this out of 
 order quantized series of numeric data packets picked from random slots in 
 the infinite series?

 It seems highly improbable to me, maybe there is some subtle ordering in 
 the output stream that could eventually become apparent after enough data 
 chunks were cross compared. Who knows, I am no expert on the randomness of 
 the output of the square root of two, but in general sense there are 
 functions f() that can be defined by a simple set of recursive or looping 
 actions… e.g. a simple program... that can generate an infinite and – for 
 the sake of argument – perfectly random numeric output stream (doesn’t 
 matter if it is in base ten or base two, or any other base) – e.g. a simple 
 program like the one that recursively continues to define ever increasing 
 degrees of precision for the square root of two, but that is abstract and 
 ideal in that its output is taken to be perfectly random – one terabyte of 
 data in the stream looking pretty much like any other similar sized chunk 
 from the stream.

 I pity those observers, and feel that no matter how many resources they 
 brought to bear in trying to discover the meaning of this mysterious 
 numeric communication coming through their inter-dimensional portal… that 
 they would never be able to figure the actual simple formula / program that 
 produced the petabytes ^ petabytes ^ petabytes ^ petabytes (ad infinitum) 
 of data

Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-25 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List


 Roger: It's possible that what we see as existing is a simulation in some 
 other computer. 


 And thus in arithmetic, which can be proved to emulate all computers, on 
 all programs, on all input. This is standard knowledge for logicians, but 
 not always well known by non-logicians. It is crucial when we assume 
 computationalism. In particular the mere idea that 2+2=4 (and the like) 
 entails the existence of all computations going through you actual state 
 (say), even as part of infinitely many computations, all existing in the 
 same sense that prime numbers exists.
 In fact the result is that IF computationalism is correct THEN physics is 
 reduced to the calculus of the First Person Indeterminacy on all 
 computations (going through my actual state in case I want to make an 
 actual prediction).

 The interesting question is: does this leads to unitary evolution like it 
 is suggested by the empirical experience?
 This has been partially solved: the logic of the probability one (on 
 yes-no experiments) gives a quantum logic, and a quantization of classical 
 histories similar to the one suggested by the experience. 


Roger: It's also possible that what we see as existing is not a simulation 
in some other computer. I'm not arguing that if there is an arithmetical 
reality or that we're a simulation then your ideas are right.  All I'm 
saying is that if there's not an arithmetical reality or that we're not in 
a simulation, then another model is needed.  That's the path I'm working on.
-

 My thinking is aimed at trying to figure out there are existent entities, 
 whether we call them simulations, singular arithmetic 
 computations/propositions, or whatever, instead of there not being existent 
 entities.


 Of course. That is the most interesting question. Hmm... You might be 
 disappointed. 

 It is logically impossible to explain or justify (prove) the existence of 
 something without assuming some things and some relation on those things.


Roger: Logical arguments are based on initial assumptions.  Many things 
might seem impossible based on a certain set of assumptions.

-

  I will take a look. A participant of this list Peter Sas has made a 
facebook page on that question why is there something rather than nothing.

Roger: Thanks for checking it out.  Yep, I've checked out Peter's stuff. 
 Unfortunately, the website provider I use, google, doesn't allow page 
names beyond a certain length, and why is there something rather than 
nothing is beyond that limit. I looked at one of your publications you 
mentioned earlier but will look at it in more detail based on our 
discussion.

-

 While we are working on different models, it's been a great 
 discussion.  Thanks.


 Not sure we have different models... 
 My point is that we can work on such problem with the scientific attitude. 
 The difficulty is that it uses mathematical logic and theoretical computer 
 science, which are not so well known...


 Roger: Your point about working on such problems with a scientific 
attitude is something I can totally agree with.  At my site, I mention that 
one because metaphysics is supposed to be about the nature of being and 
reality, and because our universe (whether it's an arithmetic-based dream 
or physical entities or whatever) bes and exists, and because physics is 
the study of the universe, the laws of physics should be ultimately 
derivable from the principals of metaphysics.  We can take metaphysical 
ideas and use them to build models of the universe and eventually make 
testable predictions, and if the evidence doesn't hold up then make some 
other hypotheses and test them.  This is basically what science is, and I 
agree that it's the right attitude to take in all of our thinking in trying 
to figure out the universe.  I'm a biochemist so will have to wait more 
until I retire to work on the physics predictions.  But, until then, I can 
always think!




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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-24 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List



 The starting question is this: are you OK with the idea that we would not 
 see any difference from our first person point of view with an artificial 
 digital brain (copying the brain at some level of description). Putting him 
 roughly: do you accept the idea that the brain is a sort of (natural) 
 machine/computer (like the heart is accepted to be a natural pump)?

 While many on this list seem to believe in it, not even everyone here 
 seems to buy into it.  It's one idea among many.  As I've said many times, 
 let's all work our models and see what progress we can make.

 All what I say is derived from the assumption that the brain or the body 
 is Turing emulable at a level such that if we turing-emulate it, you would 
 not see the difference subjectively. It is my working assumption.


Roger: It's possible that what we see as existing is a simulation in some 
other computer.   But, even if we are a simulation, the simulation that is 
us exists as does the computer and the code we're a simulation in.  My 
thinking is aimed at trying to figure out there are existent entities, 
whether we call them simulations, singular arithmetic 
computations/propositions, or whatever, instead of there not being existent 
entities.

--

 Roger: I can accept any idea including arithmetical reality as long as 
 there's more logic and evidence for it than for other ideas.  That's what I 
 call being an agnostic.   I haven't seen or read anything here or elsewhere 
 that has convinced me of arithmetical reality as opposed to other ideas.

 You add metaphysics where there is none. Did you go out of the classroom 
at school when they mentioned the existence of the even numbers, or of the 
prime numbers?

 
Roger :It's unclear to me how wanting logic and evidence (mostly just 
evidence) for an idea is adding metaphysics.

--


 My assumption is that there is no magic operating in the brain.


Roger: I'd agree that there's no magic operating in the brain or anywhere 
else.  

--

 My goal in my thinking is to try and figure out why there are existent 
 entities instead of no existent entities (e.g. the something versus 
 nothing question) and to use that thinking to build a model of what the 
 universe seems to look like and to hopefully make testable predictions.  Of 
 course, I'm a long way from that but am working on it.  I've summarized my 
 thinking at my website and at this list.   Overall, you don't believe in a 
 primary physical universe.  That's great, and I'm happy for you.  I do.  


 I have never say that I don't believe in a primary physical universe. I am 
 agnostic. All what I say is that IF computationalism is correct, THEN there 
 is no primary physical universe (playing any role related to my 
 consciousness, to be more precise (we still needs some amount of Occam to 
 get rid of it)).

 So, if you assume a primitive physical universe (related to our 
 consciousness), then you derive from my argument that computationalism is 
 false. There is some actual infinities, and non computable one, and non FPI 
 recovrable one, playing in the brain. But this seems using a string 
 ontological commitment to avoid an explanation. It is a bit like a 
 creationist saying I am OK that natural selection explains a lot, but let 
 us be clear, it completely fails to explain how God made this in six days.

 As always, we'll all take our thinking, work our models and see what 
 progress can be made.And, good luck to everyone!


 Good luck to you too. Can you recall me you website?


Roger: I'm also agnostic on all of this.  I lean towards the idea that our 
universe is at its most fundamental level, composed of physically existent 
entities and am building a model based on it, but if someone can provide me 
with enough evidence that the computationalism or any other idea is better, 
I'm willing to switch.  I just haven't seen  that evidence here or 
elsewhere.  For me, I'd need evidence of why arithmetical propositions 
exist rather than not exist in order to change my model.  As many of us do, 
I feel like I have a solution that makes sense to me for why there are 
existent entities rather than there not being existent entities.  I base my 
thinking on this.  A summary is at:

https://sites.google.com/site/whydoesanythingexist/

and a more detailed explanation along with more philosophical stuff and a 
beginning model is at:

https://sites.google.com/site/ralphthewebsite/
(click on 3rd link down)

While we are working on different models, it's been a great discussion. 
 Thanks.




 





  




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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-24 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List

 

 Roger: It's possible that what we see as existing is a simulation in some 
 other computer.   But, even if we are a simulation, the simulation that is 
 us exists as does the computer and the code we're a simulation in.  My 
 thinking is aimed at trying to figure out there are existent entities, 
 whether we call them simulations, singular arithmetic 
 computations/propositions, or whatever, instead of there not being existent 
 entities.

 Existence and non-existence can be viewed as different perspectives on 
 nothing…. existence and non-existence are emergent and understood in 
 dialectic opposition to each other… they arise out of each other, and are 
 defined in terms of each other.

 -Chris


Chris,

I totally agree and that's what I've been trying to get at in my 
thinking and at the website.   Well put!

Roger

  

 https://sites.google.com/site/whydoesanythingexist/ 
 https://sites.google.com/site/whydoesanythingexist/

and a more detailed explanation along with more philosophical stuff and a 
 beginning model is at:

  https://sites.google.com/site/ralphthewebsite/

 (click on 3rd link down)

 While we are working on different models, it's been a great 
 discussion.  Thanks.




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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-23 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List


 But, what is outside the head is a circle, with a circumference and a 
 diameter. 


 This is ambiguous.Are you talkng about the platonic perfect circle? Or 
 about a circle physically realized, like with a pen and a compass?


 Roger: A physically realized circle.


 I doubt this exist. And with computationalism, I doubt this makes sense.

 

Roger: Draw a circle on a chalkboard, and it exists outside the head.  The 
concept of a perfect circle exists inside the mind/head.

---


 I don't know any one not believing in the arithmetical reality, even 
 philosophers (which sometimes claims that they does not admit them, but 
 eventually betray themselves.

 Not everybody agrees that it is enough for explaining consciousness and 
 the physical reality, but most everyday concept (like forever, while, 
 again, anniversary, death, everyday, ...) assumes the intuition needed for 
 agreeing on the elementary arithmetical axioms.


Roger: To think that almost everyone believes in an arithmetical reality is 
to ignore parts of philosophy like physicalism, nominalism, etc.  From the 
Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy's entry on Platonism in Metaphysics 
(http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/platonism/)
 
  ...Of course, platonism about any of these kinds of objects is 
controversial. Many philosophers do not believe in abstract objects at 
all...

While many on this list seem to believe in it, not even everyone here 
seems to buy into it.  It's one idea among many.  As I've said many times, 
let's all work our models and see what progress we can make.

---

 Roger: As above, a physically realized circle.


 I really doubt you could realize a circle in nature. Only an 
 approximation, and then I am not sure if nature is not in the head of the 
 Turing machines and relative numbers.

 So you take as axioms that there is a primary physical universe. I do not. 
 To better tackle the mind-body problem, it is better to be agnostic on 
 this, and open to the idea that such a primary physical universe might not 
 exist.


Roger: I can accept any idea including arithmetical reality as long as 
there's more logic and evidence for it than for other ideas.  That's what I 
call being an agnostic.   I haven't seen or read anything here or elsewhere 
that has convinced me of arithmetical reality as opposed to other ideas. 
 Mostly, I see unfounded assertions, claims and assumptions.   Many might 
say that about my arguments, too, I admit.

Overall, what I take is that whatever exists, whether it's called 
mental, abstract, physical, inside the mind, outside the mind, etc., it 
still exists.  Mental, arithmetical reality, abstract, physical, 
etc. are all just labels for existent entities.  I live in a universe made 
of existent entities, whatever they're called.  My goal in my thinking is 
to try and figure out why there are existent entities instead of no 
existent entities (e.g. the something versus nothing question) and to 
use that thinking to build a model of what the universe seems to look like 
and to hopefully make testable predictions.  Of course, I'm a long way from 
that but am working on it.  I've summarized my thinking at my website and 
at this list.   Overall, you don't believe in a primary physical universe. 
 That's great, and I'm happy for you.  I do.   As always, we'll all take 
our thinking, work our models and see what progress can be made.And, 
good luck to everyone!

 





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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-21 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List


 Roger: Just because things can exist outside the mind/head doesn't mean 
 that a specific thing does occur outside the mind/head.  If the  pi 
 proposition and the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi can be shown 
 outside the mind/head or any experimental evidence for the existence of the 
 pi proposition or the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi existing 
 outside the mind/head, I'd be happy to accept it.  I can see that a circle 
 can exist outside the head, but I don't see anywhere outside the mind/head, 
 the proposition that if you divide the circle's circumference by its 
 diameter you get pi.  


 But that proposition is not in the head of anybody. A body can get a 
 representation of that proposition in some language (be it LISP or neural 
 nets, or numbers): that is usually called a sentence, and *that* is in the 
 head of the machine or the number. The proposition itself is what is 
 intended by the sentence and the universal machine in presence. That pi is 
 what you find by dividing the circle's circumference by the diameter is 
 (true by definition), and that the sum of the inverse of all squared 
 natural number is true, by a proposition proved by Euler.

 That is true. period. It was true before Euler proved it, and after, 
 although this is only a metaphor. The number are just not concept to which 
 time or space attribute can apply.

 There is no number, nor proposition, in a brain. You might find 
 representations of number, and of propositions in the brain, but it makes 
 no sense to say that a number is in a brain, or on the planet mars. 

 Then a brain itself can be described as the representation of a universal 
 numbers with respect to some other universal numbers.

 If you accept Church-Turing thesis, all computations exists in the 
 elementary arithmetical reality, and in a very special redundant way, and 
 we are there, and we must explain why the white rabbits are so rare and why 
 the rabbit hole is so deep. The quantum almost solves that problem, but to 
 solve the mind-body problem, we must justify why only the quantum works.

 Bruno


 Roger: I understand that the sentence, the words and the thought divide a 
 circle's circumference by its diameter to get pi are in the mind/head.  


 Yes. even in the mind/head of all universal machine, in the sense of 
 Turing-Church, which can be defined in arithmetic. 

 But, what is outside the head is a circle, with a circumference and a 
 diameter. 


 This is ambiguous.Are you talkng about the platonic perfect circle? Or 
 about a circle physically realized, like with a pen and a compass?


Roger: A physically realized circle.

 
 There is no process outside  the mind/head saying that if you divide the 
circumference by the diameter, the number 3.14... results.



 Yes there is. For each choice of a universal numbers in N, you will have 
 an infinity of numbers which describes that process, like all programs 
 simulating Archimedes algorithm to compute Pi. Those programs and their 
 executions are entirely well defined in arithmetic. Some quite indirectly, 
 like the programs simulating the milky way, in string theory, just before 
 Archimedes discovered his algorithm. 





  That process and the idea of even doing it are inside the mind/head.


 But with computationalism everything is inside the mind/ead of the 
 universal numbers, even the idea that there is something outside the 
 mind/head of the universal machine.


Roger: If you believe in computationalism and arithmetical reality.


  It will give 3.14 for all physical circles and their circumferences and 
 diameters outside the head, but the only thing outside the head is the 
 circle. 


 The platonic circle? Perhaps. 


Roger: As above, a physically realized circle.

 

  The process and the idea are inside the mind/head.  


 There are also in arithmetic, and in the mind/head of all universal 
 numbers, although they can focus on something else.



   The what you find by dividing... in your sentence also kind of implies 
 that an action needs to be taken by the observer.


 OK, but the observer is defined by a relative number, or a couple of 
 universal numbers. We never go outside a tiny fragment of arithmetic, 
 except for the reasoning on the measure on the computational histories, 
 where analytical tools are not forbidden at the metalevel.

 Keep in mind that I do not assume a physical universe, if only because I 
 want a non circular explanation of matter and of the physical.

 Everett use computationalism to justify the absence of collapse, but this 
 works only if we can derive the SWE from the measure on *all* computational 
 dreams in arithmetic.

 Bruno


Roger: It just seems like we're starting out with different assumptions 
(arithmetical reality/computationalism versus physically existent 
entities), and I don't think we can resolve that one.  But, that's okay. As 
I mentioned before, we'll all keep working our models and try and make some

Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-20 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List

On Tuesday, January 20, 2015 at 2:49:12 PM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 19 Jan 2015, at 23:48, 'Roger' via Everything List wrote:


 Roger:  Even if no mind has yet conceived the the 10^(10^(10^100))th 
 decimal point of pi, the pi proposition and therefore the process of 
 calculating its 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point and being confident that 
 if you do the process that that number is either 0-9 are all located inside 
 the mind/head.  My view is that whenever we talk about something existing, 
 we have to specify where and when it exists, that is, in what context or 
 domain it exists.  A thing can exist in one place and not another.  A ball 
 can exist outside the head, and a mental construct labeled the concept of 
 a ball can exist inside the head.  


 If a ball can exist outside the mind/head, why can't the 
 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi exist outside the mind/head? What 
 property must a thing have to have an independent existence outside of any 
 mind? (according to your theory?)

 Jason
  

 So, if the pi process were carried out inside the mind/head long enough 
 to figure out the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point, that mental construct 
 for that number (which would be 0-9) would exist inside the mind/head but 
 not outside the mind/head.  So, the mind is able to reify things (like the 
 10^(10^(10^100))th 
 decimal point of pi) so that they exist but so that they only exist inside 
 the mind/head and not outside the mind/head.



 Roger: Just because things can exist outside the mind/head doesn't mean 
 that a specific thing does occur outside the mind/head.  If the  pi 
 proposition and the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi can be shown 
 outside the mind/head or any experimental evidence for the existence of the 
 pi proposition or the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi existing 
 outside the mind/head, I'd be happy to accept it.  I can see that a circle 
 can exist outside the head, but I don't see anywhere outside the mind/head, 
 the proposition that if you divide the circle's circumference by its 
 diameter you get pi.  


 But that proposition is not in the head of anybody. A body can get a 
 representation of that proposition in some language (be it LISP or neural 
 nets, or numbers): that is usually called a sentence, and *that* is in the 
 head of the machine or the number. The proposition itself is what is 
 intended by the sentence and the universal machine in presence. That pi is 
 what you find by dividing the circle's circumference by the diameter is 
 (true by definition), and that the sum of the inverse of all squared 
 natural number is true, by a proposition proved by Euler.

 That is true. period. It was true before Euler proved it, and after, 
 although this is only a metaphor. The number are just not concept to which 
 time or space attribute can apply.

 There is no number, nor proposition, in a brain. You might find 
 representations of number, and of propositions in the brain, but it makes 
 no sense to say that a number is in a brain, or on the planet mars. 

 Then a brain itself can be described as the representation of a universal 
 numbers with respect to some other universal numbers.

 If you accept Church-Turing thesis, all computations exists in the 
 elementary arithmetical reality, and in a very special redundant way, and 
 we are there, and we must explain why the white rabbits are so rare and why 
 the rabbit hole is so deep. The quantum almost solves that problem, but to 
 solve the mind-body problem, we must justify why only the quantum works.

 Bruno


Roger: I understand that the sentence, the words and the thought divide a 
circle's circumference by its diameter to get pi are in the mind/head. 
 But, what is outside the head is a circle, with a circumference and a 
diameter.  There is no process outside  the mind/head saying that if you 
divide the circumference by the diameter, the number 3.14... results.  That 
process and the idea of even doing it are inside the mind/head.  It will 
give 3.14 for all physical circles and their circumferences and diameters 
outside the head, but the only thing outside the head is the circle.  The 
process and the idea are inside the mind/head. The what you find by 
dividing... in your sentence also kind of implies that an action needs to 
be taken by the observer.

That pi is what you find by dividing the circle's circumference by the 
diameter is (true by definition), and that the sum of the inverse of all 
squared natural number is true, by a proposition proved by Euler.







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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-19 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List



 Roger:  Even if no mind has yet conceived the the 10^(10^(10^100))th 
 decimal point of pi, the pi proposition and therefore the process of 
 calculating its 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point and being confident that 
 if you do the process that that number is either 0-9 are all located inside 
 the mind/head.  My view is that whenever we talk about something existing, 
 we have to specify where and when it exists, that is, in what context or 
 domain it exists.  A thing can exist in one place and not another.  A ball 
 can exist outside the head, and a mental construct labeled the concept of 
 a ball can exist inside the head.  


 If a ball can exist outside the mind/head, why can't the 
 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi exist outside the mind/head? What 
 property must a thing have to have an independent existence outside of any 
 mind? (according to your theory?)

 Jason
  

 So, if the pi process were carried out inside the mind/head long enough 
 to figure out the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point, that mental construct 
 for that number (which would be 0-9) would exist inside the mind/head but 
 not outside the mind/head.  So, the mind is able to reify things (like the 
 10^(10^(10^100))th 
 decimal point of pi) so that they exist but so that they only exist inside 
 the mind/head and not outside the mind/head.



Roger: Just because things can exist outside the mind/head doesn't mean 
that a specific thing does occur outside the mind/head.  If the  pi 
proposition and the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi can be shown 
outside the mind/head or any experimental evidence for the existence of the 
pi proposition or the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi existing 
outside the mind/head, I'd be happy to accept it.  I can see that a circle 
can exist outside the head, but I don't see anywhere outside the mind/head, 
the proposition that if you divide the circle's circumference by its 
diameter you get pi.  

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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-19 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
Jason et al., 

   Overall, I can never disprove that mathematical constructs don't exist 
outside the head somewhere just like I can't prove my view that what we've 
previously considered to be the absolute lack-of-all is itself an 
existent entity just because no one can never or directly experiment on 
either these mathematical constructs or the absolute lack-of-all.  But, 
what we can do is to provide logical evidence for our ideas as we've each 
been trying to do on this list, and to take our ideas and try to build a 
model of reality out of them that can eventually make testable predictions. 
 This is what many on this list are working on, and I applaud them for it 
even if I don't agree with the underlying idea.  Eventually, all of us will 
need to make some testable predictions, which if they get experimental 
evidence backing them up,will convince others to other follow up on our 
ideas and models.  This is what I think many of us are working on either in 
our spare time or full-time.  Good luck to all of us!

   Roger 

P.S. One thing that I know exists is that I have to go to work tomorrow 
(had today off), and I don't like it!  :-)

On Monday, January 19, 2015 at 5:48:27 PM UTC-5, Roger wrote:


 Roger:  Even if no mind has yet conceived the the 10^(10^(10^100))th 
 decimal point of pi, the pi proposition and therefore the process of 
 calculating its 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point and being confident that 
 if you do the process that that number is either 0-9 are all located inside 
 the mind/head.  My view is that whenever we talk about something existing, 
 we have to specify where and when it exists, that is, in what context or 
 domain it exists.  A thing can exist in one place and not another.  A ball 
 can exist outside the head, and a mental construct labeled the concept of 
 a ball can exist inside the head.  


 If a ball can exist outside the mind/head, why can't the 
 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi exist outside the mind/head? What 
 property must a thing have to have an independent existence outside of any 
 mind? (according to your theory?)

 Jason
  

 So, if the pi process were carried out inside the mind/head long enough 
 to figure out the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point, that mental construct 
 for that number (which would be 0-9) would exist inside the mind/head but 
 not outside the mind/head.  So, the mind is able to reify things (like the 
 10^(10^(10^100))th 
 decimal point of pi) so that they exist but so that they only exist inside 
 the mind/head and not outside the mind/head.



 Roger: Just because things can exist outside the mind/head doesn't mean 
 that a specific thing does occur outside the mind/head.  If the  pi 
 proposition and the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi can be shown 
 outside the mind/head or any experimental evidence for the existence of the 
 pi proposition or the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi existing 
 outside the mind/head, I'd be happy to accept it.  I can see that a circle 
 can exist outside the head, but I don't see anywhere outside the mind/head, 
 the proposition that if you divide the circle's circumference by its 
 diameter you get pi.  


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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-19 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
Jason,

I'm glad you quoted The Who.  I think they're  maybe the best band 
ever, IMHO.  I know many will disagree, but I really like them and have 
luckily seen them twice.  They're having a 50th anniversary tour this year, 
but I can't imagine too many tours.  But, if they're 90 and still touring, 
that'd be great!  Some younger people, though, have never even heard of 
them or other bands from the 60s-80s.

Roger 

On Monday, January 19, 2015 at 7:01:38 PM UTC-5, Jason wrote:



 On Mon, Jan 19, 2015 at 5:02 PM, 'Roger' via Everything List 
 everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript: wrote:

 Jason et al., 

Overall, I can never disprove that mathematical constructs don't exist 
 outside the head somewhere just like I can't prove my view that what we've 
 previously considered to be the absolute lack-of-all is itself an 
 existent entity just because no one can never or directly experiment on 
 either these mathematical constructs or the absolute lack-of-all.  But, 
 what we can do is to provide logical evidence for our ideas as we've each 
 been trying to do on this list, and to take our ideas and try to build a 
 model of reality out of them that can eventually make testable 
 predictions.  This is what many on this list are working on, and I applaud 
 them for it even if I don't agree with the underlying idea.  Eventually, 
 all of us will need to make some testable predictions, which if they get 
 experimental evidence backing them up,will convince others to other follow 
 up on our ideas and models.  This is what I think many of us are working on 
 either in our spare time or full-time.  Good luck to all of us!

Roger 

 P.S. One thing that I know exists is that I have to go to work tomorrow 
 (had today off), and I don't like it!  :-)



 Excellent message Roger. It is definitely one I can get behind. For some 
 of our theories I feel a lyric from The Who may be relevant:

 They call me the seeker
 I been searchin low and high
 I wont get to get what I'm after
 Till the day I die

 At least when we consider final theories which relate to existence of 
 things beyond this universe, the soul, and afterlife ,etc. It may be we 
 won't get observational proof of such things while we are constrained to 
 this reality. (Not unlike using quantum suicide to find the many-worlds).

 Jason



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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-19 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
That's exactly what I said in my posting:

...If the  pi proposition and the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi 
can be shown outside the mind/head or any experimental evidence for the 
existence of the pi proposition or the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of 
pi existing outside the mind/head, I'd be happy to accept it...

So, seeing, experiencing, or direct experimental evidence is probably 
best, but indirect experimental evidence is also pretty good.  So far, I 
think we've got direct experience/observation of past points in time and 
pretty good indirect evidence for galaxies beyond the cosmological horizon 
and the interiors of black holes but so far only theory about multiple 
universes.  Anyways, let's keep working at it!

Roger 

On Monday, January 19, 2015 at 6:56:38 PM UTC-5, Jason wrote:



 On Mon, Jan 19, 2015 at 4:48 PM, 'Roger' via Everything List 
 everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript: wrote:


 Roger:  Even if no mind has yet conceived the the 10^(10^(10^100))th 
 decimal point of pi, the pi proposition and therefore the process of 
 calculating its 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point and being confident that 
 if you do the process that that number is either 0-9 are all located 
 inside 
 the mind/head.  My view is that whenever we talk about something existing, 
 we have to specify where and when it exists, that is, in what context or 
 domain it exists.  A thing can exist in one place and not another.  A ball 
 can exist outside the head, and a mental construct labeled the concept of 
 a ball can exist inside the head.  


 If a ball can exist outside the mind/head, why can't the 
 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi exist outside the mind/head? What 
 property must a thing have to have an independent existence outside of any 
 mind? (according to your theory?)

 Jason
  

 So, if the pi process were carried out inside the mind/head long enough 
 to figure out the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point, that mental construct 
 for that number (which would be 0-9) would exist inside the mind/head but 
 not outside the mind/head.  So, the mind is able to reify things (like the 
 10^(10^(10^100))th 
 decimal point of pi) so that they exist but so that they only exist inside 
 the mind/head and not outside the mind/head.



 Roger: Just because things can exist outside the mind/head doesn't mean 
 that a specific thing does occur outside the mind/head.  If the  pi 
 proposition and the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi can be shown 
 outside the mind/head or any experimental evidence for the existence of the 
 pi proposition or the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi existing 
 outside the mind/head, I'd be happy to accept it.  I can see that a circle 
 can exist outside the head, but I don't see anywhere outside the mind/head, 
 the proposition that if you divide the circle's circumference by its 
 diameter you get pi.  



 This definition of exists seems limited to things you can see with your 
 eyes. But then we would have to discount other universe, past points in 
 time, galaxies beyond the cosmological horizon, the interiors of black 
 holes, and many other things which our theories lead us to believe exists. 
 If we accumulate evidence for a theory, which tells us certain things exist 
 even though we can't see them (and even better if it also accounts for why 
 we can't/shouldn't see them) then I think we should take the implications 
 of those theories seriously.

 Jason



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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-19 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List

Chris,

Mostly I agree with everything you said.  Specifically: 

By corollary and by symmetry this same optic of doubt can shine upon the 
notion of a real physical entity underlying the stuff we call real. What is 
real about a proton, electron, photon…etc.?

Roger: I agree.  Proton, electron, etc. are just names for existent 
entities with certain properties.  Even if these entities are abstract 
arithmetical propositions, the existent entities previously called the 
absolute lack of all (me), two of these entities looking at each other 
would seem as real to each other as two rock-solid particles.  Reality is 
relative in this way, I think.

In regard to the auto-emergence and that's just the way it is stuff, I 
also totally agree.  It could be true, but is just not very satisfying to 
me to say that's just the way it is.  I was trying to do the autoemergent 
thing by saying that even what we previously thought of as the absolute 
lack-of-all is an existent entity idea and showing how it could 
self-replicate to provide an expanding space like our universe.   I think 
one of the issues is in our perhaps incorrect distinction between 
something and nothing, which is what I was trying to get at.  This 
distinction keeps us wondering well why is it all here.  But, I'll keep 
working on it as we all should on our ideas.
As above, good luck to all of us!  And, listen to The Who!


On Tuesday, January 20, 2015 at 12:35:43 AM UTC-5, cdemorsella wrote:

  

  

 *From:* everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript: [mailto:
 everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript:] 

  

 Jason et al., 

  

Overall, I can never disprove that mathematical constructs don't exist 
 outside the head somewhere just like I can't prove my view that what we've 
 previously considered to be the absolute lack-of-all is itself an 
 existent entity just because no one can never or directly experiment on 
 either these mathematical constructs or the absolute lack-of-all.  But, 
 what we can do is to provide logical evidence for our ideas as we've each 
 been trying to do on this list, and to take our ideas and try to build a 
 model of reality out of them that can eventually make testable predictions. 
  This is what many on this list are working on, and I applaud them for it 
 even if I don't agree with the underlying idea.  Eventually, all of us will 
 need to make some testable predictions, which if they get experimental 
 evidence backing them up,will convince others to other follow up on our 
 ideas and models.  This is what I think many of us are working on either in 
 our spare time or full-time.  Good luck to all of us!

  

 Nice statement with a good sentiment behind it. This list (and its long 
 rich trail of past threads, which contain some real gems) is a lively place 
 to be; hard to keep up sometimes. 

 I share your view that it cannot be proved (yet at least) that 
 mathematical entities – and all other pure abstract system entities (as in 
 say the laws of the universe) – have an existence independent from and 
 external to our human cultural history. It can be equally hypothesized that 
 our laws of physics, our logic, our math are all our models (our historical 
 evolution of thought through recorded history)… models that the cultures 
 emergent from our species have evolved to explain experienced reality…. We 
 have our current best fit models – both in science and in math.

 By corollary and by symmetry this same optic of doubt can shine upon the 
 notion of a real physical entity underlying the stuff we call real. What is 
 real about a proton, electron, photon…etc.? Other than their properties and 
 their current state. There is an undeniable (I take that back, you will 
 always find somebody, somewhere, who will disagree)… a mostly undeniable 
 realness to the macro experience of being in reality. It is a realness that 
 has repeating patterns in it (wave interaction for example) that we have 
 noticed as a species and ridden like clues to the pretty good models we now 
 have. Personally prefer to be neither Aristotelian; nor however a Platonic 
 idealist.

  

 But not a TOE, yet!

 And certainly not one with an auto-emergent story… yet. A TOE, with an 
 auto-emergent origin story for me is the holy grail.

 When I say origin story it should not be confused with having the one way 
 vector of time perspective that gives us the illusion of past, present, and 
 future states. I find it quite possible that time itself is emergent; that 
 our experience of time is merely some particular stack ordering of observer 
 moments in 4-D spacetime. This idea also naturally extends (and lends) 
 itself to a MWI hyper-stack of other universes, in the tree of all quantum 
 outcomes.

 I find any TOE that side steps the question of emergence, by just saying 
 that’s how it always was to be unsatisfying. For example the cyclic 
 universe hypothesis, certainly an elegant idea that attempts to tie it all 
 up

Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-18 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List


On Sunday, January 18, 2015 at 2:52:34 AM UTC-5, Jason wrote:



 On Sat, Jan 17, 2015 at 11:48 PM, 'Roger' via Everything List 
 everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript: wrote:



 On Sunday, January 18, 2015 at 12:27:06 AM UTC-5, Jason wrote:



 On Sat, Jan 17, 2015 at 11:11 PM, 'Roger' via Everything List 
 everyth...@googlegroups.com wrote:



 Roger,

 I have a question for you.

 Do you believe the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of Pi has a 
 certain definite value, which is either 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, or 9?

 If so, would you still believe this if you knew that this number is 
 too difficult to ever compute by anyone in this universe?

 Does this not point to a discontinuity between mathematical truth and 
 conceivably of that truth by us limited creatures with limited minds in a 
 limited universe? Perhaps it does take faith to believe that digit takes 
 a 
 certain value between 0 and 9, but it's easier for me to accept that on 
 faith than the converse (that it is not any one of those digits).

 Jason


 Jason,

 What I believe is that there is no proposition outside a mind/head 
 that relates a circle's circumference and its diameter to get a number 
 called pi.  


 But that wasn't my question. Do you think that that the digit has a 
 certain definite value (despite not being known by any human) or perhaps 
 any being in this physical universe?  Let's work by steps, do you think the 
 10^1th digit has a definite value? Do you think the 10^6th digit has a 
 certain definite value? Do you think the 10^Nth digit has a definite value 
 (for any given N)) ?

  

 What I think does exist is:

 o A circle could exist either outside the mind or inside the mind/head 
 as the mental construct labeled a circle.  

 o It takes a mind to come up with a proposition that says that if you 
 divide the circumference of a circle by its diameter, you get pi, and that 
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of this pi is one of the numbers from 
 0-9.


 Do you believe that *one and only one* of the following statements is 
 true?

 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 0
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 1
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 2
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 3
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 4
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 5
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 6
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 7
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 8
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 9

 Either you answer yes, or no to that question. If you answer yes, I 
 don't see how you can escape mathematical realism.

 Jason


 Jason,

 I believe the following:

 o I do believe that the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi is either 
 0-9.


 Yet no mind has conceived what it is. It exists and yet it exists outside 
 the mind of any person, which seems counter to your clams below.

 


 o That 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi and its value of 0-9 exists 
 only in the mind of the person where the proposition defining pi exists.


 So does defining what Pi is lead to the existence of all of its infinite 
 digits, even if those digits are never considered by a conscious mind?

 If a conscious mind can reify other things it doesn't concevie why does 
 any mind need to reify the first concept (of pi) at all?


Roger:  Even if no mind has yet conceived the the 10^(10^(10^100))th 
decimal point of pi, the pi proposition and therefore the process of 
calculating its 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point and being confident that 
if you do the process that that number is either 0-9 are all located inside 
the mind/head.  My view is that whenever we talk about something existing, 
we have to specify where and when it exists, that is, in what context or 
domain it exists.  A thing can exist in one place and not another.  A ball 
can exist outside the head, and a mental construct labeled the concept of 
a ball can exist inside the head.   So, if the pi process were carried out 
inside the mind/head long enough to figure out the 10^(10^(10^100))th 
decimal point, that mental construct for that number (which would be 0-9) 
would exist inside the mind/head but not outside the mind/head.  So, the 
mind is able to reify things (like the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of 
pi) so that they exist but so that they only exist inside the mind/head and 
not outside the mind/head.

  


 o That 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi does not exist outside the 
 mind of the person where the proposition defining pi is.

 I also believe that the above was easily deducible from my first 
 reply 


 Do you see how the above sentence can be construed as condescending? 
  

 and that there's no need to be condescending (Your Let's work by 
 steps).   


 I did not intend to be condescendin, I only sought greater clarification 
 because your original post did not directly address my question. Breaking

Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-17 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List


Roger,

 I have a question for you.

 Do you believe the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of Pi has a certain 
 definite value, which is either 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, or 9?

 If so, would you still believe this if you knew that this number is too 
 difficult to ever compute by anyone in this universe?

 Does this not point to a discontinuity between mathematical truth and 
 conceivably of that truth by us limited creatures with limited minds in a 
 limited universe? Perhaps it does take faith to believe that digit takes a 
 certain value between 0 and 9, but it's easier for me to accept that on 
 faith than the converse (that it is not any one of those digits).

 Jason


Jason,

What I believe is that there is no proposition outside a mind/head that 
relates a circle's circumference and its diameter to get a number called 
pi.  What I think does exist is:

o A circle could exist either outside the mind or inside the mind/head as 
the mental construct labeled a circle.  

o It takes a mind to come up with a proposition that says that if you 
divide the circumference of a circle by its diameter, you get pi, and that 
the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of this pi is one of the numbers from 
0-9.  So, this proposition and its value as true or false only exists 
inside a mind/head even if it describes a circle that's outside the mind.

Roger 







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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-17 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List


On Sunday, January 18, 2015 at 12:27:06 AM UTC-5, Jason wrote:



 On Sat, Jan 17, 2015 at 11:11 PM, 'Roger' via Everything List 
 everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript: wrote:



 Roger,

 I have a question for you.

 Do you believe the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of Pi has a certain 
 definite value, which is either 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, or 9?

 If so, would you still believe this if you knew that this number is too 
 difficult to ever compute by anyone in this universe?

 Does this not point to a discontinuity between mathematical truth and 
 conceivably of that truth by us limited creatures with limited minds in a 
 limited universe? Perhaps it does take faith to believe that digit takes a 
 certain value between 0 and 9, but it's easier for me to accept that on 
 faith than the converse (that it is not any one of those digits).

 Jason


 Jason,

 What I believe is that there is no proposition outside a mind/head 
 that relates a circle's circumference and its diameter to get a number 
 called pi.  


 But that wasn't my question. Do you think that that the digit has a 
 certain definite value (despite not being known by any human) or perhaps 
 any being in this physical universe?  Let's work by steps, do you think the 
 10^1th digit has a definite value? Do you think the 10^6th digit has a 
 certain definite value? Do you think the 10^Nth digit has a definite value 
 (for any given N)) ?

  

 What I think does exist is:

 o A circle could exist either outside the mind or inside the mind/head as 
 the mental construct labeled a circle.  

 o It takes a mind to come up with a proposition that says that if you 
 divide the circumference of a circle by its diameter, you get pi, and that 
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of this pi is one of the numbers from 
 0-9.


 Do you believe that *one and only one* of the following statements is 
 true?

 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 0
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 1
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 2
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 3
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 4
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 5
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 6
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 7
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 8
 the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal digit of pi is 9

 Either you answer yes, or no to that question. If you answer yes, I don't 
 see how you can escape mathematical realism.

 Jason


Jason,

I believe the following:

o I do believe that the 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi is either 
0-9.

o That 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi and its value of 0-9 exists 
only in the mind of the person where the proposition defining pi exists.

o That 10^(10^(10^100))th decimal point of pi does not exist outside the 
mind of the person where the proposition defining pi is.

I also believe that the above was easily deducible from my first reply 
and that there's no need to be condescending (Your Let's work by steps). 
  

  Roger 






 

  

  So, this proposition and its value as true or false only exists inside a 
 mind/head even if it describes a circle that's outside the mind.

 Roger 


 




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Re: Isn't this group supposed to be about trying to figure out how the universe works and not so much about religion and insults?

2015-01-17 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List


On Saturday, January 17, 2015 at 1:12:20 PM UTC-5, spudb...@aol.com wrote:

 The only thing about Larry Krauss that I like is his sketching out a 
 conjecture for faster than light travel. 
  

Agreed.  Krauss kind of irritates me, too.  His book title A universe from 
nothing: Why there is something rather than nothing is basically false 
advertising, IMHO.

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Re: Isn't this group supposed to be about trying to figure out how the universe works and not so much about religion and insults?

2015-01-16 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
Liz,

Hi.  I totally agree that if we're talking about the S vs. N question 
(I like your shortening of it), we can't assume that pre-quantum fields, 
the laws of mathematics, etc. are there.  That's what Lawrence Krauss did 
in his latest book and was criticized for by philosophers.  But, I also 
think that we can't assume that all possible information, arithmetical 
propositions, etc. are  there without explanation.  It has to start with 
what we consider to be the absolute lack-of-all.  My view, though, is 
that even if we have what we think is the absolute lack-of-all, that 
absolute lack-of-all is itself an existent entity.  I say this because I 
think an existent entity is a grouping defining what is contained within. 
 Then, if there is the supposed absolute lack-of-all, that would be the 
entirety of all that is present; there are no existent entities hidden 
somewhere else; that's it.  Entirety and all are groupings defining what is 
contained within, and so it seems like the supposed absolute lack-of-all 
is itself, then, an existent entity.  Of course, because we wouldn't be 
there in the case of the supposed absolute lack-of-all, I can't prove 
this, but I can try to use the idea to build a model from it and see it it 
fits with what we know about the universe and then try to make some 
testable predictions.   I'm nowhere near that stage, but by doing this, it 
seems like metaphysics can kind of be  like science (observe or think about 
the S vs. N question, make a hypothesis, and test it to try and get 
evidence).

On a different note, I have a hard time navigating through all these 
different threads and posts.  I wish it were somehow a little easier to 
follow.  But, it could just be me.  
  
Thanks!

Roger 

On Monday, January 12, 2015 at 5:13:45 PM UTC-5, Liz R wrote:

 On 12 January 2015 at 17:23, 'Roger' via Everything List 
 everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript: wrote:

 Everyone,

 I'd like to propose that we get back to the subject of discussing our 
 ideas on how the universe works, why it's here, etc., and stop talking 
 about religion so much.  It'd be nice if we could all also provide 
 constructive criticism if we disagree, instead of insults.  If this turns 
 into a religion, hatred, insults type forum, for me at least, it will have 
 lost the value it had.

 To start, I'd like to propose the following:  We all have different 
 views on the question Why there is something rather than nothing?, if 
 that question even has value, how the universe works, etc.  I think it's 
 safe to say that, unless you're an academic, our ideas are also routinely 
 ignored, criticized and made fun of by academics.  The only way for 
 amateurs to ever get more traction is if we can take our ideas on the 
 universe, build them up, and make models and testable predictions.  That's 
 pretty much the scientific method.  Also, if we're discussing metaphysics, 
 metaphysics is the study of being and existence.  Because the universe 
 bes and exists, and physics is the study of how the universe works, the 
 laws of physics and the universe should be derivable from the principles of 
 metaphysics.  I think many of us are trying to work out the principles of 
 metaphysics that apply to how the universe works.  I call this a 
 metaphysics-to-physics or philosophical engineering approach. I'd like to 
 challenge all of us to build models and make predictions based on our 
 ideas.  That's what I'm trying to do in my own thinking.  I've got a very 
 basic beginning model based on my thinking at my website at:


 https://sites.google.com/site/ralphthewebsite/filecabinet/why-is-there-something-rather-than-nothing

 in the section called Use of the proposed solution to build a model of 
 the universe.  I look forward to reading about others' models on this list 
 in the future. 

Anyways, even if no one is interested, I'd still vote to get away from 
 religion.  Live and let live, let everyone have their say, and move on.  
 That's my two cents.  Thanks.

 OK. I have many times dismissed the God hypothesis (on this forum) as 
 having no explanatory value, as have others. But it keeps coming back.

 But anyway...

 I don't think there is necessarily something rather than nothing. There 
 may only appear to be - the something of a material universe may be 
 somehow derived from the nothing of all possible information, as 
 suggested by Russell and others.

 I think any serious attempt to explain the S vs N (on this list, given 
 what's already been said) should start from the basis that nothing has to 
 mean nothing physical - no pre-quantum fields or whatever are good enough, 
 they're still something. Otherwise you're just going from something to 
 somethnig else, which is fine in itself but it shouldnt be advertised as 
 something from nothing.

 My 2c



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Re: Isn't this group supposed to be about trying to figure out how the universe works and not so much about religion and insults?

2015-01-16 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
John,

Thanks for the posting.  I still have trouble conceiving of point 
particles with physical dimensions of zero.  Wouldn't they be not there? 
 But, all these ideas of getting something from nothing are on the right 
track, I think.  And, at least you've made some testable predictions.   
That's the key for all of us, IMHO.

  Roger 

On Monday, January 12, 2015 at 3:52:38 PM UTC-5, John Ross wrote:

 Roger and Everyone,

  

 I absolutely agree.  And I have been working on a model which explains how 
 our Universe works including how our Universe of 100  to 400 billion 
 galaxies could have been created from empty space.  My model is explained 
 in detail in my new book, *Tronnies – The Source of the Coulomb Force*, 
 but as far as I know not one member of this group has bothered to read my 
 book.  My book at *Chapter XXIX* includes 101 predictions of my “Theory 
 of Everything”.  No one who has  read my book has shown me any evidence, 
 based on  fact, that any of my predictions are not correct.  My theory is 
 definitely inconsistent with much of the Standard Model and Einstein 
 relativity. 

  

 Tronnies (discovered by me about 13 years ago) are point particles with a 
 charge of plus e or minus e.  So tronnies are the *source* of the Coulomb 
 force.  Tronnies, in order to exist, must travel in circles at π/2 times 
 the speed of light, with one or two  other tronnies (twosomes and 
 threesomes).  (Doing so, each tronnie is always at the focus of its own 
 Coulomb force; so tronnies are  also the *product* of the Coulomb 
 force.)  The twosome is an entron (also discovered by me about 11 years  
 ago) which provides all of the mass of our Universe except for the mass of 
 electrons and positrons.  The threesomes are electrons  and  positrons. ( 
 *My* *model is completely symmetrical with no symmetry breaking.)*  There 
 are an equal number of electrons and positrons in our Universe.  Everything 
 else in our Universe is made from entrons, electrons and positrons.  For 
 example, each proton is made  from two positrons and a very high energy 
 electron (which is a combination of an electron and a very high energy 
 entron).  An anti-proton is the opposite of a proton.  In our Universe 
 protons dominate over anti-protons merely because there are more free 
 electrons as compared to positrons, so protons are easier to make.  Any 
 anti-protons made are quickly annihilated by combination with protons. 
   However, there are probably universes within our Cosmos in which 
 anti-protons are dominate over protons.

  

 An alpha particle is comprised of four protons, two electrons and several 
 gamma ray entrons.  There are no neutrons in the nuclei of stable atoms.  
 (Neutrons have an average life of about 15 minutes.)  The nuclei of all 
 stable (and very long-lived unstable atoms) heaver than helium are 
 comprised of from 1 to 60 alpha particles, 0, 1, 2, or 3 protons, and a 
 number (between 0 and 28) of electrons and between about 13 and 322 MeV of 
 gamma ray entrons.  For example the carbon-12 nuclei is comprised of three 
 alpha particles and about 13.04 MeV of gamma ray entrons.  The oxygen-16 
 nuclei is comprised of four alpha particles and about 13.04 MeV of gamma 
 ray entrons.  The silver, Ag-107 nuclei  is comprised of 26 alpha 
 particles, 3 protons and 8 electrons and about 25 MeV of gamma ray entrons. 
  The Ag-109 nuclei is comprised of 27 alpha particles, 1 proton, 8 
 electrons and about 29 MeV of gamma ray entrons.   

  

 My book is available for about $25 at Amazon.com.  Just search for 
 “tronnies”.  You can see a summary of my model at the Amazon.com web site.  

  

  

  

 Roger, I read your article from your web site.  It is very interesting, 
 although it takes a different approach from my model in dealing with the 
 “something vs nothing” issue.  On page 18 you said you can’t conceive of 
 anything [not] having “*either*” height, depth  or  length.  My tronnies 
 have “*neither*”  height, depth nor length.  They also have no mass.  
 They are point particles.  They have no properties other than charge of “e” 
 (about 1.602 X 10-19 coulombs) which means they are a source of the 
 Coulomb force.  Actually my tronnies are the only source of the Coulomb 
 force.  All other charged  particles get their charge from the tronnies 
 that they are comprised of.  You might ask, “Where do the tronnies get 
 their charge.”  The answer is they get most of their charge from 
 themselves, because traveling in a circle at a speed of π/2 times the speed 
 of light, each of them are always at the focus of their own Coulomb force.  
 Some of the tronnie’s charge may come from Coulomb grids that fill our 
 Universe and is sum of all of the speed-of-light Coulomb waves that fill 
 our Universe.  However, entrons, electrons and positrons (made from 
 tronnies) do have size and mass.  Entrons are two-dimensional; electrons 
 and positrons are three-dimensional

Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-15 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List


On Wednesday, January 14, 2015 at 5:28:03 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 14 Jan 2015, at 08:05, 'Roger' via Everything List wrote:

  I have to admit I have a hard time going with the idea of Platonism or 
 mathematical constructs existing somewhere that no one can see or test.  I 
 sure can't rule it out, but I'd like to be able to know where it is.

 Where? You seem to assume a sort of geometry at the start, but with 
 computationalism, geometry is among the emergent phenomena.

 Where does not apply to numbers, except in the large sense of being 
 between two numbers, with the usual ordering (defined by x  y if Ez(x+z = 
 y)).

 All you need to believe in is that proposition like (786899543211 is 
 prime or is not prime) is true independently of you and me. Of course 
 by 786899543211, I mean the number denoted by this base ten description of 
 a natural number. Are you OK with this? that type of assumption is weaker 
 than the assumption most scientist are doing when using mathematics in 
 their domain. The arithmetical platonism  (realism) used in 
 computationalism is the same amount than the one used in computer science, 
 physics, etc.


 Roger: My view is that propositions like 786899543211 is prime or is not 
 prime, 1+1=2, etc. are mental constructs/entities that exist in our 
 minds (e.g., in our heads from my materialist point of view) in order to 
 describe existent entities that exist outside the mind such as 786899543211 
 existent entities, an entity and another one next to it, respectively.  


 What might be in your head are the sentences descriptions and the numbers 
 description, not what is referred by those description. There is a 
 difference between the number five, and a representation of the number five 
 in some hardware (if that exists)...

...Propositions does not exist. A proposition is true or false. They might 
 exist in a metatheory, which might be a part of the theory, but then 
 propositions will be realized by sentences, and they will exist, in the 
 mind of some universal numbers, again in a sense similar to prime number 
 exists, which I think is clear enough for not adding metaphysical 
 obscurity.



 
Roger:  There is, of course, a difference between the conception in our 
minds of something and the thing it is we're conceiving.  I've made this 
exact point in a recent posting here.  But, because of your Platonism 
you're suggesting that if the thing we're conceiving is a number or 
mathematical proposition, it would exist or be true even in the case of the 
complete lack of all physically existent entities.  What I'm suggesting is 
that there would be no proposition about 786899543211 is prime or is not 
prime in the first place unless there are first existent entities and the 
mental constructs called numbers and mathematics for describing these 
entities.  That is, to have a proposition *be* true or false, a proposition 
first has to *be* or exist.  Basically, I think our disagreement comes 
down to the idea that you believe that some propositions exist or are true 
in a Platonic realm that is not part of space, time and the physical world. 
 I can't disprove this.  But, no one can ever disprove or prove things they 
can neither see evidence for or test.  That's more a matter of faith.





 Mathematics and arithmetic are mental constructs we've created to 
 manipulate these outside the mind entities. 


 How do you know that outside of the mind is not also a mental construct? 
 You assume a primary physical reality, but then the UD Argument shows that 
 you need to put some non computable stuff in the brain and in matter.

 Do you believe that the prime twin conjecture depends on the human mind? 
 Do you believe that the prime twin conjecture would not be true, or false, 
 in case life did not appear on Earth?

 Roger: Even if what is outside the mind is also a mental construct, and 
even if the entirety of existence is some mental construct, you're 
suggesting that mathematics or mathematical propositions would exist 
outside that existence in a Platonic realm that doesn't exist like 
everything else.  Again, I can't disprove it, but it can't be proved either 
because this realm can't be seen or experimented on.  
For a prime twin conjecture to *be *true or false, there first has to 
*be* a prime twin conjecture as well as primes.  That is these things have 
to *be* or exist somewhere.  If you can point out to me where they exist 
separately from being a mental construct, that'd be great.  


When I say Please point out this Platonic realm, what I'm getting at is 
 that I don't think propositions or anything else can exist somewhere that's 
 not in the mind/head or in the physical universe outside the mind.  Where 
 else would such propositions exist? 

 I'll need something more than just a statement affirming that where does 
 not apply to numbers.  This doesn't seem to be evidence. 


 This is because you seem to have decided that what exist

Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-13 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List


  I have to admit I have a hard time going with the idea of Platonism or 
 mathematical constructs existing somewhere that no one can see or test.  I 
 sure can't rule it out, but I'd like to be able to know where it is.

 Where? You seem to assume a sort of geometry at the start, but with 
 computationalism, geometry is among the emergent phenomena.

 Where does not apply to numbers, except in the large sense of being 
 between two numbers, with the usual ordering (defined by x  y if Ez(x+z = 
 y)).

 All you need to believe in is that proposition like (786899543211 is prime 
 or is not prime) is true independently of you and me. Of course 
 by 786899543211, I mean the number denoted by this base ten description of 
 a natural number. Are you OK with this? that type of assumption is weaker 
 than the assumption most scientist are doing when using mathematics in 
 their domain. The arithmetical platonism  (realism) used in 
 computationalism is the same amount than the one used in computer science, 
 physics, etc.


 Roger: My view is that propositions like 786899543211 is prime or is not 
prime, 1+1=2, etc. are mental constructs/entities that exist in our 
minds (e.g., in our heads from my materialist point of view) in order to 
describe existent entities that exist outside the mind such as 786899543211 
existent entities, an entity and another one next to it, respectively. 
 Mathematics and arithmetic are mental constructs we've created to 
manipulate these outside the mind entities.  When I say Please point out 
this Platonic realm, what I'm getting at is that I don't think 
propositions or anything else can exist somewhere that's not in the 
mind/head or in the physical universe outside the mind.  Where else would 
such propositions exist?  I'll need something more than just a statement 
affirming that where does not apply to numbers.  This doesn't seem to be 
evidence. 

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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-12 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
Bruno,

Hi.  

I'd like to propose that we get back to the subject of discussing our 
ideas on how the universe works, why it's here, etc.,


 And if there is one. Normally, we already have debated that if there is no 
 magic operating in the brain (another way to assume computationalism, once 
 we assume Church-Turing thesis), then the physical universe is a first 
 person plural sort of hallucination, and we must derived the laws of 
 physics from the laws of thought (Boole and Boolos, say).


Roger: Even if the universe is a hallucination, purely based on thought, or 
a computer simulation, where does the hallucination, thought, or computer 
come from in the first place.  I have to admit I have a hard time going 
with the idea of Platonism or mathematical constructs existing somewhere 
that no one can see or test.  I sure can't rule it out, but I'd like to be 
able to know where it is.

 
To start, I'd like to propose the following:  We all have different 
views on the question Why there is something rather than nothing?, if 
that question even has value, how the universe works, etc.  I think it's 
safe to say that, unless you're an academic, our ideas are also routinely 
ignored, criticized and made fun of by academics.


 Not really. I defended a thesis in mathematics, on the neceesary mininal 
 common (to all machines) amount of theology, and got no problem in 
 academies, except for some rare one, known for defending religious 
 conviction (usually of the atheists type). Those just ignore facts, proofs, 
 and argument, and I have been unable to ever met them. But most 
 academicians don't take them seriously, despite some bad local influence 
 they have on the media. 

 Roger: Well, I admit not all academics make fun of amateurs, but a lot do. 
  I'm happy that you've had better luck than me.  I've had a few very nice 
 academics give constructive feedback and comments, but they are few and far 
 between.


-


 I suggest you read my paper sane04

 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/publications/SANE2004MARCHALAbstract.html

 Roger: I'll look this up tonight.  Thanks!





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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-12 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
Chris and Brent,



On Tuesday, January 13, 2015 at 1:42:43 AM UTC-5, cdemorsella wrote:

  

  


 Roger: It seems to me, too, that there are problems with zero dimensions, 
 or point particles.  I've never understood why physicists don't question 
 the idea of a zero-dimensional point particle.  Oh well.

 Of course they've questioned.  That's how they came up with string theory.

  Which is an elegant aspect of String Theory, I think. The infinitely 
 small zero-dimensional point is an assumption IMO (nothing in reality 
 indicates any actual necessary for its existence), and it is an abstraction 
 that causes all kinds of problems for physicists.

 Even at the abstract level of meta-information: the finer the definition 
 of a point (or any measured property in general) the bigger the definition 
 must become, in order to hold the extra information required with each 
 scale down into finer and finer grain sizes.

 Roger: I stand corrected.  That is a good point for string theory and, I'm 
 guessing, other similar theories, like loop quantum gravity, etc.   Thanks 
 Brent and Chris.  In a related point and building on what Chris is 
 saying, it seems like a lot of physicists are still grappling with 
 infinities.  This seems to me to be sort of related to the idea of zero 
 size points.  If I understood what Chris was saying, as you get closer and 
 closer to infinitely small or infinitely large amounts, you need more 
 information to describe that thing.  It seems like it might be easier if we 
 could have step functions where in our universe, there's only finite sized 
 things (can't get to infinitely small or infinitely big.  There's a 
 smallest size; such as the Planck scale), and you have to take a  step up 
 or down in POV to see infinitely small or big things.  What I'm thinking is 
 that if you could consider our universe as an infinite set of Planck size 
 chunks, and then view this set from the POV (good acronym from Chris!) of 
 an infinite observer outside the set, this observer would not be able to 
 see the boundaries/surfaces of these chunks (they'd be infinitesimally 
 small from his POV), so it would look like a smooth, continuous space.   
 That is, the way you perceive a thing as either being infinitesimally small 
 or a finite size or infinitely big depends on your point of view, your 
 perspective, of that thing.  I wonder if they could use this type of thing 
 in working on combining quantum mechanics and relativity?  I've put some of 
 this infinite set stuff at my website and over at fqxi.org in their essay 
 contests, and it actually seemed to get a modest amount of positive 
 feedback.  But, a lot of ignoring it as well! :-)  


By the way, I live in Columbus, OH, and OSU just won the national 
football championship.  Plus, the Big Ten did well in their bowl games this 
year!  I couldn't help it.  I just had to say congrats to OSU and the rest 
of the Big Ten!  I know this is unrelated.   

 

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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-12 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List


 Chris,

 Hey Roger ~ sorry for the belatedness of my reply

 Roger: No problem.  I know there were a lot of other passionate 
 discussions going on here lately!
 -
  

 I really like your idea of imagining your mind growing to infinite size, 
 but I agree it sounds pretty hard.  I'm going to give it a try.  Your head 
 doesn't blow up, does it? :-) As you said, maybe people visualizing the 
 infinitely small and infinitely big will eventually meet.  

  Yes, in the sense of our universe being the perspective, of being, from 
 inside a black hole. The universe shares some compelling properties with 
 black holes; both are defined by their event horizons and both have 
 histories bounded by moments of origin.

 Roger: Agreed.  In a way, if the initial existent entity that made the 
 universe is the one previously called the absolute lack-of-all, it's kind 
 of like a black hole, or singularity. 

  

Actually, thinking about it, I see problems with an infinitely fine 
zero-dimensional entity, as well, even as a pure abstraction, when taken to 
an infinite degree of fineness of scale of its address in space-time. In a 
physical sense, as a smallest address of space time, how small can small 
be? And as a point of origin our laws of physics break down at some scale… 
how point-like was the Big Bang – at a scale of less than 10^(-35), do we 
really know?

Even as a pure mathematical entity – with no corresponding point particle 
entity -- one can make an argument against an infinitely small point, 
existing even in a purely mathematical abstract realm, by noting that there 
exists a reverse symmetrical property between the scale of the points grain 
size (e.g. radius for example) and the information required to address it. 
The smaller the addressed scale becomes, the bigger the information set 
that is required in order to hold its address also becomes. If the rate at 
which the required address size increases, matches the rate at which 
increasingly fine scaled points can be defined then an infinitely small 
point would require an infinitely large address space in order to be 
defined. On the other hand, if the rate of growth in address space is less 
than the rate of increasingly fine grained scale point definition then 
perhaps it doesn’t matter.

Roger: It seems to me, too, that there are problems with zero dimensions, 
or point particles.  I've never understood why physicists don't question 
the idea of a zero-dimensional point particle.  Oh well.

--
 

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Isn't this group supposed to be about trying to figure out how the universe works and not so much about religion and insults?

2015-01-11 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
Everyone,

I'd like to propose that we get back to the subject of discussing our 
ideas on how the universe works, why it's here, etc., and stop talking 
about religion so much.  It'd be nice if we could all also provide 
constructive criticism if we disagree, instead of insults.  If this turns 
into a religion, hatred, insults type forum, for me at least, it will have 
lost the value it had.

To start, I'd like to propose the following:  We all have different 
views on the question Why there is something rather than nothing?, if 
that question even has value, how the universe works, etc.  I think it's 
safe to say that, unless you're an academic, our ideas are also routinely 
ignored, criticized and made fun of by academics.  The only way for 
amateurs to ever get more traction is if we can take our ideas on the 
universe, build them up, and make models and testable predictions.  That's 
pretty much the scientific method.  Also, if we're discussing metaphysics, 
metaphysics is the study of being and existence.  Because the universe 
bes and exists, and physics is the study of how the universe works, the 
laws of physics and the universe should be derivable from the principles of 
metaphysics.  I think many of us are trying to work out the principles of 
metaphysics that apply to how the universe works.  I call this a 
metaphysics-to-physics or philosophical engineering approach. I'd like to 
challenge all of us to build models and make predictions based on our 
ideas.  That's what I'm trying to do in my own thinking.  I've got a very 
basic beginning model based on my thinking at my website at:

https://sites.google.com/site/ralphthewebsite/filecabinet/why-is-there-something-rather-than-nothing

in the section called Use of the proposed solution to build a model of the 
universe.  I look forward to reading about others' models on this list in 
the future. 

   Anyways, even if no one is interested, I'd still vote to get away from 
religion.  Live and let live, let everyone have their say, and move on. 
 That's my two cents.  Thanks.

   Roger 

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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-11 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
Everyone,

I'd like to propose that we get back to the subject of discussing our 
ideas on how the universe works, why it's here, etc., and stop talking 
about religion so much.  It'd be nice if we could all also provide 
constructive criticism if we disagree, instead of insults.  If this turns 
into a religion, hatred, insults type forum, for me at least, it will have 
lost the value it had.

To start, I'd like to propose the following:  We all have different 
views on the question Why there is something rather than nothing?, if 
that question even has value, how the universe works, etc.  I think it's 
safe to say that, unless you're an academic, our ideas are also routinely 
ignored, criticized and made fun of by academics.  The only way for 
amateurs to ever get more traction is if we can take our ideas on the 
universe, build them up, and make models and testable predictions.  That's 
pretty much the scientific method.  Also, if we're discussing metaphysics, 
metaphysics is the study of being and existence.  Because the universe 
bes and exists, and physics is the study of how the universe works, the 
laws of physics and the universe should be derivable from the principles of 
metaphysics.  I think many of us are trying to work out the principles of 
metaphysics that apply to how the universe works.  I call this a 
metaphysics-to-physics or philosophical engineering approach. I'd like to 
challenge all of us to build models and make predictions based on our 
ideas.  That's what I'm trying to do in my own thinking.  I've got a very 
basic beginning model based on my thinking at my website at:

https://sites.google.com/site/ralphthewebsite/filecabinet/why-is-there-something-rather-than-nothing

in the section called Use of the proposed solution to build a model of the 
universe.  I look forward to reading about others' models on this list in 
the future. 

   Anyways, even if no one is interested, I'd still vote to get away from 
religion.  Live and let live, let everyone have their say, and move on. 
 That's my two cents.  Thanks.

   Roger 




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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-07 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List


 Chris,

 

1.It sure is hard to visualize the absolute lack-of-all, I agree. 
 What I try to do is to shut my eyes and try to imagine the universe and 
all its volume collapsing down to just my body and then just my mindscape. 
 Then, I push that darkness of the mindscape off to the side into a little 
point and try to imagine getting rid of that point.  I've never pushed it 
all the way away out of fear that it may not be so good for your health, but 
it helps me think that only once it's all gone, including our mind, do we 
jump to the outside and see the absolute lack-of-all as the entirety of 
all there is and thus an existent entity.  But, it's possible it's just my 
imagination

 

 Nice meditative visualization. The last bit you mention about the sudden 
 quantum jump – at the very instant when everything including the last 
 vestige of self is gone and the state of all-nothing is first reached – in 
 that sub-femtosecond or less instant – the observer perspective quite 
 suddenly (in some quantum salsa) on the outside looking in… gaining this 
 crucial outside perspective on the all-ness of nothing.

 I used to do visualization the other way… how vast can we imagine our 
 minds? Perhaps, one could say, both roads lead to the same place. When I 
 have tried this exercise I would expand my inner sense of the volume of 
 space my mind extended to and enveloped from the room I would be meditating 
 in… to the neighborhood above the trees… to the perspective of the clouds 
 and the much vaster territory seen from that POV… and more… zooming out, 
 holding the focus. Each time, at some point it I would lose it, on occasion 
 from the vertigo in the mind; on others due to mundane interruptions – like 
 some sound from my immediate environment that kicked the more primitive 
 survival pathways of the brain, up into override mode. Have not done that 
 in some time, but it was an interesting exercise of holding a focus on this 
 particular mental perspective. 

 I kind of suspect there may some ultimate symmetry in the limit of both 
 the very big and the very small.

 Roger: I really like your idea of imagining your mind growing to infinite 
size, but I agree it sounds pretty hard.  I'm going to give it a try.  Your 
head doesn't blow up, does it? :-) As you said, maybe people visualizing 
the infinitely small and infinitely big will eventually meet.  

--
 

 2.When I was talking about removing all things thought to exist in 
 order to get to the absolute lack-of-all, I don't think there's still a 
 container left.  Instead, I think that that that absolute lack-of-all 
 itself is the container.  That nothingness would be the entirety of all 
 there is and thus the grouping, or container, defining what is contained 
 within.  That nothingness is both what is contained within and the 
 container.

 Nice Daoist ring to this: “nothingness is both what is contained within 
 and the container” okay, I see your POV. Then the container of this 
 all-nothing, is a dual aspect or POV, of nothing.

Roger: Yep, I think the entiretyness of the all-nothing means that it's a 
grouping, or surface, defining what is contained within.  So, it is 
kind of a dual aspect of it.

---
 

 4. In regard to the auto-catalytic nature of the existent entity/empty 
 set, I totally agree.  But, my vote for what the multiplication operation 
 would be is that:

 o If the absolute lack-of-all is a grouping defining what is contained 
 within and thus an existent entity, a grouping is the similar to a surface 
 or edge defining what is contained within and giving substance and 
 existence to the thing.

 Do you then view – e.g. maintain a perspective on – nothing as being a 
 zero dimensional bubble with nothing inside (or outside for that matter), 
 but one which is imbued nevertheless with this duality of having an edge or 
 surface? 

 One could make the point that this boils down to a duality of perspective: 
 the within perspectives; and the containment of all (of nothing) 
 perspective. The surface/edge is the global containing one  (the bird’s eye 
 view); whilst every other infinitely possible perspectives are within.

 Perspective of course implies an observer. Which poses some interesting 
 problems for something out of nothing.

Roger: Yep, I do think of the all-nothing as being a bubble with nothing 
inside and nothing outside but with the property of being a surface because 
of the fact that it's the entirety, or all, of all that is  present.  But, 
I don't think of it as zero dimensional.  I can't envision anything that 
actually physically exists as having any of its dimensions actually be 
zero.  If so, it seems like it wouldn't be there.  So, I think of it as a 
physical entity of a finite, non-zero, size of 1 where 1 is the smallest 
possible size.
The only perspective present is that of you and me and others, and 
that's only

Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-07 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List

If only through the we which think about that nothing. 

  

 Is anything possible at all without an observer?

 -Chris

 Roger: If we're talking about the situation where there's only the 
 absolute lack-of-all or the empty set, I think the only place the 
 perspective/observer is coming from is from our thinking about this 
 situation after the fact.  In the case of the absolute lack-of-all, or 
 empty set, there is no observer.  There's a difference between our mind's 
 conception of the absolute lack-of-all or empty set and the absolute 
 lack-of-all or empty set itself, IMHO.


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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-05 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List


Chris,

Hi.  I admit that something and nothing may be more of a comedy gold 
mine than I first wrote.  It's nothing to sneeze at! :-) Although, I wonder 
if people who aren't interested in this stuff (e.g. almost everyone) would 
find it funny?

It sounds like we're pretty much in agreement on a lot of things.  A 
couple of comments on your comments are:

1. It sure is hard to visualize the absolute lack-of-all, I agree.  What 
I try to do is to shut my eyes and try to imagine the universe and all its 
volume collapsing down to just my body and then just my mindscape.  Then, I 
push that darkness of the mindscape off to the side into a little point and 
try to imagine getting rid of that point.  I've never pushed it all the way 
away out of fear that it may not be so good for your health, but it helps 
me think that only once it's all gone, including our mind, do we jump to 
the outside and see the absolute lack-of-all as the entirety of all there 
is and thus an existent entity.  But, it's possible it's just my imagination

2. You mentioned

...the set is a pure conceptual entity, it never the less is also imbued 
with a rich set of operations and properties. Even the empty set is a 
non-trivial conceptual entity.

I don't think of the existent entity that I used to call the absolute 
lack-of-all, which is similar to the empty set, as a conceptual entity 
because in the absolute lack-of-all or the nullness inside the empty set, 
there would be no mind for it to be conceived in.  It's a real existent 
entity, IMHO, just like an electron is a real existent entity.  Who knows 
what's inside an electron.  All we really know is that it's an existent 
entity.  Electron and empty set are just names for existent entities.

3. When I was talking about removing all things thought to exist in order 
to get to the absolute lack-of-all, I don't think there's still a 
container left.  Instead, I think that that that absolute lack-of-all 
itself is the container.  That nothingness would be the entirety of all 
there is and thus the grouping, or container, defining what is contained 
within.  That nothingness is both what is contained within and the 
container.

4. In regard to the auto-catalytic nature of the existent entity/empty set, 
I totally agree.  But, my vote for what the multiplication operation would 
be is that:

o If the absolute lack-of-all is a grouping defining what is contained 
within and thus an existent entity, a grouping is the similar to a surface 
or edge defining what is contained within and giving substance and 
existence to the thing.

o If you have this initial surface, what's next to the surface?  The 
absolute lack-of-all.  This new instance of the absolute lack-of-all is 
itself an existent entity next to the surface of the original entity.  In 
fact, I think new identical  absolute lack-of-all existent entities would 
cover the entire surface of the original entity.  

o Each of the new absolute lack-of-all existent entities would repeat the 
process and you'd have an expanding space composed of these absolute 
lack-of-all existent entities.  

This would be my vote on the autocatalytic mechanism for how this 
initial entity/empty set could replicate itself.

See  you.

 Roger   





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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-04 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
Chris,

   I have nothing important to say! :-)  Nothing and something are kind 
of good areas for puns, double entendres and jokes.  After all, Jerry 
Seinfeld had a whole show about nothing!
Roger – you have much to say about nothing [just joking]

You mentioned:
I agree with the distinction you make between nothing arrived at through 
the negative process of removing everything that exists until nothing is 
left versus the nothing **that is** everything.

Further down, if I follow you, you are making the point that if we are 
speaking about the **nothing that is the set of everything there is** then 
even if this is an empty set, by virtue of a set being something – a 
conceptual entity – then even the absolutely empty universal set {} exists 
as a conceptual entity at least.

Is that a fair recap of your intent; or am I off the mark?
I think that's a good recap of my intent.  If we can visualize the 
absolute lack-of-all where all things traditionally thought to exist, 
including our minds doing the imagining, that nothingness would be 
everything there is.  And, then as you say, I think everything there is is 
a grouping defining what is contained within and therefore an existent 
entity.  A set is also a grouping defining what is contained within, so 
this situation would be similar to the empty set.  I think this fundamental 
existent entity similar to the empty set is the fundamental unit of our 
physical universe.

Also, you mentioned in a later post: 

Something is the “inside view” of Nothing”I agree with the premise 
that perspective is paramount in coming to terms with and to understand 
the spooky weird nature of quantum reality; perspective also provides a 
powerful tool to explain the “something from nothing paradox”. Something 
does seem like it could be how Nothing looks from the perspective of being 
within itself – as opposed to the bird’s eye view from outside 

I totally agree that perspective is paramount in deciding whether the 
absolute lack-of-all is something or nothing.  But, I always like to 
think that when we're inside nothingness, that means we're also like 
nothingness, so this nothingness just looks like nothing.  But, if we 
could step outside that nothingness, we'd see that it is the entirety of 
all there is and thus an existent entity.

In regard to Russell's stuff on nothingness, I can't remember the 
details now, but I think I read about it at one time and don't remember its 
really answering any questions. 

Have a good week!

   Roger  




 This is exactly what I'm suggesting.  It would not remain nothing.  We 
 usually think of the situation when you get rid of all matter, energy, 
 space/volume, time, abstract concepts, minds, etc. as nothing.  But, what 
 I'm saying is that this supposed nothing really isn't the lack of all 
 existent entities.  That nothing would be the entirety of all that is 
 present; that's it; there's nothing else.  It would be the all.  An 
 entirety is a grouping defining what is contained within and therefore an 
 existent entity, based on my definition of an existent entity.   So, even 
 what we think of as nothing is an existent entity or something.  This 
 means that something is non-contingent.  It's necessary.  There is no 
 such thing as the lack of all existent entities.

  

 Roger – you have much to say about nothing [just joking] 

 I agree with the distinction you make between nothing arrived at through 
 the negative process of removing everything that exists until nothing is 
 left versus the nothing **that is** everything. 

 Further down, if I follow you, you are making the point that if we are 
 speaking about the **nothing that is the set of everything there is** 
 then even if this is an empty set, by virtue of a set being something – a 
 conceptual entity – then even the absolutely empty universal set {} exists 
 as a conceptual entity at least.

 Is that a fair recap of your intent; or am I off the mark?

 -Chris

 On Saturday, January 3, 2015 1:17:27 AM UTC-5, cdemorsella wrote:

  

  

 *From:* everyth...@googlegroups.com [mailto:everyth...@googlegroups.com] *On 
 Behalf Of *meekerdb
 *Sent:* Friday, January 02, 2015 9:44 PM
 *To:* everyth...@googlegroups.com
 *Subject:* Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum 
 theory to dialectics?

  

 On 1/2/2015 9:05 PM, 'Roger' via Everything List wrote:

 Even if the word exists has no use because everything exists, it seems 
 important to know why everything exists.  How is it that a thing can 
 exist?  What I suggest is that a grouping defining what is contained within 
 is an existent entity.  Then, you can use this to try and answer the other 
 question of Why is there something rather than nothing?.


 If everything exists, what doesn't exist?  Nothing.

  

 If nothing existed; would it remain nothing?

 -Chris

 Brent

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 You received this message because you

Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-03 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
In regard to:

If nothing existed; would it remain nothing?

This is exactly what I'm suggesting.  It would not remain nothing.  We 
usually think of the situation when you get rid of all matter, energy, 
space/volume, time, abstract concepts, minds, etc. as nothing.  But, what 
I'm saying is that this supposed nothing really isn't the lack of all 
existent entities.  That nothing would be the entirety of all that is 
present; that's it; there's nothing else.  It would be the all.  An 
entirety is a grouping defining what is contained within and therefore an 
existent entity, based on my definition of an existent entity.   So, even 
what we think of as nothing is an existent entity or something.  This 
means that something is non-contingent.  It's necessary.  There is no 
such thing as the lack of all existent entities.

On Saturday, January 3, 2015 1:17:27 AM UTC-5, cdemorsella wrote:

  

  

 *From:* everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript: [mailto:
 everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript:] *On Behalf Of *meekerdb
 *Sent:* Friday, January 02, 2015 9:44 PM
 *To:* everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript:
 *Subject:* Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum 
 theory to dialectics?

  

 On 1/2/2015 9:05 PM, 'Roger' via Everything List wrote:

 Even if the word exists has no use because everything exists, it seems 
 important to know why everything exists.  How is it that a thing can 
 exist?  What I suggest is that a grouping defining what is contained within 
 is an existent entity.  Then, you can use this to try and answer the other 
 question of Why is there something rather than nothing?.


 If everything exists, what doesn't exist?  Nothing.

  

 If nothing existed; would it remain nothing?

 -Chris

 Brent

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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2015-01-02 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
Even if the word exists has no use because everything exists, it seems 
important to know why everything exists.  How is it that a thing can 
exist?  What I suggest is that a grouping defining what is contained within 
is an existent entity.  Then, you can use this to try and answer the other 
question of Why is there something rather than nothing?.


On Thursday, January 1, 2015 12:17:37 PM UTC-5, John Clark wrote:

 On Wed, Dec 31, 2014 at 11:36 PM, 'Roger' via Everything List 
 everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript: wrote:

  propose that a thing exists if it is a grouping or relationship 
 present defining what is contained within.


  If nothing is contained within then that is very well defined, 
 therefore nothing exists.  Something obviously also exists, but if both 
 something and nothing exist then there is no contrast and the word exists 
 is drained of all usefulness. 


  What I was trying to get at is that the most fundamental unit of 
 existence and the most fundamental instantiation of the word exists is the 
 existent entity that is, I think, incorrectly called the absolute 
 lack-of-all.


 Existent entity? But something that has the existent property is something 
 that exists, and round and round we go. Once again the word exists is 
 drained of all usefulness.

  John K Clark




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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2014-12-31 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
John,

Hi.  What I was trying to get at is that the most fundamental unit of 
existence and the most fundamental instantiation of the word exists is the 
existent entity that is, I think, incorrectly called the absolute 
lack-of-all.  That is when you say therefore nothing exists, what I mean 
is that this absolute lack-of-all is identical to something.  I'm not  
sure how  trying to explain why a thing exists and why nothing is 
actually not the lack of all existent entities but is instead a something 
drains exists of any usefulness?
Thanks.

Roger 



On Tuesday, December 16, 2014 12:54:42 PM UTC-5, John Clark wrote:

 On Mon, Dec 15, 2014 at 12:56 AM, 'Roger' via Everything List 
 everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript: wrote:

  I propose that a thing exists if it is a grouping or relationship 
 present defining what is contained within.


 If nothing is contained within then that is very well defined, therefore 
 nothing exists.  Something obviously also exists, but if both something and 
 nothing exist then there is no contrast and the word exists is drained of 
 all usefulness.  

   John K Clark



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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2014-12-15 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
 

Peter,


 Hi. I used to post here a long time ago, but thought I'd try it again. 
 I agree with your post that to answer the question Why is there something 
rather than nothing?, we have to start with the supposed absolute 
lack-of-all and can't presuppose the laws of math, etc.  I also agree that 
absolute nothing can't exist, but my reasoning is a little different.   My 
view is that:


o The question Why is there something rather than nothing? is kind of 
built on a misunderstanding.  That is, that the situation we've always 
considered to be nothing (e.g. no space/volume, time, matter, energy, 
abstract concepts, laws of math/physics, no information, and no minds to 
think about this lack of all) isn't really the lack of all existent 
entities. I think and try to show that this situation meets a definition of 
what it means to be an existent entity.  That's also why I put nothing 
and the absolute lack-of-all in quotes to try and highlight this.


o Before going into why I think it's an existent entity, I just wanted to 
say that I think it's okay to talk about and name the supposed absolute 
lack-of-all because we have to do that just to consider the question. 
 And, our talking about it and naming it won't determine whether or not the 
absolute lack-of-all itself (and not our mind's conception of the 
absolute lack-of-all) is or isn't an existent entity because neither we 
nor our talk would be there in the case of the absolute lack-of-all. 
 Also, it's real important to  distinguish between our mind's conception of 
the absolute lack-of-all and the absolute lack-of-all itself.


 o For why I think what we've traditionally considered to be the absolute 
lack-of-all is actually itself an existent entity, my reasoning is as 
follows:  First, I propose that a thing exists if it is a grouping or 
relationship present defining what is contained within. This 
grouping/relationship is equivalent to a surface, edge or boundary defining 
what is contained within and giving substance and existence to the thing. 
 Then, what we've traditionally thought of as “the absolute lack-of-all” 
(no energy, matter, volume, space, time, thoughts, concepts, mathematical 
truths, etc.; and no minds to think about this “absolute lack-of-all”), and 
not our mind's conception of “the absolute lack-of-all”, is one and the 
same as the entirety, or whole amount, of all that is present. That's it; 
that's everything; there's nothing else; it is everything that is present. 
It is the all. An entirety or whole amount is a grouping defining what is 
contained within and is therefore a surface, an edge and an existent 
entity. In other words, because the absolute lack-of-all is the entirety of 
all that is present, it functions as both what is contained within and the 
grouping defining what is contained within. It defines itself and is, 
therefore, the beginning point in the chain of being able to define 
existent entities in terms of other existent entities. The grouping/edge of 
the absolute lack-of-all is not some separate thing; it is just the 
entirety, the all relationship, inherent in this absolute lack-of-all, 
that defines what is contained within. 


 If anyone is interested, there's more detail at my websites at:


 sites.google.com/site/whydoesanythingexist

(summary)


sites.google.com/site/ralphthewebsite

(click on 3rd link, more detail)



Roger 

On Wednesday, October 22, 2014 4:33:50 AM UTC-4, Peter Sas wrote:

 Hi guys,

 Here is a blog piece I wrote about nothing as the ultimate source of being:


 http://critique-of-pure-interest.blogspot.nl/2014/09/why-is-there-something-rather-than.html



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Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory to dialectics?

2014-12-14 Thread 'Roger' via Everything List
Peter,

Hi. I've read parts of a few of your blog posts and found them very 
interesting and highly recommend them to others. 

To build on this thread of Why is there something rather than 
nothing?, I'd like to throw out some related ideas.  I used to post here 
more often with this, but my view is that the situation we've always 
considered to be nothing (e.g. no space/volume, time, matter, energy, 
abstract concepts, laws of math/physics, no information, and no minds to 
think about this lack of all) isn't really the lack of all existent 
entities. I try to show that that situation meets a definition of what it 
means to be an existent entity.  

Briefly, I propose that a thing exists if it is a grouping or 
relationship present defining what is contained within. This 
grouping/relationship is equivalent to a surface, edge or boundary defining 
what is contained within and giving substance and existence to the thing. 
 Then, what we've traditionally thought of as “the absolute lack-of-all” 
(no energy, matter, volume, space, time, thoughts, concepts, mathematical 
truths, etc.; and no minds to think about this “absolute lack-of-all”), and 
not our mind's conception of “the absolute lack-of-all”, is one and the 
same as the entirety, or whole amount, of all that is present. That's it; 
that's everything; there's nothing else; it is everything that is present. 
It is the all. An entirety or whole amount is a grouping defining what is 
contained within and is therefore a surface, an edge and an existent 
entity. In other words, because the absolute lack-of-all is the entirety of 
all that is present, it functions as both what is contained within and the 
grouping defining what is contained within. It defines itself and is, 
therefore, the beginning point in the chain of being able to define 
existent entities in terms of other existent entities. The grouping/edge of 
the absolute lack-of-all is not some separate thing; it is just the 
entirety, the all relationship, inherent in this absolute lack-of-all, 
that defines what is contained within. 

Anyways, if you're interested, there's more detail at my websites at:

sites.google.com/site/whydoesanythingexist

sites.google.com/site/ralphthewebsite
(click on 3rd link)

Thank you!


On Wednesday, October 22, 2014 4:33:50 AM UTC-4, Peter Sas wrote:
Hi guys,

Here is a blog piece I wrote about nothing as the ultimate source of being:

http://critique-of-pure-interest.blogspot.nl/2014/09/why-is-there-something-rather-than.html

On Wednesday, October 22, 2014 4:33:50 AM UTC-4, Peter Sas wrote:

 Hi guys,

 Here is a blog piece I wrote about nothing as the ultimate source of being:


 http://critique-of-pure-interest.blogspot.nl/2014/09/why-is-there-something-rather-than.html



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Leibniz's theory of perception and consciousness.

2013-12-14 Thread Roger Clough
 
Leibniz's theory of perception and consciousness.


The secret of perception. Particular minds and how they relate to the overall 
or Cosmic Mind

The problem of perception in materialistic thinking is that it forces us to
think that there is a fleshly homunculus inside our brains.

Leibniz has a more complicated understanding of particular minds and how they 
relate to Cosmic Mind.

In Leibniz's metaphysics, there is only one mind (the Perceiver or Cosmic Mind 
or God or the One) 
that perceives and acts, doing this through the Supreme (most dominant) monad.
It perceives the whole universe with perfect clarity. 

Only it can perceive and act, because its monads (which includes our minds) 
have no windows.
The monads (our minds) perceive only indirectly, as the Supreme Monad is the 
only
--what we would call-- conscious mind. We only think and perceive indirectly,
as the Supreme Monad continually and instantly updates its universe of
monads. Thus there is no problem communing with God (the Cosmic Mind , the One)
as we do so continually and necessarily, although only according to our own 
abilities
and perspectives .

That we ourselves, not God (or Cosmic Mind, the One), appear to be the 
perceiver is thus only apparent.

Also, because Cosmic Mind sees the entire universe as viewed by a kaleidoscope 
of
individual monads, the perceptions it returns to us contains not only what
we see (the universe from our own individual perspectives) but the
perceptions of all of the other monads. Thus each monad knows everything
in the universe, but only from its own perspective, and monads being monads,
not perfectly clear but distorted.


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How the banks are stealing our wealth

2013-12-14 Thread Roger Clough

How the banks are stealing our wealth.

This seems to be factual, and is non-politcal.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iFDe5kUUyT0Hi - Roger Clough

You'll need to watch it at least twice to understand it,
it's very complicated. And scarey.

Pass it on.

Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
See my Leibniz site at
http://independent.academia.edu/RogerClough


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Beware of the bitcoin

2013-12-14 Thread Roger Clough
The bitcoin is an international speculative cyber-currency
(based on nothing) that has been inflating rapidly in price. 
I would be wary of investing in it because it can drop in value
just as fast as it is rising. It's probably a bubble.


http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=OHVu626uOGE


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You can order Augason Farms 30 day supply of food from Walmart online at

2013-12-13 Thread Roger Clough
Hi 

You can order Augason Farms 30 day emergency supply of food from Walmart online 
at
http://www.walmart.com/search/search-ng.do?search_query=Augason%20Farmadid=224211189655wmlspartner=wmtlabswl0=3536268310wl1=ewl2=walmart%20augason%20farmswl3=15081448341veh=sem

Free shipping, they will deliver to your door. Will keep for 25 years.

Usually 99$ but now on sale at $89 each.


Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
See my Leibniz site at
http://independent.academia.edu/RogerClough


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Order now, as prices are rising on emergency food supply. Fw: You can order Augason Farms 30 day supply of food from Walmart onlineat

2013-12-13 Thread Roger Clough
Order now, as prices are rising on this emergency food supply.


Subject: You can order Augason Farms 30 day supply of food from Walmart 
onlineat 



Hi  
 
You can order Augason Farms 30 day emergency supply of food from Walmart 
online at 
http://www.walmart.com/search/search-ng.do?search_query=Augason%20Farmadid=224211189655wmlspartner=wmtlabswl0=3536268310wl1=ewl2=walmart%20augason%20farmswl3=15081448341veh=sem
 
 
Free shipping, they will deliver to your door. Will keep for 25 years. 
 
Usually 99$ but now on sale at $89 each. 
 
 
Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000] 
See my Leibniz site at 
http://independent.academia.edu/RogerClough 
 
 
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Order now, as prices are rising on this emergency food supply.

2013-12-13 Thread Roger Clough
Order now, as prices are rising on this emergency food supply.


Subject: You can order Augason Farms 30 day supply of food from Walmart 
onlineat 



Hi  
 
You can order Augason Farms 30 day emergency supply of food from Walmart 
online at 
http://www.walmart.com/search/search-ng.do?search_query=Augason%20Farmadid=224211189655wmlspartner=wmtlabswl0=3536268310wl1=ewl2=walmart%20augason%20farmswl3=15081448341veh=sem
 
 
Free shipping, they will deliver to your door. Will keep for 25 years. 
 
Usually 99$ but now on sale at $89 each. 
 
 
Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000] 
See my Leibniz site at 
http://independent.academia.edu/RogerClough 
 
 
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Walmart 30 Day Emergency Food Storage Pail Augason Farms Review

2013-12-13 Thread Roger Clough
Walmart 30 Day Emergency Food Storage Pail Augason Farms Review 
Video  at- Roger Clough

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=fRtg5YKddQo


$89.00 on sale from $90.00 at walmart.
free shipping, order online at

http://www.walmart.com/search/search-ng.do?search_query=Augason%20Farmadid=224211189655wmlspartner=wmtlabswl0=3536268310wl1=ewl2=walmart%20augason%20farmswl3=15081448341veh=sem

Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
See my Leibniz site at
http://independent.academia.edu/RogerClough


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Global warming ?

2013-12-13 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Chris,


According to the Vostok
data, we're in for another ice age, in say 10,000 years or so.


jcs-online,theoretical_physics_board,- 
mindbr...@yahoogroups.com,everything-list,4dworldx



Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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http://independent.academia.edu/RogerClough


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attachment: vostok_IceCores1.gif


A great place for hackers to start to be an identity imposter

2013-12-13 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Hans Dieter Franke  
  


A great place for hackers to start to be an identity imposter
is www.healthcare.gov (if that's the right address).

No or little security.


 
Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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Auguson Farms emergency food supplies at walmart

2013-12-12 Thread Roger Clough
Hi 

In preparation for the coming weimar-type economy collapse,
where a loaf of bread will cost you $100 or more,
I'm going up to Germantown to buy Auguson Farms 
emergency food pails at walmart. The 30 day pails of 
emergency food will keep for 25 years, run from $80 to
$160 for 30 days. Maybe 6 months to begin with.


Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
See my Leibniz site at
http://independent.academia.edu/RogerClough


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Arctic sea ice increased by 51 % last year.

2013-12-12 Thread Roger Clough
Hi - 

Global warming ? Liberals live in a universe of lies.
Arctic sea ice increased by 51 % last year.

http://stevengoddard.wordpress.com/2013/10/22/51-growth-in-thick-arctic-ice-over-last-year/



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MERRY CHRISTMAS !

2013-12-11 Thread Roger Clough
MERRY CHRISTMAS !

USAF FLASH MOB 

at the National Air and Space Museum, Washington DC

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gIoSga7tZPglist=UUKX86dJGhTOn8NtRUqnATFQ

Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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That hateful subject, metaphysics

2013-12-11 Thread Roger Clough
That hateful subject, metaphysics

To deal with consciousness and experiences,
which are mental, not physical, you have to go
to that hateful subject, metaphysics, and
only Leibniz has a good account of the perceiver,
which is the experiencer not available to materialism.

If you still believe there is a perceiver in materialism,
could you tell us where it is ? It has to be at one place,
as your experience and mine says that there
is only one perceiver.


Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
See my Leibniz site at
http://independent.academia.edu/RogerClough


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Leibniz on sensory experience (my account)

2013-12-11 Thread Roger Clough
Leibniz on sensory experience

Leibniz  maintained that all causation is mental.  

This appears to contradict sensory experiences such as being 
pricked by a pin, for the cause of the experience would seem
to originate in the body with the prick. 

There are a number of resolutions to this apparent dilemma, 
my own being that the cause of the pain is not the sensory 
nerve signal itself, but the mental perception of the nerve signal,
for the pain is felt mentally by the perceiver, although it may 
appear to come from the site of the pin prick. So the perceiver
is the causal agent, not the body.

This is not dissimilar to other bodily events such as the feeling of
fear or other emotions.  The actual feeling I believe is
caused by the mental perception of the fear, which may originate
in diffuse regions of the brain or other organs and be perceived
from nerve signals from the brain or other bodily sites. 

Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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The myth of computer consciousnesss and intelligence

2013-12-10 Thread Roger Clough
The myth of computer consciousnesss and intelligence

People have been trying to create perpetual motion machines
for centuries, but nobody has succeeded, I believe because
of energy losses. The problem with making computers
truly intelligent I believe is also impossible, because
the final stage of perception must be subjective (free of symbols),
not objective (described in symbols). In particular,

Computers can only deal with descriptive knowledge (symbols), 
which is third person singular, hence, not personal and private, not 
conscious. 
The results and the process itself are publicly avalable (as code) and 
communicable. 

Only living creatures-- even a gnat--can think without symbols (not coded), 
since thinking is a conscious experience, hence first person singular (not 
coded). 
Since it is personal, it can to some extent be communicated, 
but there is always a loss converting experience to symbols, 
expressing in words my expeience, what I thought and concluded, 
which need not be in symbols. 


  
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Leibniz vs Jerry Fodor - Is there a language of thought ?

2013-12-10 Thread Roger Clough
Leibniz and Piccinini versus Jerry Fodor - Is there a language of thought ?

1. Jerry Fodor argues that thoughts have representations, 
namely that there is a language of thought:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Language_of_thought

In which, as I understand it, computations 
are made by the brain presumably semantically 
using this language in some analogy to a Turing machine.

2. There is an alternate theory of thinking by Gualteiro Piccinini: 

http://philpapers.org/rec/PICCWR

as well as Leibniz, which seems to me to be essentially pragmatic 
or or perhaps mechanical, not semantic, so not disimilar to Leibniz's theory of 
perceptions and the following of the pre-established order.

Leibniz's theory as well as this theory can seemingly'be used by any
biological entity, and in Leibniz's case at least, by non-biological
(in the conventional sense) entities.

Both of these seem to follow these steps:

a) the brain perceives a sensory and 

b) by some mechanism knows what it perceives 
(forming a representation, a word that Piccinini rejects)

c) which causes it pragmatically to act in an instinctual.
 learned or otherwise prescribed fashion.

Here semantics are replaced by functional (pragmatic)
mechanisms. In Leibniz these steps are carried out by 
the One which in a) converts a sensory into signal 
into a perception and in b) and c) carries out a 
prescribed action which biologists might call an instinct
and which Leibniz calls a pre-established harmony.
 
 



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[no subject]

2013-12-10 Thread Roger Clough
Leibniz and Piccinini versus Jerry Fodor - Is there a language of thought ?

1. Jerry Fodor argues that thoughts have representations, 
namely that there is a language of thought:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Language_of_thought

In which, as I understand it, computations 
are made by the brain presumably semantically 
using this language in some analogy to a Turing machine.

2. There is an alternate theory of thinking by Gualteiro Piccinini: 

http://philpapers.org/rec/PICCWR

as well as Leibniz, which seems to me to be essentially pragmatic 
or or perhaps mechanical, not semantic, so not disimilar to Leibniz's theory of 
perceptions and the following of the pre-established order.

Leibniz's theory as well as this theory can seemingly'be used by any
biological entity, and in Leibniz's case at least, by non-biological
(in the conventional sense) entities.

Both of these seem to follow these steps:

a) the brain perceives a sensory and 

b) by some mechanism knows what it perceives 
(forming a representation, a word that Piccinini rejects)

c) which causes it pragmatically to act in an instinctual.
 learned or otherwise prescribed fashion.

Here semantics are replaced by functional (pragmatic)
mechanisms. In Leibniz these steps are carried out by 
the One which in a) converts a sensory into signal 
into a perception and in b) and c) carries out a 
prescribed action which biologists might call an instinct
and which Leibniz calls a pre-established harmony.





Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
See my Leibniz site at
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Leibniz and Piccinini versus Jerry Fodor - Is there a language of thought ?

2013-12-10 Thread Roger Clough
Leibniz and Piccinini versus Jerry Fodor - Is there a language of thought ?

1. Jerry Fodor argues that thoughts have representations, 
namely that there is a language of thought:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Language_of_thought

In which, as I understand it, computations 
aremade by the brain presumably semantically 
using this language in some analogy to a Turing machine.

2. There is an alternate theory of thinking by Gualteiro Piccinini:

http://philpapers.org/rec/PICCWR

as well as Leibniz, which seems to me to be essentially pragmatic 
or or perhaps mechanical, not semantic, so not disimilar to Leibniz's theory of 
perceptions and the following of the pre-established order.

Leibniz's theory 
http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/leibniz-mind/
as well as this theory can seemingly'be used by any
biological entity, and in Leibniz's case at least, bynon-biological
(in the conventional sense) entities.

Both of these seem to follow these steps:

a) the brain perceives a sensory signal and 

b) by some mechanism knowswhat it perceives 
(forming a representation, a word that Piccinini rejects)

c) which causes it pragmatically to act in an instinctual,
learned orotherwiseprescribed fashion.

Here semantics are replaced by functional (pragmatic)
mechanisms. In Leibniz these stepsare carried out by 
the One which in a) converts a sensory into signal 
into a perception and in b) and c) carries out a 
prescribed action which biologists might call an instinct
and which Leibniz calls a pre-established harmony.

Dr.Roger B CloughNIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
See my Leibniz site at
http://independent.academia.edu/RogerClough


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Once again. Why science can never understand consciousness.

2013-12-09 Thread Roger Clough
Once again. Why science can never understand consciousness.

Science deals only with public (communicable) knowledge.
Descriptive knowledge by the third person.

Mind and consciousness are personal (private) knowledge.
Personal experience by the first person singular.   
  
 This is the province only of philosophy.


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In case you didn't get it. Consciousness is not a scientific topic

2013-12-09 Thread Roger Clough
In case you didn't get it. Consciousness is not a scientific topic

Science deals only with public (communicable) knowledge.
Descriptive knowledge by the third person.
This is the province of science.

Mind and consciousness are personal (private) knowledge.
Personal experience by the first person singular.   
This is the province only of philosophy.


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Is the universe driven by mathematics or is it driven by aesthetics

2013-12-08 Thread Roger Clough
Is the universe driven by mathematics or is it driven by aesthetics ?

One cannot fail to look upward at the beauty of the night sky 
without a feeling of wonder. 

Physicists look for ultimate explanations for the behavior
of the universe in mathematics, and indeed one cannot avoid
mathematics in describing the physical universe. 
Many have remarked at the fact that the universe is so
intellegible. Indeed, Plato at his academy admonished, 
Let no-one ignorant of geometry enter here”, for his cosmology
of the structure of the universe was based on a series
of geometrical forms. Forms. This perhaps suggests, because
of the entrance of beautiful forms into Plato's metaphysics,
an aesthetic aspect to his cosmology. 

Similarly, advancing this a step further, while Leibniz was 
well grounded in mathematics (being a co-discover of the calculus),
and was constantly amazed at the geometrical structures
in nature, his metaphysics also shaped his thinking
due to his a) Principle of Sufficient Reason, in which
there is a reason why every aspect of the universe
is as it is, and b) the  pre-established harmony,
the word harmony indicating an aesthetic beyond logic
of relations of parts of the universe into his metaphysics. 

Thus Leibniz viewed the history of the universe as following 
the metaphysics of a pre-established harmony, ever striving
toward a more perfect harmony or beauty. Now beauty
appears as a unity in diversity, which I have suggested
as moving toward the One from the Many. But
others have suggested that the One is just one, not
unity in diversity. 

Leibniz, through his metaphysics, in which the parts
are related to the whole, suggests that metaphysics,
even aesthetics, rules the universe, not mathematics.   
 



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A modern monadology

2013-12-07 Thread Roger Clough


For those wishing to delve deeper into Leibniz, see A modern monadology 
http://www.ucl.ac.uk/jonathan-edwards/monadology


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For those interested in the theory of conscious experience, see

2013-12-07 Thread Roger Clough
For those interested in the theory of conscious experience, see 
the excellent site, 

http://www.ucl.ac.uk/jonathan-edwards



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A definition of human consciousness

2013-12-07 Thread Roger Clough
A definition of human consciousness 

Human consciousness is experience by the first person singular. 

Materialistic theories of consciousness can only describe experience,
not deal with experience itself. Actual experience is only available in 
philosophical 
Idealism (Kant, Plato, Leibniz).

Because only Idealism contains Mind. Materialism and science do not and can not.


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Some basic principles of mind - a wakeup call for materialists.

2013-12-07 Thread Roger Clough
Some basic principles of mind - a wakeup call for materialists.

1. There are two forms of knowledge: a) knowledge by acquaintance,
such as you have met Obama, and b) knowledge by description, such
as you have been told that Obama is president of the USA.

2. Knowledge by acquaintance is personal knowledge (Michael Polanyi)
and is only available to platonists. It is also called knowledge by
the first person singular. Knowledge by description is third person 
knowledge and is available to both platonists and materialists.

3. Analytic philosophy deals only in knowledge by description,
so while useful to materialists, is not too useful to deal directly 
with mind, which uses knowledge by acquaintance.

4. Actual mind is only accessible to platonists, not materialists,
because mind deals only with personal knowledge.

5. Consciousness is experience by the first person singular.
Since computers can only deal with third person information,
they cannot be conscious (or alive).

6. Perception of the world outside is the conversion
of incoming incoming sensory nerve signals into mental events.

7. Intelligence is the ability to autonomously make choices.
This means that computers, since they can only do what is
given to them from outside by a programmer, 
can have no true intelligence. Actual artificial intelligence is
thus impossible.

8. Thinking is any intentional act by the mind.

9. The mind has no necessary connections to the brain.

10. The mind plays the brain like a violin. 

11. Life is Mind.

The list goes on.

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From Leibniz: gravity is the universal striving toward a more perfect beauty

2013-12-07 Thread Roger Clough
From Leibniz: gravity is the universal striving toward a more perfect beauty 

James Collins, in chapter III, section 3 of The Continental Rationalists,
[Bruce publishing, 1967] discusses the metaphysics of Leibniz,
in particular Leibniz's belief that the universe is striving toward 
a more perfect harmony, which is unity. In other words, the universe
is heading toward the convergence of Plato's Many to Plato's One.
You may recall that beauty is the presence of unity in diversity,
so this would be a striving toward a more perfect beauty (unity).

We so not know that Leibniz actually developed a theory of 
gravity based on this concept, but it would seem to be a 
natural observation. This universal convergence also 
corresponds to Leibniz's theory of universal perception, 
in which the mental universe is an infinite collection of 
monads (which range from people to rocks) perceiving each 
other from their various standpoints, with their perceptions 
constantly converging via the One toward  a face-to-face positioning. 

Note that all physical interactions in Idealism are actually
caused mentally, so that a change in perceptions of monads 
constitutes a change in positions or other perceived attributes 
such as shape or temperature as well as mood. The changes 
are not actually caused by interactions between monads
(since being independent, there can be no relations between 
monads) but are caused by the One in its search for a more 
perfect harmony or unity.


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Dialogue between two believing scientists on how the universe is run

2013-12-06 Thread Roger Clough

Dialogue between two believing scientists on how the universe is run

JOHN-- Funny thought [universal government, which is Plato's universe] coming 
from a 
staunch Republican conservative govt minimizer. 
Perhaps an atheist is just someone who thinks something the size of the whole 
universe can 
operate on its own laws without a lot of direct interference?  

ROGER- According to my understanding of Leibniz and the Bible, after God had 
created the
universe in six days, he wrote a computer program called the pre-established 
harmony
on the seventh to run the universe forever onward and rested. He's still 
resting. 

In this program God allowed for free will and knew what we would do but did not 
cause
us to do so. Luther  believed that our free will only applied to everyday 
affairs, but
in matters of salvation (good or bad) he chose for us.

Note that God is in what Leibniz called the world of necessary logic, which is 
timeless
(eternal), so that knowing before-hand is simply part of God's nature.

 
JOHN ---Also interesting. The universe does indeed seem to operate on some 
pretty iron-clad laws, 
and there are some who suspect that perhaps that's because the only way to have 
a 
universe that will support/create life is to have almost exactly the laws (and 
special constants) 
that govern our universe. 

ROGER-- That would be the pre-established harmony. Nonliving entities 
move by deterministic or efficient causation,  but
life does not operate by such iron-clad laws, it operates by what Aristotle 
called 
final causation, which means it is goal-oriented and purposeful. 
It therefore has to have innate intelligence.

JOHN- Personally, although I think the idea of a personal God is important, 
I do have concerns as to why an omnipotent, universal overseer who has already 
so cleverly 
tuned the universe to such perfection would need to continually need to tweak 
things locally. 
Seems very much like we need God far more than HE needs us.  

ROGER - The tweaking is indeed local, but it has already been programmed into 
the 
pre-established harmony.

JOHN - So, in order to consider a personal God, it seems to me that the real 
reason for locality is 
more about how HE wants me to become more like HIS ideal, and is offering 
opportunities. 

ROGER- No, we have free will, at least to some extent.

JOHN-- Given that HE is out of time and space, that is a pretty neat trick, and 
I find it highly unlikely 
that any of HIS creations are at all cognizant of how or why or what HIS 
purposes are. 
But, I think the Universe itself is understandable, and probably exists as one 
of the simplest 
sets of laws that can work. 

ROGER-- Out of time and space means in eternity. The world isn't all 
law-governed (deterministic), 
for both man and nature have some degree of unpredictability, but this has been 
pre-programmed into
Leibniz's pre-established harmony.

JOHN- There is really already a lot of evidence to support that idea. And 
some evidence to support the idea that our whole universe is a tiny part of 
everything. Already, 
it is pretty clear that most people really still have no concept of the scale 
of our little visible part 
of our universe, either in time or space. Most never even look up to see that 
there are actually 
more stars (and star systems) than there are grains of sand on every beach in 
our entire world - 
and that our entire world is less than a dust mote, even within our solar 
system, 
much less in the real immensity of space and time.  


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Bertrand Russell's complete misunderstanding of Plato's theory of knowledge and perception

2013-12-05 Thread Roger Clough
Bertrand Russell's gross misunderstanding of Plato's theory of knowledge and 
perception

In http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=l1EiQEwn1lc

Plato believed that truth is a conceptual form of knowledge, which
is a priori and so not obtained through the senses. Truth obtained
through the senses, Plato believed, was changeable.

But, presumably because he was an empiricist, Russell essentially 
treats Plato as an empiricist gone wrong. Russell thus grossly misunderstands 
Plato, apparently not undestrstanding that, as Leibniz and Kant have 
stated, there is a difference between necessary or a priori knowledge 
(which does not change) and the changeable, contingent truths of perception.

Because of Russell's apparent confusion between these two forms
of knowledge, and denial of a priori knowledge, Russell wastes 
many words apparently trying to show that the changeable knowledge
obtained through the senses can somehow be necessarily true, 
giving snow is white as an example. Anyone who grew up
as I did, in what was then sooty smokey Pittsburgh, knows that 
snow can sometimes be dark gray. Similarly, Russell incorrectly bases
his repudiation of a priori knowledge by using the changeable
nature of contingent knowledge as an example.

I have not checked Russell's treatment of Kant, but
because of this ignorance, Russell also apparently
treats Kant as an empiricist gpone bad. 

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Reality is not matter, it's Heidegger's dasein, which is Leibniz's monad

2013-12-05 Thread Roger Clough
Reality is not matter, it's Heidegger's dasein, which is Leibniz's monad

Materialists spend much effort on trying to show that reality is simply
physics.  But the philosophy of Plato, Leibniz, Kant, and now Heidegger
shows that materialism and analytic philosophy is incomplete,
since it omits mind from reality.

Leibniz modeled reality as material bodies in the dualism of a monad, 
which is the corresponding mental being of matter.  The matter is 
in spacetime, the monad is outside of spacetime. 

Heidegger's dasein is a combination of the german words
da, meaning there, and sein meaning being or mental.
The da is in spacetime and the sein is outside of spacetime,
so a dasein is a monad.

Thus Heidegger's universe is essentially the same as Leibniz's, 
an infinite collection of monads or daseins.





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Advaita Vedanta and Leibnizian Metaphysics

2013-12-04 Thread Roger Clough
Advaita Vedanta and Leibnizian Metaphysics 


This is a huge, daunting subject which I can only scratch the surface of. A 
book or PhD thesis could easily be written on 
it and do a much better job than I can here. Keep in mind also that I am not an 
expert on Advaita. 


A brief summary of the Advaita Vedanta is given at 


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Advaita_Vedanta#Philosophy
 
' Advaita (Sanskrit: not-two) refers to the identity of the true Self, Atman, 
which is pure consciousness and the highest Reality, Brahman, 
which is also pure consciousness. Followers seek liberation/release by 
acquiring vidya (knowledge) of the identity of Atman and Brahman. 
Attaining this liberation takes a long preparation and training under the 
guidance of a guru. ' 


Here we will only roughly compare the metaphysics of Leibniz with that of the 
Advaita, not the religious aspects of Advaita.  


Both are essentially Idealist. In general, Brahman, being the highest Reality, 
corresponds to Plato's One, the Creator, but 
Brahman has many more aspects than Plato's One, which I leave to other scholars 
to elucidate.  


Atman corresponds roughly to Leibniz's monad for a person. The relation of a 
person's monad (which I will call Self, 
which is what Leibniz calls a person's spirit,l meaning the conventional soul) 
) to Plato's One (Leibniz's rough correspondence
to Brahman) is similar to Advaita's goal of unity or Advaita between Atman and 
Brahman, but this is not a fixed goal in Leibniz, 
it happens at a rapid pace in rapid sequential steps in Leibniz in everyday 
perception and action, in which the Self is a passive 
slave to the One, its master. So in Leibniz there is never a complete fusion of 
Self and the One as desired in Advaita, The One is the 
active agent in periodic communion with the One much like a shepherd with his 
sheep. 


In Leibniz there is imperfect communion of the Self with other selves, which 
Christianity calls the 
'communion of the saints'. By imperfect is meant that as in all human 
perception, there is some distortion 
to various degrees, depending on the person, which limits the range of 
inter-communion with other saints and the environment. 


Salvation is not clearly defined in Leibniz, as far asI have been able to find 
out, but certainly communion of the 
Self and the One is found pleasurable and enlightening.  


Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000] 
See my Leibniz site at 
http://independent.academia.edu/RogerClough


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Some basic principles of Leibniz's Idealism

2013-12-01 Thread Roger Clough

Some basic principles of Leibniz's Idealism

1. Everything that exists has two aspects, essence (mind or monad) and existent 
(object). 
This is a localized version of Berkeley's overall Idealism. Essence, being 
mental, is outside of spacetime
while the existent (a corporeal body) is inside of spacetime.

2. Essence is the subjective or mental aspect of existence, which in turn is 
objective and physical (in spacetime).
For example. consciousness or experience is the mental aspect of physical 
sensory nerve signals.

3. Essence creates, perceives and controls existence.
For example, essence is what causes a struck ball to follow Newton's law of 
motion.
For example, tje mind controls the brain.



Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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A conjecture- Quantum physics, Relativity and Leibniz's Idealism

2013-12-01 Thread Roger Clough
 A conjecture:  Quantum physics, Relativity and Leibniz's Idealism

According to Leibniz's Idealism, everything that exists has two aspects,

1, essence (mind or monad or what we here conjecture is a quantum wave), 
which is outside of spacetime, and  
2. existent (physical particle or object), which is inside of spacetime. 

This is a localized version of Berkeley's overall Idealism and amounts to the 
Principle of Complementariy,
that everything is a wavicle. 

Essence, being mental, is outside of spacetime and might be thought of as the 
quantum wave.
while the existent (a corporeal body) is inside of spacetime and follows 
particle physics and relativity.


Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-01 Thread Roger Clough
How can a grown man be an atheist ?

An atheist is a person who believes that the universe can
function without some form of government. 

How silly.


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How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-01 Thread Roger Clough
How can a grown man be an atheist ?

An atheist is a person who believes that the universe can
function without some form of government. 

How silly.


Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
See my Leibniz site at
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Online opinions of Dennett and Chalmers-- the clueless two

2013-11-30 Thread Roger Clough
Online opinions of Dennett and Chalmers-- the clueless two

Dennett never tells us what conscilousness is, because
conciouness rwequires a perceiver, and he hasn't a clue as to what that is,
because that concept is foreign to his materialism. 

He's clueless. And famous as well maybe because with that
beard he looks like a philosopher ought to look.

Chalmers is in the same hole as Dennett is
he is also a materialist wuithout a perceiver.
With his long wild hair he may seem to some to
know what he's talking about. But he's also
clueless, which is why we have the hard problem
of consciousnwess
 
 
Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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gh


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Berkeley and Leibniz- where the monads came from

2013-11-30 Thread Roger Clough
Berkeley and Leibniz- where the monads came from

In Berkeley's philosophy of idealism, a subject is needed
to perceive objects, otherwise they could not exist. 
Leibniz got around the problem of what happens if
nobody's there (a tree falls in a wood...)
by dividing up the world into physical objects and
assigning a subject (a monad) to each object.
This everything is conscious to some extent.
Otherwise it could not follow the pre-established harmony. 
  
 
Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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Why consciousness is not possible in materialism

2013-11-30 Thread Roger Clough
Why consciousness is not possible in materialism

Two related definitions of consciousness are:

1. Consciousness is experience by the first person singular.

2. Consciousness is self-referential awareness.

So consciousness requires that there be a self,
or first person singular, to be aware.

There is however no provision in materialism
or analytic philoophy for such a self.

Therefore materialism cannot explain consciousness.


Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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Russell's abandonment of Leibniz's platonism after his conversion to the cult of materialism

2013-11-30 Thread Roger Clough
Russell's abandonment of Leibniz's platonism after his conversion to the cult 
of  materialism.

Three related definitions of consciousness not possible in materialism or 
analytic philosophy:

1. Consciousness is experience by the first person singular.

2. Consciousness is self-referential awareness.

3. Consciousness is the acquisition of knowledge by acquaintance.

Ironically, the third definition is similar to one of the two forms
of knowledge originally proposed by Bertrand Russell, one
of the founders of analytic philosophy, which he called
knowledge by acquaintance the other being
knowledge by description. Knowledge by description
is that you know from common knowledge that Obama is
president of the United States, while knowledge by
acquaintance means that you have met Obama,
presumably in the White House.

Analytic philosophy deals only with knowledge by description,
omitting knowledge by acquaintance, despite Russell's 
awareness of this type knowledge, so that Russell's
omission of knowledge by acquaintance in the philosophy
of materialism-- a necessity-- was a deliberate omission 
from analytic philosophy, no doubt due to Russell's 
conversion to the semi-religious cult of materialism.

This seems to have occurred during the young Russell's writing of
The Philosophy of Leibniz, which expertly treats Leibniz's logic,
but begins to pull back as he approaches Leibniz's Platonism.
which Russell does not seem to have understood very much,
much less accepted.

Russell then publicly promoted materialism and analytic philosophy,
together with the third member of their dark trinity, atheism.  
The rest is history, as they say, in which this trinity became
de rigeour in the halls of official western academe.

Meanwhile because of this dark trinity, western philosophy has 
struggled but failed to explain consciousness.


Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
See my Leibniz site at
http://independent.academia.edu/RogerClough


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Perception and cionsciousness according to Leibniz

2013-11-28 Thread Roger Clough
Perception and consciousness according to  Leibniz-

The secret of perception. Particular minds and how they relate to the overall 
or Cosmic Mind 

The problem of perception in materialistic thinking is that it forces us to 
think that there is a fleshly homunculus 

Leibniz has a more complicated understanding of particular minds and how they 
relate to Cosmic Mind. 

In Leibniz's metaphysics, there is only one mind (the Perceiver or Cosmic Mind 
or God) that 
perceives and acts, doing this through the Surpreme (most dominant) monad. 
It perceives the whole universe with perfect clarity. 

Only it can perceive and act, because its monads (which includes our minds) 
have no windows. 
The monads (our minds) perceive only indirectly, as the Supreme Monad is the 
only 
--what we would call-- conscious mind. We only think and perceive indirectly, 
as the Supreme Monad continually and instantly updates its universe of 
monads. Thus there is no problem communing with God (the Cosmic Mind) 
as we do so continually and necessarily, although only aqccording to our own 
abilities 
and perspective. 

That we ourselves, not God, appear to be the perceiver is thus only apparent. 

Also, because Cosmic Mind sees the entire universe as viewed by a kaleidoscope 
of 
individual monads, the perceptions it returns to us contains not only what 
we see (the universe from our own individual perspectives) but what the 
perceptions of all of the other monads. Thus each monad knows everything 
in the universe, but only from its own perspective, and monads being monads, 
not perfectly clear but distorted. 


Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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An account of the historical suppression of Leibniz's forbidden knowledge

2013-11-28 Thread Roger Clough
An account of the historical (and continuing) suppression of Leibniz's 
forbidden ideas

Leibniz was an anti-materialist so that his inclusion of Mind and
deity into his philosophy were forbidden ideas, and stillo are, to our 
detriment.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yTiztUNrhhM


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The death of analytic philosophy and the birth of consciousness

2013-11-27 Thread Roger Clough
The death of analytic philosophy and the birth of consciousness 

Consciousness, which is experience by the first person singular,
is by definition outside of the scope of analytic philosophy, which 
is limited to be able to only deal in descriptions of experience. 

Definition  of  ANALYTIC  PHILOSOPHY  
a  philosophical  movement  that  seeks  the  solution  of  philosophical  
problems   
in  the  analysis   of  propositions  or  sentences  ?alled  also  
philosophical  analysis   
compare  ordinary-language  philosophy. 

Analytic  (British)  philosophy  (Bertrand  Russell, Anthony Flew. etc.)  
limits  philosophy to  word and logic  puzzles and thus legitimizes 
atheism and materialism. This has given rise to a semi-religious
cult or atheism and materialism that cannot  tell  us  about  
experiential human  issues  such  as  consciousness, religion,  and true ai.
Or meaningful issues such as ethics or aesthetics. 
   
However,  continental  philosophy  and Indian philosophy can. 
(Leibniz,  Kant, Indian philosophers).   
  
Dr.  Roger  B  Clough  NIST  (ret.)  [1/1/2000]  
See  my  Leibniz  site  at  
http://independent.academia.edu/RogerClough 



Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000] 
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The passing on of a paradigm--analytic philosophy

2013-11-26 Thread Roger Clough
The passing on of a paradigm--analytic philosophy

Max Planck once said that Science advances one funeral at a time.

Thomas Kuhn made a similar conclusion in his magnum opus.
The Structure of Scientific Revolutions.

Not to speak ill of the dead, but the champions of 
analytic philosophy-- the basis of materialism and atheism--
which are cults that have have degenerated Western thought -
have passed on or are at an advanced age.

Bertram Russell  - Died 1970
Donald Davidson   - Died 2003
Hilary Putname -- alive but at age 87 - Roger Clough
Willard V.O. Quine -- died 2000
Richard Rorty -- Died 2007
J L Austin -- Died 1960
A J Ayer - died 1989
GEM Anscomb - Died 2001
D M Armstrong -- Alive but at age 87
C D Broad Died --1971

What will replace it ? Some suggest pragmatism,
which disclaims the ability to arrive at objective truth. 
There is also marxism, which offers materialism
and economics in place of objective truth.

I am suggesting that one avenue has been ignored
since its origin in the 17th century, owing to the
near-religion of materialism. That is the Idealism
of Leibniz. Idealism is superkior to materialism in the sense
that  while materialism and analytic philsophy 
believe that all that exists is material hence objective.
But Leibniz' metaphysics opens the door to the subjective
universe, which includes mind and which anyone who can 
see an object is aware of.



Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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The whole enchilada: Leibniz, the first person, third person, and the brain

2013-11-26 Thread Roger Clough
The whole enchilada: Leibniz, the first person, third person, and the brain.
A new mind-brain model for the post-analytic post-materialist world.

[Please feel free to use whatever I have written on the topic of Leibniz
to advance your own theory of the mind and brain. All copyrights 
are released and may be freely used. I am 72 years old and do
not need any more publications. -RBC.]

We are now in a position of assembling the
various parts of a new, comprehensive mind/brain
model, incorporating in it what we believe to be the 
philosophy of the 21st century, that of Leibniz's platonism.

As discussed previously, B Russell observed that
there are two forms of knowledge, which we can assign
to the semi-cerebral model of the brain:

http://www.nwlink.com/~donclark/knowledge/right_left_brain.html

a) The left brain metaphor-- This deals with what Russell 
called knowledge by description. This is the rational doman
of analytic philosophy, so it deals in linear sequences.
 It can also be called the Third Person singular.

b) The right brain metaphor-- this is what is left out of the materialist
and analytic models of the mind and brain. It is Russell's knoeledge
by acquaintance, namely, the world of experience,
that of the First Person singular. So it is nonlinear and wholistic.

This is hopefuly the new paradigm of the mind and brain
which needs further developing by others.
 

Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
See my Leibniz site at
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A slight revision- The whole enchilada: Leibniz, the first person, third person, and the brain.

2013-11-26 Thread Roger Clough
The whole enchilada: Leibniz, the first person, third person, and the brain. 
A new mind-brain model for the post-analytic post-materialist world. 
  
[Please feel free to use whatever I have written on the topic of Leibniz 
to advance your own theory of the mind and brain. All copyrights  
are released and may be freely used. I am 72 years old and do 
not need any more publications. -RBC.] 
  
We are now in a position of assembling the 
various parts of a new, comprehensive mind/brain 
model, incorporating in it what we believe to be the  
philosophy of the 21st century, that of Leibniz's platonism. 
  
As discussed  previously, B Russell observed that 
there are two forms of knowledge, which we can assign 
to the hemi-cerebral model of the brain: 
  
http://www.nwlink.com/~donclark/knowledge/right_left_brain.html 
  
a) The left brain metaphor-- This deals with  what Russell  
called knowledge by description. This is the rational doman 
of analytic philosophy, so it deals in linear sequences. 
  It can also be called the Third Person singular. 
  
b) The right brain metaphor-- this is what is left out of the materialist 
and analytic models of the mind and brain. It is Russell's knoeledge 
by acquaintance, namely, the world of experience, that of perception, 
comnsciousness, ? that of the First Person singular. It nonlinear and  
wholistic. 
  
This is submitted to all as the new paradigm of the mind and brain 
which needs further developing by others. 
  
  
Dr.  Roger B Clough  NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000] 
See my Leibniz site at 
http://independent.academia.edu/RogerClough

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Re: Re: Why computer consciousness and artificial intelligence areimpossible.

2013-11-26 Thread Roger Clough
Hi Gabriel Bodeen  

Absolutely.
  
 
Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
See my Leibniz site at
http://independent.academia.edu/RogerClough


- Receiving the following content -  
From:  Gabriel Bodeen  
Receiver:  everything-list  
Time: 2013-11-26, 15:17:20 
Subject: Re: Why computer consciousness and artificial intelligence 
areimpossible. 




So in the event that somebody actually does make AI, please recall this and  
consider your philosophical system to have been falsified. 
-Gabe 
 
On Monday, November 25, 2013 6:17:15 AM UTC-6, Roger Clough wrote: 
 
  Why computer consciousness and artificial intelligence are impossible.  
 
 Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]  
 See my Leibniz site at  
 http://independent.academia.edu/RogerClough 
 


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Why computer consciousness and artificial intelligence are impossible.

2013-11-25 Thread Roger Clough
Why computer consciousness and artificial intelligence are impossible. 

Acccording to Bertrand Russell, there are two types of knowledge: 

a) Knowledge by description. It is common knowledge that Obama is president. 
Example: Computer code. Artificial intelligence. Third person singular. 

b) Knowledge by experience. You have met Obama. 
Example: Human perception. Human intelligence. First person singular. 

Computers cannot simulate human activities or experiences 
or consciousness because they have to deal in code, which 
consists of instructions or descriptions. Computers cannot 
deal in knowledge by experience, so they cannot experience, 
produce experiences, or understand experiences. 

Thus computer intelligence and artificial intelligence are impossible.

Computers deal in code (third person singular). Only people and other  
living entities can deal in experiences or be conscious (first person 
singular.)  
So only humans and other living entities can be conscious or be truly 
intelligent. 
Thus artificial intelligence is impossible 



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The difference between computer and human perception

2013-11-25 Thread Roger Clough
The difference between computer and human perception

Computer consciousness and perception is by description only, such as 42. 
Underwater perfection as given below.
Human perception  is an experience such as shown in the photograph.

42. UNDERWATER PERFECTION


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Re: The difference between computer and human perception

2013-11-25 Thread Roger Clough
Note that only Idealism such as in Leibniz or Plato or Kant can deal with human 
perception,
because only such Idealism can deal with knowledge by acquaintance (experience) 
directly,
not by description..
 
Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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- Receiving the following content -  
From:  Roger Clough  
Receiver:  - Roger Clough  
Time: 2013-11-25, 08:00:56 
Subject: The difference between computer and human perception 




The difference between computer and human perception 
 
Computer consciousness and perception is by description only, such as 42. 
Underwater perfection as given below. 
Human perception  is an experience such as shown in the photograph. 
 
42. UNDERWATER PERFECTION 
 
 
Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000] 
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ai and atheism

2013-11-23 Thread Roger Clough

What I find curious is that so much time and vitriol is spent on the web 
attacking theism,
while so much money is spent on ai and computers to simulate humans, when
nobody has ever shown or proven that computers can be conscious. 



Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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Atheism is wish fuklfillment.

2013-11-23 Thread Roger Clough
Atheism is wish fulfillment. 


Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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Athism is wish fuklfillment.

2013-11-23 Thread Roger Clough
Athism is wish fulfillment. 


Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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Atheism is wish fulfillment

2013-11-23 Thread Roger Clough


Atheism is wish fulfillment.



Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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Why analytic (British) philosophy (Bertrand Russell) has led humanity and ai astray

2013-11-23 Thread Roger Clough
Analytic (British) philosophy (Bertrand Russell, Anthony Flew. etc.)  has led 
humanity and ai astray, because it limits philosophy 
to word and logic puzzles. Thus it cannot tell us about 
experiential human affairs such as consciousness and true ai.

However, continental philsophy can.  (Leibniz, Kant).  

Definition of ANALYTIC PHILOSOPHY 
:  a philosophical movement that seeks the solution of philosophical problems 
in the analysis  
of propositions or sentences ?alled also philosophical analysis compare 
ordinary-language philosophy  

Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000] 
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Why analytic philosophers are atheists and materialists

2013-11-23 Thread Roger Clough
Analytic (British) philosophy (Bertrand Russell, Anthony Flew. etc.)  has led 
humanity and ai astray, because it limits philosophy to word and logic 
puzzles and thus legitimizes atheism and materialism. 

Humanity has been sold short because British analytical philosophy
cannot tell us about experiential human issues such as 
consciousness, religiion, and true ai.

However, continental philosophy and Indian philosophy can.  
(Leibniz, Kant, Indian philosophers).  

Definition of ANALYTIC PHILOSOPHY 
:  a philosophical movement that seeks the solution of philosophical problems 
in the analysis  
of propositions or sentences ?alled also philosophical analysis compare 
ordinary-language philosophy  

Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000] 
See my Leibniz site at 
http://independent.academia.edu/RogerClough

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Pre-established harmony ? Computers programs exhibit pre-established harmony.

2013-11-22 Thread Roger Clough
Pre-established harmony ? Computers programs exhibit pre-established harmony.


Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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revised corrected version of Leibniz's imploied dictum, I think, therefore there is an I.

2013-11-21 Thread Roger Clough
Corrected version of Leibniz's implied dictum- I think, therefore  
there is an I 
  
Although previously I refered to propositional subject:predicate  
logic in reference to an implied dictum of Leibniz's ? 
? think, therefore there is an I?, that is incorrect. The true  
meaning of Descartes' famous dictum, I think, therefore I am  
can be better clarified instead by analyzing Leibniz' model of the 
mental I (essence ) with the physical brain as its existent correlate. 
  
The proposition ? think, therefore I am? is a simple intentional  
act by the mind, a monad, which is the mental essence of subject,  
not the brain, which is the corresponding physical existent form of the mind.  
The actual agent of the intention is the mind, not the brain,  
as the brain cannot perform intentional acts. 


Here I is the essence or monad of the existent brain, being  
its agent, so that the I plays the brain in thought much like a violin is 
played by a violinist. 
  
This also answers Heidegger's life-long search for 
an answer to the question what is being? 
Being is I am or essence+existence. 


 
Dr.  Roger B Clough  NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000] 
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Corrected version of Leibniz's implied dictum- I think, therefore

2013-11-21 Thread Roger Clough
Corrected version of Leibniz's implied dictum- I think, therefore 
there is an I

Although previously I refered to propositional subject:predicate 
logic in reference to an implied dictum of Leibniz's –
“I think, therefore I am”,  that is incorrect.  The true 
meaning of Descartes' famous dictum, I think, therefore I am 
can be better clarified instead by analyzing  Leibniz' model of  the
mental I (essence ) with the physical brain as its existent correlate.

The proposition “I think, therefore I am” is a simple intentional 
act by the mind, a monad, which is the mental essence of subject, 
not the brain, which is the corresponding physical existent form of the mind. 
The actual agent of the  intention is the mind, not the brain, 
as the brain cannot perform intentional acts.
Here  I is the essence or monad of the existent brain, being 
its agent, so that the I plays the brain in thought much like a violin is
played by a violinist.

This also answers Heidegger's life-long search for
an answer to the question what is being?
Being is I am or essence+existence.
   
Dr.Roger B CloughNIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
See my Leibniz site at
http://independent.academia.edu/RogerClough


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Leibniz: I think, therefore there is an I

2013-11-20 Thread Roger Clough
Leibniz: I think, therefore there is an I

The true meaning of Descartes' famous dictum, I think, therefore I am 
can be clarified further by restating it using Leibniz' model of 
being (essence+existent) if the proposition is restated as 
I think, therefore there is an I, or equivalently as 
I perceive, therefore there is an I, or in 
fact any proposition containing a the subject I and a verb.

Such propositions are simple intentional acts by the mind,
not the brain, where I is the essence or monad of the 
existent brain, which then thinks much as a violin is
played by a violinist.

This also answers Heidigger's life-long search for
an answer to the question what is being?
Being is I am or essence+existence.



Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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Spinoza, Leibniz and Descartes on the mind-body problem

2013-11-18 Thread Roger Clough
Spinoza, Leibniz and Descartes are completely different on the relationship
between mind and matter See 

http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/substance/#DesSpiLei

Spinoza was a monist, who believed that mind and matter were one.
Descartes believed that mind and matter are totally different
Leibniz beleived that mind was a monad or mental aspect of matter.  

Bertrand Ruseell said that there are two forms of knowing:

a) Knowing scientifically or objectively (knowing by description)
Example: you know who Obama is from the newspapers.

b) Knowing by acquaintance or experience (knowing subjectively)  
Example: you know who Obama is because you have met him. 


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The self as lens: Leibniz's lens-like model of perception and reality

2013-11-15 Thread Roger Clough
The self as lens: Leibniz's lens-like model of perception and reality.

Although I cannot find a direct reference in Leibniz's writings, they 
have not all been translated. Nevertheless Leibniz's model 
of perception is seemingly based on the high technology of the 17th century,
Huygen's microscope. The indirect reference to the perceiver
as based on the lens of a microscope, which can represent a
field of view at a single point, as a unity,, as a perceiver or self must do
Leibniz's conceptioon of reality was similar to this :

Reality cannot be found except in One single source, because 
of the interconnection of all things with one another.
I do not conceive of any reality at all as without genuine unity. 
(Gottfried Leibniz, 1670)

This single point in the perceiver and in reality itself 
is reflected in Leibniz's monad (which represents the many in the one), 
Plato's model of the One, the concepts of white and black holes 
and the twistor in Penrose's physics..

Leibniz's monadology itself can be used to derive 
the self as lens, since a person can be focused down
to be represented by a monad, which
cAn be understood as a point homunculus (the perceiver).

It is also well known that Leibniz referred to the myriad
of microscopic organisms seen in a microscope as 
vderying his view of the world as the many in the one
(the monad).



Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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We need to bring Leibniz out of the closet

2013-11-14 Thread Roger Clough
Hi - Roger Clough

All current theories of mind are objective (materialist) since they do not 
include the first person singular.

Consciousness or Mind is nonobjective or subjective, since it is the 
perceptions by the first person singular.

Only Leibniz has a philosophy of mind (subjectivity).

http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/leibniz-mind/

So we (all welcome) need to bring Leibniz out of the closet.

This would revolutionize neurophiolsophy.

Dr. Roger B Clough NIST (ret.) [1/1/2000]
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Why we need to bring Leibniz out of the closet if progress is to be made

2013-11-14 Thread Roger Clough
Why we need to bring Leibniz out of the closet if progress is to be made 

Materialism, the philosophy that the universe is made only of matter,
and nothing else, is the basic philosophy of science. So Idealism, the 
philosophy that
only ideas, not matter, are real, seems to be a fantasy world. 

But materialism as a total philosophy, and not idealism, is quite limited.
It cannot explain perception consciousness, the overall governance of the 
universe
or of the brain. In order to understand these, hence consciousness, we must 
follow the pioneering lead of Leibniz, the only relatively modern, logical,
and comprehensive Idealist philosopher:

http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/leibniz-mind/

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Idealism

Thus Bertrand Russell, having written a book on the logic of Leibniz, abandoned 
Leibniz
on his horrfying discovery of the implications of Idealism -- that yet even 
logically,
there can only be a single perceiver and a single governor of the universe.  You
can't have two kings in a kingdom, nor two perceptions at the same time.

So Russell became a materialist, a philosophy that has no provision for 
experience or 
the perceptions of the first person singular (which is consciousness). 

Thus to understand the governance of the universe or consciousness or 
perception, we must accept Idealism as a valid philosophy overall, 
while we can still accept materialism as valid within the range of science
(the range of matter). But we must let go of any possibility of overall 
governance.
See 






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