Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread 1Z


On Mar 9, 7:24 am, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 08 Mar 2011, at 15:54, 1Z wrote:





  On Mar 8, 1:43 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 07 Mar 2011, at 21:48, David Nyman wrote:

  On 7 March 2011 15:56, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  Reduction is not elimination

  snip

  Ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological
  *elimination*, but it does entail ontological *elimination*.

  Bruno, this is what I was trying to say some time ago to Peter.  Why
  ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological
  *elimination* is of course precisely the question that mustn't be
  dodged or begged, which is what I'm convinced Peter is doing by
  insisting dogmatically that reduction is not elimination.  The  
  point
  is that a primitive-materialist micro-physical theory is implicitly
  (if not explicitly) committed to the claim that everything that  
  exists
  is *just* some arrangement of ultimate material constituents.  
  That's
  literally *all there is*, ex hypothesi.  Despite the fact (and, a
  fortiori, *because* of the fact) that this is not what any of us, as
  observers, actually finds to be the case, we can nonetheless  
  choose to
  deny or ignore this inconvenient truth.  But if we do not so  
  choose,
  we can perhaps see that here we have the materialist Hard Problem in
  perhaps its purest form: why should there be anything at all  
  except an
  ensemble of quarks? (or whatever this month's ultimate  
  constituent of
  everything is supposed to be).  And why should any subset of an
  ensemble of quarks be localised as here or now?

  Adding computation to the materialist mix can't help, because
  computation is also just an arrangement of quarks, or whatever, and
  talking about emergence, or logical levels etc, can achieve nothing
  because after any amount of this logical gyrating *it's still all  
  just
  quarks*.  Of course, funnily enough, we manage nonetheless to talk
  about all these additional things, but then to claim that this talk
  can be materially identical to the quarks under some description
  is just to play circular and futile games with words.  Plugging the
  conclusion into the premise can of course explain nothing, and  
  simply
  begs the critical question in the most egregious way.

  The crucial difference in your theory, Bruno, to the extent that  
  I've
  understood it, is that it is explicitly both analytic AND  
  integrative.
  That is, it postulates specific arithmetical-computational ultimate
  components and their relations, AND it further specifies the local
  emergence of conscious first-person viewpoints, and their layers of
  composite contents, through an additional subtle filtering and
  synthesis of the relational ensemble.  Hence, through a kind of
  duality of part and whole, it is able to avoid the monistic  
  deathtrap,
  and consequently isn't forced to deny, or sweep under the rug, the
  categorical orthogonality of mind and body.  In such a schema, the
  entire domain of the secondary qualities, including matter, time  
  and
  space themselves, is localised and personalised at the  
  intersection of
  these analytic and synthetic principles.

  I think that you have a clear understanding of that rather subtle and
  difficult issue.

  The problem with the materialist, once they use comp, and thus does
  not materialize the soul is that they have to identify a state of
  mind with a state of matter. Pain become literally neuronal firing or
  quark interaction. But pain is not neuronal firing, pain is a non
  pleasant subjective reality lived by person, and to equate pain with
  neuronal firing leads the most honest materialist scientist to the
  conclusion that pain somehow does not exist (eliminativism).

  Another option is open to them: it is a brute fact that the neuronal
  firing
  IS the pain, but physicalese descriptions of neuronal firing don't
  capture that because
  they are inadequate.

 Except that it is not a brute fact that the neuronal firing is the  
 pain. That does not make sense. A neuronal firing is entirely  
 descriptibe in a thrid person way, but a pain is not at all.

If it is entirely describable, the identification fails. If the
identification
is true as a brute fact, then it is the description that is failing.
Since
it fails, we can't grasp the brute fact, but brute facts aren't
necessarily
graspable...that is the point of the jargon term brute fact. In the
world of mathematics, ideas such as brute facts and unreachable
noumena don't make sense, because mathematical objects are fully
describable. Brute facts belong to realism, where certain things just
are
and there is no guarantee they will be comprehensible.

 You can  
 associate them, but you can't equate them. You can identify 3-heat  
 with molecular cinetic energy, but you cannot equate the sensation of  
 heat with neuronal firing in the same way. The problem is that *any*  
 

Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread Andrew Soltau

On 08/03/11 12:29, 1Z wrote:


On Mar 8, 11:32 am, Andrew Soltauandrewsol...@gmail.com  wrote:

On 06/03/11 15:06, 1Z wrote:


On Mar 4, 5:46 pm, Andrew Soltauandrewsol...@gmail.comwrote:

The measurement problem is the question of why, or even if, collapse
occurs. Certainly no coherent concept of how and why collapse occurs has
been formulated in a manner which meets with general acceptance. It
appears, as Davies and others explain, the appearance of collapse is
purely subjective,

It doesn't appear in an univocal way, since there are
such things as objective collapse theories
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Objective_collapse_theory

OK, perhaps I stand corrected. But I am sure that no objective collapse
theory has been formulated in a manner which meets with general acceptance.


Subjective collapse theories, and no collapse theories have
not met with general acceptance either!

True of course. But there is definitely no need to posit physical collapse.

as Everett demonstrates.

MWI isn't usually presented as a subjective theory. Penrose
argues that it makes surreptitious assumptions about how
observers' minds work, but that is part of an argument against
it.

I would differentiate between Everett and MWI. MWI means to me many
worlds in some way separate.

That's vague. Worlds separate on decoherence but share the
same space time

A mixture

Everett is without question, in my view,
saying that there is one physical environment,

That's vague too.

The mixture

and that it is only
subjectively that there are different, determinate views of that
environment.

And that. Observers embedded in the system will see determinate
results to interaction
where in fact ever result occured. However, observer does not mean
human here, since observation is fundamentally entanglement for
Everett
Everett states that there is only the appearance of collapse, and hence 
change, with respect to the memory of the observer.

In this case, consciousness

is necessarily central, as it is consciousness, and only consciousness,
which encounters this appearance of collapse and change.

It is only consciousness that consciously encounters everything else
too. However, that does not make consciousness *ontologically*
fundamental.

It does if the physical system is static.



If there is no change,
objectively, only subjectively, this points to consciousness -
phenomenal consciousness - being ontologically fundamental.

On the other hand, the appearance of change refutes the
static universe hypothesis.
Unless the universe is indeed objectively static, and there is only the 
subjective appearance of collapse and change.

We know there

is an effective collapse, or the appearance of collapse, because we
experience this subjectively. On the other hand, nothing in the physical
world, including the physical body and the physical brain, can account
for this.

Whoah! What he have is a profusion of theores, with no clear winner

What I mean is that if the physical domain is indeed static, as Davies,
Barbour, Deutsch and others explain, then nothing physical can account
for the appearance of change we encounter as observers.

Well, *they* don't think that,
Deutsch does. He states that the appearance of change is necessarily an 
illusion. Davies makes similar statements. Barbour simply leaves it at 
there is no time.

Coupled with the
inability to find any physiology corresponding to phenomenal
consciousness,

That's an odd thing to say. It is rather well known
that phenomenal consciousness can be switched off
by drugs.
True, but when not switched off, when operating in an alive and awake 
human being, no physiological explanation can be found for phenomenal 
consciousness, as Chalmers spends the majority of a whole book carefully 
explaining.

and Chalmers finding that there can be no such
explanation, I infer this consciousness to be ontologically fundamental
- an emergent property of the unitary system as a whole.

But you could have observers in quantum mechanics
with no phenomenality at all. All the problems of
QM relate to access consciousness, ie to how
observers get information.
Certainly you could, the zombies that Chalmers talks about, mindless 
hulks in other commentaries. But invoking phenomenal consciousness as a 
system property solves the 'objectively static, subjective appearance of 
collapse and change' issue.


I'm not aware of a problem of how observers get information in QM. 
Everett posits the basic mechanism of an observer as one with sensory 
apparatus and recording capability. As he demonstrates, this physical 
entity becomes a superposition - mixture of all possible states having 
made all possible versions of the observation, and only with respect to 
the contents of the memory is there a specific determinate outcome, 
which is perhaps what you are referring to as 'getting information'. 
(Agreed of course that all this is to do with access consciousness.)
This seems to me to be exactly the same process as in RQM, 

Re: Comp

2011-03-09 Thread Andrew Soltau

On 08/03/11 14:15, 1Z wrote:


On Mar 8, 11:10 am, Andrew Soltauandrewsol...@gmail.com  wrote:

On 06/03/11 19:24, Bruno Marchal wrote:




On 06 Mar 2011, at 14:16, Andrew Soltau wrote:

On 07/02/11 15:22, Bruno Marchal wrote:

Comp makes precise that saying to be a machine is equivalent with
saying that there is a level of functional substitution where my
(first person) consciousness is invariant for a substitution made at
that level. Comp can show that we can never known our level of
substitution, and my reasoning works whatever I mean by my brain (it
could be the entire galaxy or the entire observable universe if
someone asks for it). CTM is vague on the level, and miss the point
that we cannot know it, if it exists.
Comp is also much more general than CTM, which relies usually on
some amount of neurophilosophy, or on representationalist theory of
the mind, and CTM is often criticized by 'externalist', like brent
Meeker for example. But comp is not annoyed by externalism, given
that it defines the (generalized) brain by the portion of universe
you need, like possibly the matrix above.
So comp is a very weak, and thus general, hypothesis. And the result
is easy to describe: physics is not the fundamental branch.

You say And the result is easy to describe: physics is not the
fundamental branch.. This is the leap of yours I never understand.
Do you posit that a mathematical universe with no physical content
somehow automatically computes?

Computations have been discovered by mathematicians, in mathematics.

Yes but! I have no problem with the idea of a Platonic realm of
mathematical structures simply existing, with or without the physical to
instantiate them. I am aware this is a deep philosophical debate, but
the Platonic concept seems somehow more straightforward than the
physicalist concept.

Is it?

I'm not sure, I just said it seems so.

  If the Platonist supposes that there is some special mechanism
of contact between the Platonic and physical worlds that explains
mathematical knowledge, that is not straightforward. If there is no
such mechanism, then mathematical reasoning has to be explained
the way physicalists explain it, and the ontological posit of a
Platonic
world is a redundant extravagance.

Surely, what Tegmark and, if I understand comp correctly, Bruno, are 
saying, is that this is the Platonic world, and the physical world is a 
process in the context of that Platonic environment. (I am lumping 
together the Platonic world and the arithmetical world, though there 
might be a distinction between them I have failed to make.)





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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread Andrew Soltau

On 08/03/11 14:39, 1Z wrote:


On Mar 8, 11:47 am, Andrew Soltauandrewsol...@gmail.com  wrote:

On 06/03/11 15:22, 1Z wrote:


On Mar 4, 8:12 pm, Andrew Soltauandrewsol...@gmail.comwrote:

On 04/03/11 19:10, Brent Meeker wrote:Collapse appears to instruments as 
well as people
We don't have any evidence for that,

Of course we do

That was a rather blanket statement. But if we can doubt the existence
of everything but our minds, then we don't have any evidence for it!

But I think it is perfectly tenable to say that we cannot prove that the
instruments which appear to us to be collapsed are in fact not
collapsed, that there is only the appearance of collapse subjectively.

That they really are collapsed is tenable too.
Yes, but it is an assumption, a theory. What we have is evidence that 
subjectively there is collapse, and that objectively, 'most of the 
time', the wave equation applies, complete with decoherence producing a 
mixture of all possible states.

How could one possibly disprove that?  indeed, if we take either the

concept of Wigner's friend or Rovelli's RQM seriously,

We shouldn't take Wigner's friend as proving CCC, since it is
intended as a reductio ad absurdum of it.

OK, but I happen to think it is a precise explanation of how reality works.

It is strange to regard something intended as a paradox as an
explanation
Maybe, but I have read leading figures in modern physics explaining that 
the world really is as Schroedinger's cat demonstrates.

And RQM doesn't remotely have that implication.

Yes it does. In RQM the environment is determinate where, and only
where, the observer has observed it.

In RQM, the observers knowledge becomes determinate
when they observe something.
As does the environment. The only determinacy is that much of the 
environment correlated with the observer by 'observation', which in RQM 
means physical interaction.

If I am Wigner, and my friend goes
off and does an experiment, the result is indeterminate in my version of
the environment.

Well, you don't know it. But you don't cause the friend to collapse,
because
there is no collapse in RQM.

Agreed

this is not the

case.- that's why we can shared records of experiments and agree on them.
Or, we can deduce those phenomena simply from the coherence of our
personal systems.I'm not sure what you mean by account for collapse.
I mean that if there is a unitary linear dynamics, with no collapse, as
in Everett, no physical collapse, then there is the appearance of
collapse only 'in consciousness'.

But Everett can explain the apperarance of collapse to instruments...
he doesn't need consciousness.

Everett states very clearly that with respect to the physical body of
the observer there is no collapse. I think the intruments the observer
is using come under the same banner, the linear dynamics. He makes it
very clear that it is only with regard to the record of sensory
observations and machine configuration which I equate in his
formulation with the functional identity of the observer, that there is
the appearance of collapse.

SInce you didn't say whether you mean human or machine observer,
that doesn't clarify matters. As it happens, Everettian record
making can be automated.
True. He uses the example of a non human observer, so clearly his 
argument applies to non humans.

This is pretty much exactly the definition
of access consciousness, that of which the observer is directly and
immediately aware.

Access consciousness involves record making, and so
do any  number of non-conscious machines...seismographs,
video recorders, etc. I don't think you can argue
that consciousness is involved just because record making is.
Agreed, access consciousness is, in this context, all to do with 
producing observations and instantiating the record of observations.

(In the human observer, I take the record of machine
configuration to be the observations of the internal state of the
observer, as I explain in detail elsewhere.)  At least one 
interpretation of QM, advocated by Peres, Fuchs, an
Omnes for example, is that the collapse is purely epistemological.  
All that changes is our knowledge or model of the state and QM merely

predicts probabilities for this change.

That's what I thought I was saying!


Fits my view.

Brent


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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread David Nyman
Peter, your comments appear to illustrate a basic confusion between
ontological and epistemological claims that makes me think that you
haven't taken on board the fundamental distinction entailed in Bruno's
original statement:

Ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological
*elimination*, but it does entail ontological *elimination*.

If we haven't resolved something so fundamental at the outset, it's no
wonder you find what I go on to say so difficult to follow.  As Bruno
implies, the whole POINT of any ontological reduction programme is
ontological elimination: it is an attempt (however incapable of final
success it may be) to distinguish what REALLY exists from what
APPEARS to exist.  Hence it is of the greatest significance that
ontological elimination doesn't also entail epistemological
elimination; i.e. even when composites seem to have been shown to have
no really real ontological status distinct from their components,
they nonetheless somehow stubbornly hang on to their apparently real
epistemological status.

The relationship to the Hard Problem should now be clear, I think: the
zombie is just the reduced ontology of the components, shorn of any
composite epistemology.  Since ontological reduction wants to say that
this reduced state of affairs JUST IS what the real situation
consists in, this shouldn't be a problem, and indeed this is the
eliminativist position, however bizarre it may seem.  However, unless
we lapse into that sort of inconsistency, it manifestly IS a problem -
i.e. the Hard one.

David

On 9 March 2011 01:24, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:


 On Mar 9, 1:03 am, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:
 On 8 March 2011 23:42, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

  How can they fail to be composite when they include interactions,
  structures and bindings? What ***are*** you on about?

 Say there is a pile of bricks that, under some externally-applied
 description, could be construed as a house; then that pile is what
 there is, not a pile + a house.

 Houses aren't heaps of rubble, they are bricks mortared together. And
 why shouldn't I say that such-and-such mortared-together bricks are
 a house -  the house exists as does the bricks-and-mortar.

  Similarly if a theory says that
 what exists is just micro-physical bricks and their relations, then
 just those things are what one should expect to encounter - not those
 things + an open-ended zoo of higher-order composite entities.

 One *should* expect composite entities, because the relationships
 and binding between molecules are just the way they get composite
 entities get composed. If you mortar bricks together you intend
 to build something

 Since
 the theory of micro-bricks in relation supposes these to do all the
 work, what a priori reason would there be to posit additional
 composite entities on top of the bricks themselves?

 Well, under reductive explanation, they are not additional. Nor
 are they non-existent. They are identified with subsets of their
 component parts.

  In fact
 composites command our attention only in the context of observation
 after-the-micro-physical-facts, in the form of the
 non-micro-physical-facts - the so-called secondary qualities.

 So? Something may seem not to be composed of smaller
 parts, whilst actually being so.

 To
 dramatise this, Chalmers uses the metaphor of the zombie, for which no
 secondary qualitative composites exist,

 Zombies and qualia are another and much more specific
 issue.

nor any apparent need of them.
 That's what I'm on about, but in a more general way.

 But it doesn't generalise! The HP is very specific.
 We can imagine zombies because we don't understand
 the neuron-qualia link. But we do understand the molecule-heat
 link, and the brick-house link. So it is insane to say that is just
 mortared-together bricks, not a building.

 David



  On Mar 8, 9:15 pm, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:
  On 8 March 2011 12:16, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

   There are uncontroversial examples of successful reduction, eg
   the reduction of heat to molecular motion. In these cases
   the reduced phenomenon still exists. There is still such
   a thing as heat. People who sincerely think mind is reducible
   to brain states, therefore sincerely hold that mind is not nothing.
   If you think that is mistaken, you need to say why.

  My point has always been simply to hold materialist theory to account
  in its own terms.  In these terms, when you have reduced heat to
  molecular motion, and thence to its putatively fundamental
  micro-constituents, you have thereby shown that there is NO HEAT at
  this fundamental level.  To be clear: it is NOT the case that there is
  molecular motion AND heat;

  It is also  not the case that there is molecular motion, that
  molecular
  motion is identical to heat, and there is nonetheless no heat.

  It *is* the case that there is molecular motion, *which is* heat.

 there is JUST molecular motion (or rather
 

Re: Movie cannot think

2011-03-09 Thread Andrew Soltau

On 08/03/11 16:14, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 3/8/2011 3:14 AM, Andrew Soltau wrote:
What I am driving at here is the same question as in the email Comp. 
Granted that all possible states exist, what changes the point of the 
present moment from one to another. My referring to 'the thinker' was 
probably not a helpful metaphor. Given the universal numbers, what 
carries out the process whereby one is transformed into another? What 
makes the state of the thinker or the dreamer into the state of that 
entity at the next moment?


Andrew 


I think the idea is analogous to the block universe.  In Platonia all 
the states of the thinker and his relation to the world are 
computed in a timeless way. 
OK. But for any given definition of the thinker, there is a version of 
the world to which he corresponds. Whether considered as a physical 
entity, or a mind or a record of observations, I am instantiated in a 
specific version of the universe. On observation, this state changes. 
The observer is now in a new and different state, and is instantiated in 
a new and different version of the universe.


If one steps back and looks at all the possible states of the thinker, 
existing in all the different corresponding states of the universe at 
each moment, the result is the movie film Barbour refers to. This is a 
timeless situation.


The impression of time for the thinker is recovered by putting the 
states into a sequence which is implicitly defined by their content.
So then you have a sequence, but still nothing actually happens. This is 
exactly the scenario Deutsch addresses.


/Nothing/ can move from one moment to another. To exist at all at a 
particular moment means to exist there for ever. (1997, 263; his italics)


One seems to pass from moment to moment, experiencing change. Deutsch, 
however, declares that this can only be an illusion.


We do not experience time flowing, or passing. What we experience are 
differences between our present perceptions and our present memories of 
past perceptions. We interpret those differences, correctly, as evidence 
that the universe changes with time. We also interpret them, 
incorrectly, as evidence that our consciousness, or the present, or 
something, moves through time. (1997, 263)


Physically, this is unassailable. However, we can explain the appearance 
of change very neatly, by saying that the frame of reference is changed, 
from one moment to the next to the next, with no change in anything 
physical. The only drawback is that this requires something 'outside' of 
the moments, and there is nothing outside the multiverse. The solution I 
propose is that phenomenal consciousness is an emergent property of this 
unitary system as a whole. In other words, this process is to the 
moments the way the computational capability of a computer is to the 
frames of a movie in solid state memory.
Based on that, my belief is that, in the collapse dynamics of quantum 
mechanics, we have discovered evidence for a property of the unitary 
system in action, we just haven't recognised it as such. Which is why it 
gives rise to all the puzzles it does.


Brent



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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread 1Z


On Mar 9, 12:50 pm, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:
 Peter, your comments appear to illustrate a basic confusion between
 ontological and epistemological claims that makes me think that you
 haven't taken on board the fundamental distinction entailed in Bruno's
 original statement:

 Ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological
 *elimination*, but it does entail ontological *elimination*.

 If we haven't resolved something so fundamental at the outset, it's no
 wonder you find what I go on to say so difficult to follow.  As Bruno
 implies, the whole POINT of any ontological reduction programme is
 ontological elimination: it is an attempt (however incapable of final
 success it may be) to distinguish what REALLY exists from what
 APPEARS to exist.  Hence it is of the greatest significance that
 ontological elimination doesn't also entail epistemological
 elimination; i.e. even when composites seem to have been shown to have
 no really real ontological status distinct from their components,
 they nonetheless somehow stubbornly hang on to their apparently real
 epistemological status.

That is a confusing way of phrasing things. The crucial distinction
is not real/apparent, because houses and heat are not held to be
illusions.
The crucial distinction is fundamental/non-fundamental. To reduce
is to identify a higher-level phenomeonon with a more fundamental one.

Note the phrase more fundamental. The wise reductionist does
not claim to know what is really fundamental. That being the case,
it is unwise to insist that the non-fundamental
is unreal, since the reduction base might ultimately be non-
fundamental itself
One can reduce a house to mortared bricks without knowing that bricks
are made of atoms.
Neural activity is also non-fundamental, but where is the materialist
who
insists it is unreal?


 The relationship to the Hard Problem should now be clear, I think: the
 zombie is just the reduced ontology of the components, shorn of any
 composite epistemology.

No. As I explained before, zombies are not business-as-usual
reduction-means-elimination. We can imagine that zombies
lack qualia, because we don't see how the alleged reduction base,
their neural activity, would necessitate it. Far from being an example
of reduction, that is a case where reductive explanation has *failed*
to occur
because where there is a successful reductive explanation, the
necessity
of the higher-level phenomenon being present is clear. If heat *is*
molecular motion it *must* be present where molecular motion is
present!
There are no heat zombies -- the idea is unthinkable!

Zombies are not a typical example of the problems of reduction,
they are an instance of the reduction being bought too cheaply:
the reductive materialist presents the off-the-peg conclusion that
consciousness
just is neural firing, without filling in the explanation that
allows
us to see that it *must be*, so that we instead remain being able to
see that it
*might not* be!



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Re: STEP THREE (was Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper)

2011-03-09 Thread Andrew Soltau

On 08/03/11 18:41, Bruno Marchal wrote:


1) SWE

what is SWE?

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread 1Z


On Mar 9, 1:46 pm, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:
 On 9 March 2011 13:30, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

 Peter, this is too confusing, you seem to be debating a straw man.
 Let's try to keep it simple: am I to assume that you don't agree that
 ontological reduction entails ontological elimination?

 David

Yep.
Phlogiston was eliminated, heat was reduced. There's a difference

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread David Nyman
On 9 March 2011 14:17, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

 Phlogiston was eliminated, heat was reduced. There's a difference

So on this basis you would claim that heat is *ontologically* (i.e.
not merely epistemologically) distinguishable from molecular motion?



 On Mar 9, 1:46 pm, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:
 On 9 March 2011 13:30, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

 Peter, this is too confusing, you seem to be debating a straw man.
 Let's try to keep it simple: am I to assume that you don't agree that
 ontological reduction entails ontological elimination?

 David

 Yep.
 Phlogiston was eliminated, heat was reduced. There's a difference

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread 1Z


On Mar 9, 2:23 pm, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:
 On 9 March 2011 14:17, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

  Phlogiston was eliminated, heat was reduced. There's a difference

 So on this basis you would claim that heat is *ontologically* (i.e.
 not merely epistemologically) distinguishable from molecular motion?

No. I would say it is ontologically the same as molecular
motion, and molecular motion exists, so heat exists, so
heat was not eliminated

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Re: Movie cannot think

2011-03-09 Thread Jason Resch
On Tue, Mar 8, 2011 at 10:14 AM, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.comwrote:

 On 3/8/2011 3:14 AM, Andrew Soltau wrote:

 What I am driving at here is the same question as in the email Comp.
 Granted that all possible states exist, what changes the point of the
 present moment from one to another. My referring to 'the thinker' was
 probably not a helpful metaphor. Given the universal numbers, what carries
 out the process whereby one is transformed into another? What makes the
 state of the thinker or the dreamer into the state of that entity at the
 next moment?

 Andrew


 I think the idea is analogous to the block universe.  In Platonia all the
 states of the thinker and his relation to the world are computed in a
 timeless way.  The impression of time for the thinker is recovered by
 putting the states into a sequence which is implicitly defined by their
 content.

 Brent



Bruno and others,

Do you think that computations performed by a computer or brain within a
block universe contribute to the computational histories of a person?  I can
see why in a movie they do not, as there is no mathematical relation between
the frames.  However, in a universe ruled by equations, it seems to me that
a computer in a universe is leveraging relations in math to perform
computations, albeit less directly than a platonic Turing machine running a
program.  To me it is like running a simulation of a brain on a virtual
machine on physical hardware.  The VM provides a level of abstraction, but
ultimately its computations are still computations.  In the same way a
mathematical universe is a level of abstraction yet could still provide a
platform for genuine computation (not descriptions of computation) to be
performed.  What do you think?

Jason

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread David Nyman
On 9 March 2011 14:39, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

 So on this basis you would claim that heat is *ontologically* (i.e.
 not merely epistemologically) distinguishable from molecular motion?

 No. I would say it is ontologically the same as molecular
 motion, and molecular motion exists, so heat exists, so
 heat was not eliminated

It seems that you persistently misunderstand the meaning of
elimination in this context. If something can be shown to be a
composite of more fundamental ontological components, it is of course
disqualified (i.e. eliminated) thereby as an ontological fundamental,
else such use of the terms ontological, fundamental and
eliminated is rendered meaningless.  Hence heat can indeed be
eliminated from the catalogue of ontological fundamentals in this way,
and understood as consisting in the more fundamental phenomenon of
molecular motion.  Of course the *concept* (and a fortiori the
sensation) of heat isn't thereby eliminated epistemologically, but
this is the very distinction we are trying to establish on a firm
footing.  The reductionist programme seeks to eliminate any need (in
principle) to appeal to any and all non-fundamental ontological
entities in precisely this way, and hence show ontology as resting on
a single fundamental base, thereby situating composite entities at the
epistemological level.

David



 On Mar 9, 2:23 pm, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:
 On 9 March 2011 14:17, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

  Phlogiston was eliminated, heat was reduced. There's a difference

 So on this basis you would claim that heat is *ontologically* (i.e.
 not merely epistemologically) distinguishable from molecular motion?

 No. I would say it is ontologically the same as molecular
 motion, and molecular motion exists, so heat exists, so
 heat was not eliminated

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Re: STEP THREE (was Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper)

2011-03-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Mar 2011, at 14:31, Andrew Soltau wrote:


On 08/03/11 18:41, Bruno Marchal wrote:


1) SWE

what is SWE?


Sorry. It is Schroedinger Wave Equation.

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread Brent Meeker

On 3/9/2011 3:28 AM, 1Z wrote:

I can
  say yes to the doctor if my consciousness and qualia is related to a
  noumenal hinterland of the matter in my physical brain. That noumenal
  matter hinterland contradicts the idea that there is a level of
  description of myself where matter and physical structure can be
  replaced by arbitrary different matter and structure, once they
  preserve the computational relations, which are arithmetical, by
  digitality.
 

Yep. Comp is a bad theory of qualia. We don't know
how to write subroutines for phenomenality.


Maybe we do.  We just don't know that we know.


That artificial people
do not have real feelings is a staple of sci fi.

   


To me that is an open question.  Are philosophical zombies possible?  It 
seems unlikely, but when I consider specific ideas about consciousness, 
such as Julian Jaynes, then it seems more plausible that conscious-like 
behavior could be evinced with such different internal processing that 
it would not realize consciousness as I experience it - though it might 
still be consciousness in Bruno's sense of being capable of mathematical 
self-reference.


Brent

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread Brent Meeker

On 3/9/2011 4:00 AM, Andrew Soltau wrote:

Coupled with the
inability to find any physiology corresponding to phenomenal
consciousness,

That's an odd thing to say. It is rather well known
that phenomenal consciousness can be switched off
by drugs.
True, but when not switched off, when operating in an alive and awake 
human being, no physiological explanation can be found for phenomenal 
consciousness, as Chalmers spends the majority of a whole book 
carefully explaining. 


Chalmers should take a lesson from Newton. When asked to explain how 
gravity worked he replied, Hypothesi non fingo.


Brent
The sciences do not try to explain, they hardly even try to interpret, 
they mainly make models. By a model is meant a mathematical construct 
which, with the addition of certain verbal interpretations, describes 
observed phenomena. The justification of such a mathematical construct 
is solely and precisely that it is expected to work.

--—John von Neumann

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Mar 2011, at 12:28, 1Z wrote:




On Mar 9, 7:24 am, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 08 Mar 2011, at 15:54, 1Z wrote:






On Mar 8, 1:43 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 07 Mar 2011, at 21:48, David Nyman wrote:



On 7 March 2011 15:56, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:



Reduction is not elimination



snip



Ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological
*elimination*, but it does entail ontological *elimination*.


Bruno, this is what I was trying to say some time ago to Peter.   
Why

ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological
*elimination* is of course precisely the question that mustn't be
dodged or begged, which is what I'm convinced Peter is doing by
insisting dogmatically that reduction is not elimination.  The
point
is that a primitive-materialist micro-physical theory is  
implicitly

(if not explicitly) committed to the claim that everything that
exists
is *just* some arrangement of ultimate material constituents.
That's
literally *all there is*, ex hypothesi.  Despite the fact (and, a
fortiori, *because* of the fact) that this is not what any of  
us, as

observers, actually finds to be the case, we can nonetheless
choose to
deny or ignore this inconvenient truth.  But if we do not so
choose,
we can perhaps see that here we have the materialist Hard  
Problem in

perhaps its purest form: why should there be anything at all
except an
ensemble of quarks? (or whatever this month's ultimate
constituent of
everything is supposed to be).  And why should any subset of an
ensemble of quarks be localised as here or now?



Adding computation to the materialist mix can't help, because
computation is also just an arrangement of quarks, or whatever,  
and
talking about emergence, or logical levels etc, can achieve  
nothing

because after any amount of this logical gyrating *it's still all
just
quarks*.  Of course, funnily enough, we manage nonetheless to talk
about all these additional things, but then to claim that this  
talk
can be materially identical to the quarks under some  
description
is just to play circular and futile games with words.  Plugging  
the

conclusion into the premise can of course explain nothing, and
simply
begs the critical question in the most egregious way.



The crucial difference in your theory, Bruno, to the extent that
I've
understood it, is that it is explicitly both analytic AND
integrative.
That is, it postulates specific arithmetical-computational  
ultimate
components and their relations, AND it further specifies the  
local
emergence of conscious first-person viewpoints, and their layers  
of

composite contents, through an additional subtle filtering and
synthesis of the relational ensemble.  Hence, through a kind of
duality of part and whole, it is able to avoid the monistic
deathtrap,
and consequently isn't forced to deny, or sweep under the rug, the
categorical orthogonality of mind and body.  In such a schema, the
entire domain of the secondary qualities, including matter, time
and
space themselves, is localised and personalised at the
intersection of
these analytic and synthetic principles.


I think that you have a clear understanding of that rather subtle  
and

difficult issue.



The problem with the materialist, once they use comp, and thus does
not materialize the soul is that they have to identify a state of
mind with a state of matter. Pain become literally neuronal  
firing or

quark interaction. But pain is not neuronal firing, pain is a non
pleasant subjective reality lived by person, and to equate pain  
with

neuronal firing leads the most honest materialist scientist to the
conclusion that pain somehow does not exist (eliminativism).



Another option is open to them: it is a brute fact that the neuronal
firing
IS the pain, but physicalese descriptions of neuronal firing don't
capture that because
they are inadequate.


Except that it is not a brute fact that the neuronal firing is the
pain. That does not make sense. A neuronal firing is entirely
descriptibe in a thrid person way, but a pain is not at all.


If it is entirely describable, the identification fails. If the
identification
is true as a brute fact, then it is the description that is failing.
Since
it fails, we can't grasp the brute fact, but brute facts aren't
necessarily
graspable...that is the point of the jargon term brute fact. In the
world of mathematics, ideas such as brute facts and unreachable
noumena don't make sense, because mathematical objects are fully
describable. Brute facts belong to realism, where certain things just
are
and there is no guarantee they will be comprehensible.


Arithmetical truth is definable by Zermelo Fraenkel (a Löbian  
machine), but not by Peano Arithmetic (another simpler one). Most big  
object in math are not fully graspable, and if we are machine any  
notion of truth-about-us, is beyond our reach, yet a priori  
mathematical, assuming comp.
fully describable 

Re: Movie cannot think

2011-03-09 Thread 1Z


On Mar 9, 1:24 pm, Andrew Soltau andrewsol...@gmail.com wrote:
 On 08/03/11 16:14, Brent Meeker wrote: On 3/8/2011 3:14 AM, Andrew Soltau 
 wrote:
  What I am driving at here is the same question as in the email Comp.
  Granted that all possible states exist, what changes the point of the
  present moment from one to another. My referring to 'the thinker' was
  probably not a helpful metaphor. Given the universal numbers, what
  carries out the process whereby one is transformed into another? What
  makes the state of the thinker or the dreamer into the state of that
  entity at the next moment?

  Andrew

  I think the idea is analogous to the block universe.  In Platonia all
  the states of the thinker and his relation to the world are
  computed in a timeless way.

 OK. But for any given definition of the thinker, there is a version of
 the world to which he corresponds. Whether considered as a physical
 entity, or a mind or a record of observations, I am instantiated in a
 specific version of the universe. On observation, this state changes.
 The observer is now in a new and different state, and is instantiated in
 a new and different version of the universe.

 If one steps back and looks at all the possible states of the thinker,
 existing in all the different corresponding states of the universe at
 each moment, the result is the movie film Barbour refers to. This is a
 timeless situation.

  The impression of time for the thinker is recovered by putting the
  states into a sequence which is implicitly defined by their content.

 So then you have a sequence, but still nothing actually happens. This is
 exactly the scenario Deutsch addresses.

 /Nothing/ can move from one moment to another. To exist at all at a
 particular moment means to exist there for ever. (1997, 263; his italics)

 One seems to pass from moment to moment, experiencing change. Deutsch,
 however, declares that this can only be an illusion.

 We do not experience time flowing, or passing. What we experience are
 differences between our present perceptions and our present memories of
 past perceptions. We interpret those differences, correctly, as evidence
 that the universe changes with time. We also interpret them,
 incorrectly, as evidence that our consciousness, or the present, or
 something, moves through time. (1997, 263)

Movement of or through time is dismissed too easily here. Why don we
have to experience our history one moment at a time  if it
all already exists (albeit with a sequential structure)

 Physically, this is unassailable.

Hmm. The arguments in favour of the block universe are actually
rather subtle

 However, we can explain the appearance
 of change very neatly, by saying that the frame of reference is changed,
 from one moment to the next to the next, with no change in anything
 physical.

The Frame of Reference being non-physical?

The only drawback is that this requires something 'outside' of
 the moments, and there is nothing outside the multiverse. The solution I
 propose is that phenomenal consciousness is an emergent property of this
 unitary system as a whole.

If it is a property of the whole system, why are we each only
conscious of one small spatio temporal area? Why bring consciousness
in at all? Why not have a time-cursor that is responsible for
the passage of time?

 In other words, this process is to the
 moments the way the computational capability of a computer is to the
 frames of a movie in solid state memory.
 Based on that, my belief is that, in the collapse dynamics of quantum
 mechanics, we have discovered evidence for a property of the unitary
 system in action, we just haven't recognised it as such. Which is why it
 gives rise to all the puzzles it does.



  Brent

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Re: Movie cannot think

2011-03-09 Thread 1Z


On Mar 9, 3:06 pm, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com wrote:
 On Tue, Mar 8, 2011 at 10:14 AM, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.comwrote:



  On 3/8/2011 3:14 AM, Andrew Soltau wrote:

  What I am driving at here is the same question as in the email Comp.
  Granted that all possible states exist, what changes the point of the
  present moment from one to another. My referring to 'the thinker' was
  probably not a helpful metaphor. Given the universal numbers, what carries
  out the process whereby one is transformed into another? What makes the
  state of the thinker or the dreamer into the state of that entity at the
  next moment?

  Andrew

  I think the idea is analogous to the block universe.  In Platonia all the
  states of the thinker and his relation to the world are computed in a
  timeless way.  The impression of time for the thinker is recovered by
  putting the states into a sequence which is implicitly defined by their
  content.

  Brent

 Bruno and others,

 Do you think that computations performed by a computer or brain within a
 block universe contribute to the computational histories of a person?  I can
 see why in a movie they do not, as there is no mathematical relation between
 the frames.  However, in a universe ruled by equations, it seems to me that
 a computer in a universe is leveraging relations in math to perform
 computations, albeit less directly than a platonic Turing machine running a
 program.

It seems to me that a physical computer is leveraging causality,
which is describable by some maths. Nothing happens because
of maths, since maths can also describe the acausal, the uncomputable
etc

 To me it is like running a simulation of a brain on a virtual
 machine on physical hardware.  The VM provides a level of abstraction, but
 ultimately its computations are still computations.  In the same way a
 mathematical universe is a level of abstraction yet could still provide a
 platform for genuine computation (not descriptions of computation) to be
 performed.  What do you think?

 Jason

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread Brent Meeker

On 3/9/2011 4:30 AM, Andrew Soltau wrote:
Omnes for example, is that the collapse is purely 
epistemological.  All that changes is our knowledge or model of the 
state and QM merely

predicts probabilities for this change.

That's what I thought I was saying!


No.  Everett and Omnes are quite different.  Omnes says the wave 
function is merely a representation of what we know about an initial 
state (e.g. one we've prepared in the laboratory) and the wave equation 
tells us the probabilities of what we will observe.  Since the WF is 
just a representation of our knowledge, it abruptly changes 
(collapses) when we gain new knowledge.  Everett on the other hand 
reifies the wave function and assumes it never collapses.


Brent

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread 1Z


On Mar 9, 4:30 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 09 Mar 2011, at 12:28, 1Z wrote:





  On Mar 9, 7:24 am, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 08 Mar 2011, at 15:54, 1Z wrote:

  On Mar 8, 1:43 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
  On 07 Mar 2011, at 21:48, David Nyman wrote:

  On 7 March 2011 15:56, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  Reduction is not elimination

  snip

  Ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological
  *elimination*, but it does entail ontological *elimination*.

  Bruno, this is what I was trying to say some time ago to Peter.  
  Why
  ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological
  *elimination* is of course precisely the question that mustn't be
  dodged or begged, which is what I'm convinced Peter is doing by
  insisting dogmatically that reduction is not elimination.  The
  point
  is that a primitive-materialist micro-physical theory is  
  implicitly
  (if not explicitly) committed to the claim that everything that
  exists
  is *just* some arrangement of ultimate material constituents.
  That's
  literally *all there is*, ex hypothesi.  Despite the fact (and, a
  fortiori, *because* of the fact) that this is not what any of  
  us, as
  observers, actually finds to be the case, we can nonetheless
  choose to
  deny or ignore this inconvenient truth.  But if we do not so
  choose,
  we can perhaps see that here we have the materialist Hard  
  Problem in
  perhaps its purest form: why should there be anything at all
  except an
  ensemble of quarks? (or whatever this month's ultimate
  constituent of
  everything is supposed to be).  And why should any subset of an
  ensemble of quarks be localised as here or now?

  Adding computation to the materialist mix can't help, because
  computation is also just an arrangement of quarks, or whatever,  
  and
  talking about emergence, or logical levels etc, can achieve  
  nothing
  because after any amount of this logical gyrating *it's still all
  just
  quarks*.  Of course, funnily enough, we manage nonetheless to talk
  about all these additional things, but then to claim that this  
  talk
  can be materially identical to the quarks under some  
  description
  is just to play circular and futile games with words.  Plugging  
  the
  conclusion into the premise can of course explain nothing, and
  simply
  begs the critical question in the most egregious way.

  The crucial difference in your theory, Bruno, to the extent that
  I've
  understood it, is that it is explicitly both analytic AND
  integrative.
  That is, it postulates specific arithmetical-computational  
  ultimate
  components and their relations, AND it further specifies the  
  local
  emergence of conscious first-person viewpoints, and their layers  
  of
  composite contents, through an additional subtle filtering and
  synthesis of the relational ensemble.  Hence, through a kind of
  duality of part and whole, it is able to avoid the monistic
  deathtrap,
  and consequently isn't forced to deny, or sweep under the rug, the
  categorical orthogonality of mind and body.  In such a schema, the
  entire domain of the secondary qualities, including matter, time
  and
  space themselves, is localised and personalised at the
  intersection of
  these analytic and synthetic principles.

  I think that you have a clear understanding of that rather subtle  
  and
  difficult issue.

  The problem with the materialist, once they use comp, and thus does
  not materialize the soul is that they have to identify a state of
  mind with a state of matter. Pain become literally neuronal  
  firing or
  quark interaction. But pain is not neuronal firing, pain is a non
  pleasant subjective reality lived by person, and to equate pain  
  with
  neuronal firing leads the most honest materialist scientist to the
  conclusion that pain somehow does not exist (eliminativism).

  Another option is open to them: it is a brute fact that the neuronal
  firing
  IS the pain, but physicalese descriptions of neuronal firing don't
  capture that because
  they are inadequate.

  Except that it is not a brute fact that the neuronal firing is the
  pain. That does not make sense. A neuronal firing is entirely
  descriptibe in a thrid person way, but a pain is not at all.

  If it is entirely describable, the identification fails. If the
  identification
  is true as a brute fact, then it is the description that is failing.
  Since
  it fails, we can't grasp the brute fact, but brute facts aren't
  necessarily
  graspable...that is the point of the jargon term brute fact. In the
  world of mathematics, ideas such as brute facts and unreachable
  noumena don't make sense, because mathematical objects are fully
  describable. Brute facts belong to realism, where certain things just
  are
  and there is no guarantee they will be comprehensible.

 Arithmetical truth is definable by Zermelo Fraenkel (a Löbian  
 machine), 

Re: Movie cannot think

2011-03-09 Thread Brent Meeker

On 3/9/2011 5:24 AM, Andrew Soltau wrote:

On 08/03/11 16:14, Brent Meeker wrote:

On 3/8/2011 3:14 AM, Andrew Soltau wrote:
What I am driving at here is the same question as in the email Comp. 
Granted that all possible states exist, what changes the point of 
the present moment from one to another. My referring to 'the 
thinker' was probably not a helpful metaphor. Given the universal 
numbers, what carries out the process whereby one is transformed 
into another? What makes the state of the thinker or the dreamer 
into the state of that entity at the next moment?


Andrew 


I think the idea is analogous to the block universe.  In Platonia all 
the states of the thinker and his relation to the world are 
computed in a timeless way. 
OK. But for any given definition of the thinker, there is a version of 
the world to which he corresponds. Whether considered as a physical 
entity, or a mind or a record of observations, I am instantiated in a 
specific version of the universe. On observation, this state changes. 
The observer is now in a new and different state, and is instantiated 
in a new and different version of the universe.


If one steps back and looks at all the possible states of the thinker, 
existing in all the different corresponding states of the universe at 
each moment, the result is the movie film Barbour refers to. This is a 
timeless situation.


The impression of time for the thinker is recovered by putting the 
states into a sequence which is implicitly defined by their content.
So then you have a sequence, but still nothing actually happens. This 
is exactly the scenario Deutsch addresses.


/Nothing/ can move from one moment to another. To exist at all at a 
particular moment means to exist there for ever. (1997, 263; his italics)


One seems to pass from moment to moment, experiencing change. Deutsch, 
however, declares that this can only be an illusion.


We do not experience time flowing, or passing. What we experience are 
differences between our present perceptions and our present memories 
of past perceptions. We interpret those differences, correctly, as 
evidence that the universe changes with time. We also interpret them, 
incorrectly, as evidence that our consciousness, or the present, or 
something, moves through time. (1997, 263)


Physically, this is unassailable. However, we can explain the 
appearance of change very neatly, 


The appearance of change is already explained by the fact that there are 
different frames that have an implicit sequence and in which the 
observers state is different.  Further explanation is just muddying 
the picture - at leas that's what Deutsch et al would say.



by saying that the frame of reference is changed, f


But this is no more than a magic finger pointing to the frames and 
saying, This one. And then this one.  And then


rom one moment to the next to the next, with no change in anything 
physical. The only drawback is that this requires something 'outside' 
of the moments, and there is nothing outside the multiverse. The 
solution I propose is that phenomenal consciousness is an emergent 
property of this unitary system as a whole. In other words, this 
process is to the moments the way the computational capability of a 
computer is to the frames of a movie in solid state memory.
Based on that, my belief is that, in the collapse dynamics of quantum 
mechanics, we have discovered evidence for a property of the unitary 
system in action


??? Collapse is not unitary.

Brent

, we just haven't recognised it as such. Which is why it gives rise to 
all the puzzles it does.


Brent



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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread 1Z


On Mar 9, 4:47 pm, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
 On 3/9/2011 4:50 AM, David Nyman wrote:

  Peter, your comments appear to illustrate a basic confusion between
  ontological and epistemological claims that makes me think that you
  haven't taken on board the fundamental distinction entailed in Bruno's
  original statement:

  Ontological reduction does not necessarily entail epistemological
  *elimination*, but it does entail ontological*elimination*.

 This strikes me a mere semantic argumentation.  Houses are made of
 bricks.  Bricks are made of atoms.  Atoms are made of strings. This is
 reduction; ontological reduction.  X is reduce to Y and relations among
 Y.  Elimination is not mentioned anywhere.  There is no justification
 for eliminating anything; either ontologically or epistemologically
 (whatever that means?).  There are still atoms and bricks and houses.  
 Reduction is a word we invented to describe this.  I don't know why
 someone wants to equate it with elimination.  What would it mean to
 eliminate bricks?  To banish them?  To always refer to them by long
 descriptive phrases in terms of atoms?

 Brent

Eliminativism argues that folk-psychology won't even
survive as a convenient shorthand -- but that is an argument
that goes way beyond reduction itself. House, heat
etc are not subject to it.

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread Brent Meeker

On 3/9/2011 5:30 AM, 1Z wrote:

Zombies are not a typical example of the problems of reduction,
they are an instance of the reduction being bought too cheaply:
the reductive materialist presents the off-the-peg conclusion that
consciousness
just is neural firing, without filling in the explanation that
allows
us to see that it*must be*, so that we instead remain being able to
see that it
*might not*  be!

   


But keep in mind what counts as explanation.  In science it is really 
just a model that tells us how something can manipulated.  The molecular 
model of heat works as an explanation because it connects different 
phenomenon, e.g. heating of a gas due to compression, heating due to 
friction.


I think eventually we will have a theory tells us which kind of neural 
firings or computation produce what kind of conscious thoughts. And that 
will be the end of explanation.


Brent

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread 1Z


On Mar 9, 3:25 pm, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:
 On 9 March 2011 14:39, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

  So on this basis you would claim that heat is *ontologically* (i.e.
  not merely epistemologically) distinguishable from molecular motion?

  No. I would say it is ontologically the same as molecular
  motion, and molecular motion exists, so heat exists, so
  heat was not eliminated

 It seems that you persistently misunderstand the meaning of
 elimination in this context. If something can be shown to be a
 composite of more fundamental ontological components, it is of course
 disqualified (i.e. eliminated) thereby as an ontological fundamental

But that's *not* what elimination means as in eliminativism.
The point of eliminativism is that the eliminated thing doesn't exist
at all.
Moreover, it is difficult to see why anyone would complain
about a sense of elimination that just means non-fundamental,
when we don't necessarily know what is fundamental, and
we are going to continue using the term

 else such use of the terms ontological, fundamental and
 eliminated is rendered meaningless.  Hence heat can indeed be
 eliminated from the catalogue of ontological fundamentals in this way,
 and understood as consisting in the more fundamental phenomenon of
 molecular motion.  Of course the *concept* (and a fortiori the
 sensation) of heat isn't thereby eliminated epistemologically

More importantly, the concept has a referent. It is just the
same referent as another concept. But if your are going to
call that elimination, what are you going to call
what happened to phlogiston? Extermination?

, but
 this is the very distinction we are trying to establish on a firm
 footing.  The reductionist programme seeks to eliminate any need (in
 principle) to appeal to any and all non-fundamental ontological
 entities in precisely this way, and hence show ontology as resting on
 a single fundamental base, thereby situating composite entities at the
 epistemological level.

It is hard to see what you mean by epistemological there.
I don't think it is a synonym for non fundamental

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread David Nyman
On 9 March 2011 16:21, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:

 To me that is an open question.  Are philosophical zombies possible?  It
 seems unlikely, but when I consider specific ideas about consciousness, such
 as Julian Jaynes, then it seems more plausible that conscious-like behavior
 could be evinced with such different internal processing that it would not
 realize consciousness as I experience it - though it might still be
 consciousness in Bruno's sense of being capable of mathematical
 self-reference.

My reading of Jaynes (and TOOCITBOTBM is one of my favourites) is that
by non-conscious he actually meant non-self-conscious.  The
non-self-conscious person essentially obeys the voices in her head,
but when these can no longer provide guidance, internal dialogue - and
with it, self-consciousness - may emerge as a superior survival
strategy.  However I don't believe Jaynes thought that the bicameral
person literally lacked phenomenal experience.

David

 On 3/9/2011 3:28 AM, 1Z wrote:

 I can
   say yes to the doctor if my consciousness and qualia is related to a
   noumenal hinterland of the matter in my physical brain. That noumenal
   matter hinterland contradicts the idea that there is a level of
   description of myself where matter and physical structure can be
   replaced by arbitrary different matter and structure, once they
   preserve the computational relations, which are arithmetical, by
   digitality.


 Yep. Comp is a bad theory of qualia. We don't know
 how to write subroutines for phenomenality.

 Maybe we do.  We just don't know that we know.

 That artificial people
 do not have real feelings is a staple of sci fi.



 To me that is an open question.  Are philosophical zombies possible?  It
 seems unlikely, but when I consider specific ideas about consciousness, such
 as Julian Jaynes, then it seems more plausible that conscious-like behavior
 could be evinced with such different internal processing that it would not
 realize consciousness as I experience it - though it might still be
 consciousness in Bruno's sense of being capable of mathematical
 self-reference.

 Brent

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Re: Movie cannot think

2011-03-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Mar 2011, at 16:06, Jason Resch wrote:




On Tue, Mar 8, 2011 at 10:14 AM, Brent Meeker  
meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:

On 3/8/2011 3:14 AM, Andrew Soltau wrote:
What I am driving at here is the same question as in the email Comp.  
Granted that all possible states exist, what changes the point of  
the present moment from one to another. My referring to 'the  
thinker' was probably not a helpful metaphor. Given the universal  
numbers, what carries out the process whereby one is transformed  
into another? What makes the state of the thinker or the dreamer  
into the state of that entity at the next moment?


Andrew

I think the idea is analogous to the block universe.  In Platonia  
all the states of the thinker and his relation to the world are  
computed in a timeless way.  The impression of time for the  
thinker is recovered by putting the states into a sequence which is  
implicitly defined by their content.


Brent



Bruno and others,

Do you think that computations performed by a computer or brain  
within a block universe contribute to the computational histories of  
a person?


Let us defined the block multiverse by the (sub)universal dovetailer  
which wins the measure battle.  If, in that structure, we implement  
a computer or a brain, then it will contribute to the history of the  
person (and that is why we can say yes to a doctor, because the  
artificial brain that he build is supposed to respect the measure of  
the actual history of its patient.


Note that although there is a block-universal-dream, it is an open  
question if this leads to a well defined physical universe. It might  
be possible that not all machine dreams can glue together, leading to  
multi-multiverses, ...





I can see why in a movie they do not, as there is no mathematical  
relation between the frames.


OK. Nice.



However, in a universe ruled by equations, it seems to me that a  
computer in a universe is leveraging relations in math to perform  
computations, albeit less directly than a platonic Turing machine  
running a program.  To me it is like running a simulation of a brain  
on a virtual machine on physical hardware.  The VM provides a level  
of abstraction, but ultimately its computations are still  
computations.


OK.



In the same way a mathematical universe is a level of abstraction  
yet could still provide a platform for genuine computation (not  
descriptions of computation) to be performed.  What do you think?


I can only agree. Arithmetical truth, and precisely the sigma_1  
arithmetical truth (the true proposition having the shape ExP(x) with  
P(x) provably decidable) emulate all possible computations (it is a  
sort of canonical  UD living in (emulated by) elementary arithmetic.


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Mar 2011, at 17:49, 1Z wrote:




On Mar 9, 4:30 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:






OK. I guess you associate pain to the primitive matter. But that is
even more incoherent with respect to the comp hypothesis.


There is nothing mystical about the falsehood of comp. It
is quite possible for comp to  be false whilst naturalism remains
true.


My point is just that IF comp is true, then naturalism is false. Or   
if you prefer, that if naturalism is true, then comp is false.

So I certainly agree here.






Computationalism is not per se a theory of qualia.


How can it be a theory of consciousness without being a theory
of qualia?


In that sense all right. Comp is the theory which accept as axiom that  
my brain/body is Turing emulable at some level.
But in that sense, comp is a theory of everything. Indeed, it even  
makes elementary arithmetic a theory of everything, with both quanta  
and qualia derivable from digital machine's self-reference.







Yep. Comp is a bad theory of qualia.


As I said, Comp is the assumption that qualia are preserved through
functional substitution at some level. A theory of qualia emerges  
from

the self-reference logic.


A theory of indescribable something-or-others does


More precisely, a theory of describable and indescribable oneself  
can prove and infer about oneself.






But then if you abandon comp at this stage, it means I have made my
point. I thought you were defending COMP + MAT(*)


I was pointing out that COMP does not imply not-MAT once
PLATO is dropped. COMP may be a bad theory for other reasons.


COMP makes no sense at all without Plato (that is we need to believe  
that phi_x(y) converges or does not converge. No more is needed for  
the epistemological reversal. Or show the flaw in UDA, or show where  
more than such Plato is used.






If you have a theory of qualia using primitive matter, and coherent
with comp, then you should be able to use it to extract a flaw in the
UD Argument.


Here's one: minds can be computed,  but they only have
real conscious if they run on the metal (at the zeroth
level of abstraction). That's not your version of COMP,
but it is adequate for most AI researchers, and for
anybody who wants to be reincarnated in silicon


Then there is a flaw in UDA+MGA. Where?





(*) For the new people: MAT = weak materialism = the common doctrine
that primitive matter exists, or that matter exists at the basic
ontological level.


We don't know
how to write subroutines for phenomenality.


Assuming comp, it is enough to write the code of a universal machine.
For example RA (Robinson Arithmetic) has qualia, but RA lacks the
cognitive ability to understand the notion of qualia. If you give it
the induction axioms (getting PA), you get a Löbian machine, and it
has the full power to find its own theory of qualia.


Assuming indescribability is a sufficient, and not
just a necessary feature of qualia


That contradicts what you said in the preceding post. But then my task  
is even more simple, given that machine can access to the  
indescribability of their qualia.







That artificial people
do not have real feelings is a staple of sci fi.


And ?


So the intuitions that underly the HP also
underly the badness of COMP as a theory
of qualia


What is HP?

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread David Nyman
On 9 March 2011 17:22, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

 The point of eliminativism is that the eliminated thing doesn't exist
 at all.

Just so.  At a reduced ontological level, heat doesn't exist at all -
it's just molecular motion, no more, no less, and any explanation
invoking heat could in principle be entirely eliminated by one
invoking molecular motion.

 Moreover, it is difficult to see why anyone would complain
 about a sense of elimination that just means non-fundamental,
 when we don't necessarily know what is fundamental, and
 we are going to continue using the term

Not knowing what (if anything) may ultimately turn out to be the
bottom level doesn't stop us from knowing that, in the hierarchy of
explanation, molecular motion is a more fundamental level than heat.
And the question of whether we go on using the eliminated term is an
epistemological matter (i.e. it concerns what we know and can say) not
an ontological one (concerning what ultimately exists).

 More importantly, the concept has a referent. It is just the
 same referent as another concept. But if your are going to
 call that elimination, what are you going to call
 what happened to phlogiston? Extermination?

If here you want to say that phlogiston was eliminated, then you are
clearly using the word in a non-standard way.  Phlogiston is just a
theoretical term of an incorrect theory of combustion, and hence no
longer has a place in the replacement theory.  Heat, on the other
hand, is believed to refer correctly to a more fundamental underlying
molecular phenomenon, and hence can be retained as a theoretical
concept, though eliminated as a fundamental entity in its own right.

 The reductionist programme seeks to eliminate any need (in
 principle) to appeal to any and all non-fundamental ontological
 entities in precisely this way, and hence show ontology as resting on
 a single fundamental base, thereby situating composite entities at the
 epistemological level.

 It is hard to see what you mean by epistemological there.
 I don't think it is a synonym for non fundamental

In effect, it *is* a synonym for non-fundamental.  If, as reductive
programmes envisage, ontology can be grounded somewhere in a finite
set of ultimate entities and their relations, then non-fundamental
entities (composites) must be aspects of what we know, not what things
ultimately are.

David



 On Mar 9, 3:25 pm, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:
 On 9 March 2011 14:39, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

  So on this basis you would claim that heat is *ontologically* (i.e.
  not merely epistemologically) distinguishable from molecular motion?

  No. I would say it is ontologically the same as molecular
  motion, and molecular motion exists, so heat exists, so
  heat was not eliminated

 It seems that you persistently misunderstand the meaning of
 elimination in this context. If something can be shown to be a
 composite of more fundamental ontological components, it is of course
 disqualified (i.e. eliminated) thereby as an ontological fundamental

 But that's *not* what elimination means as in eliminativism.
 The point of eliminativism is that the eliminated thing doesn't exist
 at all.
 Moreover, it is difficult to see why anyone would complain
 about a sense of elimination that just means non-fundamental,
 when we don't necessarily know what is fundamental, and
 we are going to continue using the term

 else such use of the terms ontological, fundamental and
 eliminated is rendered meaningless.  Hence heat can indeed be
 eliminated from the catalogue of ontological fundamentals in this way,
 and understood as consisting in the more fundamental phenomenon of
 molecular motion.  Of course the *concept* (and a fortiori the
 sensation) of heat isn't thereby eliminated epistemologically

 More importantly, the concept has a referent. It is just the
 same referent as another concept. But if your are going to
 call that elimination, what are you going to call
 what happened to phlogiston? Extermination?

, but
 this is the very distinction we are trying to establish on a firm
 footing.  The reductionist programme seeks to eliminate any need (in
 principle) to appeal to any and all non-fundamental ontological
 entities in precisely this way, and hence show ontology as resting on
 a single fundamental base, thereby situating composite entities at the
 epistemological level.

 It is hard to see what you mean by epistemological there.
 I don't think it is a synonym for non fundamental

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread 1Z


On Mar 9, 5:56 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 In that sense all right. Comp is the theory which accept as axiom that  
 my brain/body is Turing emulable at some level.
 But in that sense, comp is a theory of everything. Indeed, it even  
 makes elementary arithmetic a theory of everything, with both quanta  
 and qualia derivable from digital machine's self-reference.

Comp is not a TOE without Platonism


  But then if you abandon comp at this stage, it means I have made my
  point. I thought you were defending COMP + MAT(*)

  I was pointing out that COMP does not imply not-MAT once
  PLATO is dropped. COMP may be a bad theory for other reasons.

 COMP makes no sense at all without Plato (that is we need to believe  
 that phi_x(y) converges or does not converge.

Platonism is not bivalence

 No more is needed for  
 the epistemological reversal. Or show the flaw in UDA, or show where  
 more than such Plato is used.



  If you have a theory of qualia using primitive matter, and coherent
  with comp, then you should be able to use it to extract a flaw in the
  UD Argument.

  Here's one: minds can be computed,  but they only have
  real conscious if they run on the metal (at the zeroth
  level of abstraction). That's not your version of COMP,
  but it is adequate for most AI researchers, and for
  anybody who wants to be reincarnated in silicon

 Then there is a flaw in UDA+MGA. Where?

You can't disprove materialism without assuming
Platonism




  That artificial people
  do not have real feelings is a staple of sci fi.

  And ?

  So the intuitions that underly the HP also
  underly the badness of COMP as a theory
  of qualia

 What is HP?

The Hard Problem

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread 1Z


On Mar 9, 6:00 pm, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:
 On 9 March 2011 17:22, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

  The point of eliminativism is that the eliminated thing doesn't exist
  at all.

 Just so.  At a reduced ontological level, heat doesn't exist at all -

It does, because it is identified with something that does exist

 it's just molecular motion, no more, no less, and any explanation
 invoking heat could in principle be entirely eliminated by one
 invoking molecular motion.

Or vice versa. But replacement of a description  by an
equivalent or synonymous one does not show that
neither has a referent

  Moreover, it is difficult to see why anyone would complain
  about a sense of elimination that just means non-fundamental,
  when we don't necessarily know what is fundamental, and
  we are going to continue using the term

 Not knowing what (if anything) may ultimately turn out to be the
 bottom level doesn't stop us from knowing that, in the hierarchy of
 explanation, molecular motion is a more fundamental level than heat.
 And the question of whether we go on using the eliminated term is an
 epistemological matter (i.e. it concerns what we know and can say) not
 an ontological one (concerning what ultimately exists).

The question of whether we continue using the term is ontological,
because the issue of whether it has something to refer to is
ontological
(albeit not fundamentally so). We *can* stop using the term
pholgiston because it has nothing to refer to.

  More importantly, the concept has a referent. It is just the
  same referent as another concept. But if your are going to
  call that elimination, what are you going to call
  what happened to phlogiston? Extermination?

 If here you want to say that phlogiston was eliminated, then you are
 clearly using the word in a non-standard way.

No, you are, because elimnativism and reductionism are
different ideas.

 Phlogiston is just a
 theoretical term of an incorrect theory of combustion, and hence no
 longer has a place in the replacement theory.

 Heat, on the other
 hand, is believed to refer correctly to a more fundamental underlying
 molecular phenomenon, and hence can be retained as a theoretical
 concept, though eliminated as a fundamental entity in its own right.

Fine. So reductionist materialists only believe that mind doesn't
exist in its own right...whereas eliminativists believe it doesn't
exist at all.

  The reductionist programme seeks to eliminate any need (in
  principle) to appeal to any and all non-fundamental ontological
  entities in precisely this way, and hence show ontology as resting on
  a single fundamental base, thereby situating composite entities at the
  epistemological level.

  It is hard to see what you mean by epistemological there.
  I don't think it is a synonym for non fundamental

 In effect, it *is* a synonym for non-fundamental.  If, as reductive
 programmes envisage, ontology can be grounded somewhere in a finite
 set of ultimate entities and their relations, then non-fundamental
 entities (composites) must be aspects of what we know, not what things
 ultimately are.

They are neither: they are what things non-ultimately are.

Aspects of knowledge would be things like truth and justification

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Re: Molecular Motion and Heat, was ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi
When you compare heat and molecular motion, first it would be good to 
define what molecular motion is.


At the beginning, the molecules and atoms were considered as hard 
spheres. At this state, there was the problem as follows. We bring a 
glass of hot water in the room and leave it there. Eventually the 
temperature of the water will be equal to the ambient temperature. 
According to the heat theory, the temperature in the glass will be hot 
again spontaneously and it is in complete agreement with our experience. 
With molecular motion, if we consider them as hard spheres there is a 
nonzero chance that the water in the glass will be hot again. Moreover, 
there is a theorem (Poincaré recurrence) that states that if we wait 
long enough then the temperature of the glass must be hot again. No 
doubt, the chances are very small and time to wait is very long, in a 
way this is negligible. Yet some people are happy with such statistical 
explanation, some not. Hence, it is a bit too simple to say that 
molecular motion has eliminated heat at this level.


Then we could say that molecules and atoms are not hard spheres but 
quantum objects. This however brings even more problems, as we do not 
have macroscopic objects then. Let me quote Laughlin to this end


By the most important effect of phase organisation is to cause objects 
to exist. This point is subtle and easily overlooked, since we are 
accustomed to thinking about solidification in terms of packing of 
Newtonian spheres. Atoms are not Newtonian spheres, however, but 
ethereal quantum-mechanical entities lacking that most central of all 
properties of an object – an identifiable position. This is why attempts 
to describe free atoms in Newtonian terms always result in nonsense 
statements such as their being neither here nor there but simultaneously 
everywhere. It is aggregation into large objects that makes a Newtonian 
description of the atoms meaningful, not the reverse. One might compare 
this phenomenon with a yet-to-be-filmed Stephen Spilberg movie in which 
a huge number of little ghosts lock arms and, in doing so, become 
corporeal.


So I personally not that sure that molecular motion has more meaning 
*ontologically* than heat.


Evgenii

P.S. For those who love heat, entropy, and information:

http://blog.rudnyi.ru/2010/12/entropy-and-artificial-life.html


On 09.03.2011 15:39 1Z said the following:



On Mar 9, 2:23 pm, David Nymanda...@davidnyman.com  wrote:

On 9 March 2011 14:17, 1Zpeterdjo...@yahoo.com  wrote:


Phlogiston was eliminated, heat was reduced. There's a
difference


So on this basis you would claim that heat is *ontologically*
(i.e. not merely epistemologically) distinguishable from molecular
motion?


No. I would say it is ontologically the same as molecular motion, and
molecular motion exists, so heat exists, so heat was not eliminated



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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread Brent Meeker

On 3/9/2011 8:49 AM, 1Z wrote:

If you have a theory of qualia using primitive matter, and coherent
  with comp, then you should be able to use it to extract a flaw in the
  UD Argument.
 

Here's one: minds can be computed,  but they only have
real conscious if they run on the metal (at the zeroth
level of abstraction). That's not your version of COMP,
but it is adequate for most AI researchers, and for
anybody who wants to be reincarnated in silicon

   


But how do we know what the zeroth level is?  What is really meant is 
OUR level - the one in which we can give ostensive definitions.  Which 
is my point about BIVs.  We can only know them to be conscious insofar 
as they can be grounded in our zeroth level.


Brent

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread Brent Meeker

On 3/9/2011 9:24 AM, David Nyman wrote:

On 9 March 2011 16:21, Brent Meekermeeke...@dslextreme.com  wrote:

   

  To me that is an open question.  Are philosophical zombies possible?  It
  seems unlikely, but when I consider specific ideas about consciousness, such
  as Julian Jaynes, then it seems more plausible that conscious-like behavior
  could be evinced with such different internal processing that it would not
  realize consciousness as I experience it - though it might still be
  consciousness in Bruno's sense of being capable of mathematical
  self-reference.
 

My reading of Jaynes (and TOOCITBOTBM is one of my favourites) is that
by non-conscious he actually meant non-self-conscious.  The
non-self-conscious person essentially obeys the voices in her head,
but when these can no longer provide guidance, internal dialogue - and
with it, self-consciousness - may emerge as a superior survival
strategy.  However I don't believe Jaynes thought that the bicameral
person literally lacked phenomenal experience.

David

   


Yes, I realize there are kinds of consciousness.  I thought the 
interesting idea in Jaynes was that perceptual consciousness, which I'm 
sure my dog has, was co-opted by evolution to become 
self-consciousness.  Specifically that with the development of language, 
communication of aural information became very important.  The brain 
evolved to internalize this into an inner-narration to realize the 
advantage of keeping one's thought's to oneself (e.g. decpetion).  It 
would imply that if, for example written communication was invented 
before language, then our brains might implement consciousness through 
an inner text (like those ribbons across the bottom of a TV news 
program) instead of an inner voice.  This is what leads me to speculate 
that there could be completely different modes of internal cogitation 
that we could not easily identify even though the external behavior was 
what we could call conscious.  The intelligent Mars Rover may be an 
example of this.


Brent

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread 1Z


On Mar 9, 5:15 pm, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
 On 3/9/2011 5:30 AM, 1Z wrote:

  Zombies are not a typical example of the problems of reduction,
  they are an instance of the reduction being bought too cheaply:
  the reductive materialist presents the off-the-peg conclusion that
  consciousness
  just is neural firing, without filling in the explanation that
  allows
  us to see that it*must be*, so that we instead remain being able to
  see that it
  *might not*  be!

 But keep in mind what counts as explanation.  In science it is really
 just a model that tells us how something can manipulated.

As opposed to what?  I think explanation supports modal
claims. I think models do as well. If you always get a result
however you manipulate a model, it's necessary within that
model. If you sometimes do, it's possible. Never, impossible.

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Re: Movie cannot think

2011-03-09 Thread Brent Meeker

On 3/9/2011 9:36 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
I can see why in a movie they do not, as there is no mathematical 
relation between the frames.


OK. Nice.



But they do have a relation via the thing that was filmed.

Brent

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread Brent Meeker

On 3/9/2011 11:46 AM, 1Z wrote:


On Mar 9, 5:15 pm, Brent Meekermeeke...@dslextreme.com  wrote:
   

On 3/9/2011 5:30 AM, 1Z wrote:

 

Zombies are not a typical example of the problems of reduction,
they are an instance of the reduction being bought too cheaply:
the reductive materialist presents the off-the-peg conclusion that
consciousness
just is neural firing, without filling in the explanation that
allows
us to see that it*must be*, so that we instead remain being able to
see that it
*might not*  be!
   

But keep in mind what counts as explanation.  In science it is really
just a model that tells us how something can manipulated.
 

As opposed to what?


As opposed to stories about what exists, but can never be tested.

Brent


I think explanation supports modal
claims. I think models do as well. If you always get a result
however you manipulate a model, it's necessary within that
model. If you sometimes do, it's possible. Never, impossible.

   


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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread David Nyman
On 9 March 2011 19:09, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

Fine, Peter, have it your way.  We can't seem to progress beyond
vocabulary difficulties to the substance.  No doubt I have been less
than persuasive, and thus have failed to convince you that there is
indeed any substance. But since I have nothing further to add at this
point, I'll stop here (and so save you some typing, as you are wont to
say).

David



 On Mar 9, 6:00 pm, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:
 On 9 March 2011 17:22, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

  The point of eliminativism is that the eliminated thing doesn't exist
  at all.

 Just so.  At a reduced ontological level, heat doesn't exist at all -

 It does, because it is identified with something that does exist

 it's just molecular motion, no more, no less, and any explanation
 invoking heat could in principle be entirely eliminated by one
 invoking molecular motion.

 Or vice versa. But replacement of a description  by an
 equivalent or synonymous one does not show that
 neither has a referent

  Moreover, it is difficult to see why anyone would complain
  about a sense of elimination that just means non-fundamental,
  when we don't necessarily know what is fundamental, and
  we are going to continue using the term

 Not knowing what (if anything) may ultimately turn out to be the
 bottom level doesn't stop us from knowing that, in the hierarchy of
 explanation, molecular motion is a more fundamental level than heat.
 And the question of whether we go on using the eliminated term is an
 epistemological matter (i.e. it concerns what we know and can say) not
 an ontological one (concerning what ultimately exists).

 The question of whether we continue using the term is ontological,
 because the issue of whether it has something to refer to is
 ontological
 (albeit not fundamentally so). We *can* stop using the term
 pholgiston because it has nothing to refer to.

  More importantly, the concept has a referent. It is just the
  same referent as another concept. But if your are going to
  call that elimination, what are you going to call
  what happened to phlogiston? Extermination?

 If here you want to say that phlogiston was eliminated, then you are
 clearly using the word in a non-standard way.

 No, you are, because elimnativism and reductionism are
 different ideas.

 Phlogiston is just a
 theoretical term of an incorrect theory of combustion, and hence no
 longer has a place in the replacement theory.

 Heat, on the other
 hand, is believed to refer correctly to a more fundamental underlying
 molecular phenomenon, and hence can be retained as a theoretical
 concept, though eliminated as a fundamental entity in its own right.

 Fine. So reductionist materialists only believe that mind doesn't
 exist in its own right...whereas eliminativists believe it doesn't
 exist at all.

  The reductionist programme seeks to eliminate any need (in
  principle) to appeal to any and all non-fundamental ontological
  entities in precisely this way, and hence show ontology as resting on
  a single fundamental base, thereby situating composite entities at the
  epistemological level.

  It is hard to see what you mean by epistemological there.
  I don't think it is a synonym for non fundamental

 In effect, it *is* a synonym for non-fundamental.  If, as reductive
 programmes envisage, ontology can be grounded somewhere in a finite
 set of ultimate entities and their relations, then non-fundamental
 entities (composites) must be aspects of what we know, not what things
 ultimately are.

 They are neither: they are what things non-ultimately are.

 Aspects of knowledge would be things like truth and justification

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread David Nyman
On 9 March 2011 19:43, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:

 Yes, I realize there are kinds of consciousness.  I thought the interesting
 idea in Jaynes was that perceptual consciousness, which I'm sure my dog has,
 was co-opted by evolution to become self-consciousness.  Specifically that
 with the development of language, communication of aural information became
 very important.  The brain evolved to internalize this into an
 inner-narration to realize the advantage of keeping one's thought's to
 oneself (e.g. decpetion).  It would imply that if, for example written
 communication was invented before language, then our brains might implement
 consciousness through an inner text (like those ribbons across the bottom of
 a TV news program) instead of an inner voice.  This is what leads me to
 speculate that there could be completely different modes of internal
 cogitation that we could not easily identify even though the external
 behavior was what we could call conscious.  The intelligent Mars Rover may
 be an example of this.

Interesting, you've given me something new to think about.

Thanks

David

 On 3/9/2011 9:24 AM, David Nyman wrote:

 On 9 March 2011 16:21, Brent Meekermeeke...@dslextreme.com  wrote:



   To me that is an open question.  Are philosophical zombies possible?
   It
   seems unlikely, but when I consider specific ideas about
  consciousness, such
   as Julian Jaynes, then it seems more plausible that conscious-like
  behavior
   could be evinced with such different internal processing that it would
  not
   realize consciousness as I experience it - though it might still be
   consciousness in Bruno's sense of being capable of mathematical
   self-reference.


 My reading of Jaynes (and TOOCITBOTBM is one of my favourites) is that
 by non-conscious he actually meant non-self-conscious.  The
 non-self-conscious person essentially obeys the voices in her head,
 but when these can no longer provide guidance, internal dialogue - and
 with it, self-consciousness - may emerge as a superior survival
 strategy.  However I don't believe Jaynes thought that the bicameral
 person literally lacked phenomenal experience.

 David



 Yes, I realize there are kinds of consciousness.  I thought the interesting
 idea in Jaynes was that perceptual consciousness, which I'm sure my dog has,
 was co-opted by evolution to become self-consciousness.  Specifically that
 with the development of language, communication of aural information became
 very important.  The brain evolved to internalize this into an
 inner-narration to realize the advantage of keeping one's thought's to
 oneself (e.g. decpetion).  It would imply that if, for example written
 communication was invented before language, then our brains might implement
 consciousness through an inner text (like those ribbons across the bottom of
 a TV news program) instead of an inner voice.  This is what leads me to
 speculate that there could be completely different modes of internal
 cogitation that we could not easily identify even though the external
 behavior was what we could call conscious.  The intelligent Mars Rover may
 be an example of this.

 Brent

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Re: Molecular Motion and Heat, was ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread David Nyman
On 9 March 2011 19:22, Evgenii Rudnyi use...@rudnyi.ru wrote:

 So I personally not that sure that molecular motion has more meaning
 *ontologically* than heat.

Actually, I agree with you.  Of course whatever we can speak or
theorise about is, strictly, entirely epistemological and consequently
those aspects we label ontological are properly a subset of the
theory of knowledge.  And of course even in these terms it isn't clear
that the physical is simply reducible to independently existing
fundamental entities and their relations.  Even though I was
attempting to pursue some rather obvious consequences of the idea that
reality might be so reducible, I accept that the relation between what
we know and what may ultimately ground such knowledge is doubtless
altogether more complex, subtle and opaque.

David


 When you compare heat and molecular motion, first it would be good to define
 what molecular motion is.

 At the beginning, the molecules and atoms were considered as hard spheres.
 At this state, there was the problem as follows. We bring a glass of hot
 water in the room and leave it there. Eventually the temperature of the
 water will be equal to the ambient temperature. According to the heat
 theory, the temperature in the glass will be hot again spontaneously and it
 is in complete agreement with our experience. With molecular motion, if we
 consider them as hard spheres there is a nonzero chance that the water in
 the glass will be hot again. Moreover, there is a theorem (Poincaré
 recurrence) that states that if we wait long enough then the temperature of
 the glass must be hot again. No doubt, the chances are very small and time
 to wait is very long, in a way this is negligible. Yet some people are happy
 with such statistical explanation, some not. Hence, it is a bit too simple
 to say that molecular motion has eliminated heat at this level.

 Then we could say that molecules and atoms are not hard spheres but quantum
 objects. This however brings even more problems, as we do not have
 macroscopic objects then. Let me quote Laughlin to this end

 By the most important effect of phase organisation is to cause objects to
 exist. This point is subtle and easily overlooked, since we are accustomed
 to thinking about solidification in terms of packing of Newtonian spheres.
 Atoms are not Newtonian spheres, however, but ethereal quantum-mechanical
 entities lacking that most central of all properties of an object – an
 identifiable position. This is why attempts to describe free atoms in
 Newtonian terms always result in nonsense statements such as their being
 neither here nor there but simultaneously everywhere. It is aggregation into
 large objects that makes a Newtonian description of the atoms meaningful,
 not the reverse. One might compare this phenomenon with a yet-to-be-filmed
 Stephen Spilberg movie in which a huge number of little ghosts lock arms
 and, in doing so, become corporeal.

 So I personally not that sure that molecular motion has more meaning
 *ontologically* than heat.

 Evgenii

 P.S. For those who love heat, entropy, and information:

 http://blog.rudnyi.ru/2010/12/entropy-and-artificial-life.html


 On 09.03.2011 15:39 1Z said the following:


 On Mar 9, 2:23 pm, David Nymanda...@davidnyman.com  wrote:

 On 9 March 2011 14:17, 1Zpeterdjo...@yahoo.com  wrote:

 Phlogiston was eliminated, heat was reduced. There's a
 difference

 So on this basis you would claim that heat is *ontologically*
 (i.e. not merely epistemologically) distinguishable from molecular
 motion?

 No. I would say it is ontologically the same as molecular motion, and
 molecular motion exists, so heat exists, so heat was not eliminated


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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread 1Z


On Mar 9, 10:33 pm, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:
 On 9 March 2011 19:09, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

 Fine, Peter, have it your way.  We can't seem to progress beyond
 vocabulary difficulties to the substance.

Unfortunately non-vocabulary differences have to be expressed in
vocabulary. As do vocabulary differences, for that matter.

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread 1Z


On Mar 9, 7:28 pm, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
 On 3/9/2011 8:49 AM, 1Z wrote:

  If you have a theory of qualia using primitive matter, and coherent
    with comp, then you should be able to use it to extract a flaw in the
    UD Argument.

  Here's one: minds can be computed,  but they only have
  real conscious if they run on the metal (at the zeroth
  level of abstraction). That's not your version of COMP,
  but it is adequate for most AI researchers, and for
  anybody who wants to be reincarnated in silicon

 But how do we know what the zeroth level is?  

Then hypothesis that the physical world
is zero level is consistent with the hypothesis
that we are and must be running on the metal.
Many other scenarios are possible. But only
coherence was asked for (see above)

What is really meant is
 OUR level - the one in which we can give ostensive definitions.  Which
 is my point about BIVs.  We can only know them to be conscious insofar
 as they can be grounded in our zeroth level.

A BIV that is grounded in our level is no BIV at all. That would
be like a novel consisting entirely of historical facts.

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Re: Molecular Motion and Heat, was ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread 1Z


On Mar 9, 7:22 pm, Evgenii Rudnyi use...@rudnyi.ru wrote:
 When you compare heat and molecular motion, first it would be good to
 define what molecular motion is.

 At the beginning, the molecules and atoms were considered as hard
 spheres. At this state, there was the problem as follows. We bring a
 glass of hot water in the room and leave it there. Eventually the
 temperature of the water will be equal to the ambient temperature.
 According to the heat theory, the temperature in the glass will be hot
 again spontaneously and it is in complete agreement with our experience.

OK.

 With molecular motion, if we consider them as hard spheres there is a
 nonzero chance that the water in the glass will be hot again.

I don't see the difference. Both seem to predict the same thing

 Moreover,
 there is a theorem (Poincar recurrence) that states that if we wait
 long enough then the temperature of the glass must be hot again. No
 doubt, the chances are very small and time to wait is very long, in a
 way this is negligible. Yet some people are happy with such statistical
 explanation, some not. Hence, it is a bit too simple to say that
 molecular motion has eliminated heat at this level.

I still don't see the difference

 Then we could say that molecules and atoms are not hard spheres but
 quantum objects. This however brings even more problems, as we do not
 have macroscopic objects then. Let me quote Laughlin to this end

 By the most important effect of phase organisation is to cause objects
 to exist. This point is subtle and easily overlooked, since we are
 accustomed to thinking about solidification in terms of packing of
 Newtonian spheres. Atoms are not Newtonian spheres, however, but
 ethereal quantum-mechanical entities lacking that most central of all
 properties of an object an identifiable position. This is why attempts
 to describe free atoms in Newtonian terms always result in nonsense
 statements such as their being neither here nor there but simultaneously
 everywhere. It is aggregation into large objects that makes a Newtonian
 description of the atoms meaningful, not the reverse. One might compare
 this phenomenon with a yet-to-be-filmed Stephen Spilberg movie in which
 a huge number of little ghosts lock arms and, in doing so, become
 corporeal.

 So I personally not that sure that molecular motion has more meaning
 *ontologically* than heat

Ermm... so you are saying that the classical explanation of heat
reduces it
to the motions of molecules with individually well-defined positions
and velocities --whereas
Qm reuires that those things can only be defined in a kind of reverse-
reductionism
scenario where the parts acquire their properties from the whole? Is
that right?
I am  not sure that really breaks anything in thermodynamics, because
quantum
entities still can have well-defined kinetic energies without having
well
defined positions or velocities.



 Evgenii

 P.S. For those who love heat, entropy, and information:

 http://blog.rudnyi.ru/2010/12/entropy-and-artificial-life.html

 On 09.03.2011 15:39 1Z said the following:



  On Mar 9, 2:23 pm, David Nymanda...@davidnyman.com  wrote:
  On 9 March 2011 14:17, 1Zpeterdjo...@yahoo.com  wrote:

  Phlogiston was eliminated, heat was reduced. There's a
  difference

  So on this basis you would claim that heat is *ontologically*
  (i.e. not merely epistemologically) distinguishable from molecular
  motion?

  No. I would say it is ontologically the same as molecular motion, and
  molecular motion exists, so heat exists, so heat was not eliminated

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Mar 2011, at 19:10, 1Z wrote:




On Mar 9, 5:56 pm, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

In that sense all right. Comp is the theory which accept as axiom  
that

my brain/body is Turing emulable at some level.
But in that sense, comp is a theory of everything. Indeed, it even
makes elementary arithmetic a theory of everything, with both quanta
and qualia derivable from digital machine's self-reference.


Comp is not a TOE without Platonism


Remind me what you mean by Platonism. In the derivation I use only  
arithmetical realism. Platonism per se is in the conclusion.









But then if you abandon comp at this stage, it means I have made my
point. I thought you were defending COMP + MAT(*)



I was pointing out that COMP does not imply not-MAT once
PLATO is dropped. COMP may be a bad theory for other reasons.


COMP makes no sense at all without Plato (that is we need to  
believe

that phi_x(y) converges or does not converge.


Platonism is not bivalence


But arithmetical realism is, formally, the excluded middle principle.  
I accept the truth of A v ~A, for A sigma_1.






No more is needed for
the epistemological reversal. Or show the flaw in UDA, or show where
more than such Plato is used.




If you have a theory of qualia using primitive matter, and coherent
with comp, then you should be able to use it to extract a flaw in  
the

UD Argument.



Here's one: minds can be computed,  but they only have
real conscious if they run on the metal (at the zeroth
level of abstraction). That's not your version of COMP,
but it is adequate for most AI researchers, and for
anybody who wants to be reincarnated in silicon


Then there is a flaw in UDA+MGA. Where?


You can't disprove materialism without assuming
Platonism


This does not show where is the flaw.








That artificial people
do not have real feelings is a staple of sci fi.



And ?



So the intuitions that underly the HP also
underly the badness of COMP as a theory
of qualia


What is HP?


The Hard Problem


HP, which is nothing than the mind body problem, and is really HPM+HPM  
(HPMind+HPmatter) underlies the difficulty of any theory.


Bruno
http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Movie cannot think

2011-03-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Mar 2011, at 20:51, Brent Meeker wrote:


On 3/9/2011 9:36 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
I can see why in a movie they do not, as there is no mathematical  
relation between the frames.


OK. Nice.



But they do have a relation via the thing that was filmed.


The point consists in showing that the projection of the movie does  
not generate consciousness. Not that consciousness did not exist in  
relation with the movie. With the movie, we can upload the boolean  
plane machine, and make that consciousness again manifested. But the  
movie itself does not compute anything. It describes a computation and  
consciousness is in the computation, not in the description of the  
computation. The relation between the movie and the computation is  
akin to the relation between a proof and the Gödel number of that  
proof. They are related, but they are not the same thing.


It is a subtle point. It is nicely capture formally with the self- 
reference logic, where we can show that p - Bp, but only because we  
know that the machine is correct (by definition or choice). The  
machine cannot know that.


Then I showed that a movie is a relative thing. for an observer, there  
is a movie in front of a immobile spectator, but for another observer  
there is an immobile pellicle with a moving observer. But comp makes  
the observer's presence not needed, so that the consciousness cannot  
supervene on the running of the movie, given that for another  
observer there is no running at all.


Of course the movie displays the same physical activity as the boolean  
graph, and this means that consciousness, if we keep comp, has to be  
related to the abstract computation, not on his implementation is such  
or such universal system.


But then consciousness, pain, qualia are often considered as abstract/ 
immaterial, so it is not so astonishing that we have to identify it  
with abstract relation that a person/machine can have with herself.


But this means that we have to solve the mind-body problem by  
explaining the illusion of matter from the consciousness, and not  
the contrary.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread Brent Meeker

On 3/9/2011 4:15 PM, 1Z wrote:


On Mar 9, 7:28 pm, Brent Meekermeeke...@dslextreme.com  wrote:
   

On 3/9/2011 8:49 AM, 1Z wrote:

 

If you have a theory of qualia using primitive matter, and coherent
 

  with comp, then you should be able to use it to extract a flaw in the
  UD Argument.
   
 

Here's one: minds can be computed,  but they only have
real conscious if they run on the metal (at the zeroth
level of abstraction). That's not your version of COMP,
but it is adequate for most AI researchers, and for
anybody who wants to be reincarnated in silicon
   

But how do we know what the zeroth level is?
 

Then hypothesis that the physical world
is zero level is consistent with the hypothesis
that we are and must be running on the metal.
Many other scenarios are possible. But only
coherence was asked for (see above)

   

What is really meant is
OUR level - the one in which we can give ostensive definitions.  Which
is my point about BIVs.  We can only know them to be conscious insofar
as they can be grounded in our zeroth level.
 

A BIV that is grounded in our level is no BIV at all. That would
be like a novel consisting entirely of historical facts.

   
A BIV that is conscious is like a historical novel.  A human BIV with 
input simulating the perceptions of a Drtywxz on planet Uwipjt might 
possibly be conscious, as a Boltzmann brain might be.


Brent

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Re: ON THE THEORY OF EVERYTHING was Another TOE short paper

2011-03-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Mar 2011, at 20:09, 1Z wrote:




On Mar 9, 6:00 pm, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:

On 9 March 2011 17:22, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

The point of eliminativism is that the eliminated thing doesn't  
exist

at all.


Just so.  At a reduced ontological level, heat doesn't exist at all -


It does, because it is identified with something that does exist


it's just molecular motion, no more, no less, and any explanation
invoking heat could in principle be entirely eliminated by one
invoking molecular motion.


Or vice versa. But replacement of a description  by an
equivalent or synonymous one does not show that
neither has a referent


Moreover, it is difficult to see why anyone would complain
about a sense of elimination that just means non-fundamental,
when we don't necessarily know what is fundamental, and
we are going to continue using the term


Not knowing what (if anything) may ultimately turn out to be the
bottom level doesn't stop us from knowing that, in the hierarchy of
explanation, molecular motion is a more fundamental level than heat.
And the question of whether we go on using the eliminated term is an
epistemological matter (i.e. it concerns what we know and can say)  
not

an ontological one (concerning what ultimately exists).


The question of whether we continue using the term is ontological,
because the issue of whether it has something to refer to is
ontological
(albeit not fundamentally so). We *can* stop using the term
pholgiston because it has nothing to refer to.


More importantly, the concept has a referent. It is just the
same referent as another concept. But if your are going to
call that elimination, what are you going to call
what happened to phlogiston? Extermination?


If here you want to say that phlogiston was eliminated, then you are
clearly using the word in a non-standard way.


No, you are, because elimnativism and reductionism are
different ideas.


 Phlogiston is just a
theoretical term of an incorrect theory of combustion, and hence no
longer has a place in the replacement theory.



 Heat, on the other
hand, is believed to refer correctly to a more fundamental underlying
molecular phenomenon, and hence can be retained as a theoretical
concept, though eliminated as a fundamental entity in its own right.


Fine. So reductionist materialists only believe that mind doesn't
exist in its own right...whereas eliminativists believe it doesn't
exist at all.


The reductionist programme seeks to eliminate any need (in
principle) to appeal to any and all non-fundamental ontological
entities in precisely this way, and hence show ontology as  
resting on
a single fundamental base, thereby situating composite entities  
at the

epistemological level.



It is hard to see what you mean by epistemological there.
I don't think it is a synonym for non fundamental


In effect, it *is* a synonym for non-fundamental.  If, as reductive
programmes envisage, ontology can be grounded somewhere in a finite
set of ultimate entities and their relations, then non-fundamental
entities (composites) must be aspects of what we know, not what  
things

ultimately are.


They are neither: they are what things non-ultimately are.

Aspects of knowledge would be things like truth and justification


That's correct. But if that analysis was possibly successful, there  
would be no HP. Consciousness does exist in its own right, unlike  
heat, and so the analogy with heat break down ... unless you push the  
comp hypothesis to its ultimate conclusion and make primitive matter a  
convenient fiction. In that reversed direction we attach an immaterial  
(and self-referential property like knowledge Bp ( p)), to an  
immaterial entity (well an infinity of them). The hard problem comes  
from the insistence to privilege a particular type of 'physical'  
implementation. Consciousness becomes a person attribute, like a  
belief in a reality, and we can explain why it has unfathomable  
feature, why it is not definable, etc. matter becomes more complex to  
recover, and that is the point of the reversal. Appearance of matter  
does not disappear though, as the logic of the consistent belief and  
knowledge (the modality defined by Bp  Dp ( p) illustrate.


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Movie cannot think

2011-03-09 Thread stephenk


On Mar 9, 11:33 am, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:
 On Mar 9, 1:24 pm, Andrew Soltau andrewsol...@gmail.com wrote:



  On 08/03/11 16:14, Brent Meeker wrote: On 3/8/2011 3:14 AM, Andrew Soltau 
  wrote:
   What I am driving at here is the same question as in the email Comp.
   Granted that all possible states exist, what changes the point of the
   present moment from one to another. My referring to 'the thinker' was
   probably not a helpful metaphor. Given the universal numbers, what
   carries out the process whereby one is transformed into another? What
   makes the state of the thinker or the dreamer into the state of that
   entity at the next moment?

   Andrew

   I think the idea is analogous to the block universe.  In Platonia all
   the states of the thinker and his relation to the world are
   computed in a timeless way.

  OK. But for any given definition of the thinker, there is a version of
  the world to which he corresponds. Whether considered as a physical
  entity, or a mind or a record of observations, I am instantiated in a
  specific version of the universe. On observation, this state changes.
  The observer is now in a new and different state, and is instantiated in
  a new and different version of the universe.

  If one steps back and looks at all the possible states of the thinker,
  existing in all the different corresponding states of the universe at
  each moment, the result is themoviefilm Barbour refers to. This is a
  timeless situation.

   The impression of time for the thinker is recovered by putting the
   states into a sequence which is implicitly defined by their content.

  So then you have a sequence, but still nothing actually happens. This is
  exactly the scenario Deutsch addresses.

  /Nothing/ can move from one moment to another. To exist at all at a
  particular moment means to exist there for ever. (1997, 263; his italics)

  One seems to pass from moment to moment, experiencing change. Deutsch,
  however, declares that this can only be an illusion.

  We do not experience time flowing, or passing. What we experience are
  differences between our present perceptions and our present memories of
  past perceptions. We interpret those differences, correctly, as evidence
  that the universe changes with time. We also interpret them,
  incorrectly, as evidence that our consciousness, or the present, or
  something, moves through time. (1997, 263)

 Movement of or through time is dismissed too easily here. Why don we
 have to experience our history one moment at a time  if it
 all already exists (albeit with a sequential structure)

  Physically, this is unassailable.

 Hmm. The arguments in favour of the block universe are actually
 rather subtle

  However, we can explain the appearance
  of change very neatly, by saying that the frame of reference is changed,
  from one moment to the next to the next, with no change in anything
  physical.

 The Frame of Reference being non-physical?

 The only drawback is that this requires something 'outside' of
  the moments, and there is nothing outside the multiverse. The solution I
  propose is that phenomenal consciousness is an emergent property of this
  unitary system as a whole.

 If it is a property of the whole system, why are we each only
 conscious of one small spatio temporal area? Why bring consciousness
 in at all? Why not have a time-cursor that is responsible for
 the passage of time?

  In other words, this process is to the
  moments the way the computational capability of a computer is to the
  frames of amoviein solid state memory.
  Based on that, my belief is that, in the collapse dynamics of quantum
  mechanics, we have discovered evidence for a property of the unitary
  system in action, we just haven't recognised it as such. Which is why it
  gives rise to all the puzzles it does.

   Brent



There may be a solution to the question of finiteness, such as in
why are we each only conscious of one small spatio temporal area? A
possible answer is that our consciousness involves the consumption of
free energy (work) that does not have access to infinite power
supplies within any finite duration.  Action is defined in units of
energy and time This also can be related to the Bekenstein bound.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bekenstein_bound

Onward!

Stephen

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