Artificial Intelligence may be far easier than generally thought

2008-09-22 Thread marc . geddes

Let the algorithm that represents the brain of a typical new-born baby
be denoted as B1.

Now surely we can agree that the brain of a new-born baby does not
have sophisticated Bayesian machinary built into it?  Yes, there must
be *some* intrinsic built-in reasoning structure, but everything we
know suggests that the intrinsic reasoning mechanisms of the human
brain must be quite weak and simple.

Let the algorithm which represents the brain of the baby B1 which grew
up into a 20-year old with a PhD in Bayesian math be denoted as B2.

Now somehow, the algorithm B1 was able to 'optimze' its original
reasoning mechanisms by a smooth transformation into B2. (assume there
was 'brain surgery', no 'hand coding').

The environment! you may shout.  The baby got all its information from
human culture (Reading math books, learning from math professors), you
might try to argue, that's how B1 (baby) was able to transform into B2
(PhD in Bayes)

But this cant be correct.  Since, humans existed long before Bayesian
math was developed.  Every single Bayesian technique had to be
developed by a human in the past, without being told.  So in theory,
B1 could have grown into B2 entirely on its own, without being told
anything by anyone  about Bayesian math.

The conclusion:

*There exists a very simple algorithm which is only a very weak
approximation to PhD Bayesian reasoning, which is perfectly capable of
recursive self-improvement to the PhD level!  No hand coding of
advanced Bayesian math is needed.

Or to simply rephrase:

Humans could reason before they discovered Bayes.




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Artificial Intelligence may be far easier than generally thought

2008-09-22 Thread marc . geddes

*NM*
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Re: Regarding Aesthetics

2008-09-09 Thread marc . geddes



On Sep 9, 9:04 am, Günther Greindl [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Here is a pertinent paper, just published:

 Unmasking the Truth Beneath the Beauty: Why the Supposed Aesthetic
 Judgements Made in Science May Not Be Aesthetic at All

 Cain S. Todd
 International Studies in the Philosophy of Science, Volume 22, Issue 1
 March 2008 , pages 61 - 79
 DOI: 10.1080/02698590802280910


 Cheers,
 Günther

If it comes down to an argument , between a computer scientist and a
philosopher, never trust the philosopher.

It's time for me to call in my big guns Jürgen Schmidhuber
http://www.idsia.ch/~juergen/beauty.html


Cheers
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Re: Regarding Aesthetics

2008-09-09 Thread marc . geddes

Gunther,

Let me further clarify:

The problem with Bayesianism is that there is no precise definition of
'simplicity' and 'complexity' for finite strings, which is needed to
effectively apply the principle of Occam's razor.  To elaborate:

(a)  There is no measure of simplicity/complexity for finite strings
(b)  There is no way to justify why compressed descriptions of
theories should be favored (Occam's razor)

We then apply Schmidhuber's theory of beauty.  According to
Schmidhuber:

Schmidhuber's Beauty Postulate (1994-2006): Among several patterns
classified as comparable by some subjective observer, the
subjectively most beautiful is the one with the simplest (shortest)
description, given the observer's particular method for encoding and
memorizing it. See refs [1-5]

 http://www.idsia.ch/~juergen/beauty.html

Then, its clear that (a) and (b) are in fact being resolved via
aesthetic judgements.




On Sep 9, 6:09 pm, [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 On Sep 9, 9:04 am, Günther Greindl [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

  Here is a pertinent paper, just published:

  Unmasking the Truth Beneath the Beauty: Why the Supposed Aesthetic
  Judgements Made in Science May Not Be Aesthetic at All

  Cain S. Todd
  International Studies in the Philosophy of Science, Volume 22, Issue 1
  March 2008 , pages 61 - 79
  DOI: 10.1080/02698590802280910

  Cheers,
  Günther

 If it comes down to an argument , between a computer scientist and a
 philosopher, never trust the philosopher.

 It's time for me to call in my big guns Jürgen 
 Schmidhuberhttp://www.idsia.ch/~juergen/beauty.html

 Cheers
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10 Big Cog-Sci/AGI ideas

2008-09-09 Thread marc . geddes

*NM*
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Re: Regarding Aesthetics

2008-09-09 Thread marc . geddes



On Sep 10, 5:06 pm, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 Yes there is.  In fact descriptions with fewer free parameters are 
 automatically
 favored by Bayesian inference.

 http://quasar.as.utexas.edu/papers/ockham.pdf

 Brent Meeker


Nice try.  That's an interesting paper, but it's merely one guys
attempt to try to define the problem in terms of Bayesianism.  It does
not provide solutions to (a) and (b), which remain unresolved.

These types of attempts to try to reduce Occam's razor to Bayes soon
run into a big big problem, which I have already mentioned:

There is more than one meaure of complexity.  For example,
*information* is not the same thing as *knowledge*.  Shannon
information is simply a measure of the degree of randomness in a
string, whereas *knowledge* is more a measure of the amount of work
that went into producing a string (ie it is *meaningful* information).

Effective use of Occam's razor also requires us to judge the
simplicity/complexity of *meaningful information* (ie knowledge), not
just Shannon information.  Bayesianism Induction cannot possibly do
this, since it cannot handle the *semantics* (meaning) of the
information, only the Shannon information.  This it is because it only
deals with the *functional* aspects of information... ie patterns as
they appear to external observers, rather than what the patterns
signify ( the *semantic* aspects of information).
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Re: The Super-Intelligence (SI) speaks: An imaginary dialogue

2008-09-02 Thread marc . geddes



On Sep 2, 6:27 pm, Colin Hales [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Hello again Jesse,
 I am going to assume that by trashing computationalism that Marc Geddes
 has enough ammo to vitiate Eleizer's various predilections so... to
 that end...

To make it clear, I'm not trashing computaionalism. I maintain that
comp is true (See what Bruno said).

It's Bayesianism I'm trashing.  And yes, I now have enough
'intellectual ammo' to crush Yudkowsky.

Cheers
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Re: The Super-Intelligence (SI) speaks: An imaginary dialogue

2008-09-01 Thread marc . geddes



On Sep 2, 1:56 pm, Colin Hales [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Hi Marc,

 */Eliezer/*'s hubris about a Bayesian approach to intelligence is
 nothing more than the usual 'metabelief' about a mathematics... or about
 computation... meant in the sense that cognition is computation, where
 computation is done BY the universe (with the material of the universe
 used to manipulate abstract symbols)
 /search?hl=ensa=Xoi=spellresnum=0ct=resultcd=1q=Eliezer+Yudkowskysp­ell=1.

 *You don't have to work so hard to walk away from that approach...*


Hi Colin,

The chess computer 'Deep Blue' was computational, and could play chess
better than the (then) chess world champion, Gary Kasparov.  But that
didn't mean that the programmers understood all the chess, or all the
chess had already been played.  So I don't think your argument is a
good one.  You can't rebut Yudkowsy's approach as easily as that ;)

But I kind of understand your sentiment, and agree that science can't
(and shouldn't be) reduced to mere Bayesian probability shuffling.
There are aesthetic judgements involved in science, and I don't think
any precise mathematical definition of these aesthetic notions is
possible, as Bruno has already opined.Yudkowsky's excessive faith
in Bayesian Induction is definitely his weakness.  But that doesn't
mean we can't make a computational super-intelligence.

Cheers


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10 Big Cog-Sci/AGI ideas: I'm ready to beat Eliezer Yudkowsky!

2008-08-30 Thread marc . geddes

I am here providing a summary of my '10 big ideas' for Cog-Sci/AGI.
No justifcation is provided as of yet (that is, my purpose here is
merely to clearly and briefly state my 10 big ideas).  Their status at
this time is of entertaining speculation only.

So here's the 10 big ideas:

(1)  The extreme low entropy density at the beginning of time and the
predictable increase in entropy shows that the universe can be thought
of an RPOP [Really Powerful Optimization Process] (albiet an extremely
poorly optimized one).  This is NOT to say that the increase in
entropy is the purpose of the universe (that would be ludicrous),
rather than the increase in entropy shows that there is a universal
optimization pressure, and the universe can be thought of as an
integrated, time asymmetric system.  Thus, there are universal
terminal values.

(2)  The universal terminal values are ultimately grounded in
aesthetics.  That is to say, there may be a huge myriad of worth-while
terminal values, but my claim is that these are all special cases of
'beauty'.  That is,  the creation of beauty is the actual purpose of
the universe (the thing being optimized by the universal RPOP).

(3)  Bayesian reasoning is NOT the ultimate system of rational
calculation.  In fact, analogy formation IS.  Whereas, conventional
Bayesians would regard analogy formation as a special case of Bayes,
my claim is that the converse is actually the case... it is actually
Bayes that is a special case of analogy formation, and analogy
formation in the most general sense cannot be reduced to Bayesian
reasoning.

(4)  The precise mathematics of analogy formation utilizes the
concepts of *category theory*.  Analogy formation is equivalent to
*ontology merging* - the mapping of a concept from one knowledge
domain, to another knowledge domain.  Ultimately,ontology/KR
[Knowledge Representation] is all of effective intelligence.  That is,
my claim is that all the puzzles of cognitive science/AI are merely
sub-problems of ontology/KR.  Theres a simple formula of category
theory which tells you exactly how to calculate the 'semantic
distance' between any two concepts and carry out the mapping between
them.  Bayes theorem is merely a special case of this formula.  This
formula is the *real* secret to the universe!

(5)  A fully general purpose ontology results in the stratification of
reality into three levels - the *platonic* level (which is timeless,
and is basically equivalent the Tegmark universe), consisting of
*platonic archetypes* (abstractions); the *system* level, consisting
of reality as seen by an observers - dynamical systems with input,
processing and output; and the *artifact* level, consisting of static
*things* that are outputs of the system level above it.

(6)  From (5) - There exist real *platonic mathematical forms*, which
are outside space and time (platonic level), *mathematical systems* ,
which are the implemented algorithms seen by observers inside space
and time, and finally *mathematical artifacts*, which are the
onotologies by which observers classify reality.

(7)  Ontologies are the means by which we *reflect* on knowledge.
They are the *internal language of the mind* which we use to
*communicate* (map) logical concepts from one domain to another.  The
formula referred to in my claim (4) provides the solution to the
problem of goal stability - it tells you exactly how a mind can hold a
stable goal system under reflection - recall - this formula is not
Bayesian - instead it uses the math of category theory to show how to
map a concept from one knowledge domain (ontology) to another
knowledge domain (ontology).

(8)  Consciousness is generated by the aforementioned *ontology
merging* (which, recall, I'm claiming is equivalent to *analogy
formation*).  It is simply the integration of concepts from different
knowledge domains.

(9)  The ultimately non-Bayesian nature of true, general purpose
intelligence is a consequence of Occam's razor.  Occam's razar states
that the simple is favored over the complex.  Popper showed that there
are an inifnite number of theories compatible with any given finite
set of observations - successful induction requires an non-Bayesian
ingredient - this the means of *setting the priors* to reduce the
number of initial possibilities under consideration to manageable
number.  Occam's razor itself cannot be reduced to Bayes, because
judgements about what is simple and complex depend on *the semantics*
(logical meaning) of the theories under consideration, whereas Bayes
only deals with predication sequences - detection of externally
observable patterns.  Bayes only deals with *functionality*
(externally observable consequences) - full intelligence deals with
*semantics* (the meaning of concepts), and this goes beyond mere
Bayesian probability shuffling.

(10) The universal terminal values (which, recall, I'm suggesting are
all sub-values of 'beauty'), are a consequence of (1)-(9). Recall,
that I said that I thought that 

Re: Intelligence, Aesthetics and Bayesianism: Game over!

2008-07-31 Thread marc . geddes


On Jul 31, 1:26 am, Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:



  Popper showed that an infinite number of theories is compatible is any
  given set of finite observations.  Mere algorithmic shuffling to
  calculate Pr(B) probablities according to the Bayes formula won't help
  much. Successful induction needs principles to set the priors are set
  correctly.

 Yes, I was partially agreeing with you. Psychotic people often still
 manage very well with deductive reasoning, but they get the big
 picture wrong, obviously and ridiculously wrong. So there must be more
 to discovering truth about the world than mere algorithmic shuffling.

 --
 Stathis Papaioannou- Hide quoted text -


Ah.  Good.  Glad to hear you agree.  Incidentally, there was a feature
in the last edition of 'New Scientist' in the 'Opinion' section, about
what's wrong with 'excessive rationality':

http://www.newscientist.com/contents/issue/2666.html


The idea is that good mathematics is beautiful. Good music and paintings
often have a deep mathematical structure.

No reason to throw away the math.


Cheers,
Günther


True Gunther, but working out math ain't my job, and I don't need it
to built an AI any way.  AI's an engineering problem, not a science
problem.  I'm not terribly concerned about *what is* (science),
I'm a lot more interested in *what could be* (creative hacking).

There's far too many geeks on Internet messageboards and blogs
babbling away about abstract theories of *what is* (science).  This
detracts from the business of actually working on *what could be*
(creative hacking)

The *what is* of pure math, has a practical counterpart - the *what
could be* of ontology and computer programming ;)  We don't need to
understand the pure math to do the ontology and programming ;)  Just
good design principles.


Cheers
MJG
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Re: Intelligence, Aesthetics and Bayesianism: Game over!

2008-07-30 Thread marc . geddes



On Jul 30, 1:22 am, Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 I've long been puzzled by the phenomenon of delusion in intelligent,
 rational people who develop psychotic illness. For example, out of the
 blue, someone starts to believe that their family have been replaced
 by impostors. Their facility with deductive logic remains intact, and
 it is tempting to try to argue with them to show that their belief is
 false, but it doesn't work. The Bayes equation is:

 Pr(A|B) = Pr(B|A).Pr(A)/Pr(B)
 A = they are impostors
 B = they're acting weird

 The problem is that they overestimate Pr(A), the prior probability,
 and underestimate Pr(B). A very dull, but sane, person can see this,
 but they can't. Intelligence doesn't seem to help at all.

 --
 Stathis Papaioannou-

Um. I'm not totally sure what relevance this has to what I posted.

Popper showed that an infinite number of theories is compatible is any
given set of finite observations.  Mere algorithmic shuffling to
calculate Pr(B) probablities according to the Bayes formula won't help
much. Successful induction needs principles to set the priors are set
correctly.

Which is largely based on aesthetic judgements.  Read the Graham
essay:
http://www.paulgraham.com/taste.html

You'll get it some day - unfortunately, I suspect, the mererely
Bayesian probablity shuffling you're using to update your beliefs may
take an inifinite time to converge to my beliefs ;)

Cheers
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Re: Intelligence, Aesthetics and Bayesianism: Game over!

2008-07-30 Thread marc . geddes

But what is aesthetics the study of? Of beauty? That's it isn't it?
But how can something as plastic as beauty have any kind of
terminal
value that you and I can both share?  Do aesthetic terminal values
decide where something fits into aesthetic reality or something
like
that? By the way, thanks for showing that artistic intelligence
may
actually represent a form of scientific understanding, a thought
dear
to my heart.

Kim Jones
--

Marc,
I would agree with you that aesthetics is an important driving
principle, and the top scientist _do_ recognize this (see for
instance
many quotes by Albert Einstein in this direction).
Also, you should have a look at Nietzsche - science and the aesthetic
pervade his work!
Cheers,
Günther

Yes, good Kim and Gunther- I’m now adopting the radical belief that
intelligence has a lot more to do with art, than math ;)

Good initial link on aesthetics:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aesthetics

So throw away all those math books , forget about Bayes, and start
studying the arts: painting, music and so on and so forth.

We’ll finally solve the AI stuff…with art.


On Jul 30, 2:34 am, Günther Greindl [EMAIL PROTECTED]
wrote:
 Marc,

 I would agree with you that aesthetics is an important driving
 principle, and the top scientist _do_ recognize this (see for instance
 many quotes by Albert Einstein in this direction).

 Also, you should have a look at Nietzsche - science and the aesthetic
 pervade his work!

 Cheers,
 Günther





 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
  Two issues I wish to mention, here.

  Firstly, I present a few rapid-fire ideas about objective morality,
  culminating in an integration of aesthetics, intelligence, and
  morality, all in a few brief sentences ;)

  Secondly, I give a mention to computer scientist Randy Pausch, who
  recently died.

  As regards the first issue:

  It’s been said there are clear ways to determine physical and
  mathematical facts, but nothing similar for values. But, in point (2)
  below I point out what appears to be an objectively existing set of
  values which underlies *all* of science.  I present two brief but
  profound points that I what readers to consider and ponder carefully:

  Point (1) there is a clear evolution to the universe. It started from
  a low-entropy-density state, and is moving towards a higher-entropy
  density, which, remarkably, just happens to coincide with an increase
  in physical complexity with time. In the beginning the universe was in
  a state with *the lowest possible* entropy. This is expressed in the
  laws of thermodynamics and big bang cosmology. So it simply isn’t true
  that there is no teleology (purpose) built into the universe. The laws
  of thermodynamics and modern cosmology (big bang theory) clearly
  express the fact that there is.

  Point (2) the whole of science relies on Occam’s razor, the idea that
  the universe is in some sense ‘simple’. It must be emphasized that
  Occam’s razor pervades all of science – it is not simply some sort of
  ‘add on’. As Popper pointed out, an infinite number of theories could
  explain any given set of observations; therefore any inductive
  generalization requires a principle – Occam’s razor – to get any
  useful results at all.

  Here is the point that most haven’t quite grasped - Occam’s razor is
  *a set of aesthetic principles* - the notion of ‘simplicity’ is *a set
  of aesthetic principles*; Why? Because it is simply another way of
  saying that some representations are more *elegant* than others, which
  is the very notion of aesthetics! I repeat: the whole of science only
  works because of a set of *aesthetic principles* - a *set of values*.

  If all values are only subjective preferences, it would follow that
  the whole of science relies on subjective preferences. But subjective
  preferences have only existed as long as sentiments – therefore how
  could physical laws have functioned before sentiments? The idea that
  all values are subjective leads to a direct and blatant logical
  contradiction.

  Both these points are related and simply inexplicable without
  appealing to objective terminal values. At the beginning of time the
  universe was in the simplest possible state (minimal entropy density).
  Why? Occam’s razor is wide-ranging and pervades the whole of science.
  The simple is favored over the complex – that is– Occam’s razor is a
  set of aesthetic value judgments without which not a single Bayesian
  result could be obtained.

  *Every single Bayesian result rests on these implicit value judgments*
  to set priors. It must be repeated that *not one single scientific
  result could be obtained* without these secret (implicit) value
  judgments which set priors, that our defenders of the Bayesian faith
  on these forums are trying to pretend are not part of science!

  The secret to intelligence is aesthetics, not Bayesian math.
  Initially, this statement seems preposterous, but the argument in the
  next paragraph is my whole 

Intelligence, Aesthetics and Bayesianism: Game over!

2008-07-29 Thread marc . geddes

Two issues I wish to mention, here.

Firstly, I present a few rapid-fire ideas about objective morality,
culminating in an integration of aesthetics, intelligence, and
morality, all in a few brief sentences ;)

Secondly, I give a mention to computer scientist Randy Pausch, who
recently died.

As regards the first issue:

It’s been said there are clear ways to determine physical and
mathematical facts, but nothing similar for values. But, in point (2)
below I point out what appears to be an objectively existing set of
values which underlies *all* of science.  I present two brief but
profound points that I what readers to consider and ponder carefully:

Point (1) there is a clear evolution to the universe. It started from
a low-entropy-density state, and is moving towards a higher-entropy
density, which, remarkably, just happens to coincide with an increase
in physical complexity with time. In the beginning the universe was in
a state with *the lowest possible* entropy. This is expressed in the
laws of thermodynamics and big bang cosmology. So it simply isn’t true
that there is no teleology (purpose) built into the universe. The laws
of thermodynamics and modern cosmology (big bang theory) clearly
express the fact that there is.

Point (2) the whole of science relies on Occam’s razor, the idea that
the universe is in some sense ‘simple’. It must be emphasized that
Occam’s razor pervades all of science – it is not simply some sort of
‘add on’. As Popper pointed out, an infinite number of theories could
explain any given set of observations; therefore any inductive
generalization requires a principle – Occam’s razor – to get any
useful results at all.

Here is the point that most haven’t quite grasped - Occam’s razor is
*a set of aesthetic principles* - the notion of ‘simplicity’ is *a set
of aesthetic principles*; Why? Because it is simply another way of
saying that some representations are more *elegant* than others, which
is the very notion of aesthetics! I repeat: the whole of science only
works because of a set of *aesthetic principles* - a *set of values*.

If all values are only subjective preferences, it would follow that
the whole of science relies on subjective preferences. But subjective
preferences have only existed as long as sentiments – therefore how
could physical laws have functioned before sentiments? The idea that
all values are subjective leads to a direct and blatant logical
contradiction.

Both these points are related and simply inexplicable without
appealing to objective terminal values. At the beginning of time the
universe was in the simplest possible state (minimal entropy density).
Why? Occam’s razor is wide-ranging and pervades the whole of science.
The simple is favored over the complex – that is– Occam’s razor is a
set of aesthetic value judgments without which not a single Bayesian
result could be obtained.

*Every single Bayesian result rests on these implicit value judgments*
to set priors. It must be repeated that *not one single scientific
result could be obtained* without these secret (implicit) value
judgments which set priors, that our defenders of the Bayesian faith
on these forums are trying to pretend are not part of science!

The secret to intelligence is aesthetics, not Bayesian math.
Initially, this statement seems preposterous, but the argument in the
next paragraph is my whole point, so it merits careful reading (the
paragraph is marked with a * to show this is the crux of this post):

*As regards the optimization of science, the leverage obtained from
setting the priors (Occam’s razor – aesthetics – art) is far greater
that that obtained from logical manipulations to update probabilities
based on additional empirical data (math). Remember, the aesthetic
principles used to set the priors (Occam’s razor) reduce a potentially
infinite set of possible theories to a manageable (finite) number,
whereas laborious mathematical probability updates based on incoming
empirical data (standard Bayesian theory) is only guaranteed to
converge on the correct theory after an infinite time, and even then
the reason for the convergence is entirely inexplicable.

The * paragraph suggests that aesthetics is the real basis of
intelligence, not Bayesian math, and further that aesthetic terminal
values are objectively real.

For those who do initially find these claims preposterous, to help
overcome your initial disbelief, I point to a superb essay from well-
respected computer hacker, Paul Graham, who explains why aesthetics
plays a far greater role in science than many have realized:

‘Taste for Makers’: http://www.paulgraham.com/taste.html

As regards the second issue, I’d like to draw readers’ attention to
computer scientist Randy Pausch. Randy Pausch was a computer scientist
who developed the famous ‘Alice’ software to teach programming in a
virtual reality setting. He was a virtual reality expert, a professor
in Human-Computer Interaction at Carnegie Mellon University. In

Re: UDA Step 7

2008-03-28 Thread marc . geddes

Hi guys,

Well, Bruno may be interested to know that I've finally come around to
COMP.

I do now agree, everything emerges from mathematics.  Nevertheless,
the mathematical world does *appear* to seperate into three different
domains; *physical* (material), *teleological* (goal directed) and
*abstract math*, which *look* very different to each other.  My
misunderstanding was based on the fact that I couldn't (and still
don't fully) see how they could be the same.  But yes, I'm now
convinced of COMP.

The relationship is subtle, but I'm now think that the *Mathematical*
domain is primary (most general), the *Teleological* domain is less
general, and the *Physical* domain is least general.

So Math is the bedrock, which supercedes Teleology, which in turn
supercedes Physics.

---

As regards the Consciousness discussion, there are three things you
need to remember about it;

(1) It's not a thing, it's a process
(2) It's not just a *physical* process, it's also a *mathematical*
process
(3) It's not just what the process *does* (it's function), it's what
the process *signifies*

I think if you just bear in mind these 3 simple points about
consciousness, you won't go far wrong.

After about 6 years of ganashing my teeth and nearly going insane
thinking about these issues, I have now reached my own tentative (in
principle) answers on most of the big questions, to my own
satisfaction.

---

I don't think *any* of the current scientific or philosophical
persepctives on consciousness are quite right.

Consciousness *is* physical, but it's not *just* physical, it also
extends into the mathematical domain.  So I think that none of the
materialist or dualist positions are correct.  I was fooled by
*functionalism* for a while, but I don't think that's quite right
either.  See point (3) above - it's true that consciousness is a
process, just as the functionalists say. but it's not what the process
*does* (functionalism) that is identical to consciousness, but what
the process *signifies* - consciousness is a *logical representation*
of the meaning of a concept - it is a *language* for representing
concepts - this is NOT the same thing as functionalism.

Cheers all


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Re: UDA Step 7

2008-03-28 Thread marc . geddes



On Mar 28, 11:08 pm, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Hi Marc,

 Le 28-mars-08, à 08:53, [EMAIL PROTECTED] a écrit :



  Hi guys,

  Well, Bruno may be interested to know that I've finally come around to
  COMP.

 OK.



  I do now agree, everything emerges from mathematics.  Nevertheless,
  the mathematical world does *appear* to seperate into three different
  domains; *physical* (material), *teleological* (goal directed) and
  *abstract math*, which *look* very different to each other.

 Sure. I would add psychology, theology, sociology, etc.

Well, perform a top-level decomposition of knowledge domains from the
most to the least general, and you can actuallly catch math in the act
of dividing into different knowledge domains.   It's true that any
such classification of reality is a mental construct, but this does
not mean that all classification schemes are equal...some are far more
useful than others and a careful decomposition of knowledge domains
results in a single unified scheme 'dropping out' mathematical
categories start to *decompose*, or *crystallize* into the reality we
experience.

Here's the beginning of my proposed decomposition (most abstract
first, moving down through the list you move down through the
knowledge hierarchy - so for example, Category Theory is most general,
it 'eats' Algebra, which in turn 'eats' Discrete Math and so on down
the list)

PLATONIC (MULTIVERSE LEVEL)

Category Theory - Calculus, Analysis, Number Theory, Peano Axioms, ZF-
Set Theory
Algebra-  Field, Group, Ring
Discrete Math - Algorithm, Cellular automation, Church-Turing,
Combinatoraics, Computability, Godel, Lob, Graph Theory, Iteration,
Recurison
 Aesthetics - Beauty, Sublimity
Morality - Ethics, Social Contract, Utilarianism, Consequentalism
Virtue - Archetype, Virtue Ethics
Field Physics - Geometry, Standard Model, Trigonometry, Relativity
Mechanics - Classical Mechanics, Hamiltonian Models, Lagrangian
Mechanics
Digital Physics - Computational Complexity, P=NP, Kolmogorov
Complexity



COMPUTATIONAL LEVEL (REALITY AS SEEN BY AN OBSERVER)

Reflective Reasoning - Analogy formation, Prototyping, Consciousness
Probability Theory - Bayes, Inductive Reasoning, Bayesian Networks
Symbolic Logic - Boolean Algebra, First-Order Logic, Predicate Logic,
Modal Logic
Communication - Emotion, Linguistics, Semantics, Semiotics
Decision Theory - Economics, Pareto Efficientcy, Game Theory, Utility
Psychology -  Developmental, Evolutionary, Social
Data Communications - Information Theory, Information Integration,
Global WorkSpace
Thermodynamics - Memory-Prediction Model, Memory, Neural Network,
0th-3rd Laws
Chemistry - Chemical Kinematics



OBJECT LEVEL (ARTIFACTS - BY PRODUCTS OF COMPUTATIONAL LEVEL)

Data Modeling / High Level - Ontology, Relational Databases, Semantic
Web, Lisp, Ruby
Software Architectures/ Mid Level  - Design Pattern, Object Oriented,
Java
Operating Systems/Low Level  - Linux, Windows, DOS, C Programming
Language
Sociology - Group, Role
Politics - Democracy, Humanism, Socialism, Libertarianism
Narrative Art - Fantasy, Science Fiction, Computer Games
Virtual Reality - HTML, XML, World Wide Web, Human-Computer
Interaction, GUI
Mechanical Engineering - Computer Engineering, Internet,
Telecommunications, Robotics
Solid State Physics - Chemical Engineering, Nanotechnology, Electrical
Engineering, Circuits

--

Do you see how the original mathematical categories decompose and how
there's a neat knowledge hierarcy emerging?  All of these fields have
in some sense *emerged* purely from *mathematical categories*, and
each fits neatly in its rightful place.

As of 2008, only the people on the everything-list start to see
all ;)

Here we are.born to be kings.
Were the princes of the universe.
Here we belong.fighting to survive.
In a world with the darkest powers.
And here we are.were the princes of the universe.
Here we belong.fighting for survival.
Weve come to be the rulers of your world.
I am immortal.i have inside me blood of kings.
I have no rival.no man can be my equal.
Take me to the future of your world.
Born to be kings.princes of the universe.
Fighting and free.got your world in my hand.
Im here for your love and Ill make my stand.
We were born to be princes of the universe.
No man could understand.my power is in my own hand.
Ooh.ooh.ooh.ooh.people talk about you.
People say youve had your day.
Im a man that will go far.
Fly the moon and reach for the stars.
With my sword and head held high.
Got to pass the test first time - yeah.
I know that people talk about me I hear it every day.
But I can prove you wrong cos Im right first time.
Yeah.yeah.alright.watch this man fly.
Bring on the girls.
Here we are.born to be kings.were the princes of
The universe.here we belong.born to be kings.
Princes of the universe.fighting and free.
Got the world in my hands.Im here for your love.
And Ill make my stand.
We were born to be princes of the universe.

- Queen, Princes of the Universe




Paper: MCRT: An Upper Ontology for General Purpose Reality Modeling' (Brief, 2 600 words)

2008-03-22 Thread marc . geddes

'MCRT: An Upper Ontology for General Purpose Reality Modeling'


By Marc Geddes
Sydney, Australia
22th March, 2008

Abstract
In this paper I explore the consequence of two assumptions:
(1) A model of reality can be entirely captured by an Upper Ontology
and Data Models are Logical Communications
(2) A method of general purpose reality modeling is equivalent to a
Universal Parser


Introduction

To design a general purpose method of reality modeling I assume that
such a method is equivalent to a 'universal parser' - ie. A system of
translation between different logical representations of concepts.
High-level logical representations (ie data models) can be considered
as methods of logical communication.  Thus, the aim is the
construction of an Upper Ontology capable of encompassing all other
ontologies (ie a general purpose representation of the domain
'knowledge' which enables the translation between all other more
specific ontologies (ie general purpose ontology merging).

Previously, I designed the skeleton out-line of the Upper Ontology
('Top Level Domain Model of the Mathematico-Cognition Reality Theory',
Marc Geddes, First correct version: 4th Dec, 2007, everything-list).
This is MCRT (the Mathematico-Cognition Reality Theory).  It appears
that the process of data modeling can be separated into three general
types: Mathematical (Software Development - or SD), Teleological (The
creation of value systems - ie. Story Narration - or SN) and Physical
(Virtual Reality - or VR).  The initial aim then, is the elaboration
of MCRT, the development of the triple-aspect ontology and the study
of the relationships between SD, SN and VR ontologies.

Initial Knowledge Base: MCRT Ontology

MCRT Upper Ontology provides a skeleton structure for the proposed
Upper Ontology .  This paper provides the beginnings of the
specification of MCRT Upper Ontology.

MCRT is an Upper Ontology, an abstract top-level representation of
'reality' at the highest possible level of description.

Knowledge Domains

Sub-domains of reality are areas of 'Concept Space'(CS) classified by
three KR axes.

1st Axis: Physics, Teleology, Mathematics
2nd Axis: Platonic, Cognition, Artifact
3rd Axis:  Independent, Relative, Mediating

A brief description of each axis follows.  The meaning of each domain
is then elaborated on through references to known fields and examples.

1st Axis:

Physics (PHY): Domains related to material entities.  Concerned with
space and geometry - or the classification of whether things are
'Solid' or 'Empty'.

Teleology (TEL): Domains related to goal directed entities.  Concerned
with values - or the classification of whether things are 'Good' or
'Bad' relative to agents.

Mathematics (MAT): Domains related to knowledge itself (meta-data).
Concerned with logicalimplications - or the classification of
models of reality as 'True' or 'False'.

2nd Axis:
Platonic (PLA): Domains related to abstract universal entities. These
are entities which are postulated to be eternal and unchanging, and
cannot be located in any finite region of reality (they are
abstract).  This is simply anything which is 'abstract', 'constant',
and 'applicable to any region of reality'.

Cognition (COG): Domains related to systems.  Systems have three main
characteristics: (i) Input, (ii)
Processing, (iii) Output.  Simply, the term means 'system' in the most
general sense.

Artifact (ART): Domains related to particular things.  An artifact is
an instantiated object, a particular instance of something with
particular attributes and behaviours.  This is close to the meaning of
'object' in the sense of OOP (Object Oriented Programming).

3rd Axis:

Independent (IND): Domains related to intrinsic properties.
Properties of things in themselves,  without reference to external
objects.  An 'element' in the most general sense of the term.

Relative (REL): Domains related to functional (external) properties.
The relation or effect something has on things external to itself. A
'function' or 'action' in the most general sense of these terms.

Mediating (MED): Domains related to signifying (semantic) properties.
How something is represented or 'appears' to something else.  An
'icon', 'signal' or 'means of communication' in the most general sense
of the term.

Reference: The third axis is similar to the ontological classification
scheme of Charles Pierce, hence, the same names have been used.
However the definitions given here are not identical to Pierces.

The following summarizes the concepts that each axis attempts to
capture.

1st Axis:
PHY  - Geometry
TEL  -  Value
MAT -  Implication

2nd Axis:
PLA  - Universal (Abstraction)
COG - System (Process)
ART -  Particular (Object)

3rd Axis:
IND -   Comprising (is made of)
REL -  Acting (functions as)
MED -  Signifying (appears as)



The names and areas of knowledge referenced by pairs of the 1st and
2nd axes are as follows:

Mathematico-Platonic:   Pure mathematics
Mathematico-Cognition:  Intelligence/Mind

Re: Paper: MCRT: An Upper Ontology for General Purpose Reality Modeling' (Brief, 2 600 words)

2008-03-22 Thread marc . geddes

I have uploaded the paper as a formatted Word Doc, which is easier on
the eye:

http://everything-list.googlegroups.com/web/MCRTOntology.doc?gda=3dFfBEE6sAh9xrcEfYjLcJeK--tyllM2puGzdo9sGlIZYEi4rGG1qiJ7UbTIup-M2XPURDRrROYvly_CiqS44qlTBAu-5KylSQ9gG5gUBwiOovY3VA


There is also a preliminary UML Domain Model (diagram) of the MCRT,
which I posted on this site before (but this is one is slightly
updated to the final fully correct version).  It is always much easier
to understand something through a visual data model... which after all
is the very essence of logical *communication* . My brief paper can be
thought of as the missing documentation for this diagram.

http://everything-list.googlegroups.com/web/Top%20Level%20Domain%20Model%20of%20the%20Mathematico.mht?gda=5_Mrn146sAh9xrcEfYjLcJeK--tyllM2puGzdo9sGlIZYEi4rGG1qiJ7UbTIup-M2XPURDRZyEDs1_cQYDTyc-3qAHuNivMQ60Yoz7x_O7qBqZtZkgjJ2HNns_RkUb8_lxJZA2M

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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-28 Thread marc . geddes



On Nov 28, 9:56 pm, Torgny Tholerus [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 You only need models of cellular automata.  If you have a model and
 rules for that model, then one event will follow after another event,
 according to the rules.  And after that event will follow another more
 event, and so on unlimited.  The events will follow after eachother even
 if you will not have any implementation of this model.  Any physics is
 not needed.  You don't need any geometric properties.

 In this model you may have a person called Torgny writing a message on a
 google group, and that event may be followed by a person called Marc
 writing a reply to this message.  And you don't need any implementation
 of that model.

 --
 Torgny

A whole lot of unproven assumptions in there.   For starters, we don't
even know that the physical world can be modelled solely in terms of
cellular automata at all.  Digital physics just seems to be the latest
'trendy' thing, but actual evidence is thin on the ground.
Mathematics is much richer than just discrete math.  Discrete math
deals only with finite collections, and as such is just a special case
of algebra.  Algebraic relations extend beyond computational models.
Finally, the introduction of complex analysis, infinite sets and
category theory extends mathematics even further, beyond even
algebraic relations.  So you see that cellular automata are only a
small part of mathematics as a whole.  There is no reason for thinking
for that space is discrete and in fact physics as it stands deals in
continuous differential equations, not cellular automata.

Further, the essential point I was making is that an informational
model of something is not neccesserily the same as the thing itself.
An informational model of a person called Marc would capture only my
mind, not my body.  The information has to be super-imposed upon the
physical, or embodied in the physical world.
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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-27 Thread marc . geddes



On Nov 28, 1:18 am, Günther Greindl [EMAIL PROTECTED]
wrote:
 Dear Marc,

  Physics deals with symmetries, forces and fields.
  Mathematics deals with data types, relations and sets/categories.

 I'm no physicist, so please correct me but IMHO:

 Symmetries = relations
 Forces - could they not be seen as certain invariances, thus also
 relating to symmetries?

 Fields - the aggregate of forces on all spacetime points - do not see
 why this should not be mathematical relation?

  The mathemtical entities are informational.  The physical properties
  are geometric.  Geometric properties cannot be derived from
  informational properties.

 Why not? Do you have a counterexample?

 Regards,
 Günther


Don't get me wrong.  I don't doubt that all physical things can be
*described* by mathematics.  But this alone does not establish that
physical things *are* mathematical.  As I understand it, for the
examples you've given, what happens is that based on emprical
observation, certain primatives of geometry and symmetry are *attached
to* (connected with) mathematical relations, numbers etc which
successfully *describe/predict* these physical properties.  But it
does not follow from this, that the mathematical relations/numbers
*are* the geometric properties/symmetrics.

In order to show that the physical properties *are* the mathematical
properties (and not just described by or connected to the physical
properties), it has to be shown how geometric/physical properties
emerge from/are logically derived from sets/categories/numbers alone.
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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-27 Thread marc . geddes



On Nov 28, 3:16 am, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Le 27-nov.-07, à 05:47, [EMAIL PROTECTED] a écrit :

  Geometric properties cannot be derived from
  informational properties.

 I don't see why. Above all, this would make the computationalist wrong,
 or at least some step in the UDA wrong (but then which one?).

I'll find the flaw in UDA in due course ;)

 I recall that there is an argument (UDA) showing that if comp is true,
 then not only geometry, but physics, has to be derived exclusively from
 numbers and from what numbers can prove (and know, and observe, and
 bet, ...) about themselves, that is from both extensional and
 intensional number theory.
 The UDA shows *why* physics *has to* be derived from numbers (assuming
 CT + yes doctor).
 The Lobian interview explains (or should explain, if you have not yet
 grasp the point) *how* to do that.

 Bruno


If the UDA is sound that would certainly refute what I'm claiming
yes.  I want to see how physics (which as far I'm concerned *is*
geometry - at least I think pure physics=geometry) emerges *purely*
from theories of sets/numbers/categories.

I base my claims on ontological considerations (5 years of deep
thought about ontology), which lead me to strongly suspect the
irreducible property dualism between physical and mathematical
properties.  Thus I'm highly skeptical of UDA but have yet to property
study it.  Lacking resources to do proper study here at the
moment :-(

Time will tell.
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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-26 Thread marc . geddes


When I talk about pure mathematics I mean that kind of mathematics you have 
in GameOfLife.  There you have gliders that move in the GameOfLife-universe, 
and these gliders interact with eachother when they meet.  These gliders you 
can see as physical objects.  These physical objects are reducible to pure 
mathematics, they are the consequences of the rules behind GameOfLife.

--
Torgny

That kind of mathematics - models of cellular automata -  is the
domain of the theory of computation.  These are just that - models.
But there is no reason for thinking that the models or mathematical
rules are identical to the physical entities themselves just because
these rules/models can precisely predict/explain the behaviour of the
physical objects.




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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-26 Thread marc . geddes



On Nov 27, 3:54 am, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


  Besides which, mathematics and physics are dealing with quite
  different distinctions.  It is a 'type error' it try to reduce or
  identity one with the other.

 I don't see why.

Physics deals with symmetries, forces and fields.
Mathematics deals with data types, relations and sets/categories.

The mathemtical entities are informational.  The physical properties
are geometric.  Geometric properties cannot be derived from
informational properties.






  Mathematics deals with logical properties,

 I guess you mean mathematical properties. Since the filure of
 logicism, we know that math is not really related to logic in any way.
 It just happens that a big part of logic appears to be a branch of
 mathemetics, among many other branches.

I would classify logic as part of applied math - logic is a
description of informational systems from the point of view of
observers inside time and space.


  physics deals with spatial
  (geometric) properties.  Although geometry is thought of as math, it
  is actually a branch of physics,

 Actually I do think so. but physics, with comp, has to be the science
 of what the observer can observe, and the observer is a mathematical
 object, and observation is a mathematical object too (with comp).



  since in addition to pure logical
  axioms, all geometry involves 'extra' assumptions or axioms which are
  actually *physical* in nature (not purely mathematical) .

 Here I disagree (so I agree with your preceding post where you agree
 that we agree a lot but for not always for identical reasons).
 Arithmetic too need extra (non logical) axioms, and it is a matter of
 taste (eventually) to put them in the branch of physics or math.

 Bruno


I don't think it's a matter of taste.  I think geoemtry is clearly
physics, arithmetic is clearly pure math.  See above.  Geometry is
about fields, arithmetic (in the most general sense) is about
categories/sets.


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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-25 Thread marc . geddes



On Nov 23, 8:49 pm, Torgny Tholerus [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] skrev:



  As far as I tell tell, all of physics is ultimately
  geometry.  But as we've pointed out on this list many times, a theory
  of physics is *not* a theory of everything, since it makes the
  (probably false) assumption that everything is reducible to physical
  substances and properties.

 I think that everything is reducible to physical substances and
 properties.  And I think that all of physics is reducible to pure
 mathematics...

You can't have it both ways.  If physics was reducible to pure
mathematics, then physics could not be the 'ontological base level' of
reality and hence everything could not be expressed solely in terms of
physical substance and properties.

Besides which, mathematics and physics are dealing with quite
different distinctions.  It is a 'type error' it try to reduce or
identity one with the other.

Mathematics deals with logical properties, physics deals with spatial
(geometric) properties.  Although geometry is thought of as math, it
is actually a branch of physics, since in addition to pure logical
axioms, all geometry involves 'extra' assumptions or axioms which are
actually *physical* in nature (not purely mathematical) .


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Re: Theory of Everything based on E8 by Garrett Lisi

2007-11-22 Thread marc . geddes



On Nov 23, 1:10 am, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 Now such work raises the remark, which I don't really want to develop
 now, which is that qualifiying TOE a theory explaining only forces
 and particles or field, is implicit physicalism, and we know (by UDA)
 that this is incompatible with comp.

Yes indeed Bruno.  As far as I tell tell, all of physics is ultimately
geometry.  But as we've pointed out on this list many times, a theory
of physics is *not* a theory of everything, since it makes the
(probably false) assumption that everything is reducible to physical
substances and properties.  Thus we both are in agreement on this, but
for different reasons (you because, you think math is the ultimate
basis of everything aka COMP, me, because of my property dualism, aka
the need for a triple-aspect explanation of physical/teleological/
mathematical properties as the basis for everything).

We keep telling mainstream scients, but mainstream scients are not
listening to us.  *sigh*.

 Yet I bet Lisi is quite close to the sort of physics derivable by
 machine's or number's introspection. Actually, getting physics from so
 few symmetries is a bit weird (I have to study the paper in detail).
 With comp, we have to explain the symmetries *and* the geometry, and
 the quantum logic, from the numbers and their possible stable
 discourses ... If not, it is not a theory of everything, but just a
 classification, a bit like the Mendeleev table classifies atoms without
 really explaining. But Lisi's theory seems beautiful indeed ...

 Bruno



There's too many people mucking around with physics - I do wish more
people were working on computer science.  Physics is the most advanced
of our sciences, but computer science lags behind.  It just seems to
be an unfortunate historical accident that physical theories developed
first and then  lots of social status got attached to theoretical
physics (stemming from the glorification of Newton in Europe).

As a result, physics has advanced well ahead of comp-sci, and there's
lots of money and status attached to physics breakthroughs.  But comp-
sci is actually far more important to us in practical sense -
artificial general intelligence would be way way more valuable than
any fundamental physics breakthrough.  We would have had real AGI long
ago if there was the same money and glory for comp-sci as there is for
physics *sigh*.




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My answers to Wei Dai's questions.

2007-11-11 Thread marc . geddes

On another list Wei Dai posted some questions.  At this time I wish to
attempt some answers to be placed on public record.  These were
excellent questions.

Wei Dai wrote

Here are my questions:

How does math really work? Why do we believe that P!=NP even though we don't
have a proof one way or the other?

Math is composed of three levels of abstraction:

(1) Patonic forms that exist outside of space and time

http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/platonism/

(2) Cognitive systems that consist of information processing
(algorithms, logic, probability networks)

Exmaples:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First-order_logic
http://www.cs.ubc.ca/~murphyk/Bayes/bayes.html


(3) Human artifacts that consist of human created categories and
representations of things (ontologies)

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ontology_%28computer_science%29

When doing human mathematics, we are attempting to match (2) - our
cognitive systems of logic which exist inside space and time to (1)
the platonic forms which exist outside space-time.  We can thus
legitimately assign true/false designations to mathematical
assertions. (a postulated platonic form may explain or fail to explain
the operations of our computations- if the postulated platonic form
fails to explain empricial properties of computational systems we
assign the designation 'false' to the mathematical assertion.  If the
postulated platonic form does explain empricial computational
properties we have empirical evidence for calling it 'true'). (3) -
ontologies - data models - programming languages - are 'secondary
mathematical properties' (analgous to 'secondary physical properties'
such as color in the physical domain).  These are human inventions
which we use to reflect upon (reason about) mathematics.


How does induction really work? Why do we intuitively know that, contra
Solomonoff Induction, we shouldn't believe in the non-existence of
halting-problem oracles no matter what evidence we may see?

See above.  Be careful to seperate out the notion of induction as an
empirical  mathematical *procedure* (system which exists inside space
and time), from the notion of the abstract platonic form which that
procedure represents (this is the algebraic relation or category which
has a platonic existence outside space and time).

When doing Induction we engaging in generalizations.  This is the
process of modifying our postulated explanations about platonic forms
(relations, categories) as new information comes in. (see above - we
are attempting to match our own finite information about platonic
forms with the platonic forms themselves).   The probabilities and
uncertainties are not properties of the platonic forms themselves.
They simply reflect our own uncertainities about these platonic forms,
arising from the fact that we are finite beings existing inside space
and time.


Is there such a thing as absolute complexity (as opposed to complexity
relative to a Turing machine or some other construct)?

Yes there is.  See above.  Asbolute complexity is a platonic notion
which exists outside space and time - it is what enbables one to fix
the 'mathematical identitiy' a given Turing machine existing inside
space and time.


How does qualia work? Why do certain patterns of neuron firings translate
into sensations of pain, and other patterns into pleasure?

Qualia arise from the fact that there are many different ways to
*represent* the same reality in logical terms.  Ontology is the means
through which the mind *reflects* upon mathematics.  An ontology is a
way of *communicating* (representing) logical meanings.   To do this
the mind has to divide reality up into *objects*, *attribites* and
*relations*.  See wiki entry on ontology:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ontology_%28computer_science%29

But any given ontology is a *secondary mathematical property* - it is
an invention of the mind, not a feature of reality itself.  There are
many different ways of *dividing up* reality into an ontology, and
hence the mind ends up with many different ontologies.  An order to
create an integrated logical view of reality, the mind has to have a
way to translate between all the different ontology.  The logical
meaning of a concept is thus:

A collection of ontologies
A way to translate between them in order to integrate them.

And this way of representing logical concepts are what generate
Qualia.  To summarize:  Qualia are logical *represenations* of the
meaning of  concepts consisting of onotologies and ontology merging -
this is compatible with global workspace theory - see -

http://vesicle.nsi.edu/users/baars/other/BaarsFranklinTICS2003.pdf

and information integration theory  see

http://www.biomedcentral.com/1471-2202/5/42


How does morality work? If I take a deterministic program that simulates a
neuron firing pattern that represents pleasure, and run it twice, is
that
twice as good as running it once? Or good at all?

There are three levels of abstraction in morality, just as there were

Re: What are the consequences of UD+ASSA?

2007-10-31 Thread marc . geddes



On Oct 31, 7:40 pm, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 Decisions require some value structure.  To get values from an ontology you'd 
 have to get around the Naturalistic fallacy.

 Brent Meeker- Hide quoted text -

 - Show quoted text -

Decision theory has this same problem.  Decision theory doesn't
require values.  The preferences (values) are plugged in from outside
the theory.  Decision theory is merely a way of computing the best way
to achieve the desired outcomes.  It doesn't say what we should desire
though.

Decision theory is too hard for me and too complex.  What I'm
suspecting is that it's not the final word.  I'm looking for a higher
level theory capable of deriving the results in decision theory
indirectly without me having to directly work them out.

My suspicion currently focuses on communication theory, knowledge
representation and data modelling (ontology).  Rather than 'getting
values out' I think values are most likely somehow implicitly built
into the structure of ontology itself.


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Re: What are the consequences of UD+ASSA?

2007-10-30 Thread marc . geddes



On Oct 31, 3:28 pm, Wei Dai [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 4. For someone on a practical mission to write an AI that makes sensible
 decisions, perhaps the model can serve as a starting point and as
 illustration of how far away we still are from that goal.

Heh.  Yes, very interesting indeed.  But a huge body of knowledge and
a great deal of smartness is needed to even begin to grasp all that
stuff ;)

As regards AI I gotta wonder whether that 'Decision Theory' stuff is
really 'the heart of the matter'  - perhaps its the wrong level of
abstraction for the problem.  That is it say, it would be great if the
AI could work out all the decision theory for itself, rather than
having us trying to program it in (and probably failing miserably).
Certainly, I'm sure as hell not smart enough to come up with a working
model of decisions.  So, rather than trying to do the impossible,
better to search for a higher level of abstraction.  Look for the
answers in communication theory/ontology, rather than decision
theory.  Decision theory would be derivative of an effective ontology
- that saves me the bother of trying to work it out ;)


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Re: Request to form 'Social Contract' with SAI

2007-10-26 Thread marc . geddes

Danny,

The depressed people are the sane ones.  My post is merely
'existential angst' caused by knowledge of the world and myself as I
really am.With knowledge comes unhappiness and happiness is the
happiness of ignorance.

Ever read the short story of 'Green Magic'?  That story is available
on-line:
http://www.infinityplus.co.uk/stories/green.htm

I am like 'Howard Fair' and I suffered the same fate in the story that
he did.

---

Where do you go? Fair asked in wonder and longing. May I go with
you?

The sprite, swirling a drape of bright green dust over its shoulders,
shook his head. You would be less than comfortable.

Other men have explored the worlds of magic!

True: your uncle Gerald McIntyre, for instance.

My uncle Gerald learned green magic?

To the limit of his capabilities. He found no pleasure in his
learning. You would do well to profit by his experience and modify
your ambitions. The sprite turned and walked away.




Jaadian assented. You have not accepted my advice.

Fair shrugged. You asked me to remain ignorant, to accept my
stupidity and ineptitude.

And why should you not? asked Jaadian gently. You are a primitive
in a primitive realm; nevertheless not one man in a thousand can match
your achievements.

Fair agreed, smiling faintly. But knowledge creates a craving for
further knowledge. Where is the harm in knowledge?



By stages so gradual he never realized them he learned green magic.

But the new faculty gave him no pride: between his crude ineptitudes
and the poetic elegance of the sprites remained a tremendous gap, and
he felt his innate inferiority much more keenly than he ever had in
his old state. Worse, his most earnest efforts failed to improve his
technique, and sometimes, observing the singing joy of an improvised
manifestation by one of the sprites, and contrasting it to his own
labored constructions, he felt futility and shame.



In one terrible bittersweet spasm, he gave up. He found Jaadian
weaving tinkling fragments of various magics into a warp of shining
long splines. With grave courtesy, Jaadian gave Fair his attention,
and Fair laboriously set forth his meaning.

Jaadian returned a message. I recognize your discomfort, and extend
my sympathy. It is best that you now return to your native home.

-

Howard Fair sat in his apartment. His perceptions, augmented and
sharpened by his sojourn in the green realm, took note of the
surroundings. Only two hours before, by the clocks of Earth, he had
found them both restful and stimulating; now they were neither. His
books: superstition, spuriousness, earnest nonsense. His private
journals and workbooks: a pathetic scrawl of infantilisms. Gravity
tugged at his feet, held him rigid. The shoddy construction of the
house, which heretofore he never had noticed, oppressed him.
Everywhere he looked he saw slipshod disorder, primitive filth. The
thought of the food he must now eat revolted him.



... Sometimes I wish I could abandon all my magic and return to my
former innocence.

I have toyed with the idea, McIntyre replied thoughtfully. In fact
I have made all the necessary arrangements. It is really a simple
matter. He led Fair to a small room behind the station. Although the
door was open, the interior showed a thick darkness.

McIntyre, standing well back, surveyed the darkness with a quizzical
curl to his lip. You need only enter. All your magic, all your
recollections of the green realm will depart. You will be no wiser
than the next man you meet. And with your knowledge will go your
boredom, your melancholy, your dissatisfaction.

Fair contemplated the dark doorway. A single step would resolve his
discomfort.

He glanced at McIntyre; the two surveyed each other with sardonic
amusement. They returned to the front of the building.




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Re: Request to form 'Social Contract' with SAI

2007-10-17 Thread marc . geddes



On Oct 16, 11:37 pm, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


   If it is ''a'-rtificial' I question the 'natural one' (following
  Bruno's fear of the (natural?) 'super stupidity'.) Yet I don't think
  Marc wants to let himself denature into an artifact.

 Not necessarily, but look at Saibal's recent answer!
 This raises a question for Mark. What if the future SAI, SI
 should we say, are computationalist? Marc, is it ok if those SI
 reincarnate you digitally? Could they decide without your consent
 (without being super-stupid?).

Your points are well taken Bruno.  We should be highly suspicious of
any 'authority' that thinks to act without our consent.

As for cryonics, Saibal , I think it's a good option.  If necessary,
I'm quite prepared to put myself in the freezer - I have no intention
of getting any older than a biological age of 65 - if I live that long
I might be the first guy in the world to volunteer for a 'live
freeze' (I would probably have to move to a country where there are
laws allowing for assisted suicide though!)




 Again, not necessarily. Buddhism, unlike Christianity, has always been
 very aware that religious truth, once institutionalized get wrong
 ...
 To kill the buddha, or sompetimes just the master, is a way to remind
 the monk that they have to find the truth in themsleves and never to
 take any master talk for granted.

  In our (definition-wise) lower mentality it is not likely that we can
  'kill' the smarter. So the condition involves the un-possibility, even
  if we are capable to recognise them
   - what we are not likely to be.

 Agreed. It was just a parabola for driving attention against any use of
 authoritative argument in the field of fundamentals.
 Ah! But the lobian machine too can be shown allergic to such argument.
 It's a universal dissident. Unforunately, humans, like dog are still
 attracted to the practical philosophy according to which the boss is
 right (especially when wrong!)

 Bruno

 PS Perhaps this week I will got the time to send the next post in the
 observer-moment = Sigma_1 sentence.


Well, I'm pleased to hear the lobian machine is a 'universal
dissident'.  I wouldn't want to imply that 'the boss is right'.  All I
was implying was that (in the case of super-intelligence) the boss
would be *stronger*.  Whether the boss is right or not, we little guys
wouldn't have much power so our negotiating power would be seriously
limited initally.  The best that could be hoped for from such a
hypothetical 'social contract' in the beginning is that the SI doesn't
hurt us.



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Re: Request to form 'Social Contract' with SAI

2007-10-14 Thread marc . geddes



On Oct 14, 3:39 am, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 Take care, trust yourself and kill all the SAI on the road, to
 paraphrase a well known Buddhist idea. Either you are sufficiently
 clever to understand the SAI arguments, showing you are already an SAI
 yourself, and your message is without purpose, or you are not, in which
 case, to keep soundness (by lobianity), you better be skeptical, (and
 not to abide so quick imo).

 Unless you want to loose your universality, and be a slave, a tool.

 Bruno

 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/

Heh.  Bruno, I continue to analyse my current (human) condition to try
to find a way out of this mess (I'm not a happy bloke).  Still
considering many possibilities.  Given the possibility that super-
intelligences do already (or will in the future) exist,  there's a
chance that a non-interference policy is being/will be pursued, but
that there's a way to get their attention - it could be a simple
matter of indicating that you are aware of the possibility and
requesting to 'sign' a 'social contract'.  Get in early now! ;)


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Request to form 'Social Contract' with SAI

2007-10-12 Thread marc . geddes

12th October, 2007

Marc Geddes
Auckland
New Zealand

---

This is Marc Geddes ,

I am publically requesting to form a social contract with SAI (Super
Intelligence).I am aware of the existence of SAI and SAI-space and
am of sound mind and my own volition requesting  to be removed from
human space and uplifted to SAI space at the earliest possible
opportunately.  I agree to abide by all rules and boundaries set by
SAI as per my responsibilities under the social contract.

Thank you.


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Re: The ASSA leads to a unique utilitarism

2007-10-04 Thread marc . geddes



On Oct 3, 12:23 pm, Russell Standish [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 I think that beauty is effectively a channel from our
 unconscious. When we think that something is beautiful (or conversely
 ugly), some unconscious processing has taken place according to some
 criterion and presented to the conscious mind on a scale of ugly to
 beautiful representing how desirable that thing is for the task at
 hand.

 Beauty often goes together with simplicity, or with symmetry, as these
 are very useful concepts evolutionary (finding a genetically superior
 mate - see literature on the effect of parasites; finding effective
 theories of the world - simpler is indeed better for various reasons).

 Cheers


The specific things we find beautiful come from our evolutionary
history, but that doesn't mean that there aren't objective 'platonic
archetypes' .  Our conscious experience of beauty is a communication
between a mind and a thing.   The thing is a *pointer* (reference) to
an objective platonic form.  Any number of things could potentially
play the role of the pointer.The specific thing that triggers a
conscious experience of 'beauty' is contingent on our evolutionary
history, but the aeathetic value is not in the thing itself, but the
platonic archetype it points to.

Consciousness is the communication system of the mind and thus the
entire sentient experience is based on signs and symbols
(representations of things).  Signs and Symbols are the true language
of reflection and human experience - humans are the symbol using
animals.Everything  traces back to signs and symbols and thus all
assessments of value ultimately trace back to assessments about the
aesthetics of signs and symbols.  The study of signs and symbols is
known as semiotics and the American philosopher Charles Peirce was its
champion.  Peirce almost grasped 'the secret' so very long ago ;)

Signs and symbols control the world, not phrases and laws.
~ Confucius (b 551 BCE), Chinese thinker, social philosopher




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Re: The ASSA leads to a unique utilitarism

2007-10-02 Thread marc . geddes

Make sure you get the spelling right ;)  - Utilitarianism

The trouble with Utilitarianism is that it's only concerned with one
aspect of values - relations between rational agents.  Further,
although it's a good approach for practical calculation , it fails to
deal with the explanatory abstraction underlying values.  The actual
abstraction that Utiliarianism is concerned with is 'Liberty' (or
Volition), and a theory of morality at the deepest level deals
directly with Volition, not Utility.  Utility is a secondary concept
and Utilitarianism a derivative calculational tool.

Volition per se is not the final basis for value by the way.  Beauty
is.  You heard it here first.  Aesthetics is the deepest level of
value theory and the theory of Liberty (Volition) is merely a sub-set
of this.

In defense of Beauty as the ultimate basis of value, I present to you:
Natasha Vita More :)

---

When I think about the decline of the values America was built upon,
stemming from The Bill of Rights and the world of Thomas Paine, I
long for the underlying essence of beauty.  (When one thinks of Naomi
Wolf, it is almost impossible not to think about her writings on
beauty (thus the connection))  You might say, What the hell does
beauty have to do with human behavior, tryanny and politics?!

Beauty, according to Le Corbusier, stemming from Pythagoras, is
mathematical in symmetry and proportion.  Beauty, according to
Benjamin Franklin, is found in simple yet carefully orchestrated
musical tunes. According to Thomas Jefferson The beauty of the
second amendment is that it will not be needed until they try to take
it.  According to Simone Weil, Justice, truth, and beauty are
sisters and comrades.

Beauty, throughout history, generally has been associated with that
which is good. Likewise, the polar opposite of beauty is generally
considered to be ugly and is often associated with evil. ... This
contrast is epitomized by classic stories such as Sleeping Beauty.

Likewise, beauty according to Goethe, from his 1809 Elective
Affinities, is 'everywhere a welcome guest'. Moreover, human beauty
acts with far greater force on both inner and outer senses, so that
he who beholds it is exempt from evil and feels in harmony with
himself and with the world.(Wakjawa 2007)

An Occasional Letter On The Female Sex (Thomas Paine, August 1775)
reflects on bondage and suffering at the cost of beauty.   But isn't
beauty a deeply valued sense of life that begets the desire for
freedom to express and experience?   Paine was a [c]hampion of the
chaos of change and the beauty of unrestrained libertarianism
(Rushton 2006)  The London Chronicle reprinted Ben Franklin's Causes
of the American Discontents before 1768 (1774).  Paine was distressed
and wanted to revolt against what he thought was a completely corrupt
state.  He thought of America as a land were the lovers of freedom
were uniting against the tyranny.  And that tyranny was an illness, a
sickness in human behavior.  An unwelcome guest.

Ref:  http://lists.extropy.org/pipermail/extropy-chat/2007-September/037813.html


Of course it's  all in my top-level domain model of reality here:
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list/web/mcrt-domain-model-eternity

Just code that design and consult it for the answers to all
questions ;)

Look at the Platonic classes in the center - first Virtue , then
Morality (concerned with Volition) and finally Beauty at the deepest
level of abstraction.  It's beauty that's at the core of it all, not
Volition.





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Re: against UD+ASSA, part 1

2007-09-27 Thread marc . geddes



On Sep 27, 2:15 pm, Wei Dai [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 Yes. So my point is, even though the subjective probability computed by ASSA
 is intuitively appealing, we end up ignoring it, so why bother? We can
 always make the right choices by thinking directly about measures of
 outcomes and ignoring subjective probabilities.


OK, new thought experiement.  ;)

Barring a global disaster which wiped out all of the humanity or its
descendents, there would exist massively more observers in the future
than currently exist.
But you (as an observer) find you born amongst the earliest humans.
Since barring global disaster there will be massively more observers
in the future, why did you  find yourself born so early?  Surely your
probability of being born in the future (where there are far more
observers) was much much higher than your chances of being born so
early among a far smaller pool of observers?
The conclusion appears to be that there is an overwhelming probability
that we are on the brink of some global disaster which will wipe out
all humanity, since that would explain why we don't find ourselves
among the pool of future observers (because there are none).
Is the conclusion correct?



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Re: The physical world is real

2007-09-23 Thread marc . geddes



On Sep 23, 10:39 pm, Youness Ayaita [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 There have always been two ways to interpret the interrelationship
 between the physical world and our minds.

There's a lot more than two ways.

The first one is to consider
 the physical world to be fundamental; from this perspective, the
 appearance of the mind is to be understood with the help of some
 neurological theory that maps physical states of the brain to states
 of the mind or observer moments.

Not neccesserily.  There are several possible variations on taking the
physical world to be fundamental.  Strong materialism does not map
physical states to observer moments - strong materialism - or
'eliminativism' - says that observer moments are merely a human
construct we use to describe what are really physical processs.
According to this doctrine, you can't rightly talk about observer
moments at all.  What you have described above is weak materialism -
weak materialism - or property dualism - would agree that the physical
world is fundamental, but allow that observer moments are still real
'ontological primatives' which attach to (map to) the physical.  See
my next paragraph below.


The second way starts with the mind,
 denying the fundamental role of the physical world. According to this
 assumption, the physical world is introduced with the help of a theory
 of physics mapping mental states to physical states that reproduce the
 mental state within themselves. Imprecisely speaking, the second way
 questions the reality status of the physical world.


As I mentioned, there are still other possibilities.  Neither of  your
two possibilities is compatible with *comp*.  According to comp (which
seems to be the most popular position on this list) it's the
mathematical world which is fundamental.  Both the mind and physical
reality emerge from mathematics.  So there's a third possibility
there.

The second possibility you mention has a long history of  ignominious
failure - Idealist approaches seem to lead to mysticism mostly and
have not helped the advance of science.  I think we can rule out
Idealism .  I think it's got to be either *comp* (mathematics is
fundamental), or some variation on possibility 1 - at the end of the
day I'd have to go with possibility 1 - weak materialism (only
physical substances exist), but with some kind of property dualism
(additional non-physical propties can attach themselves to physical
substances - these non-physical properties supervene on - are
dependent on the physical - but are not reducible to them).



 Both ways allow the elaboration of an ensemble theory. The first
 approach starts from the ensemble of all physical worlds (or formally
 with descriptions thereof). The second approach uses the ensemble of
 all observer moments (or descriptions thereof). When Rolf expressed
 the idea UTM outputs a qualia, not a universe (which is similar to
 the second approach), I wrote: I have always been hopeful that both
 approaches will finally turn out to be equivalent.


The third possibility (comp) starts with an ensemble of mathematical
relations , not an ensemble of all physical worlds, nor an ensemble of
all observer moments.



 It's a very trivial fact though that the two approaches are not
 equivalent. Nonetheless it's interesting to note it. I argue that we
 have good reasons to discard the second approach. The fundamental role
 will be assigned to the physical worlds (hence the title of this
 message). The difference between the two approaches leads to different
 expections to the question What will I experience next?.
 Consequently it can be measured empirically. We find this result by
 observing that different physical worlds may produce the same observer
 moment (e.g. if the physical worlds differ in a detail not perceivable
 by the observer). This assigns a higher probability to the observer
 moment when chosen randomly in order to answer the question (it's
 multiply counted because it appears more than once in the everyting
 ensemble). Opposed to this, every observer moment (in the RSSA within
 a given reference class) would have an equal probability to be
 selected if we used the second approach.

 I think that the quantum mechanical Born rule strongly supports the
 first approach: Observer moments are weighted according to a specific
 formula. They don't have equal probability!

 Example: Both quantum states, |A = |0/sqrt(2) + |1/sqrt(2) and
 |B = |0/sqrt(3) + |1/sqrt(1.5)
 lead to the same two possible observer moments when a measurement in
 the (|0,|1) basis is performed. According to the Born rule the
 probabilites for the two observer moments are equal for |A and
 different for |B. Starting from the second approach (observer moments
 are fundamental) this result cannot be understood.

 If we take this result seriously, Bostrom's self-sampling assumption

 Each observer moment should reason as if it were randomly selected
 from the class of all observer moments in its reference class.


 

Re: Max Tegmark: The Mathematical Universe

2007-09-20 Thread marc . geddes

Max himself posted about this on the everything-list here:
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list/browse_thread/thread/7da9934267f64acf/690ccf0715150a36#690ccf0715150a36

A popular article  was also the feature in last week's 'New
Scientist':
http://www.newscientist.com/channel/fundamentals/mg19526210.500-mathematical-cosmos-reality-by-numbers.html

---

Now is a good time for me to summarize my objections once again.

As I said recently to Bruno, here's the problem with the idea that
everything is mathematics:

I think we need to draw a careful distinction between the *process*
of
reasoning itself, and the external entities that reasoning is *about*
*(ie what it is that our theories are externally referencing).  When
you carefully examine what mathematics is all about, it seems that it
is all about *knowledge* (justified belief).  This is because math
appears to be the study of patterns and when meaning is ascribed to
be
these patterns, the result is knowledge.  So:
so Math  Meaningful Patterns  Knowledge.

Since math appears to be equivalent to knowledge itself, it is no
surprise that all explanations with real explanatory power must use
(or indirectly reference) mathematics.  That is to say, I think it's
true that the *process* of reasoning redcues to pure mathematics.
However, it does not follow that all the entities being *referenced*
(refered to) by mathematical theories, are themselves mathematical.


It appears to me that to attempt to reduce everything to pure math
runs the risk of a lapse into pure Idealism, the idea that reality is
'mind created'.  Since math is all about knowledge, a successful
attempt to derive physics from math would appear to mean that there's
nothing external to 'mind' itself.  As I said, there seems to be a
slippery slipe into solipsism/idealism here.

---

Another major problem is this idea of pure 'baggage free' description
that Max talks about (the removal of all references to obervables ,
leaving only abstract relations).  The problem with this , is that, by
definition, it cannot possibly explain any observables we actually
see.  Notions of space and agency (fundamental to our empirical
descriptions), cannot be derived from pure mathematics, since these
notions involve attaching additional 'non-mathematical' notions to the
pure mathematics.  As I pointed out in another recent thread on this
thread, the distinctions required for physical and teleological
explanations of the world appear to be incommensurable with
mathematical notions.  We cannot possibly explain anything about the
empirical reality we actually observe without attaching additional
*non-mathematical* notions to the mathematics.

I've talked often about 'the three types of properties' (for my
property dualism) : Mathematical, Teleological and Physical.  These
three properties are based on three different kinds of distinction:


Mathematics:  The distinction is *model/reality* (or mind-body,
information, concept).
Teleology: The distinction is *observer/observerd* (self-
other
or 1st person/3rd person, intention)
Physics: The distinction is  *here/there* (space, geometry).


These are simply three  incommensurable types of distinction.  You
(believers in comp) can try to derieve the observer/observed and
here/
there distinctions from the model/reality distinction all you want,
you just won't succeed.



---

There are yet more problems with Max's ideas.  For instance, he says
in the New Scientist article that: 'mathematical relations, are by
definition eternal and outside space and time'.  Certainly, there have
to be *some* mathematical notions that are indeed eternal and platonic
(if one believes in arthematical realism), but it also makes sense to
talk about some kinds of mathematical objects that exist *inside*
space-time and are not static.  As I pointed out in another thread
here, implemented algoithms (instantiated computations) are equivalent
to *dynamic* mathematical objects which exist *inside* space-time:

Let us now apply a unique new perspective on mathematics - we shall
now attempt to view mathematics through the lens of the object
oriented framework.  That is to say, consider mathematics as we would
try to model it using object oriented programming - what the classes,
methods and objects of math?  This is a rather un-usual way of
looking
at math.  Mathematical entities, if they are considered in this way
at
all, are not regarded as 'Objects' (things with state, identity and
behaviours) but merely as static class properties.  For instance the
math classes in the Java libraries consist of static (class)
variables
and class methods.

But consider instead that there could be mathematical 'objects' (in
the sense of entites with states, identities and behaviours).  What
could these mathematical 'objects' look like?  if there are
mathematical objects they have to be dynamic.  This conflicts with
standard platonic pictures of math as entities which are eternal and

Re: No(-)Justification Justifies The Everything Ensemble

2007-09-19 Thread marc . geddes



On Sep 19, 1:18 pm, Hal Ruhl [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Hi Marc:

 The objects I use are divisions of the list - such divisions are
 static elements of the power set.

 My objects have nothing to do with programing and do not change -
 they can be the current state of a something on its path to completion.

 Hal


It sounded to me like you were confusing universals and particulars.
The list of properties used to define an object (the univerasl) cannot
be equated to a particular instance of an object possessing these
properties (a particular).  That's why in programming there's a sharp
division between classes and objects when modelling the world.


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Re: No(-)Justification Justifies The Everything Ensemble

2007-09-19 Thread marc . geddes



On Sep 19, 2:23 am, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Schmidhuber and me do agree on comp (100%
 agreement: we have the same hypothesis). And relatively to the comp hyp
 and the importance of the universal machine Schmidhuber and me are much
 closer than with Tegmark whi is just very naïve about notion of
 mathematical reality.

*sigh*.  I of course, don't even agree with comp.  One day when I'm
better educated, I'm going to have to come back and teach both you,
Schmidhuber and Tegmark a lesson ;)

Now the problem is that, unlike many people in
 this list, Schmidhuber does not address neither the mind body problem
 nor the 1-3 person distiinction, and the relativity of states which
 derives from that distinction. This forces him to literally defend the
 idea that randomness in nature never really exist, which is hard to
 justify in front of the physical branch of history we are living. This
 does not makes his work wrong, but at least incomplete (and then he
 should use Bennett notion of depth for the cosmological/geographical
 aspect (like I do in Conscience et mécanisme: using just Kolmogorov is
 not enough, but here I am going out topic.


You should think carefully about the distinctions you just mentioned
(1st-3rd person distinction) and mind-body problem, because it seems
to me that the reality of these distinctions is precisely what is at
odds with comp.

I've talked often about 'the three types of properties' (for my
property dualism) : Mathematical, Teleological and Physical.  These
three properties are based on three different kinds of distinction:

Mathematics:  The distinction is *model/reality* (or mind-body,
information, concept).
Teleology: The distinction is *observer/observerd* (self-other
or 1st person/3rd person, intention)
Physics: The distinction is  *here/there* (space, geometry).

These are simply three  incommensurable types of distinction.  You
(believers in comp) can try to derieve the observer/observed and here/
there distinctions from the model/reality distinction all you want,
you just won't succeed.  Nor will materialists ever succeed in
extracting a model/reality and observer/observed distinction from a
here/there distinction.

That's why both materialism *and* comp must fail.


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Re: No(-)Justification Justifies The Everything Ensemble

2007-09-17 Thread marc . geddes



On Sep 13, 11:47 pm, Youness Ayaita [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 I see two perfectly equivalent ways to define a property. This is
 somehow analogous to the mathematical definition of a function f: Of
 course, in order to practically decide which image f(x) is assigned to
 a preimage x, we usually must know a formula first. But the function f
 is not changed if I do not consider the formula, but the whole set
 {(x,f(x))} instead, where x runs over all preimages.

 Concerning properties, we normally have some procedure to define which
 imaginable thing has that property. But I can change my perspective
 and think of the property as being the set of imaginable things having
 the property. This is how David Lewis defines properties (e.g. in his
 book On the Plurality of Worlds).

 If you insist on the difference between the two definitions, you may
 call your property property1 and Lewis's property property2.- Hide quoted 
 text -


Surely you are just talking about the well-known distinction between
intensional and extensional definitions:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intensional_definition

An intensional definition gives the meaning of a term by giving all
the properties required of something that falls under that definition;
the necessary and sufficient conditions for belonging to the set being
defined.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Extensional_definition

An extensional definition of a concept or term formulates its meaning
by specifying its extension, that is, every object that falls under
the definition of the concept or term in question.



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Re: No(-)Justification Justifies The Everything Ensemble

2007-09-17 Thread marc . geddes



On Sep 18, 1:24 pm, Hal Ruhl [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Hi Youness:

 Bruno has indeed recommended that I study in more detail the
 underlying mathematics that I may be appealing to.  The response that
 I have made may be a bit self serving but at this point in my life I
 am having difficultly adding yet another area of skill to my resume.

My advise:  Listen to Bruno.  Your ideas are riddled with very basic
errors.  Example below:


Basic Error:


 There is no reason to create a multi-layered system distinguishing
 between a sub list and the object it identifies.

Yes there is.  Objects not only have identities, they also have states
and behaviours.  This is object-oriented-programming 101.  A set of
properties only defines an identity condition.



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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-09-01 Thread marc . geddes



On Sep 1, 3:20 am, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


  The description itself is an algorithm written in symbols.

 Peano's axioms aren't an algorithm.

Er..you're right here of course.  I'm getting myself a bit confused
again.   Careful when thinking about these profound topics - it's easy
to get oneself tied in knots.  So lets try to get this right.  What I
should have said is that there are different levels of abstraction in
one's descriptionsPeano's axioms are a mathematical description at
a higher level of abstraction than a description of a computational
procedure.


Algorithms are computational procedures and aren't necessarily written in 
symbols.  Writing the symbols might be an *instance* of an algorithmic 
process.  As I type my computer is executing algorithms that are embodied in 
electronic processes.

Well, there's the 'algorithm' itself (considered as a *static* data
structure), and there's the algorithm considered in the sense you are
talking about, as an implemented computational system or process.
Again, more than one sense of mathematical terms.  But again, you're
right that in neither sense does the algorithm need to be written in
symbols.  Writing the symbols would a *physical* instance of a static
description.




  So three senses of math here:

  (1)  The platonic forms (which are timeless and not in space and
  time)

  (2)  An actual implemenation of these forms in space-time (a
  *process* or computation)

  and

  (3)  The symbolic representation of (2) - an algorithm as written on
  a peice of paper, described , drawn as diagram etc.

  You can see that the *process of counting* (2) is not the same as the
   description of counting (3).  When you (Brent) engage in counting
  your brain runs the algorithm.  But a description of this process is
  simply symbols written on a piece of paper.

 No, a description is Peano's axioms or some other axioms that describe the 
 numbers and their relations.

Yes, you're right, see above, I was a little confused at time of
writing that.  There's more than one level of description for math
terms is what I meant to say.  Of course all math has a descriptive
component, but consider the possibility that platonic math forms do
exist.  Then of the sake of argument one needs to distinguish between
*descriptions* of a thing and the thing itself.  Peano's axioms are
one kind of description...the kind that I thing do correspond to
objectively existing platonic math forms.  The second level of
description would be a description of a computational procedure
this level of description corresponds to well. computional procedures
of course.  Finally you have the third level of description which is
of an algorithm considered as a static data structure and I don't
think that this third level of description is objective, but would
agree that it's simply a human DP Modelling concept.  The symbols
written on paper would be a *physical* instance of this third level of
description.




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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-31 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 31, 6:21 am, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Bruno Marchal wrote:

  Le 29-août-07, à 23:11, Brent Meeker a écrit :

  Bruno Marchal wrote:
  Le 29-août-07, à 02:59, [EMAIL PROTECTED] a écrit :

  I *don't* think that mathematical
  properties are properties of our *descriptions* of the things.  I
  think they are properties *of the thing itself*.

  I agree with you. If you identify mathematical theories with
  descriptions, then the study of the description themselves is
  metamathematics or mathematical logic, and that is just a tiny part of
  mathematics.
  That seems to be a purely semantic argument.  You could as well say
  arithmetic is metacounting.

  ? I don't understand. Arithmetic is about number. Meta-arithmetic is
  about theories on numbers. That is very different.

 Yes, I understand that.  But ISTM the argument went sort of like this:  I say 
 arithmetic is a description of counting, abstracted from particular instances 
 of counting.  You say, no, description of arithmetic is meta-mathematics and 
 that's only a small part of mathematics, therefore arithmetic can't be a 
 description.  

 Do you see why I think your objection was a non-sequitur?

 Brent aMeeker

Mathematical concepts have more than one sense, is the point I think
Bruno was trying to make.  For instance consider algebra - there's
*Categories* (which are the objectively existing platonic mathematical
forms themselves) and then there's the *dynamic implementation* of
these categories:the *process* of algebraic operations (like
counting).  But processes themselves (computations) are *not*
equiavalent to the *descriptions* of these processes.  The description
itself is an algorithm written in symbols.

So three senses of math here:

(1)  The platonic forms (which are timeless and not in space and time)

(2)  An actual implemenation of these forms in space-time (a *process*
or computation)

and

(3)  The symbolic representation of (2) - an algorithm as written on a
peice of paper, described , drawn as diagram etc.


You can see that the *process of counting* (2) is not the same as the
description of counting (3).  When you (Brent) engage in counting your
brain runs the algorithm.  But a description of this process is simply
symbols written on a piece of paper.

As to Godel, I agree with Bruno.  The point is that there are
*perfectly meaningful* mathematical questions expressed in the
language of some formal system for which the answers can't be found
within that system.  This shows that math is bigger (extends beyond)
any system as described by humans ; so math itself is objectively real
and can't be just descriptive.  If math were just descriptive, all
meaningful math questions should be answerable within the human
described system.

---

PS Hee hee.  This is getting easier and easier for me.  My old
opponents elsewhere are getting slower and slower.  That's because
they started from the 'bottom up' and are progressing more and more
slowly as they try to go to higher levels of abstractions.  (so
they've run into a brick wall with the problem of 'reflection').  I,
on the other hand, started at the very highest level of abstraction
and my progress is getting faster and faster as I move down the levels
of abstraction LOL..

(Note:  The PS was just a digression - nothing to do with this thread
or list).



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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-31 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 31, 9:40 pm, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 I said to Brent,

 Le 31-août-07, à 11:00, Bruno Marchal a écrit :

  So, no, I don't see why you think my objection is a non-sequitur. It
  seems to me you are confusing arithmetic and Arithmetic, or a theory
  with his intended model.

 Brent, rereading your post I think there is perhaps more than one
 confusion. I cannot really be sure, because your wording arithmetic
 is ambiguous.

 Let me sum up by singling out three things which we should not be
 confused:

 1) A theory about numbers/machines, like PA, ZF or any lobian machine.  
 (= finite object, or mechanically enumerable objet)

 2) Arithmetical truth (including truth about machine).   (infinite and
 complex non mechanically enumerable object)

 3) A meta-theory of PA (that is a theory about PA)  (again a
 mechanically enumerable object)

 Only a meta-theory *about* PA, can distinguish PA and arithmetical
 truth. But then Godel showed that sometimes a meta-theory can be
 translated in or by the theory/machine. Rich theories/machine have
 indeed self-referential abilities, making it possible for them to guess
 their limitations. By doing so, such machines infer the existence of
 something transcendenting (if I can say) themselves.

 OK?

 Bruno


I wonder how a machine actually does this.   You see it's all about
knowledge representation.  Any machine has to be able to draw a
distinction between a control class (its own internal reasoning
processes) and a model class (the thing being modelled).  But the
actual class responsible for managing this distinction cannot itself
be classified as either a control class or a model class.   This is
why I say that reflection (as in the case of self-referential
machines) is really all *communication* - only the system is not
communicating with an external user... *the system is communicating
with itself*.   That is to say, a class responsible for reflection is
actually a VIEW class -  it's *presenting* (symbolically) a slice of
its own internal knowledge to itself.  Thus does the problem of
reflection entirely reduce to KR (knowledge representation) and
ontology (assignation of designated meaning) to symbols.


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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-31 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 31, 9:40 pm, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 Only a meta-theory *about* PA, can distinguish PA and arithmetical
 truth. But then Godel showed that sometimes a meta-theory can be
 translated in or by the theory/machine.

But is the meta-theory *about* PA, itself classified as either PA or
'Arithmetical truth' ?  The meta-theory itself (when enacted as a
computation) cannot be classified as either, it seems to me.  So it
appears there's a third category which is neither arithmetic
(descriptions) nor Arithemetic (platonic truth).  And recognizing this
third category is the solution to the puzzle of reflection OK!


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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-30 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 30, 1:37 am, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Le 29-août-07, à 12:48, [EMAIL PROTECTED] a écrit :

  Any scientific theory (including Darwin's) *is* more accurate when
  expressed in mathematical notation.  You *can* draw a clear
  distinction between the language used to express mathematical concepts
  and the concept itself.

 OK.

  Pure math concepts themselves consist of:
  Formal Systems, Relations and Differential Equations.They are
  abstract concepts  which are precisely defined

 Not necessarily 


Well OK I take back the part about 'precisely defined'.  But it seems
to me that all of mathematics can be classified after three different
categories - that is - there is natural 'three-fold' division of
mathematics.  Threeness does seem to be fundamental to onotlogy at the
deepest level doesn't it? ;)

All of math is three things:  At the most basic level - *Predicates*.
At a some what higher, more general level of abstractrion -
*Relations* (including categories and functions).  Finally at the most
general level, differential equations.  Relations could be thought of
as a special case of calculus, predicates in turn as a special case of
relations.  BUt the most power (greatest level of generality) seems to
reside in analysis and calculus.  Would you agree with this?

Predicates are the intrinsic aspect of math, relations
fromwelll... they are...asbtracted relational properties of
predicates.  Finally calulus seems the boundaries and limts
(literally! no pun intended) for the math-scape in which predicates
and relations reside.





  and it is provable
  matter to determine the equivalence (or not) of different symbolic
  representations of them.

 N.  I hope I will be able to prove this in due time to David,
 but even if you limit yourself to one prrograming language, it is
 provable that you have no general tools to see if two different
 programs compute the same function. At some point this is important to
 notice.
 Mathematical reality kicks back! (This goes in your direction).

 Bruno

 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/

Sorry my mistake.  But surely you can compare one specific instance of
a program with another specific instance.


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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-29 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 29, 1:10 pm, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 So are mathematics human creations (c.f. William S. Cooper, The Evolution of 
 Logic).  There is no sharp distinction between what is expressed in words 
 and what is expressed in mathematical symbols.  Darwins theory of evolution 
 is no more accurately expressed in mathematical notation.

Any scientific theory (including Darwin's) *is* more accurate when
expressed in mathematical notation.  You *can* draw a clear
distinction between the language used to express mathematical concepts
and the concept itself.  Pure math concepts themselves consist of:
Formal Systems, Relations and Differential Equations.They are
abstract concepts  which are precisely defined and it is provable
matter to determine the equivalence (or not) of different symbolic
representations of them.




 So Deutsch has an overly generous criterion for exist.  Does he consider 
 epicycles real because they were indispensable to Ptolemy's theory of the 
 cosmos.  I'd go with Dr. Johnson - it exists if I kick it and it kicks back.  

Deutsch uses exactly the example you just gave! Dr Johnson's
critera ;).  Read his book.


 Grammer doesn't match the criteria.  Math does.  It's
  easy to cut out English concepts say, and replace them with other
  modes of descriptions.  I don't see scientists labriously trying
  refactor all their mathematical explanations to refer only to material
  observables.  

 Actually a theory that dispenses with unobservables is usually considered 
 preferable, by application of Occam's razor.

No, occam's razor says pick the theory with the most explanatory power
and the one that simplifies explanations the most.  The quantity of
observations versus unobservables is quite irrelevent.

For example in Newtonian mechanics force was an important concept, but later 
it was dropped.  So what is it's status now?  It's still a mathematical 
concept - but according to Deutsch it's not part of reality.

The concept  hasn't been dropped just re-defined.


 Your argument, even if I agreed with it, would only justify counting as 
 objectively real those mathematical concepts that appear in a true theory of 
 reality - and unfortunately we never know which one that is.

 Brent Meeker

We don't have to know to certainty, just base judgements on available
evidence.  At this point in the debate I guess we can just maintain
our entrenched positions.  It all boils down to realist verus non-
realist philosophy.  But I repeat my observation that as a purely
pragmatic matter, non-realist positions are not helpful for the
progress of science.



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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-28 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 28, 6:31 pm, Torgny Tholerus [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] skrev:



  (7)  From (3) mathematical concepts are objectively real.  But there
  exist mathematical concepts (inifinite sets) which cannot be explained
  in terms of finite physical processes.

 How can you prove that infinite sets exists?

 --
 Torgny Tholerus

Greg Cantor showed that they were indispensible for further progress
in mathematics (See 'Cantor' or Rudy Rucker 'Infinity and the
Mind' (1982).  From (1) and (2) , (3) (reality of infinite sets)
follows.

But this is goes beyond what is necessery for the actual argument that
subjective experiences are non-material.  It was simply given as an
example of a mathematical concept for which it is absolutely clear-cut
that the concept cannot be explained in physical terms.

All that is neccessery for the argument is the point made in (4) -
that 'patterns' are not equivalent to specific physical properties and
cannot be objectivity measured (Ray Kurzweil agrees with this
conclusion - see his book).  Then  from the rest, the conclusion is
proven  subjective experiences are non-material.


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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-28 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 29, 4:20 am, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Thanks for spelling it out.


  (1) Mathematical concepts are indispensible to our explanations of
  reality.

 So are grammatical concepts.

No they aren't.  Grammatical concepts are human creations, which is
precisely shown by the fact that they *can* be dispensed with and
replaced with scientific concepts which give a more accurate
description of reality.



 What does it mean for a concept to be real?  I don't find the argument from 
 indispenability convincing.  It's like saying because we don't know how to 
 describe something without words, the words are real things.  

Not really. According Deutsch's 'Critera For Reality' (ref: 'The
Fabric Of Reality', David Deutsch) , an application of occam's razor
says that something should be considered to 'objectively exist' if
taking the concept out of our theory made the explanation more complex
or impossible.  (ie the concept can't be dispensed with without
complications).  Grammer doesn't match the criteria.  Math does.  It's
easy to cut out English concepts say, and replace them with other
modes of descriptions.  I don't see scientists labriously trying
refactor all their mathematical explanations to refer only to material
observables.  It's not even possible.  And that's why mathematical
concepts should be taken to be objectively real.



 And patterns cannot be
  objectively measured in the way that specific physical properties can
  (See Ray Kurweil 'The Singularity Is Near' for agreement of this).

 Appeal to authority?

No, a reference to a more detailed explanation of the point (so I
don't have to laboriously type the argument here).




 I don't think anyone ever doubted that subjective experiences are processes - 
 and in that sense non-material.  But that doesn't show that they can exist 
 apart from the material.  Or that the existence and evolution of the process 
 cannot be elucidated by purely material descriptions.  I could as well 
 observe that all patterns of any kind are instantiated in material.

 Brent Meeker



 Indeed all scientific evidence indicates that subjective experiences
are  entirely dependent on the material.  Be careful to respond only
to what I actually said rather than what you thought I said.



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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-28 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 29, 4:03 am, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

  There is this special quality of subjective experience: that which is
  left over after all the objective (third person knowable) information
  is accounted for. Nevertheless, the subjective experience can be
  perfectly reproduced by anyone who has at hand all the relevant third
  person information, even if it can't be reproduced in his own mind.
  You can build a bat which will to itself feel like a bat if you know
  every scientific detail about bats and have appropriately capable
  molecular assemblers at your disposal.

  Yes of course.  But your ability to do this would not enable you to
  determine what the bat was actually feeling solely from the physical
  facts alone.  

 So you say.  I'm not so sure.

Go back to our previous discussions.  A complete material description
of something cannot be mapped to subjective experiences without using
knowledge about subjective experience.  If you know that neurons X are
firing in way Y, for sure, the subjective experience is entirely
dependent on this process, but how do you know what subjective
experience this material process is actually causing?  You can't know
without having knowledge of the *correlation* (mapping) between the
material procceses and subjective experience.  And in using knowledge
of this correlation, you would be slipping in references to subjective
experience in your explanations. ('cheating' as it were).



  I agree that mental properties are depedent on the physical
  substance.  The physical substance might be what is fundmanetal. But
  physical *properties* are what emerge from the movements of the
  underlying substance.  

 Huh?  How does gravitational mass emerge from movement?  And what does 
 emerge mean?

mass appears to be intrinsic to a physical thing itself (ie
*substance*), not a property resulting from physical processes.
'Emerge' simply means that properties are not intrinsic but are a
result of physical interactions and processes.



 Futher there are other non-physical properties
  which appear as well - mathematical for example.

 Is being countable a physical or a mathematical property?  As I see it, 
 mathematical and logical properties are properties of our descriptions of 
 the things.  They are desirable properties for any predictive description 
 because they avoid self-contradiction; something that would render a 
 prediction meaningless, but would be fine for a poem.


being countable is of course of a mathematical property.  And your
point here is at the heart of our disagreement.  Because of the
argument from indispensability, I *don't* think that mathematical
properties are properties of our *descriptions* of the things.  I
think they are properties *of the thing itself*.  Some kinds of
description (ie mathematical concepts) can't be dispensed with in our
explanations of reality.  Therefore the simplest explanations is that
these concepts exist objectively.



 This point is that
  there's an essential difference between specific physical properties
  (which can be objectively measured - as in the the exmaple of
  circulation), and subjective experiences, which are not reducible to
  specific physical properties

 You keep asserting that, but exactly the same thing was said about life.

Yes, but I can explain exactly what the difference is in the case of
mind/brain.  Mental properties are mathematical patterns.  Physical
properties are not.


 (subjective experiences are a
  *mathematical pattern* , and the same pattern could be enacted on
  anything- you could have intelligent silicon, rocks, clouds or
  anything.  Further thesse patterns cannot be directly objectively
  measured.

 Why can't such patterns be measured?  If I create an intelligent computer, 
 why can't I follow it's operation?

You *can* measure the physical correlates of these patterns.  But the
point that I (and David) had been making that the physical correlates
of these patterns are not the mathematical pattern (ie the mental
process) itself.





  If I would only make one essential argument here it is:

  It's known for a fact that there exist mathematical concepts (infinite
  sets) which are indispensible to our explanations of reality but which
  can't be explained in terms of any finite physical processes.  

 I don't think so.  Infinities in physical theories are just convenient 
 approximations for something very big.

 Brent Meeker

I would carefully read Rudy Rucker's 'book of Infinity.   It is a
through rebutting of the idea that 'inifinites in physical theories
are just conveient approximations'.  The whole of cantor's set theory
simply doesn't work without assuming that the infinities are things in
themselves.  There is more than one kind of infinity.

It all comes down to perspective.  The attempt to reduce everything to
material concepts would severely limit science.  In fact most of
computer science couldn't be done.  computer scientists don't talk in

View this page MCRT Domain Model: Eternity

2007-08-27 Thread marc . geddes



Click on 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list/web/mcrt-domain-model-eternity
- or copy  paste it into your browser's address bar if that doesn't
work.


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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-27 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 27, 6:45 pm, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 I don't know whether you're hair splitting or speaking loosely, but the above 
 is off the point in a couple of ways.  In the first place empirical science 
 is inductive not deductive; so there is a trivial sense in which you can't 
 deduce any empirical fact, such as someone's aesthetic preferences.  More 
 broadly you can deduce aesthetic preferences, though of course that takes a 
 theory.  A theory is non-physical, but it isn't necessarily an assumption - 
 it may be very well supported inductively.  In fact I can give and easy 
 example of such deduction and I don't even need to directly observe your 
 brain.  I predict that you prefer the appearance of nude young women to that 
 of nude young men.

 Brent Meeker

Well yes, science is both deductive and inductive (with the deductive
thought of as a special case of the inductive).  Yes, you can infer
aesthetic preferences from a theory, which doesn't have to be an
assumptuion.  You are off-topic though.  The discussion was a debate
over whether non-physical aspects (for instance aesthtics preferences)
are entirely explainable in terms of physical aspects (ie particles,
forces and fields).  I've argued convincing that they aren't, since
any level of non-physical description has to slip in non-physical
components -ie subjective experiences about nude young woman ;)


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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-27 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 28, 12:53 am, Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 On 27/08/07, [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:





   I accept that there is more than one way to describe reality, and I
   accept the concept of supervenience, but where I differ with you
   (stubbornly, perhaps) is over use of the word fundamental. The base
   property seems to me more deserving of being called fundamental than
   the supervenient property. If you were to give concise instructions to
   a god who wanted to build a copy of our world you could skip all the
   information about values etc. confident in the knowledge that all this
   extra stuff would emerge as long as the correct physical information
   was conveyed; whereas the converse is not the case.

   [If the mental does not supervene on the physical this changes the
   particular example, but not the general point.]

  Refer the brief definition of property dualism referenced by the link
  Bruno gave:
 http://www.jimpryor.net/teaching/courses/mind/notes/supervenience.html

  Be careful to draw a distinction between 'substances' and
  'properties'.  I accept that the underlying *substance* is likely
  physical, but *properties* are what are super-imposed on the top of
  the underlying substance.  The physical *substance* may be the base
  level, but the physical *properties* aren't.  From the mere fact that
  aesthetic properties are *composed of* physical substances, it does
  not follow that aesthetic properties themselves are physical.  Nor
  does it follow from the fact that physical substances are *neccessery*
  for aesthetic properties,  that they are *sufficient* to fully specify
  aesthetic properties.

  Here's why:  Complete knowledge of the physical properties of your
  brain cannot in fact enable you to deduce your aesthetic preferences
  without additional *non-physical* assumptions.  That is because,as I
  agreed with Bruno (see my previous post), all the explanatory power of
  reason is *mathematical* in nature.  In short, in order for you to
  know how a complete specification of your brain state was correlated
  with your aesthetic preferences, you would have to use your own
  *subjective experiences* as a calibrator in order to make the
  correlation (ie When brain state X, I feel/experience Y).  And these
  subjective experiences are not themsleves physical, but, as I have
  explained again and again, *Mathematical* properties.

 There is this special quality of subjective experience: that which is
 left over after all the objective (third person knowable) information
 is accounted for. Nevertheless, the subjective experience can be
 perfectly reproduced by anyone who has at hand all the relevant third
 person information, even if it can't be reproduced in his own mind.
 You can build a bat which will to itself feel like a bat if you know
 every scientific detail about bats and have appropriately capable
 molecular assemblers at your disposal.

Yes of course.  But your ability to do this would not enable you to
determine what the bat was actually feeling solely from the physical
facts alone.  (If you put matter together the right way, I agree you
will be able to create consciousness, but you won't be explain what
type of consciousness is created solely from physical data).  So the
fact that subjective experience is entirely dependent on physical
substances does not provide a sufficient explanation of subjective
experience.

 physical necessity unless you are a substance dualist, since the usual
 definition of supervenience says that same brain state implies same
 mind state. (It isn't a matter of logical necessity because property
 dualism is logically possible.) In this sense, the mental properties'
 dependence on the physical properties is asymmetrical, which is why I
 say the physical properties are more fundamental. You might agree with
 this analysis but simply have a different definition of fundamental.

I agree that mental properties are depedent on the physical
substance.  The physical substance might be what is fundmanetal. But
physical *properties* are what emerge from the movements of the
underlying substance.  Futher there are other non-physical properties
which appear as well - mathematical for example.




 What if someone simply claimed that they couldn't see how circulation
 was the same as cardiovascular activity: they could understand that
 the heart was a pump, the blood a fluid, the blood vessels conduits,
 but the circulatory system as a whole was something emergent and not
 at all obvious, in the same way that mind was emergent. Alternatively,
 a superintelligent being could claim that the mind was as obviously
 the result of brain activity as circulation was the result of
 cardiovascular activity.

 --
 Stathis Papaioannou

Alternatively a superintelligent being might be quick to castigate you
for your stupidly and claim that I am right *sarcastic*.  We have to
look at the facts based on the information at hand, 

Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-27 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 28, 5:18 am, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 I don't find your arguments at all convincing.  In fact I don't think you've 
 even given an argument - just assertions.


Here  the points of a clear-cut argument.  These are not 'just
assertions':


(1) Mathematical concepts are indispensible to our explanations of
reality.

(2) If something is indispensible to our explanation to the simplest
(most likely) position is that the concept is objectively real
(See David Deutch, 'Criteria for existence', 'Mathematical Platonism'
and 'Argument From indispensibility')

(3)  From (1) and (2) mathematical concepts are objectively real.

(4) There is an essential difference between specific objectively
measurable concepts (as for instance in the case of 'circulation') and
mental concepts.  The difference is that mental processes are
*patterns* (See 'Functionalism') and patterns don't rely on specific
physical properties (for instance clouds, bricks, computers or
anything) could all be conscious if they enacted the right pattern.
So subjective experiences are *patterns*.  And patterns cannot be
objectively measured in the way that specific physical properties can
(See Ray Kurweil 'The Singularity Is Near' for agreement of this).

(5)  Patterns are mathematical in nature.

(6)  Subjective experiences are patterns (from 4).  Therefore
subjective experiences are mathematical properties (from 5).

(7)  From (3) mathematical concepts are objectively real.  But there
exist mathematical concepts (inifinite sets) which cannot be explained
in terms of finite physical processes.  Therefore mathematical
concepts cannot be reduced to material processes.  They abstract (non-
material) but objectively real things.

(8)  From (6) subjective experiences are mathematical properties.
From (7) mathematical properties are abstract (non-material).
Therefore subjective experiences are non-material properties.




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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-26 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 22, 10:14 pm, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 Comp is a short expression made for computationalism.
 Computationalism, which I called also digital mechanism is Descartes
 related doctrine that we are digitalisable machine. I make it often
 precise by defining comp to be the conjunction of Church Thesis and
 yes doctor. The yes doctor assumption is the bet that there is a
 level of description of yourself such that you would survive from some
 digital reconstruction of your body (the 3-person you) made at that
 level.
  From this I don't think it is entirely obvious that materialism (evn
 weak materialism, i.e. physicalism) fails. Actually it is the main
 point that I try to convey, and it is the object of the Universal
 Dovetailer Argument (UDA).
 We don't have to postulate physical laws, if comp is true they have to
 emerge on even a tiny fragment of arithmetical truth. The UDA is not
 constructive (so, after UDA,  it still  could be that the shorter
 derivation of the physical laws from number is intrinsically not
 feasible). But then I show how computer science and mathematical paves
 the way of an actual short (but complex) derivation of at least the
 necessity of a quantum computer as an invariant of all universal
 machine neighborhood: this should provide a path from bit to qubits.
 The quantum uncertainty emerges from the fact that once a machine look
 at herself below her substitution level, she has to find trace of the
 entire set of computations going through its actual relative comp
 state.

Sounds interesting.



  Under my
  version, remember, the primatives are Physical,

 But I don't follow you here. Even without comp I don't take the
 physical for granted. Science (including theology) appeared when
 human took some distance with naive realism, despite billions of year
 of evolution which programmed us to take seriously our local
 neighborhood. But you can understand intellectually that the existence
 of primary matter asks for an act of faith.

I don't see that the existence of the material world is any more or
less an act of faith than the existence of the mathematical world.  So
these same remarks could be applied to *comp*.


Nobody has ever prove that
 that exists, and the very old dream-metaphysical argument put a
 reasonable doubt that such a proof can vere been presented. Now, with
 comp, I pretend that matter is devoid of any explanation power. Even if
 you postulate the existence of matter, you will not been able to use it
 to justify any belief, be them on mind or even matter. But I let you
 study the UDA which is supposed to explain that.

I think we need to draw a careful distinction between the *process* of
reasoning itself, and the external entities that reasoning is *about*
*(ie what it is that our theories are externally referencing).  When
you carefully examine what mathematics is all about, it seems that it
is all about *knowledge* (justified belief).  This is because math
appears to be the study of patterns and when meaning is ascribed to be
these patterns, the result is knowledge.  So:
so Math  Meaningful Patterns  Knowledge.

Since math appears to be equivalent to knowledge itself, it is no
surprise that all explanations with real explanatory power must use
(or indirectly reference) mathematics.  That is to say, I think it's
true that the *process* of reasoning redcues to pure mathematics.
However, it does not follow that all the entities being *referenced*
(refered to) by mathematical theories, are themselves mathematical.

It appears to me that to attempt to reduce everything to pure math
runs the risk of a lapse into pure Idealism, the idea that reality is
'mind created'.  Since math is all about knowledge, a successful
attempt to derive physics from math would appear to mean that there's
nothing external to 'mind' itself.  As I said, there seems to be a
slippery slipe into solipsism/idealism here.  That's why I'm highly
skeptical of your UDA.

I think both yourself (Bruno) and (and you Max Tegmark!) need to
carefully think through consider the implications of your postulate
that all is math.  If the implications seem to be pointing to
something unscientific (ie Idealism/Solipsism) then this might
indicate a serious problem with your postulates ;)







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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-26 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 22, 11:55 pm, Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 I accept that there is more than one way to describe reality, and I
 accept the concept of supervenience, but where I differ with you
 (stubbornly, perhaps) is over use of the word fundamental. The base
 property seems to me more deserving of being called fundamental than
 the supervenient property. If you were to give concise instructions to
 a god who wanted to build a copy of our world you could skip all the
 information about values etc. confident in the knowledge that all this
 extra stuff would emerge as long as the correct physical information
 was conveyed; whereas the converse is not the case.

 [If the mental does not supervene on the physical this changes the
 particular example, but not the general point.]

Refer the brief definition of property dualism referenced by the link
Bruno gave:
http://www.jimpryor.net/teaching/courses/mind/notes/supervenience.html


Be careful to draw a distinction between 'substances' and
'properties'.  I accept that the underlying *substance* is likely
physical, but *properties* are what are super-imposed on the top of
the underlying substance.  The physical *substance* may be the base
level, but the physical *properties* aren't.  From the mere fact that
aesthetic properties are *composed of* physical substances, it does
not follow that aesthetic properties themselves are physical.  Nor
does it follow from the fact that physical substances are *neccessery*
for aesthetic properties,  that they are *sufficient* to fully specify
aesthetic properties.

Here's why:  Complete knowledge of the physical properties of your
brain cannot in fact enable you to deduce your aesthetic preferences
without additional *non-physical* assumptions.  That is because,as I
agreed with Bruno (see my previous post), all the explanatory power of
reason is *mathematical* in nature.  In short, in order for you to
know how a complete specification of your brain state was correlated
with your aesthetic preferences, you would have to use your own
*subjective experiences* as a calibrator in order to make the
correlation (ie When brain state X, I feel/experience Y).  And these
subjective experiences are not themsleves physical, but, as I have
explained again and again, *Mathematical* properties.






 They have to be in there somewhere, since it appears that a particular
 brain state is necessary and sufficient for a particular aesthetic
 preference. In the same way, cardiovascular system activity is
 necessary and sufficient for the circulation of the blood. The
 difference between the two cases is that with circulation it is
 obviously so but with mind it is not obviously so: we can imagine the
 appropriate brain activity without mind but not the appropriate
 cardiovascular activity without circulation. But maybe this is just a
 problem with our imagination!

Ah, but there is a difference!  In the example you gave, circulation
is *defined* by the specific physical characteristics of
cardiovascular activity.  But the mind is *not* defined by specific
physical characteristics of the brain (this is the error that
philosopher John Searle keep making).  In the example of circulation
you gave, you can take direct objective measurements of the physical
characteristics of cardiovascular activity.  But as Ray Kurzweil
pointed out in his book 'The Singularity Is Near', you cannot take
direct objective measurements of a mind.  That's because the workings
of a mind are not defined by any specific physical characteristics of
the system, but are *mathematical* properties ('patterns') as
explained by 'Functionalism'.  Further, these mathematical properties
are not just fictions (words we use to explain things better) but
appear to be dispensable to our explanations of reality.  These points
indicate a big and real difference between your example (circulation)
and mind/brain.




 I have to think about this further, but I have questions. As well as
 the initial point I made about what deserves to be called fundamental
 (perhaps a definition is called for?), I don't see why certain
 categories are irreducible. For example, chemistry (physical
 transformations) could be seen as a special case of what you call
 mechanics (laws of the actions of forces), chiefly the electrostatic
 force. Also, it would be helpful if you could describe the underlying
 motivation and history of the model, or refer me to previous posts if
 I've missed them.

 --
 Stathis Papaioannou

Refer my model again:
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list/web/mcrt-domain-model-eternity

The reason I don't think that categories in my model are reducible
across the *horizontal* axis is because of property dualism, as I have
explained.  The reason I don't that that the categories in my model
are reducible across the *vertical* axis is because of the difference
in levels of abstraction (this may indeed have something to do with
Russell's emergence).

For instance, for 

Re: $US 2 million math puzzle challenge

2007-08-23 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 24, 3:46 am, Tom Caylor [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


  I think I will spend my limited time and energy on the decaying earth
  doing other things.  Without even knowing much about the puzzle other
  than reading the puzzle description, my guess is that without some
  historic breakthrough on some unsolved problem in algebra, no matter
  what algorithmic method (except for possibly quantum computation) is
  used, the complexity requires more time and interest than is contained
  in the remaining history of mankind.

  Tom

 In fact, it likely could be that the problem is already proved (in
 algebra) to be too complex for non-quantum algorithms to solve in
 history, and that the focus of the prize is then on the development of
 quantum computation.- Hide quoted text -



According to what I read, a solution to the puzzle is likely to be
equivalent to a solution to the P=NP problem.


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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-21 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 21, 10:31 pm, Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 Well, return to a concrete example. Yesterday, I thought red was the
 best colour for my new car, but today I think blue is better. My
 aesthetic values would seem to have changed. There must be some reason
 for this, of course. At one level, the reason may be something such as
 I now realise that blue is a better colour, or I don't want my car
 to be the same colour as half the other cars in the street. But at a
 more fundamental level than this, the reason is that physical changes
 in my brain have caused me to change my mind. Perhaps there is an even
 more fundamental level than this, such as mathematical Idealism, which
 underpins physics, but this seems to me if anything yet another step
 removed from calling the aesthetic values themselves fundamental.

 --
 Stathis Papaioannou- Hide quoted text -


Here you are implicitly assuming that there is ONE fundamental level
of reality only.  Why do you keep making this assumption?  Property
Dualism says that there is more than one way to describe reality, and
each way is no more or less fundamental than the other.

Your motivations are not *caused* by the physical processes in your
brain.  Instead, I think it's more accurate to say that your
motivations are *super-imposed* on top of these physical processes.
But motivations, not being physical, can't cause physical changes
(indeed they can exert no causal influence on the physical world at
all).  Nor are physical processes in any sense *causing* changes in
your motivations.Of course since we know that our minds are
dependent on the physical world, motivational states have to be
*correlated* with the physical states.  But correlation is not
causation.

Physics only describes physical properties.  Physics can give a
complete explanation of the state changes in the *physical* properties
of your brain, but these properties are all about particles, energy
and fields.  They are not about aesthetic preferences.  The physical
explanations cannot explain your aesthetic preferences.  Where in the
particles, energy and fields in your brain can you find aesthetic
preferences?  ;)

I postulate a three-fold property dualism - my proposed three ways to
describe reality are *Physical, *Teleological and *Mathematical. You
could describe the same reality in any one of these three ways, but I
think its a mistake to say that any one of these ways is more or less
fundmental than the others.  It helps if you look at the diagram I
posted - the physical concepts are all displayed in the left column ,
the teleological concepts are all in the middle column, and the
mathematical concepts are all in the right column (concepts classified
by subject area).  The idea is that the concepts in one row are all on
the same level- none is more or less fundamental than the others.
Here's the diagram:

http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list/web/mcrt-domain-model-eternity



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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-21 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 22, 11:26 am, Russell Standish [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 Marc, how does your property dualism differ from the account of
 emergence I give in On Complexity and Emergence? (If indeed it does 
 differ!).

 Cheers


I've only given your text a quick skim so far.  As far as I can tell,
property dualism has got nothing to do with complexity and emergence.
Property dualism is a rather subtle position in ontology.


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Reflectivity solved. Consciousness Explained.

2007-08-21 Thread marc . geddes

Here is out-lined the sketch of a strategy for attacking the puzzles
of reflectivity and consciousness.  Reflectivity is the puzzle how a
cognitive system can effectively reason about its own internel
processes - reasoning about reasoning.  Consciousness is here used in
the sense of subjective experience, including sensations and
feelings.

The strategy considers Reflectivity not to be a part of decision
making, but rather as a system of internal communciation.
Consciousness is considered as a mathematical proccess strongly
associated with knowledge representation.  It is argued that
consciousness and reflectivity are one and the same one.

---

A long standing puzzle in decision theory is how decision theory could
be applied to itself - that is, how could the cognitive provesses of
decision making be applied to reason about these very proccesses
(reflection).  The reason there is not yet any 'Reflective Decision
Theory' is likely to be that the very concept itself is ill-
conceived.  That is, there is no 'Reflective Decision Theory'.

Concepts of 'Utility', goals and decisions about how to most
effectively achieve these goals are the domain of a cognitive
'decision making' system.  And 'Decision Theory' is the science of
such systems.

But the concepts can only be applied to 'external goals' (i.e goals in
the external world).  To attempt to solve 'Reflectivity' by trying to
deploy the same concepts of decision theory to the internal workings
of the cognitive system is simply an invalid use of these concepts.

The first step to solving reflectivity then, involves attempting to
ascertain the true nature of 'Reflection'.  For 'Reflectivity' is
*not* in fact, in the decision making business.  The true role of
'Reflection' it seems is *Communciation*.  That is to say, it appears
that 'Reflectivity' should be thought of, not as part of *Decision
Theory*, but instead as part of *Communication Theory*.

This is because any cognitive system of sufficient complexity to
achieve genuine intelligence appears to require the division of the
system into seperate modular 'sub-agents' which interact with each
other to achieve desirable results.  Marvin Minsky wrote  a famous
book 'The Society of Mind' emphasizing this soup of many interacting
agents.  It's not enough for a cognitive so composed to merely have an
effective system of decision making.  There must also be an effective
*Communication System* to integrate and co-ordinate the behaviour of
the all the sub-agents into an effective whole.  And this is the
aspect of AI research that has been neglected.  Further, the
connection between 'Communication' and Reflectivity' has appeared to
elude the minds of the best and brightest.  But it is here being
established that an effective communication system *is precisely the
solution to reflectivity*.  The two problems are one and the same.

If the hypothesis is correct, new strategies for atatcking the
reflectivity puzzle can be formulated.  For one thing, there is a wide
body of pre-existing knowledge on Communications Theory which can
start to brought to bear on the reflectivity puzzles.  For another,
analogies from the field of computer networking can be ported over to
the reflectivity problem.

For instance: Consider sub-agents as nodes, the combined actions of
the sub-agents as networks and the interactions of the sub-agents as
data transfers.

But what justification is there for thinking that this hypothesis is
applicable to reflectivity?  To see the reasons, let us consider that
other great puzzle, subjective consciousness, or subjective
experience.  What is consciousness.  For all the huge volume of past
words expended in this debate, there emerge three key points:

The first point is that consciousness is not a *thing*.  It is a
*process*.  The second point is that consciousness is not something
concrete.  It is not for instance, a process similar to digestion.
The process instead appears to involve *asbtract patterns*
(functionalism).  Patterns are abstractions which are the essence of
mathematics.  Thus we can say that consciousness is a *mathematical
process*.  And the third point is that consciousness appears to
involve a cognitive system examining aspects of its own internal
operation.

All three points should immediately lead us to suspect that
consciousness is connected to 'Reflectivity'.  On the first point,
conscious as a proccess ; a working reflection system is also a
process.  On the second point, consciousness as patterns (mathematical
abstractions) ; a working reflection system involves reasoning about
reasoning ; reasoning uses predicate logic and probabilities - fields
of mathematics.  Further, patterns are both the essence of mathematics
and representations of knowledge itself.  So a series of reasoning
steps (an algorithm) is really a mathematical construction.  Finally
on the thrid point, a cognitive system examining its own internal
working smacks of reflection immediately.  Thus a reasonable a 

Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-21 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 22, 4:41 pm, Russell Standish [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 That's a pity. I thought it might be something comprehensible, rather
 than just plain mysterious.

 Cheers


The ida of property dualism is very simple:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Property_dualism

It just means that the same underlying reality can manifest itself as
multiple properties.  Let me give a couple of analogies (bear in mind
that these are only analogies).  Take a glass of water 50% fill.  It
has two properties:

'Glass Half Fill'
'Glas Half Empty'

Same thing, two different properties.

Look at the picture here:
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/YoungGirl-OldWomanIllusion.html

Same picture two different perspectives:

'Old Lady'
'Young Woman'

--

Multiple perspectives of the same reality, all perspectives equally
valid.  Neither perspective is more fundamental than the others.
Remember the rough analogies above and now move to my proposed real
exmaple:

'Mathematical Description'
'Physical Description'
'Teleological Description'

Multiple properties, same reality.  All of these three kinds of
descriptions are on the same level.  Nothing is 'emerging' from
anything.  All three perspectives are equally real and no one of them
is fundamental.

That's it.  Really simple.


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Here's to Eternity

2007-08-20 Thread marc . geddes

We are all playing the game of 'Eternity' ;)  I have uploaded to the
list my final version of the top-level 'solution' to the puzzle of
eternity.  (Revised yet again but this one is the very last -
promise).

The page is my domain model for all reality at the highest possible
level of abstraction.I am the supreme master of system analysis.
My system analyses don't lie.  ( I have the qualifications to prove it
- straight A's and B's in programming and DP modelling papers from AUT
University)  I tell you that this domain model is the solution to
everything. For those who seek a clue, the answers are there.

But in any event, the 27 named subject areas are a good 'pointer' to
what subjects new-comers to reality theory need to research.  It's a
good arrow to point new-comers in the right direction.

Five card stud, nothing wild, the skies the limit

Good luck ringers.


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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-20 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 20, 9:26 pm, Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 On 20/08/07, [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

  On Aug 19, 11:17 pm, Giu1i0 Pri5c0 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
   Hi Marc welcome back! I had not seen you here for months.

  No.  That's because after the terrible insults levelled at me by some...

 Surely not on this list!

 --
 Stathis Papaioannou

Nah, nothing to do with this list, I'm talking about experiences on
other lists.  Enough to put a person off the web for life.  Some real
nasty minded creeps out there all right.


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Re: Major revision to my Top-Level Ontology

2007-08-20 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 21, 3:10 am, Mark Peaty [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 I searched in vain 
 forhttp://marc.geddes.googlepages.com/MCRT_ClassDiagram.html

 The page you have requested could not be found. (404)

 As an explanation of the meaning of eternal truth etcetera, this
 to me seems redolent of Douglas [of blessed memory] Adams'
 God's last words to His/Her creatures:

 WE APOLOGISE FOR THE INCONVENIENCE

 Regards

 Mark Peaty  CDES

 [EMAIL PROTECTED]

 http://www.arach.net.au/~mpeaty/



Heh.  You don't find it because I decided to take it off my Google
space and instead up-load it here to the 'Everything-List'.  It's
under 'Files'.   Here it is:

http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list/web/mcrt-domain-model-eternity

At a superficial look it just names the 27 subject areas that I think
need to be researched for achieving a true TOE.  So it will valuable
for new-comers wanting to know what areas they should research.

At a deeper look though.'42' (Hitch-Hiker's Gude) :D  I've put
'the answer' without the documenation ;)

Cheers


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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-20 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 20, 10:01 pm, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


  No, that's not what I'm referring to.  I'm referring to 'Abstract
  Universals' - Platonic Ideals that all observers with complete
  information would agree with.

 Even in the restricted arithmetical Platonia, no observer can have
 complete information. But they good agree on many subsets  of
 propositions.

Agreed.  I should have said 'all observers with *sufficient*
information'.



  'redness' is not a *thing* it's a *process* - as a phenomenal
  (subjective) quality it's a *mathematical* property associated with
  the running of an algorithm (or computation) .  But this is NOT a
  *physical* property.  The mathematical property (redness) is *attached
  to* (resides in, is dependent upon) the physical substrate
  implementing the algorithm giving rise to the subjective experience ,
  but the mathematical property *per se* is not physical.  It's
  abstract.  It's really quite obvious in retrospect - physical
  properties involve energy, mathematical properties involve knowledge
  (meaningful patterns).  Old David Chalmers was right about this one
  (see his 'property dualism').  The two properties just ain't the same
  and no amount of semantic trickery is going to reduce one to the
  other.

 Math is not physics. But a lot of people argues (incorrectly imo) that
 you can reduce math to physics. And I do agree that the concept of
 quantum information can be used to defend that idea (again, not
 convincingly imo).

But I agree with you here.  I don't think math can be reduced to
physics.  I thought I was clear about this.  I made it clear I thought
mathematical properties are not the same as physical properties.
Physical properties are about energy transfers, mathematical
properties are about knowledge (meaningful patterns).


 Actually I made a point (UDA) that if the brain (or whatever is
 necessary for consciousness to manifest itself) is a digitalizable
 entity, then it is just impossible that physics is not
 derivable---ontically and epistemologically---from number/computer
 science.

Hmm.  I doubt physics is 'derivable' from numer/computer theory
(becuase of the property dualism I am advocating).  But I don't think
math is derivable from physics either.  I need to study this UDA
argument (which I'll get to in due course).

 Of course by admitting dualism, you already abandon comp. (I do
 nevertheless agree with some point you make here and there).
 Actually intersubjective agreement is similar to the first person
 plural notion of comp, and should comprise experimental physics, world
 sharing, etc. But it is just a form of objectivity, at some level.

  It's true I've recently settled on property dualism.  But could you
please explain exactly what you mean by *comp* so I can determine if
there's a conflict?



 But apparently, like Chalmers, you seem to dismiss even the possibility
 of comp. OK?

My 'property dualism' is quite the same as Chalmer's version.
Chalmers apparently makes phenomal properties primatives.  I don't do
that.  My 'primatives' are *Physical properties*, *Teleological
Properties* and *Mathematical Properties*.  I would then identity
phenomal properties with mathematical properties.  I think phenomenal
properties are just a word we use to describe what are really
mathematical properties.

Again, please explain exactly what you eman by *comp*.



 I share nevertheless your platonism on some value (truth, justice,
 freedom,  even beauty on which Plato, Plotinus and the greeks, and
 indians, have succeeded in changing my mind.
 I'm not sure I understand your notion of explanation, from previews
 posts. Physics, does not really explain, it does some genuine and quite
 wonderful compression of the data, but it presupposes somehow the
 mystery (existence, consistence, consciousness) by abstracting from the
 observer. Such an abstraction has been a brilliant and quite useful
 methodological simplifying idea, but it is just an error to abandon the
 search of a global picture of the world in which qualitative
 apprehension, by humans or machines,  are taken seriously.

Again, I thought I made it clear I wasn't trying reduce everything to
physics.


 Also, you take as axiom that reality is explainable, but taking into
 account we belongs to that reality, rises the fact that some feature of
 reality are not explainable by us. Despite we can bet on some negative
 (limitative) meta-explanation.

 Bruno

 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/- Hide quoted text -

I'm not sure where we disagree here.  By 'explainable' I don't mean
'fully explainable' (since of course there are things like
uncomputables which aren't comprehensible), I just meant that I think
there do exist meta-explanations of reality (in the form of eternal
conceptual schemes) at high enough levels of abstraction.


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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-20 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 20, 9:45 pm, Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 On 20/08/07, [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:





  Now consider sentient agent motivations (and remember the analogy with
  the physics argument I gave above).

  *Consider an agent with a set of motivations A
  *Consider the transition of that agent to a different set of
  motivations B (ie the agent changes its mind about something)

  Question:  Why did agent A transition from motivation set A to
  motivation set B?

  Assumption:  The transition must be explicable

  Conclusion:  There must exist objective 'laws of value' which explain
  why there was a transition from state A to state B.

  And that argument (greatly fleshed out of course) basically proves
  that that such objective principles exist, given only the assumption
  that reality is explicable.


 But surely the transition from A to B must be fully explained by the
 laws of physics underlying physical transitions in the agent's brain,
 or state transitions in an abstract machine.

 --
 Stathis Papaioannou

*sigh*.  Only if Teleological explanations (discussions about agent
motivations) can be completely reduced to (replaced by) physical
explanations (discussions about physics).  I don't think they can,
since I advocate 'property dualism'.  I'm saying that you have three
different kinds of properties (Physical, Teleological, Mathematical)
which are correlated with each other (as science requires) but that
you cannot fully  reduce mathematical and teleological explanations to
physical explanations.

IF you accept that teleological properties are not identical to
physical properties ('Property Dualism'), THEN my sketch of the
argument for the existence of objective laws of value holds.  But
that's a very big 'if' of course.


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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-20 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 20, 10:01 pm, Bruno Marchal [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Le 19-août-07, à 08:07, [EMAIL PROTECTED] a écrit :


 But apparently, like Chalmers, you seem to dismiss even the possibility
 of comp. OK?


Sorry, I meant to say in previous post that my version property is NOT
quite the same as Chalmer's version.  Again, Chalmer's apparently
makes phenomenal properties primatives, but I do not.  Under my
version, remember, the primatives are Physical, Teleological and
Mathematical entities.  'phenomenal' properties are just a word we use
to describe what are really mathematical properties.  My version need
not conflict with *comp*.


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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-19 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 19, 12:26 am, Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 This all makes sense if you are referring to the values of a
 particular entity. Objectively, the entity has certain values and we
 can use empirical means to determine what these values are. However,
 if I like red and you like blue, how do we decide which colour is
 objectively better?

No, that's not what I'm referring to.  I'm referring to 'Abstract
Universals' - Platonic Ideals that all observers with complete
information would agree with.

What they have to be are inert EXPLANATORY PRINCIPLES, taking the
form:  'Beauty has abstract properties A B C D E F G'.  'Liberty has
abstract properties A B C D E F G' etc etc.  None the less, as
explained, these abstract specifications would still be amenable to
indirect empirical testing to the extent that they could be used to
predict agent emotional reactions to social events.




 You could make a similar claim for the abstract quality redness,
 which is associated with light of a certain wavelength but is not the
 same thing as it. But it doesn't seem right to me to consider
 redness as having a separate objective existence of its own; it's
 just a name we apply to a physical phenomenon.

I don't agree that 'redness is just a name we apply to a physical
phenomenon' (although I agree with you its not an objectively existing
primative).  I thought about these issues hard out for a long long
long long long long LONG time before finally nailing 'em.
Unfortunately the answers are not something I easily explain in short
sentences on Internet messageboards ;)

'redness' is not a *thing* it's a *process* - as a phenomenal
(subjective) quality it's a *mathematical* property associated with
the running of an algorithm (or computation) .  But this is NOT a
*physical* property.  The mathematical property (redness) is *attached
to* (resides in, is dependent upon) the physical substrate
implementing the algorithm giving rise to the subjective experience ,
but the mathematical property *per se* is not physical.  It's
abstract.  It's really quite obvious in retrospect - physical
properties involve energy, mathematical properties involve knowledge
(meaningful patterns).  Old David Chalmers was right about this one
(see his 'property dualism').  The two properties just ain't the same
and no amount of semantic trickery is going to reduce one to the
other.



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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-19 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 19, 9:25 am, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 Marc, refers to a commonality averaged across many events and agents so 
 apparently he has in mind a residue of consensus or near consensus.  

Correct.

Color preferences might average out to nil except in narrow circumstances, 
e.g. Green people are bad. or Ferraris should be red.  So objective 
really means intersubjective agreement among humans.

If color preferences averaged to nil then there are no objective color
preferences.  My very definition of objective values implies that some
preferences can't average to nil (or by definition, these preferences
could not be objective).

intersubjective agreement per se isn't exactly the same as
*objective*.  The intersubjective agreement is *implied by* the
proposed objectiveness.  That is, the intersubjective agreement was my
proposed way to empirically test the objective preference
hypothesis.


I wonder how big a sample is needed though to qualify as objective?  
Everybody?  including children?  In a lot of the world women would be excluded 
from the count.  What about animals?

Good question.





  Finally, the proof that objective values exist is quite simple.
  Without them, there simply could be no explanation of agent
  motivations.  

 So you would say that the actions of say a serial killer can only be 
 explained by pointing to some aspect of his values that we share, e.g. sexual 
 satisfaction?

Not exactly.  The *physical* actions of a serial killer have physical
explainations.  But If the serial killer clearly had teleological
motives, then these motives require explanation (by the very nature of
the scientific world view).  And this implies the objective existence
of platonically existing value preferences.


 You might, with great advances in neuroscience, infer what values an agent 
 holds from the physical description.  That would be explanation in one sense. 
  In general there is no such thing as the explanation of something.  An 
 explanation must start with something you understand or accept and show how 
 something you didn't understand follows.  So there can be different 
 explanations depending on where you start and the level of the thing to be 
 explained.

I agree that there's different kinds of explanations.  That was
exactly my point.  I agree that 'you might, with great advances in
neuroscience, infer what values an agent holds from the physical
descriptions'.  But this inference would NOT be a *telelogical
explanation*, it would only be a *physical explanation*.  Think levels
of explanations.  Physical properties invovle energy.  Teleologial
properties involve preferences and goals.  There's a 'property
dualism' here again.  No amount of explanations involving energy
transfer are going to give you explanations in terms of preferences
and goals.  You could show how the two sets of properties are
correlated.  But descriptions of correlations are not explanations.  A
*teleological explanation* requires you to explain why some social
happening caused an agent to move from teleological state A to
teleological state B.  And no merely physical explaantion can possibly
do this.





 The teleological properties of agents (their goals and
  motivations) simply are not physical.  For sure, they are dependent on
  and reside in physical processes, but they are not identical to these
  physical processes.  This is because physical causal processes are
  concrete, where as teleological properties cannot be measured
  *directly* with physical devices (they are abstract)  .

  The whole basis of the scientific world view is that things have
  objective explanations.  

 Here too objective means something like intersubjective agreement.  The 
 conservation laws of physics can be derived from invariance under change of 
 point of view of the observer.

Well, yeah, I sort of agree, but see the caveat I gave earlier.
'Objective' *implies* intersubjective agreement.  Although the two
terms are not the same, I agree that *in practice* (in terms of
emperical realiy), intersubjective agreement is what objective
means.



 Physical properties have objective
  explanations (the laws of physics).  Teleological properties (such as
  agent motivations) are not identical to physical properties.

 But there's not as much intersubjective agreement as in physics either.  Some 
 actions are motivated by religous piety, some by biological hunger.

There is certainly far less intersubjective agreement than in
physics.  That's why I emphaszied an 'averaging' across agents.
Something like statistical rules across many events and agents.



  Something needs to explain these teleological properties.  QED
  objective 'laws of teleology' (objective values) have to exist.

 In one sense  of explanation, motivations are explicable by evolution.  If 
 your ancestors didn't love their children you wouldn't be here.

Only, as you point out, in *one* sense of explanation.  ;)



  What forms would objective 

Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-19 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 19, 11:17 pm, Giu1i0 Pri5c0 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Hi Marc welcome back! I had not seen you here for months.

No.  That's because after the terrible insults levelled at me by some
I had to take a break to make absolutely certain that my arguments,
theories (and java code) are all impeccable and unbeatable ;)  And I'm
very pleased to report that they now are.

As you know, I've been studying computer science.  A year in I'm
fluent in java, object oriented technology, data and process
modelling, UML, Systems Analysis etc etc.

I make a decent system analysis and programmer, but I don't have much
math talent.  Kinda knew that already.

Any way, after absorbing all this knowledge my thoughts are clear,
crisp and fully sane.  My theories cut with impossible speed and power
now.  I have come through my own 'existential crises' and all my basic
contentions are proven correct.  You can be sure that the fact I've
shown up again means that I'm very very very very very very very very
very very very very very confident I was right about it all. :D



 Concerning objective values, as we have discussed in the past, I don't
 see any rational argument in support of their existence.

Ah yes, this old debate.  I started out sure that objective values
existed, I had a period of serious doubt, now I'm sure again :)
Please carefully read my earlier posts in this threads.


For example
 if one has chosen to consider the elimination of the human species as
 a priority value (like some fundamentalist deep ecologists have
 written), there is just no way you or I can rationally persuade them
 of the contrary. Of course we _can_ try to persuade them not to act,
 but this does not have much to do with values.

Ah, you see, this *not* what I mean by 'objective values'.  I was able
to see how objective values could exist by carefully seperating out
different levels of abstraction.

As I explain, there are three levels of asbtraction:

(1)  An ethical rule itself
(2)  A goal and procedures for moving towards goal (the optimization
target)
(3)  Platonic Ideals

(1) and (2) are not objective.  Only (3) is.  And I don't think (3)
takes the form of a value directly.  It's a wholly abstract
construction of the form:

beauty has abstract properties A B C D E F G H I J K etc

Look at the example above.  No goal or ethical rule is specified
here.  It's simply an abstraction which could be applied to many
possible situations.  Rather like the laws of physics.

It's certainly true that the ethical rules we make are human
constructs.  I agree with you there.  But as I explain above, on a
higher level of abstraction there can still be objective platonic
ideals.  I will try to explain this more fully later.

Cheers




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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-19 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 19, 11:17 pm, Giu1i0 Pri5c0 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Question: why do you _want_
 to think that there are objective values?
 G.

Here's my answer:

I want to to think that there are objective values because I dislike
the idea that important aspects of our (human) existence are
inexplicable.  And make no mistake, without objective values, aspects
of the human condition *would* be simply inexplicable.  Here's the
argument, by analogy with physics:

*Consider a physical object in state A.
*Consider the transition of that object to state B.

Question:  What explains why the object transitioned from state A to
state B?

Assumption:  The transition must be explicable.

Conclusion:  There exists objective physical laws which explain why
there was a transition from state A to state B.

--

Now consider sentient agent motivations (and remember the analogy with
the physics argument I gave above).

*Consider an agent with a set of motivations A
*Consider the transition of that agent to a different set of
motivations B (ie the agent changes its mind about something)

Question:  Why did agent A transition from motivation set A to
motivation set B?

Assumption:  The transition must be explicable

Conclusion:  There must exist objective 'laws of value' which explain
why there was a transition from state A to state B.

And that argument (greatly fleshed out of course) basically proves
that that such objective principles exist, given only the assumption
that reality is explicable.

As I explained, I don't regard ethical rules or goals *per se* as
objective.  They are human constructs.  But at a deeper level of
abstraction, there have to be general principles which explain such
things as values.




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Re: Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-19 Thread marc . geddes

3PV observation and analysis _may_ eventually turn up with objective
criteria that establish universally consistent and reliable
correlation between certain brain processes and certain reported
phenomenal experiences

Of course.  It appears from all scientific evidence that phenomenal
experiences are completely dependent upon physical processes.  But
this does *not* establish that phenomenal experiences are *identical*
to physical processes.  From the fact that phenomenal experiences
supervene upon physical processes, it does not follow that one is
reducible to the other.



I repeat:

(1) Phenomenal properties are mathematical properties.  Mathematical
properties are not human fictions, but are objectively real things,
since they are indispensable  for our explaantions of reality.

*Mathematical properties are about meaningful patterns (knowledge).
*Physical properties are about energy transfers.
*They are correlated but they're not the same thing.  They're as
different as milk and water.  And any-one who can't see this is
blind.


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Why Objective Values Exist

2007-08-18 Thread marc . geddes

Objective values are NOT specifications of what agents SHOULD do.
They are simply explanatory principles.  The analogy here is with the
laws of physics.  The laws of physics *per se* are NOT descriptions of
future states of matter.  The descriptions of the future states of
matter are *implied by* the laws of physics, but the laws of physics
themselves are not the descriptions.  You don't need to specify future
states of matter to understand the laws of physics.  By analogy, the
objective laws of morality are NOT specifications of optimization
targets.  These specifications are *implied by the laws* of morality,
but you can understand the laws of morality well without any knowledge
of optimization targets.

Thus it simply isn't true that you need to precisely specify an
optimization target ( a 'goal') for an effective agent (for instance
an AI).  Again, consider the analogy with the laws of  physics.
Imperfect knowledge of the laws of physics, doesn't prevent scientists
from building scientific tools to better understand the laws of
physics.   This is because the laws of physics are explanatory
principles, NOT direct specifications of future states of matter.
Similarly, an agent (for instance an AI)  does not require a precisely
specified goal , since imperfect knowledge of objective laws of
morality is sufficient to produce behaviour which leads to more
accurate knowledge.  Again, the  objective laws of morality are NOT
optimization targets, but explanatory principles.

The other claim of the objective value sceptics was that proposed
objective values can't be empirically tested.  Wrong.  Again, the
misunderstanding stems from the mistaken idea that objective values
would be optimization targets.  They are not.  They are, as explained,
explanatory principles.  And these principles CAN be tested.  The test
is the extent to which these principles can be used to understand
agent motivations - in the sense of emotional reactions to social
events.  If an agent experiences a negative emotional reaction, mark
the event as 'agent sees it as bad'.  If an agent experience a
positive emotional reaction, mark the event as 'agent sees it as
good'.  Different agents have different emotional reactions to the
same event, but that doesn't mean there isn't a commonality averaged
across many events and agents .  A successful 'theory of objective
values' would abstract out this commonality to explain why agents
experienced generic negative or positive emotions to generic events.
And this would be *indirectly* testable by empirical means.

Finally, the proof that objective values exist is quite simple.
Without them, there simply could be no explanation of agent
motivations.  A complete physical description of an agent is NOT an
explanation of the agent's teleological properties (ie the agent
motivations).  The teleological properties of agents (their goals and
motivations) simply are not physical.  For sure, they are dependent on
and reside in physical processes, but they are not identical to these
physical processes.  This is because physical causal processes are
concrete, where as teleological properties cannot be measured
*directly* with physical devices (they are abstract)  .

The whole basis of the scientific world view is that things have
objective explanations.  Physical properties have objective
explanations (the laws of physics).  Teleological properties (such as
agent motivations) are not identical to physical properties.
Something needs to explain these teleological properties.  QED
objective 'laws of teleology' (objective values) have to exist.

What forms would objective values take?  As explained, these would NOT
be 'optimization targets' (goals or rules of the form 'you should do
X').  They couldn't be, because ethical rules differ according to
culture and  are made by humans.

What they have to be are inert EXPLANATORY PRINCIPLES, taking the
form:  'Beauty has abstract properties A B C D E F G'.  'Liberty has
abstract properties A B C D E F G' etc etc.  None the less, as
explained, these abstract specifications would still be amenable to
indirect empirical testing to the extent that they could be used to
predict agent emotional reactions to social events.


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Re: $US 2 million math puzzle challenge

2007-08-10 Thread marc . geddes



On Aug 9, 11:47 pm, Scipione [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Hi Marc,

 I knew this puzzle quite well; i tried to order it but i have some
 trouble
 obtaining it (i'm italian and as you can readhttp://uk.eternityii.com/
 Italy isn't included in the country where such puzzle is sold and
 where the
 solution can come from (!) ).



 So...meanwhile i tried to obatin my own copy, i would like to see how
 is the
 real puzzle...hence...i would ask you if you could be so kind to take
 and
 send me a picture of the gameboard filled with all the pieces (but
 please
 dont' put them in the winning order: i want to solve it by my
 self ;) )

 Raffaele..

Sorry I can't publically share information about the puzzle pieces.
This message comes with the game:

Christopher Monckton holds the copyright in all the ETERNITY and
 ETERNITY II puzzles. The details of the pieces of the clue puzzles as
well as
 of the prize puzzle are protected by copyright, and any circulation
of
 them, in any form or medium, will result in action for breach of
 copyright.

To protect other solvers, the judges will disqualify any entry whose
 existence becomes publicly known before the date of the annual
scrutiny
 following its submission, and any entrant who has publicly disclosed
any
 details of any of the Eternity II pieces in any form or medium.

But there seem to be many places where it's available.  Hope you find
a copy from somewhere.


 Anyway i started to work on it: i'm studing the problem creating my
 own
 software working on some possible puzzle; however as you can
 understand,
 the right approach depends on the particular distribution of symbols
 (the
 number of different triangles used in the pieces and their
 combinations)
 chosen by the author of the real game.

I too am creating software to try to solve the puzzle.  I have a class
diagram - software enginnered using my MCRT ontology of course ;) and
am now implementing the design.  There is a group on Yahoo you may be
interested in where many people are talking about using AI / Genetic
Algorithms etc to try to crack the puzzle.  Link to the group below.
Good luck:

http://games.groups.yahoo.com/group/eternity_two/


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Re: Major revision to my Top-Level Ontology

2007-08-06 Thread marc . geddes


Addendum:  Some further revisions since yesterday... I was almost
there yesterday but not quite.  The last of my confusions have
cleared.  The final revision for my top-level onotlogy is completely
'locked in'.  Added brief descriptions of top-level classes:

http://marc.geddes.googlepages.com/MCRT_ClassDiagram.html

The important point is that there appear to be 27 fundamental
ontological primatives for reality which cannot be simplified or
merged any further.  These 27 primatives generate 27 irreducible
classes for any completely general model of reality.  And the classes
appear to be related to each other in a very precise way.  Below I
give the brief descriptions of what I believe these classes to be and
the domain model (see link below) hints at the precise nature of the
relationship I think I may have discovered.  I now believe I
understand literally 'everything' (in the general conceptual sense at
least).  Of course the devils is in the details and decades may pass
before a precise new scientific theory emerges.  Be patient whilst I
write up more information about my theory, since I've revealed very
little so far.  But I'm very very very confident but I've hit the
metaphorical bullseye at the center of literally everything.

The 27 fundamental irreducible classes are as follows:

Field Physics: Laws of space and time

Thermodynamics: Laws of energy exchange

Mechanics: Laws of the action of forces

Computational Physics: Physical systems

Chemistry: Physical transformations

Robotics: Directed physical actions

Solid State Physics: Properties of static concrete objects

Engineering: Properties of static complex structures

Data Communications: Properties of communication hardware and
information theory

Virtue: Ideals for personal goals or the study or Eudaimonia (Self
Fulfillment)

Morality: Ideals for social interaction or the study of Liberty

Aesthetics: Ideals for communication or the study of Beauty

Social Psychology: Roles and Personas of agents

Decision Theory: The process of agent decision making

Communication: Agent interaction for the exchange of meaningful
inforamtion

Economics: Goods and Services

Memetics: Cultural Beliefs

Linguistics: Social Languages

Symbolic Logic: Formal systems and Mathematical foundations

Category Theory: Numbers and Algebra

Calculus: Analysis: Limits and Rates of Change

Theory Of Computation: Formal Proof Theory and Deductive Reasoning

Bayesian Induction: Probability Theory and Inductive Reasoning

Reflective Possibility Theory: Reflective Reasoning

Software: Computer Programs and Applications

Software Engineering: Design, Analysis and Implementation of software

Modelling Languages: Scientific/Programming languages for data
modelling

---

Annotation in my Log-Book reads:

Date:  06 August, 2007
Time:  4.45pm
Place: 'Gloria Jean's Coffee', Borders, Queen Street, Auckland,New
Zealand

Note: At this time I completed the top-level MCRT Ontology.  At the
conceptual level this is the day I finally understood everything!
About 5 years have passed since I first started trying for the top-
level ontology of reality.  (Date Started: Mid 2002.  Date Finished:
Aug, 2007).


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Major revision to my Top-Level Ontology

2007-08-03 Thread marc . geddes

For those who saw the domain model of my top-level ontology there's
been some major re-classifications of the knowledge domains.  I've
added a little bit more explanation on the page but still haven't
written much up yet.  I'm too busy attempting to implement the model
as actual software ;)   Link:

http://marc.geddes.googlepages.com/MCRT_ClassDiagram.html

Very sinple to look at but it rewards careful thought ;)  The blood,
sweat and tears I had to put in to finally finally finally understand
all.  It's all crystal clear-cut to me now.  Beautiful! :D

There really was an objective morality you know.  You really can't
have full general intelligence without qualia you know (conscious
subjective experience).  And any recursively self-improving general
intelligence really is ethical automatically you know.  I always was
right.

This is what my opponents never grasped.  That at the highest level of
abstraction there really is *No difference between the model and
reality*.  (At the Platonic Level of my domain model, there is NO
difference between the model and the reality).  The model IS the
reality.  The map IS the territory.  (See the debate on this point I
had in earlier threads on this list).

Now I really do understand all.

'Ware of me enemies of humanity!  I hold the keys to the universe and
I will reave the prison bars around me to rubble!


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$US 2 million math puzzle challenge

2007-08-02 Thread marc . geddes

Just bought a really fun puzzle called 'Eternity 2', which has just
been released and has a $US 2 million prize for the first person to
complete it.  It's basically a jig-saw puzzle on a 16*16 board.  There
are 256 puzzle pieces and you have to fit them together so that the
shapes and colors match for each of the 4 edges.  You can use a
computer to try possible combos.  Really addictive and interesting.
It's defintely suspectible to computer attack (Note: 'Eternity 1' -
designed by the same guy- was won by a math student who cracked it in
only 5 months and was awarded the 1 million pound prize).

Official web-site (practice with a small-board demo version on-line):

http://uk.eternityii.com/


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Re: A Natural Axiomatization of Church's Thesis

2007-07-17 Thread marc . geddes


Of course.

They probably copied the idea off my posts here and on SL4 and wta-
talk.  I stated pretty clearly on numerous occasions that there was
more than one way to define causality.  I clearly stated on numerous
occasions that physical causality was not the only kind of causality,
but that there was also a  'mathematical causality' whereby math could
be considered as the movements of mathematical objects through
'abstract time' (ie this is exactly the description of an abstract
state machine).  If that wasn't clear enough I posted a precise UML
Domain Model to this list months ago and gave a clear explanation in a
thread in which I pointed out the three UML modelling levels and how
they related to the  classes representing mathematical concepts in my
domain model.  The classes on the left-hand side of my diagram are
physical classes.  They are clearly accompanied by the mathematical
classes (right hand side of my diagram).  I clearly said in thread on
this list that the bottom classes (Models) were represented the
'Conceptual' level (in UML modelling), the top-classes (Systems)
represented the Functional level (UML), and the middle classes in my
diagram (Tools) were the state-change level (UML).  Based on this
information you can clearly see that the right-hand classes in my
diagram (representing the fields of mathematics) are equivalent to an
abstract state-machine.  Bottom right class (conceptual level) -
Formal System (classical algorithm).  Top right class (systems level)
- Representational and middle right class (state change level ) -
Theory Of Compuation - abstract state machine.

Here is the link to the general Domain Model I posted here:
http://marc.geddes.googlepages.com/MCRT_ClassDiagram.html

BTW: I should point out here to readers that numerous debates still
continuing on the transhumanist lists Jef frequents are already
clearly resolved by my domain model and (admittedly general but still
clear) explanations I've given here.

Example:  The debate on Extropy list over the nature of time.

Clik this thread:
 http://lists.extropy.org/pipermail/extropy-chat/2007-July/036916.html

Again, refer to my domain model and the explanation I gave to this
list on thread on the matter some time back.  My Domain model clearly
reveals Barbours mistake (Barbour's thesis was that only 'B' time
exists)..  Whilst a time-less description of reality can be given (the
'Conceptual Level' - botttom classes in my diagram) - this description
is incomplete.  You need to add the 'Methods' of reality (think of
reality as software).  Software has both classes and methods... class
attributes are timeless but class attributes alone give an incomplete
description of the software system (you should think of the whole
universe as a software system being modelled by UML).  Add the
'Methods' of reality (represented by the classes on top row of my
diagram and their implementations specified by the state-transitions
represented by middle classes in my diagram) and you get 'A Time-
flow.  I could give numeous other examples of many long-standing
puzzles my domain model clearly resolves but I will spare
transhumanist pseudo-intellectuals further embarassment.


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Re: How would a computer know if it were conscious?

2007-06-07 Thread marc . geddes



On Jun 7, 3:54 pm, Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 Evolution has not had a chance to take into account modern reproductive
 technologies, so we can easily defeat the goal reproduce, and see the goal
 feed as only a means to the higher level goal survive. However, *that*
 goal is very difficult to shake off. We take survival as somehow profoundly
 and self-evidently important, which it is, but only because we've been
 programmed that way (ancestors that weren't would not have been ancestors).
 Sometimes people become depressed and no longer wish to survive, but that's
 an example of neurological malfunction. Sometimes people rationally give
 up their own survival for the greater good, but that's just an example of
 interpreting the goal so that it has greater scope, not overthrowing it.

 --
 Stathis Papaioannou

Evolution doesn't care about the survival of individual organisms
directly, the actual goal of evolution is only to maximize
reproductive fitness.

If you want to eat a peice of chocolate cake, evolution explains why
you like the taste, but your goals are not evolutions goals.  You
(Stathis) want to the cake because it tastes nice - *your* goal is to
experience the nice taste.  Evolution's goal (maximize reproductive
fitness) is quite different.   Our (human) goals are not evolution's
goals.

Cheers.


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Re: How would a computer know if it were conscious?

2007-06-07 Thread marc . geddes



On Jun 7, 7:50 pm, Quentin Anciaux [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 I have to disagree, if human goals were not tied to evolution goals
 then human should not have proliferated.

 Quentin- Hide quoted text -


Well of course human goals are *tied to* evolution's goals, but that
doesn't mean they're the same.  In the course of pursuit of our own
goals we sometimes achieve evolution's goals.  But this is
incidental.  As I said, evolution explains why we feel and experience
things the way we do but our goals are not evolutions goals.  You
don't eat food to maximize reproductive fitness, you eat food because
you like the taste.

This point was carefully explained by Steven Pinker in his books (yes
he agrees with me).


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Re: How would a computer know if it were conscious?

2007-06-05 Thread marc . geddes



On Jun 5, 6:50 pm, Torgny Tholerus [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 public static void main(String[] a) {

 println(Sometimes I get this strange and wonderful feeling);
 println(that I am 'special' in some way.);
 println(I feel that what I am doing really is significant);
 println(to the course of history, that I am in some story.);
 println(Sometimes I wish that I could find out whether what);
 println(I am doing is somehow significant, that I am not just);
 println(a duplicatable thing, and that what I am doing);
 println(is not 'meaningless'.);

 }

 You can make more complicated programs, that is not so obvious, by
 genetic programming.  But it will take rather long time.  The nature
 had to work for over a billion years to make the human beings.  But with
 genetic programming you will succeed already after only a million
 years.  Then you will have a program that is equally conscious as you are.

 --
 Torgny Tholerus

An additional word of advise for budding programmers.  For heaven's
sake don't program in Java!  It'll take you one million years to
achieve same functionality of only a few years of Ruby code:

http://www.wisegeek.com/contest/what-is-ruby.htm

Cheers!


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Re: How would a computer know if it were conscious?

2007-06-05 Thread marc . geddes



On Jun 5, 10:20 pm, Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 Why would you need to change the goal structure  in order to improve
 yourself?

Improving yourself requires the ability to make more effective
decisions (ie take decisions which which move you toward goals more
efficiently).  This at least involves the elaboration (or extension,
or more accurate definition of) goals, even with a fixed top level
structure.

 Evolution could be described as a perpetuation of the basic
 program, survive, and this has maintained its coherence as the top level
 axiom of all biological systems over billions of years. Evolution thus seems
 to easily, and without reflection, make sure that the goals of the new and
 more complex system are consistent with the primary goal. It is perhaps only
 humans who have been able to clearly see the primary goal for what it is,
 but even this knowledge does not make it any easier to overthrow it, or even
 to desire to overthrow it.


Evolution does not have a 'top level goal'.  Unlike a reflective
intelligence, there is no centralized area in the bio-sphere enforcing
a unified goal structure on the system as the whole.  Change is local
- the parts of the system (the bio-sphere) can only react to other
parts of the system in their local area.  Furthermore, the system as a
whole is *not* growing more complex, only the maximum complexity
represented in some local area is.  People constantly point to
'Evolution' as a good example of a non-conscious intelligence but it's
important to emphasize that it's an 'intelligence' which is severely
limited.




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Re: How would a computer know if it were conscious?

2007-06-04 Thread marc . geddes



On Jun 3, 11:11 pm, Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 Determining the motivational states of others does not necessarily involve
 feelings or empathy. It has been historically very easy to assume that other
 species or certain members of our own species either lack feelings or, if
 they have them, it doesn't matter. Moreover, this hasn't prevented people
 from determining the motivations of inferior beings in order to exploit
 them. So although having feelings may be necessary for ethical behaviour, it
 is not sufficient.

You are ignoring the distinction I made between three different kinds
of general intelligence.  I gave there different definitions remember:

*Pattern Recognition Intelligence
*Symbolic Reasoning Intelligence
*Reflective Intelligence

A mere 'determination of the motivational states of self and others'
does not by itself constitute *reflective intelligence* according my
definitions.  Not only must the motivational states of self/others by
determined and represented (this process by itself does not require
ethics or sentience), these representations must be *reflected* upon.
Only this final step, I'm saying, leads to ethical behaviour.  Once
you have a system performing *full* reflection correctly, you get
feelings.  And, I maintain, there is no real difference between
feeling and motivation.

.

 Psychopaths are often very good at understanding other peoples' feelings, as
 evidenced by their ability to manipulate them. The main problem is that they
 don't *care* about other people; they seem to lack the ability to be moved
 by other peoples' emotions and lack the ability to experience emotions such
 as guilt. But this isn't part of a general inability to feel emotion, as
 they often present as enraged, entitled, depressed, suicidal, etc., and
 these emotions are certainly enough to motivate them. Psychopaths have a
 slightly different set of emotions, regulated in a different way compared to
 the rest of us, but are otherwise cognitively intact.

See what I said above about the distinction between three different
kinds of general intelligence.  It's true that the psychopath can
indeed understand others in an *abstract* *intellectual* sense
(pattern recognition and symbolic reasoning intelligence), but what
the psychopath lacks is the ability to fully *reflect* upon this
understanding (reflective intelligence).

You yourself admit: 'psychopaths have a slightly different set of
emotions, regulated in a different way compared to the rest of us'.
Therefore it simply isn't true that the psychopath is 'cognitively
intact'.  Again, the psychopath can obtain an abstract, intellectual
understanding of others, but lacks the ability to fully reflect upon
this information in order to directly experience it (as qualia).

It is documented that psychopaths are lacking the ability to
experience the full range of emotions - specifically they appear
unable to fully experience certain negative emoptions such as fear and
sadness.  (Although they can, as you point out, experience *some*
kinds of emotions).  See the book 'Social Intelligence' ( by Daniel
Goleman) for references about the emotional deficits of psychopaths.




 Thus it appears that reflective

  intelligence is automatically correlated with ethical behaviour.  Bear
  in mind, as I mentioned that: (1) There are in fact three kinds of
  general intelligence, and only one of them ('reflective intelligence')
  is correlated with ethics.The other two are not.  A deficit in
  reflective intelligence does not affect the other two types of general
  intelligence (which is why for instance psychopaths could still score
  highly in IQ tests).  And (2) Reflective intelligence in human beings
  is quite weak.  This is the reason why intelligence does not appear to
  be much correlated with ethics in humans.  But this fact in no way
  refutes the idea that a system with full and strong reflective
  intelligence would automatically be ethical.

 Perhaps I haven't quite understood your definition of reflective
 intelligence. It seems to me quite possible to correctly reason about
 cognitive systems, at least well enough to predict their behaviour to a
 useful degree, and yet not care at all about what happens to them.
 Furthermore, it seems possible to me to do this without even suspecting that
 the cognitive system is conscious, or at least without being sure that it is
 conscious.

 --
 Stathis Papaioannou-

See you haven't understood my definitions.  It may be my fault due to
the way I worded things.  You are of course quite right that: 'it's
possible to correctly reason about cognitive systems at least well
enough to predict their behaviour to a useful degree and yet not care
at all about what happens to them'.  But this is only pattern
recognition and symbolic intelligence, *not* fully reflective
intelligence.  Reflective intelligence involves additional
representations enabling a system to *integrate* the aforementioned
abstract 

Re: How would a computer know if it were conscious?

2007-06-04 Thread marc . geddes



On Jun 4, 11:15 pm, Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 On 04/06/07, [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 See you haven't understood my definitions.  It may be my fault due to

  the way I worded things.  You are of course quite right that: 'it's
  possible to correctly reason about cognitive systems at least well
  enough to predict their behaviour to a useful degree and yet not care
  at all about what happens to them'.  But this is only pattern
  recognition and symbolic intelligence, *not* fully reflective
  intelligence.  Reflective intelligence involves additional
  representations enabling a system to *integrate* the aforementioned
  abstract knowledge (and experience it directly as qualia).Without
  this ability an AI would be unable to maintain a stable goal structure
  under recursive self improvement and therefore would remain limited.

 Are you saying that a system which has reflective intelligence would be able
 to in a sense emulate the system it is studying, and thus experience a very
 strong form of empathy?

Yes

That's an interesting idea, and it could be that
 very advanced AI would have this ability; after all, humans have the ability
 for abstract reasoning which other animals almost completely lack, so why
 couldn't there be a qualitative (or nearly so) rather than just a
 quantitative difference between us and super-intelligent beings?

But I don't think this is qualitatively different to what humans do
already.  It does seem that our ability to feel does in part involve
emulating other people's inner motivational states.  See the research
on 'Mirror Neurons' .  Or again, Daniel Goleman's 'Social
Intelligence' talks about this.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mirror_neurons

It seems that we humans are already pretty good at reflection on
motivation already.  Certainly reflection on motivation gives rise to
feelings.  Emotions are the human strength.  Our 'cutting edge' so to
speak.

But remember that 'reflection on motivation' is only one kind of
reflection.  There are other kinds of reflection that we humans are
not nearly so good at.  I listed three general classes of reflection
above - one type of reflection we humans seem to be very poor at is
'reflection on abstract reasoning' (or reflection on logic/
mathematics).  With regard to  this type of reflection we rather in an
analogous position to the emotional retard.  We have symbolic/abstract
knowlege of mathematics (symbolic and pattern recognition
intelligence), but this is not directly reflected in our conscious
experience (or at least it is only in our conscious awareness very
weeakly).  For example, you may know (intellectually) that 2+2=4 but
you do not *consciously experience* this information.  You are
suffering from 'mathematical blind sight'.  Now giving a super-human a
strong ability to reflect on math/logic *would* definitely be a
qualitative difference between us and super-intellects.

But here is something really cool: By intensely forcing yourself and
training yourself to think constantly about math/logic, it may be
possible for a human to partially draw math/logic into actual
conscious awareness!  I can tell you here that in fact I claim to have
done just that and the result is very interesting ;)  Suffice
it to say that I believe that math/logic knowledge appears in
consciousness as a sort of 'Ontology-Scape'.  Just as the ability to
reflect on motivation gives rise to emotional experience, so I believe
that the ability to reflect on math/logic gives rise to a new kind of
conscious experience... what I call 'the ontology scape'.  As I said,
I am of the opinion that if you really force yourself and train
yourself, it's possible to partially draw this 'Ontology scape' into
your own conscious awareness.


 However, what would be wrong with a super AI that just had large amounts of
 pattern recognition and symbolic reasoning intelligence, but no emotions at
 all? It could work as the ideal disinterested scientist, doing theoretical
 physics without regard for its own or anyone else's feelings. You would
 still have to say that it was super-intelligent, even though it it is an
 idiot from the reflective intelligence perspective. It also would pose no
 threat to anyone because all it wants to do and all it is able to do is
 solve abstract problems, and in fact I would feel much safer around this
 sort of AI than one that has real power and thinks it has my best interests
 at heart.

 As I said Intelligence has three parts: Pattern Recognition, Symbolic
Reasoning and Reflective.You can't cut out 1/3rd of real
intelligence and still expect your system to still function
effectively!  ;)  A system mssing reflective intelligence would have
serious cognitive deficits.  (in fact , for the reasons I explain
below, I believe such a system would be unable to improve itself).


 Secondly, I don't see how the ability to fully empathise would help the AI
 improve itself or maintain a stable goal 

Re: How would a computer know if it were conscious?

2007-06-04 Thread marc . geddes



On Jun 5, 5:05 am, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 Stathis Papaioannou wrote:


  However, what would be wrong with a super AI that just had large amounts
  of pattern recognition and symbolic reasoning intelligence, but no
  emotions at all?

 Taken strictly, I think this idea is incoherent.  Essential to intelligence 
 is taking some things as more important than others.  That's the difference 
 between data collecting and theorizing.  It is a fallacy to suppose that 
 emotion can be divorced from reason - emotion is part of reason.  An 
 interesting example comes from attempts at mathematical AI.  Theorem proving 
 programs have been written and turned loose on axiom systems - but what 
 results are a lot of theorems that mathematicians judge to be worthless and 
 trivial.

Yeah.  That's the difference between *reflective intelligence* and
ordinary *symbolic logic*+*pattern recognition*.  I would say that
ordinary reason is a part of emotion.  (or reflective intelligence
encompasses the other two types).  But you're right, you can't divorce
conscious experience from reason.  It's from conscious experience that
value judgements come.


  Finally, the majority of evil in the world is not done by psychopaths,
  but by normal people who are aware that they are causing hurt, may
  feel guilty about causing hurt, but do it anyway because there is a
  competing interest that outweighs the negative emotions.

 Or they may feel proud of their actions because they have supported those 
 close to them against competition from those distant from them.  To suppose 
 that empathy and reflection can eliminate all competition for limited 
 resources strikes me as pollyannish.

 Brent Meeker-

The human brain doesn't function as a fully reflective system.  Too
much is hard-wired and not accessible to conscious experience.  Our
brains simply don't function as a peroperly integrated system.  Full
reflection would enable the ability to reach into our underlying
preferences and change them.


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Re: How would a computer know if it were conscious?

2007-06-03 Thread marc . geddes

Consciousness is a cognitive system capable of reflecting on other
cognitive systems, by enabling switching and integration between
differing representations of knowledge in different domains.  It's a
higher-level summary of knowledge in which there is a degree of coarse
graining sufficient to lose precise information about the under-lying
computations.  Current experience is integrated with past knowledge in
order to provide higher-level summaries of the meaning of a concept.
Any cognitive system capable of reflection in this sense is
conscious.  In essence, conscious is what *mediates* between different
representations of knowledge... as mentioned above... the ability to
switch between and integrate different representational systems.

There are three general types of consciousness arising from the fact
that there are three different classes of cognitive systems which
could be potentially reflected upon.  The first are systems which
perceive physical concepts.  When this perception is reflected upon,
we experience sensations.  The second are systems which perceive
teleological concepts... closely related to our motivational systems.
When this is reflected upon, we experience emotions (or more
accurately feelings).  The third type of consciousness is very weak in
humans... it's the ability to reflect upon systems which perceive
logical/mathematical things.  Reflection upon these systems is
consciously experienced as an 'ontology-scape' (in a sense, conscious
awareness of the theory of everything).  But as mentioned, this last
type of consciousness is very weak in humans, since our ability to
reflect upon our own cognitive systems is quite small and not done by
the brain directly (when engaged in logical reasoning, we humans are
not generally reflecting on our thoughts directly, but via indirect
means such as verbal or visual representations of these thoughts).

The third type of conscious mentioned above is synonymous with
'reflective intelligence'.  That is, any system successfully engaged
in reflective decision theory would automatically be conscious.
Incidentally, such a system would also be 'friendly' (ethical)
automatically.  The ability to reason effectively about ones own
cognitive processes would certainly enable the ability to elaborate
precise definitions of consciousness and determine that the system was
indeed conforming to the aforementioned definitions.

 Much of the confusion surrounding these issues stems from the fact
there's not one definition of 'general intelligence', but THREE.
There's the ability to detect patterns (which does not require
sentience), there's the ability to engage in symbolic reasoning (which
also does not require sentience), finally there's the ability to
engage in reflective reasoning (reasoning about reasoning).  And it's
this third definition intelligence which DOES by necessity entail
consciousness.  It also, by necessity entails ethical behaviour.

Now there those who point to powerful systems such as 'Corporations'
and 'Evolution' to try to argue that you can have intelligence without
consciousness.  But these arguments are not convincing.  It's true
that, for instance 'Evolution' is an intelligence system in ONE sense,
but it's certainly NOT a *reflective intelligence*.  Nor, is , for
instance a 'Corporation'.  A 'corporation' has SOME of the sub-systems
of person-hood, but not all of them.  The existence of  non-sentient
cognitive systems which display *some* of the features of
intelligence   is a LONG way from establishing that you can have
*reflective intelligence* without consciousness.  As has been pointed
out, RPOPS such as for instance 'Evolution' are NOT capable of
reflective intelligence and therefore cannot be taken as a disproof of
the claim that reflective intelligence must by necessity automatically
be friendly and sentient.

The reason I elaborate this carefully is because you will, on certain
mailing lists, run into a number of artificial intelligence crack-pots
claiming that (1) You can have reflective intelligence without
consciousness and (2)  AI's with reflective intelligence don't have to
be ethical and might destroy the world.  Ignore these crack-pot claims
when you see them.










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Re: How would a computer know if it were conscious?

2007-06-03 Thread marc . geddes



On Jun 3, 9:20 pm, Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 On 03/06/07, [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 The third type of conscious mentioned above is synonymous with

  'reflective intelligence'.  That is, any system successfully engaged
  in reflective decision theory would automatically be conscious.
  Incidentally, such a system would also be 'friendly' (ethical)
  automatically.  The ability to reason effectively about ones own
  cognitive processes would certainly enable the ability to elaborate
  precise definitions of consciousness and determine that the system was
  indeed conforming to the aforementioned definitions.

 How do you derive (a) ethics and (b) human-friendly ethics from reflective
 intelligence?  I don't see why an AI should decide to destroy the world,
 save the world, or do anything at all to the world, unless it started off
 with axioms and goals which pushed it in a particular direction.

 --
 Stathis Papaioannou

When reflective intelligence is applied to cognitive systems which
reason about teleological concepts (which include values, motivations
etc) the result is conscious 'feelings'.  Reflective intelligence,
recall, is the ability to correctly reason about cognitive systems.
When applied to cognitive systems reasoning about teleological
concepts this means the ability to correctly determine the
motivational 'states' of self and others - as mentioned - doing this
rapidly and accuracy generates 'feelings'.  Since, as has been known
since Hume, feelings are what ground ethics, the generation of
feelings which represent accurate tokens about motivational
automatically leads to ethical behaviour.

Bad behaviour in humans is due to a deficit in reflective
intelligence.  It is known for instance, that psychopaths have great
difficulty perceiving fear and sadness and negative motivational
states in general.  Correct representation of motivational states is
correlated with ethical behaviour.  Thus it appears that reflective
intelligence is automatically correlated with ethical behaviour.  Bear
in mind, as I mentioned that: (1) There are in fact three kinds of
general intelligence, and only one of them ('reflective intelligence')
is correlated with ethics.The other two are not.  A deficit in
reflective intelligence does not affect the other two types of general
intelligence (which is why for instance psychopaths could still score
highly in IQ tests).  And (2) Reflective intelligence in human beings
is quite weak.  This is the reason why intelligence does not appear to
be much correlated with ethics in humans.  But this fact in no way
refutes the idea that a system with full and strong reflective
intelligence would automatically be ethical.


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Re: An idea to resolve the 1st Person/3rd person division mystery - Coarse graining is the answer!?

2007-05-09 Thread marc . geddes



On May 9, 6:46 pm, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

  On May 9, 5:57 pm, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
  [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

  How can Everett's every possibility is realized be logically compatible 
  with Bohm's there's only one, deterministic outcome, we just don't know 
  which one and Griffith's it's a probabilistic theory so some things 
  happen and some don't.  I can hardly imagine less compatible 
  interpretations of the same mathematics.  I could add Cramer's 
  transactional interpretation and Feynmann's zig-zag in time 
  interpretation.  Are all those maps or territories?

  Well of course the ontological details are indeed quite incompatible.
  The status of QM is still very much 'in the air' at the moment, so we
  don't yet know with any degree of certainty.  But that can (and
  should) change once both theory and observation progresses in the
  future.

 And will reality change too - or is reality different from theories that 
 describe it?


Of course reality doesn't change.  The question of map versus
territory is *not* an all or nothing
question.  *sometimes* the map equals the territory.  Most of the time
it does not.



 But according to your map=territory philosophy all these incompatible 
 theories exist physically.  What does that mean?  All but one of them must 
 describe some other universe and we just don't know which ones?  Or do you 
 mean they exist physically as representational tokens in the brains of 
 physicists?  They certainly don't exist like tables and chairs.

 Brent Meeker-

To say that map=territory always would obviously be absurd.  Only in
the case of the parts of our theories which are *correct* does the map
equal the territory.  When our theories are wrong, these theories are
quite different to reality and certainly don't physically exist ;)
The fact that we can't know for sure which parts of our theories are
wrong and which are right isn't a problem.

Most of the time the map is not the territory.  But for *some*
concepts (correct concepts!) it is.


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Re: An idea to resolve the 1st Person/3rd person division mystery - Coarse graining is the answer!?

2007-05-09 Thread marc . geddes



On May 9, 6:46 pm, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 But according to your map=territory philosophy all these incompatible 
 theories exist physically.  What does that mean?  All but one of them must 
 describe some other universe and we just don't know which ones?  Or do you 
 mean they exist physically as representational tokens in the brains of 
 physicists?  They certainly don't exist like tables and chairs.

 Brent Meeker-

I shall try to clarify here., since this is a pretty bad mis-
understanding of what I've been saying.

Most of the time it's true that theories and reality are indeed two
different things.  In this thread, Stathis gave some examples in which
I agreed that the theory was obviously *not* the reality.  For
instance, in the case of the concept of an 'election', the terms there
are just human constructs used to simplify what was going on.  And in
the case of for instance, observation of chimpanzees, 'laws of
chimpanzee behaviour' had no reality outside human conceptions as I
clearly agreed.  So it's hard to see how it could came across to you
that I was arguing for such an obviously absurd premise that
map=territory always.

Only in the case of some highly peculiar concepts was I arguing this.
(namely certain non-reductionistic mathematical and abstract/
informational concepts).  I was arguing that these concepts are the
exception to the general rule that map is not territory. ie I was
arguing that mathematical/certain informational concepts have a highly
peculiar nature which breaks the general rule.  And then only in the
cases where we are dealing with a true/consistent theory.



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Re: An idea to resolve the 1st Person/3rd person division mystery - Coarse graining is the answer!?

2007-05-09 Thread marc . geddes



On May 9, 5:55 pm, [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 But what is mathematics?  It's three things I think: Categories,
 Relations and Propositions.  Of these, Relations and Propositions
 refer to discrete (finite) knowledge.  But Categories includes the
 other two, since categories can also deal with the infinite.  So it
 would appear that the ultimate root of it all is *Categories*
 (Category Theory).  Number Theory/Sets are general kinds of category.
 Machines/Computer Science deal with finite categories.- Hide quoted text -


Slight corrections.  Categories, Relations, Propositions can of course
all deal with the infinite.  But it's Categories that are fundamental
(the most
general mathematical concepts).

The TOE (theory of everything) is *itself* a class (in OOP) as I
mentioned.
But it should be classified as a 'Category'.

Now based on my arguments that in the case of mathematical categories
the map is
the terriority, you see the miracle?Remember: The TOE is *itself*
a category.

The *theory* of all reality IS reality :D   Peculiar indeed.



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Re: An idea to resolve the 1st Person/3rd person division mystery - Coarse graining is the answer!?

2007-05-08 Thread marc . geddes



On May 8, 4:22 pm, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:



  I have now given three clear-cut exmaples of a failure of
  reductionism.
   (1)  Infinite Sets  

 But there is no infinite set of anything.

Says who?  The point is that infinite sets appear to be indispensible
to our explanations of reality.  According to the Tegmark paper just
recently posted, math concepts map to physical concepts.  We can infer
that there must be some physical concept which can be indentified with
an infinite set.  And the existence of this physical thing would be a
violation of reductionism.  To escape from the conclusion we either
have to deny that infinite sets are real, or else deny the one-to-one
match between the mathematical and physical world.


 (2)  The Laws of Physics and (3) Quantum Wave
  Functions

  It is established that all of these concepts are indispensible to our
  explanations of reality and they are logically well defined and
  supported.  But none of these concepts can be reduced to any finite
  set of empirical facts.

 That's because we invented them.

No, it's because reductionism is false.  We invented the concepts, but
(as I mentioned in the previous post) for concepts which are useful
there has to be at least a *partial* match between the information
content of the concepts and the information content of reality.
Therefore we can infer general things about reality from knowledge of
this information content.  Where informational content of our useful
concepts is not computable, this tells us that there do exist physical
things which also mimic this uncomputability (and hence reductionism
is false).



 QM isn't even a physical theory; it's just a set of principles for 
 formulating physical theories; as classical mechanics was before it.

Exactly so!  I agree.  QM is  really an abstract *high-level*
explanation of reality.  This sounds strange, because the QM
description is usually thought of as the *low level* (basement level)
description fo reality, but it ain't.  It's true that QM may be the
basement level in the sense of *accuracy* (best scientific model so
far), but *not* in the ontological sense.  As you point out, in the
*ontological* sense it's really a sort of high-level *reality shell* -
an abstracted set of principles rather a complete physical principle
in itself.

My reality theory is a three-level model of reality (as I mentioned
earlier in the thread).  And QM is actually at the *highest* level of
explanation!  This is the complete reverse of how QM is conventinally
thought of.  It makes more sense of you think of the wave function of
the whole universe.  Then you can how QM is actually the *highest
level* (most abstract) explanation of reality.  Next level down are
functional systems.  Then the lowest level is the particle level.  All
three of these levels of description are equally valid.  This is
somewhat similair to Bohm's two-level interpretation (wave function at
one level, particles the other level).  Only I have inserted a third
level into the scheme.  *Between* the QM wave level description (high
level) and the aprticle level description (low level) is where I think
the solution to the puzzle of consciousness may be found.




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Re: An idea to resolve the 1st Person/3rd person division mystery - Coarse graining is the answer!?

2007-05-08 Thread marc . geddes



On May 8, 6:03 pm, Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 Yes, but the theory is our idea of that partial match and is a human
 construct. As a human idea, the theory is something separate. But the
 objective reality of nature (whatever it is) is not something separate to
 the objective reality of nature. Maybe we are quibbling about words, but it
 is in the spirit of Occam's Razor to have the minimum number of entities
 possible.

 --
 Stathis Papaioannou

No!  The theory is not the *idea* of the partial match.  The theory
(the parts which are correct) *is identical* to to the match.  The
distinction between map and territory is dissolving.  Again, you need
to keep your eye on the ball and think computer science and
information here.  The theory *is information*.  The reality is
*information*.  Therefore, *for the particular parts of the theory
which are correct* , those parts of the theory (the abstracted
information content) *are identical* to the reality.  Reality is
informationtheory is information...and at the intersection (where
the two over-lap and at the right level of abstraction) it's
*identical* information.

Think of it another way.  OOP (Object Oriented Programming) draws no
distinction between an objective 'object' and an abstracted 'class'.
You can create abstract classes (which correspond to for instance
abstract ideas) but these classes ARE THEMSELVES OBJECTS.  Think about
it.





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Re: An idea to resolve the 1st Person/3rd person division mystery - Coarse graining is the answer!?

2007-05-08 Thread marc . geddes



On May 9, 5:59 am, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 So in the case of useful concepts there has to be a partial
  match between the information content of the concepts and the
  information content of reality.  This means we can infer properties
  about reality from our concepts.  The distinction between map and
  territory is not absolute.  A simulated hurricane for instance, has
  *some* of the exact same *information content* as a real hurricane.

 But some is not all.  The hurricane embodies the information of our fluid 
 dynamic model of a hurricane plus a whole lot more.

This point about information is indeed the sticking point in this
thread.  But both here in your other post you seem to be agreeing with
me!  In the other post you said:  The state of an electron, relative
to some apparatus or preparation, may carry some information.  And
here you say:  The hurricane embodies the information .  But this
was precisely my point.  If you indeed agree the electron itself 'is
carrying information', and that the hurricane 'embodies information',
then you are agreeing that there exists something in external reality
which is 'information'.  It is not neccessery for you to accept that
reality is all information.  For my points to stick you only need to
agree that *some* part of external reality is *information* (or that
'reality has an informational layer or component).  You seem to have
agreed.




 I have never agreed that mathematics has the same ontological status as 
 reality (whatever that is).  I think mathematics is all a human construct 
 which is used to describe reality and a lot of other stuff.  I've read 
 Tegmark's paper; that doesn't mean I accept it as 'the truth'.

 Brent Meeker

Well here is a major ontological disagreement between us then, since I
think math *does* have the same status as 'reality'.  It all comes
down in part to the sticking point about information we've just
beenarguing about.  If something in reality is 'infomation', then
something in reality is also math, since (discrete math at least) is
all about information.


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Re: An idea to resolve the 1st Person/3rd person division mystery - Coarse graining is the answer!?

2007-05-08 Thread marc . geddes



On May 9, 6:08 am, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

  On May 8, 4:22 pm, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
  [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

  I have now given three clear-cut exmaples of a failure of
  reductionism.
   (1)  Infinite Sets  
  But there is no infinite set of anything.

  Says who?  The point is that infinite sets appear to be indispensible
  to our explanations of reality.  

 All measurements yield finite numbers.  Infinite sets and infinitesimals are 
 mathematical conveniences that avoid having to worry about how small is small 
 enough and how big is too big.  Do you ever use infinite sets in computer 
 science?

Infinite sets and infinitesimals are a lot more than 'mathematical
conveniences'.  There are precise logical theories for these things
(As I mentioned before - Cantor worked out the theory of infinite
sets, Robinson/Conway worked out the theory of infinitesimals).  A
dislike of infinities characterized the early Greeks and pre 20th
century mathematicians.  It hindered the development of mathematics.
(Read the excellent books by Rudy Rucker).

It's true that infinite sets are not used in comptuer science (which
is all about discrete/finite math) but beware of making assumptions
about reality purely on the basis of what can be measured ;)  It has
never been established that space is discrete (a point Stephen Hawking
just recently was at pains to get across).  The supposed discreteness
of space seems to be yet another dogma currently popular with computer
scientists.



  No, it's because reductionism is false.  We invented the concepts, but
  (as I mentioned in the previous post) for concepts which are useful
  there has to be at least a *partial* match between the information
  content of the concepts and the information content of reality.
  Therefore we can infer general things about reality from knowledge of
  this information content.  Where informational content of our useful
  concepts is not computable, this tells us that there do exist physical
  things which also mimic this uncomputability (and hence reductionism
  is false).

 Or that our mapping is faulty and there a mathematical concepts that don't 
 map to anything physical - which I think would be obvious since it has been 
 shown that a mathematical system will always include undecidable propositions 
 and such propositions or their negation can be added to create new, mutually 
 inconsistent mathematical systems.


I don't see that uncomputability or undecidability has any bearing on
the issue of the mapping between the physical and mathematical.  In
the multiverse view, all possible mathematical systems could be
physically real.  'Physical' does not have to mean 'finite' or
'computable'.




  My reality theory is a three-level model of reality (as I mentioned
  earlier in the thread).  And QM is actually at the *highest* level of
  explanation!  This is the complete reverse of how QM is conventinally
  thought of.  It makes more sense of you think of the wave function of
  the whole universe.  Then you can how QM is actually the *highest
  level* (most abstract) explanation of reality.  Next level down are
  functional systems.  Then the lowest level is the particle level.  All
  three of these levels of description are equally valid.  This is
  somewhat similair to Bohm's two-level interpretation (wave function at
  one level, particles the other level).  Only I have inserted a third
  level into the scheme.  *Between* the QM wave level description (high
  level) and the aprticle level description (low level) is where I think
  the solution to the puzzle of consciousness may be found.

 But QM assumes a fixed background spacetime, which is inconsistent with 
 general relativity - so one of them (or more likely both) are wrong.

 Brent Meeker

There are *degrees* of rightness/wrongness.  Later successful theories
of reality will still have to have some of the same features of the
earlier theories in areas where the earlier theories were empirically
proven.  For instance it's been proven from the EPR experiments that
any theory that replaces current QM still has to have some of the same
general features such as a 'wave of possibilities/sum over histories',
non-locality or uncertainties and so on.



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Re: An idea to resolve the 1st Person/3rd person division mystery - Coarse graining is the answer!?

2007-05-07 Thread marc . geddes



On May 7, 4:06 pm, Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 On 07/05/07, [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


  We have here a clear example of an indispensible *physical* concept
  which *cannot* be broken down or reduced to any finite lower level
  descriptions.  This proves that reductive materialism is false.

 I'm not sure that it is necessary to consider the laws of physics a separate
 ontological category. A zoologist might study the behaviour of chimpanzees,
 take notes, and summarise these notes in a paper for others to read and test
 by seeing if chimpanzees do indeed behave as claimed. The rules of
 chimpanzee behaviour is not separate to how chimpanzees actually behave nor
 does it have any causal effects of its own. Similarly, a physicist might
 study the behaviour of electrons and write a paper for others to read and
 test by seeing if electrons do behave in the way claimed, but these laws of
 physics regarding electrons are not separate to electron behaviour and have
 no causal role in electron behaviour. Electrons and chimpanzees behave in
 the way they are inclined to behave, and if we can discern patterns by
 observing them, that's just our good fortune.

 --
 Stathis Papaioannou

Say what!!  this is not a valid analogy since the laws of physics are
absolutely the fundamental level of reality, where as dsecriptions of
chimpanzee behaviour are not.

'The Laws of Physics'  don't refer to human notions (they certainly
are not regarded that way by scientists - the whole notion of an
objective reality would have be thrown out the window if we thought
that there were no objective laws of physics since as mentioned,
physics is the base level of reality), but are precise mathematical
rules which have to be (postulated as) *universal* in scope for the
scientific method to work at all.

If an election were merely 'inclined' to behave in a certain way
(which by the way is the pre-scientific world-view) , then what in
fact could be the cause of its behaviour?  An election is not a
teleological (and non-fundamental) agent like a chimpanzee, it is a
fixed fundamental building block of reality! There could be no
explanatory theory of election behaviour without postulating some
external (and objective) laws of physics capable of 'acting upon' the
election.

The whole scientific method is based on the notion *external* laws of
physics combined with empirical data.  So in practice the term *laws
of physics* is definitely being used as if it as external objective
'thing' or ontological category.  The whole point is that its use this
way in practice (indispensible for the scientific method to work)
means that it can't in fact be broken down into merely the sum of our
empricial observations.


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Re: An idea to resolve the 1st Person/3rd person division mystery - Coarse graining is the answer!?

2007-05-07 Thread marc . geddes

Silly spelling error in my last post - I meant 'electrons' of course.
Let avoid talk of 'electrons' then, and talk about  'Quantum Wave
Functions' then, since surely even Russell must agree that QM fields
are fundamental (at least as far as we know).  You can't say that QM
fields are just human inventions - take away the base level and you
have no objective reality left to argue about! ;)

Quantum Wave Functions are yet another example of a thing which cannot
be reduced to finite emprical parts.  It is in fact an established
fact that QM wave functions cannot be *directly* emprically verified.
Any emprical fact or set of facts you can point to *cannot* fully
capture the QM Wave function!  It is something abstract which exists
over and above any empirical facts.  This is yet another example of
the failure of reductionism.

I have now given three clear-cut exmaples of a failure of
reductionism.
 (1)  Infinite Sets  (2)  The Laws of Physics and (3) Quantum Wave
Functions

It is established that all of these concepts are indispensible to our
explanations of reality and they are logically well defined and
supported.  But none of these concepts can be reduced to any finite
set of empirical facts.

The only way to evade the conclusion that reductionism is false is (as
shown by Stathis's argument strategy) to deny that any of these
concepts has objective reality.  For example to evade a failure of
reductionism as regards 'inifinite sets' one has to argue that
infinite sets are not objectively real, or not physically real.  You
might get away with that argument for something as esoteric as
'Inifnite Sets' (after all there is some legitimate doubt that these
things are real), but once you reach a concept which is clearly
fundamental and neccessery for physical reality to exist at all (ie
Quantum Wave Functions), your argument has lapsed to pure solipsism.

Which is more likely:  The laws of physics and QM wave functions are
all human fictions, or reductionism is false?  It has to be one or the
other.


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Re: An idea to resolve the 1st Person/3rd person division mystery - Coarse graining is the answer!?

2007-05-07 Thread marc . geddes



On May 8, 4:06 pm, Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 On 08/05/07, [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:



  Silly spelling error in my last post - I meant 'electrons' of course.
  Let avoid talk of 'electrons' then, and talk about  'Quantum Wave
  Functions' then, since surely even Russell must agree that QM fields
  are fundamental (at least as far as we know).  You can't say that QM
  fields are just human inventions - take away the base level and you
  have no objective reality left to argue about! ;)

 Actually I didn't pick it as a typo - I thought you were talking about
 elections. Elections are complex things, involving candidates, voters,
 timing, standards of empirical verification and many other rules. They also
 involve concepts such as fairness, democracy, deceitfulness and so on.
 You can't physically grasp an election or draw a circle around it.
 Nevertheless, calling it an election is just a shorthand for a collection of
 matter behaving in a certain way. There is no extra election-substance
 instilled by the universe which makes the difference between an election and
 an otherwise identical non-election, and there is no election-entity
 distinct from the behaviour of matter which we observe and call an election.

 --
 Stathis Papaioannou

Well of course I agree with you in this case.  'Election' is a human
construct.  That's why it was a horrifyingly unfortunate typo on my
point.  The point is that if you try to apply the same reasoning to
everything, you'll end up saying that *everything* is just a human
construct - and throw the scientific method out the window.  We don't
'construct' those things in reality which are objective.  Our concepts
*make reference* to them.  The concepts may be invented, but there has
to be a match between at least *some* of the informational content of
our theories and the informational content of objective theory (or
else the concepts would be useless).  Think computers and information
here.  Objective reality is information.  And our concepts are
information too.  So there has to be a partial match between the
information content of useful concepts and objective reality.  That's
why we can refer a failure of reductionism from the concepts we
invented which proved useful.


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Re: An idea to resolve the 1st Person/3rd person division mystery - Coarse graining is the answer!?

2007-05-07 Thread marc . geddes



On May 8, 3:56 pm, Brent Meeker [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


  'The Laws of Physics'  don't refer to human notions (they certainly
  are not regarded that way by scientists

 They are by the scientists I know.

The *knowledge* we have of the laws of physics are human notions.  But
the laws of physics *per se* are not.  See other post.  Think computer
science and information.  Our concepts are information and so is
reality.  So in the case of useful concepts there has to be a partial
match between the information content of the concepts and the
information content of reality.  This means we can infer properties
about reality from our concepts.  The distinction between map and
territory is not absolute.  A simulated hurricane for instance, has
*some* of the exact same *information content* as a real hurricane.



 - the whole notion of an
  objective reality would have be thrown out the window if we thought
  that there were no objective laws of physics since as mentioned,
  physics is the base level of reality), but are precise mathematical
  rules which have to be (postulated as) *universal* in scope for the
  scientific method to work at all.

 Sure, they are precise mathematical systems, which the scientist hopes and 
 intends to describe (part of) an objective reality.  But the map is not the 
 territory and scientists know it.

See above.  And read Tegmark's paper!  ;) In the case of mathematics
the distinction between map and territory is breaking down.  Remember
what we agreed on earlier - math is *both* epistemological (a map we
use to understand reality) *and* ontological (the territory  itself)


 Brent Meeker- Hide quoted text -



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Re: An idea to resolve the 1st Person/3rd person division mystery - Coarse graining is the answer!?

2007-05-06 Thread marc . geddes



On May 6, 12:03 am, Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 On 04/05/07, [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 It seems to me that 'coarse graining' could provide a means for time

  to 'stratify' into different levels.  Now let me elaborate a little.
  Coarse graining is the 'level of detail' at which we observe reality.
  If we observe reality 'with a magnifying glass' as it were, we see
  lots of details.  As we 'zoom out' and observe more higher level
  general features of reality, detailed information is lost.  The
  question is: Is it really true that the higher level descriptions of
  reality are completely *reducible* to the lower level descriptions of
  reality?  (See for instance 'Non-reductive physicalism').  The idea
  here is that 'the higher level' dsecriptions come about because of
  coarse graining and that there are features of these higher level
  descriptions that are not completely reducible to the lower level
  descriptions.

 I've looked up non-reductive physicalism and it still seems to me an
 oxymoron. Could a person's mental state be different even though his
 physical state is unchanged? If so, then this implies that there is at least
 in part some non-physical process giving rise to consciousness. It may be
 the case, but it isn't physicalism.

 --
 Stathis Papaioannou

Non-reductive materialism *doesn't* say that a person's person state
could be different even though his physical state is unchanged.  If it
did, you are right, it wouldn't be materialism.  In all forms of
materialism, the person's mental state has to be completely fixed by
the physical state.

What non-reductive materialism *does* say is that high-level
properties of a complex system are not completely reducible to
descriptions in terms of lower level properties.  That is, there exist
real (objective) high-level properties of a system which cannot be
replaced by low-level descriptions.

Unfortunately reductionism appears to *the* modern day dogma of
science and it seems to be near impossible to get through to anyone in
the grip of this dogma. 'Eliminative materialism' is all the rage
these days aka Daniel Dennett and co who think that consciousness is
'just a fiction' (even though Dennett uses these same-said high level
cognitive processes to reason his way to his absurd conclusion).

We know for sure (via the argument from indispensability) than there
exist mathematical concepts (for instance uncomputable numbers and
infinite sets) which *cannot* be identified with finite physical
processes.  Yet we see great minds desperate to try to deny the
existence of uncomputables (J.Schmidhuber on this very list just
showed up recently and tried to argue that only discrete math is
real!) - even though in fact Cantor put infinite sets on an infallible
footing long ago (and Abraham Robinson did the same for
infinitesimals).  See this link for an artilce I wrote giving a quick
demolition of the arguments against infinite sets:

http://archives.betterhumans.com/Members/mjgeddes/BlogPost/4710/Default.aspx

The bottom line is that if infinite sets are real (and they are!)
reductive materialism is false.

But it doesn't stop there:  Science itself (via the notion of 'laws of
physics') uses concepts which are supposed to be *universal* in
scope.  But universals by definition cannot be empirically identified
with any finite physical concept.  Again the very use of universals
('laws of physics') actually falsifies the reductionist claims.







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Re: An idea to resolve the 1st Person/3rd person division mystery - Coarse graining is the answer!?

2007-05-06 Thread marc . geddes



On May 5, 6:21 am, Russell Standish [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:


 I agree that coarse graining is of supreme importance to cognition,
 and this was bourne out in a conversation I had with a cognitive
 science researcher from the Centre for the Mind the other day.

That's good news.  Glad we agree.


 However, I'm not entirely sure we're on the same page. For me, coarse
 graining is basically the L1/L2 mechanism used for emergence, and in
 the definition of complexity (see my paper On complexity and
 emergence, or the relevant sections in my book). However, only two
 levels of description are needed - others may be present, but are not
 used, so I'm somewhat bemused at you saying there are three levels.

Will look into it later.  But yes,  I'm sure there's definitely three
levels:
State Level (class level), Operational Level (functional level) and
State-Change Level (computational physics level)


 UML, as I understand it, is a means of represent heirachies, object
 heirarchies specifically. Whilst possible that heirarchies are
 essential to cognition, nothing I can see at present mandates it.

 Cheers


UML is a general language used for data and process modelling.  When I
first learned it I was quite interested, because it seemed relevent to
my interests (ontology and knowledge representation).  But only after
a grest deal of exposure to UML did it dawn on me that it *is* the
secret to the entire universe :D  Seriously, many of the concepts I
have been intuitively groping towards had actually already been
developed for me via UML and I was highly bemused that I could simply
quickly fit all my ideas to UML concepts!

You may be skeptical, but I think that OOP (Object Oriented
Programming) and UML is definitely the correct paradigm over all other
approaches.  Indeed they had their roots in the attempts to model
reality (via simulations).  I think UML is far more profound than
everyone realizes and could form the basis for a TOE (Theory Of
Everything).  *If* we regard everything as 'Knowledge' (*not* mere
'information' but 'knowledge') *then* from *this perspective* general
DP modelling tools can be used a language for understanding
everything.

The three levels of reality (and hence three levels of time or
cauaslity) implied by UML are so blindingly glaringly screamingly
obvious that it's amazing that no-one but me appears to have noticed
them ;)

Cheers!


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Re: An idea to resolve the 1st Person/3rd person division mystery - Coarse graining is the answer!?

2007-05-06 Thread marc . geddes



On May 6, 10:51 pm, Stathis Papaioannou [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
 On 06/05/07, [EMAIL PROTECTED] [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:

 Non-reductive materialism *doesn't* say that a person's person state

  could be different even though his physical state is unchanged.  If it
  did, you are right, it wouldn't be materialism.  In all forms of
  materialism, the person's mental state has to be completely fixed by
  the physical state.

  What non-reductive materialism *does* say is that high-level
  properties of a complex system are not completely reducible to
  descriptions in terms of lower level properties.  That is, there exist
  real (objective) high-level properties of a system which cannot be
  replaced by low-level descriptions.

 Then it seems to be a matter of semantics. You could say that a pair of peas
 cannot be explained in terms of one pea and another pea because pair is a
 higher level property of the system. It's just that in the case of this
 trivial example, our minds easily and intuitively see that the pair really
 is nothing more than the sum of its parts. We might imagine
 super-intelligent beings who could immediately see all sorts of
 fantastically intricate, complex systems for what they really are.

In the particular exmaple you just gave, 'pair' is *not* an
*objectively real* high-level property of the system.  In this case
'pair' is indeed just a human construct which makes it easier for us
to understand the system.  The system in this example *can* be reduced
to merely the sum of the parts.  But I don't think all systems can.
The deciding factor is whether the higher level description is
*indispensible* or not. (See philosophy literature for 'Argument From
Indispensibility').  In the example you gave the higher level
description ('pair') *can* be dispensed with (the system is actually
merely the sum of the parts).   So this is indeed a completely
reductionistic example.  but not all levels of description can be
dispensed with so easily.




 Unfortunately reductionism appears to *the* modern day dogma of

  science and it seems to be near impossible to get through to anyone in
  the grip of this dogma. 'Eliminative materialism' is all the rage
  these days aka Daniel Dennett and co who think that consciousness is
  'just a fiction' (even though Dennett uses these same-said high level
  cognitive processes to reason his way to his absurd conclusion).

 It's obviously crazy to say consciousness is just a fiction; just as it's
 crazy to say a pair of peas is just a fiction. This is not the same as
 saying that the idea of consciousness as a separate ontological entity is
 just a fiction.


True.  But the two cases 'consciousness' and 'pair of peas' are quite
different.  As I agreed 'pair of peas' is merely a human construct.
So let's clarfiy the terminology then: the question is whether
consciousness is merely a 'human mental construct' similair to the
term 'pair of peas' or whether consciousness does exist as an
objectively real ontological entity.  I'm saying it does.

Below I gave example of things ('laws of physics' and 'infinite sets')
which cannot be reduced to seperate parts in the way the 'pair of
peas' system could.



 We know for sure (via the argument from indispensability) than there

  exist mathematical concepts (for instance uncomputable numbers and
  infinite sets) which *cannot* be identified with finite physical
  processes.  Yet we see great minds desperate to try to deny the
  existence of uncomputables (J.Schmidhuber on this very list just
  showed up recently and tried to argue that only discrete math is
  real!) - even though in fact Cantor put infinite sets on an infallible
  footing long ago (and Abraham Robinson did the same for
  infinitesimals).  See this link for an artilce I wrote giving a quick
  demolition of the arguments against infinite sets:

 http://archives.betterhumans.com/Members/mjgeddes/BlogPost/4710/Defau...

  The bottom line is that if infinite sets are real (and they are!)
  reductive materialism is false.

 I don't see how that follows, even if by real you mean physically real as
 opposed to mathematically real.

It follows because there are *no* finite physical parts you can point
to which identify an infinite set.  Think of the 'pair of peas'
example you gave.  In that example, you *could* reduce the concept
'pair of peas' to finite physical parts with which you could identify
the system.  In the case of an 'inifinite set' you cannot.  No finite
set of physical objects can be identified with an infinite set.   We
know inifinite sets are real because they are *indispensible* to our
explanations of reality (See 'Cantor').  This shows that there exist
high level concepts which *cannot* be broken to finite parts.

Now there is a possible question mark here regarding the distinction
(as you pointed out) between mathematical reality and physical
reality.That's why I gave yet another example below of something
which *is* clearly physical, 

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