Re: God or not?

2013-12-25 Thread LizR
On 25 December 2013 19:29, Samiya Illias samiyaill...@gmail.com wrote:

 Why not define God as the Creator and Sustainer of the Universe and
 Everything Else that is or may exist?


 On Wed, Dec 25, 2013 at 4:20 AM, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:

 Pantheism, Why didn't you just come out and say so? :-D


 -Original Message-
 From: Edgar Owen edgaro...@att.net
 To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: 24-Dec-2013 13:16:11 +
 Subject: God or not?

  All,

 The question of whether God exists is meaningless without first giving some
 definition of what is meant by God, of how God is defined. Otherwise 
 everyone is
 talking about different things and nothing will go anywhere.

 If you need a God there is only one possible rational definition and that is 
 to
 just define God as the universe itself. First there is now absolute certainty
 that God does exist (all the interminable meaningless arguments vanish), and
 second his attributes now become the proper subject matter of science and 
 reason
 rather than ideology, faith or myth.

 But most certainly the dogmas of all the organized religions are all 
 atavistic
 myths in the same category as Zeus and Odin which, like them, should have 
 been
 discarded millennia ago

 Edgar



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Re: God or not?

2013-12-25 Thread LizR
On 23 December 2013 09:10, Edgar Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 All,

 The question of whether God exists is meaningless without first giving
 some definition of what is meant by God, of how God is defined. Otherwise
 everyone is talking about different things and nothing will go anywhere.


The concept of God seems to be reasonably similar in various religions.
Samiya Illias' definition seems close to most of them...

Why not define God as the Creator and Sustainer of the Universe and
Everything Else that is or may exist?

It's just the details that tend to differ from one religion to another.


 If you need a God there is only one possible rational definition and that
 is to just define God as the universe itself. First there is now absolute
 certainty that God does exist (all the interminable meaningless arguments
 vanish), and second his attributes now become the proper subject matter of
 science and reason rather than ideology, faith or myth.


I don't see how this gets us anywhere, but then I don't see how any
definition of God gets us anywhere.

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Re: How the STc principle (special relativity) puts both the arrow of time and a common present moment on a firm physical basis.

2013-12-25 Thread meekerdb

On 12/24/2013 5:26 PM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
Liz states that Special relativity shows that there is no such thing as a common 
present moment. but this is incorrect.


Actually special relativity shows exactly the opposite. In my book I explain how this 
works. It is well known, though little understood, that everything without exception 
continually travels through spacetime at the speed of light according to its own 
comoving clock. I call this the STc Principle. This is a well known consequence of 
special relativity but actually as I point out in my book this is an even more 
fundamental Principle than Special Relativity and Special Relativity is properly a 
consequence of it and can be derived from it.


What the STc Principle says is that the total velocity through both space and through 
time of everything without exception is = to the speed of light. This is the reason that 
time slows on a clock moving with some relative spatial velocity, as Special Relativity 
tells us.


It also demonstrates that the speed of light is properly understood as the speed of 
TIME. That's what c really is. Light just happens to move entirely in space according to 
its own comoving clock, therefore its entire spacetime velocity is in space only.


Anyway it is precisely this STc Principle that puts both the arrow of time and a 
privileged present moment on a firm physical basis. Why? Because it requires that 
everything must be in one particular place in spacetime (the present moment) and moving 
at the speed of light (the arrow of time).


This is the same approach used by Lewis Carroll Epstein in his excellent little book, 
Relativity Visualized.  His diagrams of spacetime use the usual spacial coordinates, but 
instead of coordinate time the fourth axis is proper time.  Since the proper velocity is 
always 1, a Lorentz boost just rotates this velocity so is has an increased space 
component and a reduced time component. As Epstein puts it, The reason we can't go faster 
than light is that we can't go slower. There is only one speed.  Everything, including 
you, is always moving at the speed of light.



However, that doesn't change the fact that space-like separate events can be seen to occur 
in either order depending on the choice of inertial frame, which is what is meant by the 
there is no global present.


Brent




So exactly contrary to your statement, it is precisely special relativity, properly 
understood, that puts both the arrow of time and a common present moment on a firm 
physical basis.


This insight simultaneously solves two of the big problems of the philosophy of science, 
the source of the arrow of time, and the reason for a common present moment, though no 
one seems to have recognized this prior to my exposition in 1997 in my paper 'Spacetime 
and Consciousness'.


Edgar


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Re: How the STc principle (special relativity) puts both the arrow of time and a common present moment on a firm physical basis.

2013-12-25 Thread LizR
On 25 December 2013 14:26, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:


 So exactly contrary to your statement, it is precisely special relativity,
 properly understood, that puts both the arrow of time and a common present
 moment on a firm physical basis.


OK. I was just going by all the physics books I've read, which apparently
claim there is no common present time. Obviously that Einstein chap and the
authors of those books didn't understand the full implications of special
relativity.


 This insight simultaneously solves two of the big problems of the
 philosophy of science, the source of the arrow of time, and the reason for
 a common present moment, though no one seems to have recognized this prior
 to my exposition in 1997 in my paper 'Spacetime and Consciousness'.


I'm not convinced that there is a big philosophical problem with the arrow
of time. If we don't introduce any new physics, the source of the arrow of
time can be reduced to two questions - (a) is there any time asymmetry in
the laws of physics? (and if there is, is it significant enough to account
for eggs forming omelettes, people ageing, sugar dissolving in coffee, and
so on) - and (b) are there any boundary conditions on the universe that are
sufficient to impose a global time asymmetry on the matter and energy
within it?

Both these questions can be answered using our present knowledge of
physics, and give answers that should be considered first in any discussion
of the AOT, before any new physics is introduced.

(a) Yes, there is *some* time asymmetry built into the laws of physics -
the decay of k-mesons operates in a way that violates time symmetry. All
other physical processes, viewed at a short enough distance (or
equivalently, a high enough energy) are time-symmetric, as far as we know.
It seems unlikely that kaon decay is responsible for the large scale
entropy gradient observed in the universe, though it's at least possible it
may be coupled to it in some as yet unknown way.

(b) the elephant in the room in discussions of the AOT is the big bang,
which introduces a global time asymmetry on the entire universe.
Consideration of the processes which occurred shortly after the big bang
leads to the sources of several forms of known time asymmetry.

1 - the formation of nucleons occurred when the energy density of the
universe per unit volume fell below their binding energy due to the cosmic
expansion.

2 - the formation of nuclei occurred when the energy density of the
universe fell below their binding energy due to the cosmic expansion.

3 - the formation of neutral atoms (so called recombination)occurred when
the energfy density of the universe fell below their binding energy due to
the cosmic expansion.

4 - Stars and galaxies formed when the density of the universe fell enough
for (originally small) density fluctuations to be amplified sufficiently to
seed their formation.

Hence it seems likely that we can get the AOT purely from the global
boundary condition imposed by the expansion of the universe plus some
uncontraversial, mainly time-symmetric physics. The formation of bound
states like nuclei, atoms and stars can be traced back to the existence of
a singularity at one temporal extremity, and the lack of one at the other
temporal extremity. Since these bound states are a powerful source of
negative entropy, this seems very likely to be the origin of the arrow of
time.

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Re: Minds, Machines and Gödel

2013-12-25 Thread LizR
On 25 December 2013 16:51, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Saturday, December 21, 2013 5:28:29 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Craig,

 Sorry, but I don't really understand what you are trying to get at. Your
 terminology is not giving me any clarity of what you are really trying to
 say...

 Edgar


 The condensed version of what I'm trying to say is that computation is
 less than real, reality combines experience and computation, and experience
 is greater than reality and does not depend on computation.

 Computation is less than real?  - how so?

And what is experience, in your view?

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Re: A proper definition of reality

2013-12-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 24 Dec 2013, at 17:42, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Bruno,

No. 17 is prime depends entirely on humans who invented the  
concept of prime numbers.



Show me the dependence.

I think you confuse the human math, with math. 17 is prime is  
defined without mentioning any humans. It just means that you cannot  
divide the line I in two or more smaller lines so as  
to make a rectangle.






That's human not Reality math.


It seems more real than humans to me. I can conceive a physical  
reality without human, but I cannot conceive any reality where 17 is  
not prime. If you can do that, please explain.




The logico-mathematical system of reality has no such concept as a  
prime number. Why? Because reality doesn't care whether a number is  
prime or not.


What do you mean by reality. It looks like physical reality, but  
with comp it is still an open problem to describe completely that  
physical reality appearance. We cannot invoke it as a primitive in an  
argument.


You said that God = reality. I agree with this, but only because  
reality share with God the fact that we cannot invoke it in  
argument, nor even define it, etc.





The computations of reality are probably pretty simple. For example  
one of the most basic computations is the conservation of particle  
properties in particle interactions. All that involves is simply  
keeping track of a relatively small set of natural numbers and  
rearranging them into valid particles except for the case of the  
dimensional particle properties such as energy and momenta which are  
not really continuous since reality is granular at the elemental  
level so there is no need for infinitesimals.


?





Give me an example of a single physical (natural) process that says  
anything about primes? I could be wrong here but I can't think of a  
single example. Can you?


But without the notion of prime number, arithmetic makes no sense at.  
And with comp we have to explain the physical from the arithmetical.  
Even if in the physical, prime numbers play no role, that would not  
invalidate the fact that physics emerges from arithmetic.






All human doctors ARE digital.


I meant digitalist doctor. Some doctor can be opposed to comp.




They vary in competence. Judge them on their competence

You state Because the first person indeterminacy is not computable,  
nor is its domain, and the physical laws rely on this. This doesn't  
compute for me. Please explain what you actually mean and why


Read the first part of the sane2004 paper, and tell me what you don't  
understand. may be you could tell me if you can conceive (if only for  
the sake of the argumentation) that you might survive, in the usual  
clinical sense, with an artificial computer-brain-body?





It seems to me that's just a human perspective of computable reality  
and thus the product of computations in mind.


Church thesis makes the notion of computable into an non epistemic  
very solid mathematical notion.







Finally you state But to define computation, you need to be realist  
on some part of arithmetic, including some non computable  
arithmetical assertions, that we can prove to exist.


Again you are trying to impose results from human math on the  
computational system of reality to which they don't apply.


It is human math bearing on universal, non human, truth. The  
definition of intuitively computable invoke humans, but the thesis  
of Church, Post, Turing makes it independent of human. Indeed with  
comp you can substitute human by universal (Löbian) numbers.





Try to apply that to a running software program and no matter how  
much you try it still runs.


Unless it stops, of course. here you are the one seeming to accept  
that a software run or stops independently of human, but this  
contradicts what you say above.




Reality keeps running in spite of your human math telling you it  
can't run.


?
the math shows that reality, viewed by machines or numbers, is beyond  
computation and numbers.


Bruno





Eppur si muove!

Edgar











On Tuesday, December 24, 2013 7:48:24 AM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
All,

Both Roger and Bruno took issue with my definition of reality to  
include theories about reality. But the proper definition of reality  
is that reality includes everything that exists and theories of  
reality most certainly exist. Roger and Bruno seem to be coming from  
the old dualistic definition of reality in which some things  
(generally the 'physical' world) are real and some things aren't  
real (generally thoughts e.g. about the physical world).


While this dualistic definition of reality may be useful in daily  
life it fails on the philosophical level. In truth the entirety of  
reality is computational and both 'physical' events and mental are  
both part of that same single computational nexus. Roger gives the  
example of hitting a table with his fist as something that is real  
as opposed to a theory 

Re: A proper definition of reality

2013-12-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 24 Dec 2013, at 18:18, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:





On Tue, Dec 24, 2013 at 5:42 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net  
wrote:

Bruno,

No. 17 is prime depends entirely on humans who invented the  
concept of prime numbers. That's human not Reality math.


Really? Discovery channel would disagree with you ;-)


Indeed :)

In fact human is arguably a human invention. prime numbers is a  
modest discovery by some human mathematician, but the concept simply  
does not involve any dependence on humans. Edgar seems to take human  
and reality for granted, but those are quite higher order pattern in  
arithmetic viewed internally, with computationalism.


Bruno





The logico-mathematical system of reality has no such concept as a  
prime number. Why? Because reality doesn't care whether a number is  
prime or not. The computations of reality are probably pretty  
simple. For example one of the most basic computations is the  
conservation of particle properties in particle interactions. All  
that involves is simply keeping track of a relatively small set of  
natural numbers and rearranging them into valid particles except for  
the case of the dimensional particle properties such as energy and  
momenta which are not really continuous since reality is granular at  
the elemental level so there is no need for infinitesimals.


Give me an example of a single physical (natural) process that says  
anything about primes? I could be wrong here but I can't think of a  
single example. Can you?


Done:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Periodical_cicadas


All human doctors ARE digital. They vary in competence. Judge them  
on their competence


You state Because the first person indeterminacy is not computable,  
nor is its domain, and the physical laws rely on this. This doesn't  
compute for me. Please explain what you actually mean and why It  
seems to me that's just a human perspective of computable reality  
and thus the product of computations in mind.


Finally you state But to define computation, you need to be realist  
on some part of arithmetic, including some non computable  
arithmetical assertions, that we can prove to exist.


Again you are trying to impose results from human math on the  
computational system of reality to which they don't apply. Try to  
apply that to a running software program and no matter how much you  
try it still runs. Reality keeps running in spite of your human math  
telling you it can't run.


? Perhaps you may choose to have a closer look at UDA and Bruno's  
other work, as you seem to sometimes be leaning towards it. It can  
take awhile to wrap ones head around First Person Indeterminacy and  
its implications, given comp hypothesis.


A better understanding of it would, even if you disagree, avoid  
unfruitful discussions with Reality is such and such claims, as  
his work doesn't make those claims, nor seeks to support or negate  
that type of claim.


To put it roughly from my perspective, Bruno's work concerns  
examining consequences of mechanist hypothesis against the backdrop  
of the discovery of universal machines and is not philosophical in  
the sense of defending some interpretation of Reality over others.  
True, he will argue that this or that ontology is not compatible  
with comp, but to mix this up with Philosophy as in defending an  
ontological stance, is to judge too quickly, even though  
understandable. PGC



Eppur si muove!

Edgar











On Tuesday, December 24, 2013 7:48:24 AM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
All,

Both Roger and Bruno took issue with my definition of reality to  
include theories about reality. But the proper definition of reality  
is that reality includes everything that exists and theories of  
reality most certainly exist. Roger and Bruno seem to be coming from  
the old dualistic definition of reality in which some things  
(generally the 'physical' world) are real and some things aren't  
real (generally thoughts e.g. about the physical world).


While this dualistic definition of reality may be useful in daily  
life it fails on the philosophical level. In truth the entirety of  
reality is computational and both 'physical' events and mental are  
both part of that same single computational nexus. Roger gives the  
example of hitting a table with his fist as something that is real  
as opposed to a theory about reality which isn't but in fact the  
reality of the experience of both is electrical signals (information  
computations) in the brain. They are both computations in the brain.


The proper definition is that everything that exists is real and  
therefore part of reality. Everything that exists is a  
computationally evolving information state in reality and that is  
why it is real, however its reality is exactly what it actually is,  
what its computational forms actually are, and this is true for  
everything including both what our minds interpret as 'physical'  
events and 'mental'. If you 

Re: Minds, Machines and Gödel

2013-12-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 21 Dec 2013, at 21:52, Edgar Owen wrote:


Liz,

No, that doesn't make Reality subject to the halting problem. The  
halting problem is when a computer program is trying to reach some  
independently postulated result and may or may not be able to reach  
it.


Reality doesn't have any problem like this. It just computes the  
logical results of the evolution of the current information state of  
the universe. There are no independently postulated states that  
aren't directly computed by reality which reality then attempts to  
reach (prove).


This contradicts both comp and QM.

Bruno




Edgar



On Dec 21, 2013, at 3:26 PM, LizR wrote:

Reality is analogous to a running software program. Godel's Theorem  
does not apply. A human could speculate as to whether any  
particular state of Reality could ever arise computationally and it  
might be impossible to determine that, but again that has nothing  
to do with the actual operation of Reality,since it is only a  
particular internal mental model of that reality.


Wouldn't that make reality susceptible to the halting problem?

...hello, is anybody there? Why have all the stars gone out?


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Re: How can a grown man be an atheist ?

2013-12-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 23 Dec 2013, at 12:59, Edgar Owen wrote:


Jason, John, and Bruno,

One must distinguish here between consciousness itself (the subject  
of the Hard Problem), and the contents of consciousness and their  
structure (the subjects of the Easy Problems).


The contents and their structure are most certainly computed by the  
minds of organisms, but the fact that the results of these  
computations are conscious is due to the self-manifesting immanent  
nature of reality as I explained in more detail in a post  
yesterday


That is where we might agree. It works with reality = arithmetical  
truth (when assuming comp). The immanent truth is just that  
proposition like the machine i stops on argument j are true  
independent of me, like 17 is prime.


Bruno




Edgar



On Dec 22, 2013, at 10:41 PM, Jason Resch wrote:





On Sun, Dec 22, 2013 at 6:58 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 21 Dec 2013, at 17:09, John Mikes wrote:

'Implicit assumptions'? Jason seems to me as standing on the  
platform of physical sciences -


I let Jason answer, but this is not my feeling. It seems to me that  
Jason is quite cautious on this, and open to put physics on an  
arithmetical platform instead.




John's initial critique was that I seemed to be assuming a lot that  
he doe not.  I replied to ask what specifically he thinks I am  
assuming which he was not.  To clarify, I was assuming arithmetical  
truth and the idea that the correct computation can instantiate our  
consciousness.


Jason



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Re: God or not?

2013-12-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 22 Dec 2013, at 21:10, Edgar Owen wrote:


All,

The question of whether God exists is meaningless without first  
giving some definition of what is meant by God, of how God is  
defined. Otherwise everyone is talking about different things and  
nothing will go anywhere.


If you need a God there is only one possible rational definition and  
that is to just define God as the universe itself.


The physical universe? the mathematical universe, the arithmetical  
universe?





First there is now absolute certainty that God does exist


In the comp theory, the physical universe is not the origin. It  
emanates from something else.






(all the interminable meaningless arguments vanish), and second his  
attributes now become the proper subject matter of science and  
reason rather than ideology, faith or myth.


Only if you are aware that the physical universe appearance is  
either an assumption, or a theorem.






But most certainly the dogmas of all the organized religions are all  
atavistic myths in the same category as Zeus and Odin which, like  
them, should have been discarded millennia ago


I have less problem with fairy tales dogma (not taken seriously by any  
scientists), and the naturalist dogma, which are harder to fight with,  
as they are more deeply hardwired in our brains than the fairy tales.  
But for many people, the existence of a primitive universe is just a  
dogma.  They can't doubt it. Can you?


Bruno





Edgar



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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 22 Dec 2013, at 19:20, Edgar Owen wrote:


Bruno,

Thanks for your comments. However I think you are coming at Reality  
from the POV of human logico-mathematical theory whose results you  
are trying to impose on reality.


See previous answer to this. Church thesis makes computations as solid  
as numbers, and those does not depend on humans at all, or show me the  
dependence (and define humans).





My approach is to closely examine reality


Physical reality, mathematical reality, arithmetical reality? They all  
kicks back.





and then try to figure out how it works and what ITS innate rules  
and structures are.


I would probably agree with much of what you say, if you were saying  
it about human logico-mathematical structures, but the logico- 
mathematical structure of reality is not bound by human rules.



That's my point.



It runs according to its own logic and science is the process of  
trying to figure out what those rules are and how they work...


For this we have to agree on some independent truth. Mine are simple  
and precise; basically logic + the axiom of elementary arithmetic.






For example, reality is clearly a computational process,


That is refuted by the UDA.



and it runs against pure information which is the fundamental stuff  
of the universe. There is simply no other way current information  
states of reality could result from previous ones other than by a  
computational process.


Some solution of differential equation can be non computable. then  
with comp, some physical facts emerge in a non computable manner.




How that computational process works must be determined by examining  
reality itself.


How could we examine reality itself. We measure numbers and  
correlation between some of those numbers, the rest is in big parts in  
our (real) imagination.




We may try to make sense of it in terms of traditional human math  
theory, but when there are differences then reality always trumps  
human math theory, which applies to human math rather than reality's  
logico-mathematical system.


You seem to be anti-realist in math. This means comp should not even  
have any sense. I am not sure what you mean by computational. I use  
it in its standard sense of Turing computable. I delete Turing using  
Church Turing thesis.


Bruno





Edgar



On Dec 22, 2013, at 6:44 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:



On 21 Dec 2013, at 00:52, Edgar Owen wrote:


All,

The fundamental nature of reality is examined in detail in my  
recent book on Reality available on Amazon under my name.


Marchal is on the right track, but reality consists not just of  
numbers (math)


Arithmetic is not just numbers, but numbers + some laws (addition  
and multiplication).






but is a running logical structure analogous to software



When you have the laws (addition and multiplication), it can be  
shown that a tiny part of arithmetic implement all possible  
computations (accepting Church thesis). Without Church thesis, you  
can still prove that that tiny part of arithmetic emulates  
(simulate exactly) all Turing (or all known) computations.






that continually computes the current state of the universe.


You mean the physical universe. Have you read my papers or posts?  
if we are machine, there is no physical reality that we can assume.  
the whole of physics must be derived from arithmetic.





Just as software includes but doesn't consist only of numbers and  
math, so does reality.


It depends on your initial assumption.




In fact the equations of physical science make sense only when  
embedded in a logical structure just as is the case in  
computational reality.


The computational reality is a tiny part of arithmetic. Logic is  
just a tool to explore such realities.






Modern science has a major lacuna, the notion that all of reality  
is mathematical,


Most scientists do not believe this, and indeed criticize my work  
for seeming to go in that direction.

Then term like reality and mathematical are very fuzzy.
Now, if we are machine, then it can be shown that for the ontology  
we need arithmetic, or any equivalent Turing universal system, and  
we *cannot* assume anything more (that is the key non obvious  
point). Then, it is shown that the physical reality is:

1) an internal aspect of arithmetic
2) despite this, it is vastly bigger than arithmetic and even that  
any conceivable mathematics. That is why I insist that the reality  
we can access to is not mathematical, but theological. It  
contains many things provably escaping all possible sharable  
mathematics.
That arithmetic is (much) bigger viewed from inside than viewed  
from outside is astonishing, and is a sort of Skolem paradox (not a  
contradiction, just a weirdness).




that prevents science from grasping the complete nature of  
reality. In truth all of reality is logical, as is software, and  
the mathematics is just a subset of the logic.


I disagree, with all my respect. Even 

Re: God or not?

2013-12-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 25 Dec 2013, at 07:29, Samiya Illias wrote:

Why not define God as the Creator and Sustainer of the Universe and  
Everything Else that is or may exist?


With comp, this will be non distinguishable from arithmetical truth. I  
am OK with that definition, but from the machine's first person point  
of view, there will still be a difference. God = arithmetical truth,  
if true, is a secret of God.


All we can say is that IF comp is true, THEN possibly (God =  
arithmetical truth), but the machine cannot believe or justify this,.
This is a bit like it is true that Bp and (Bp  p) proves the same  
arithmetical propositions, but the machine cannot justify this, as the  
machine cannot confuse its 1p (related to arithmetical truth) with  
any 3p description.


Bruno







On Wed, Dec 25, 2013 at 4:20 AM, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:
Pantheism, Why didn't you just come out and say so? :-D


-Original Message-
From: Edgar Owen edgaro...@att.net
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: 24-Dec-2013 13:16:11 +
Subject: God or not?

All,

The question of whether God exists is meaningless without first  
giving some
definition of what is meant by God, of how God is defined. Otherwise  
everyone is

talking about different things and nothing will go anywhere.

If you need a God there is only one possible rational definition and  
that is to
just define God as the universe itself. First there is now absolute  
certainty
that God does exist (all the interminable meaningless arguments  
vanish), and
second his attributes now become the proper subject matter of  
science and reason

rather than ideology, faith or myth.

But most certainly the dogmas of all the organized religions are all  
atavistic
myths in the same category as Zeus and Odin which, like them, should  
have been

discarded millennia ago

Edgar



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Re: God or not?

2013-12-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 25 Dec 2013, at 09:18, LizR wrote:


On 23 December 2013 09:10, Edgar Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:
All,

The question of whether God exists is meaningless without first  
giving some definition of what is meant by God, of how God is  
defined. Otherwise everyone is talking about different things and  
nothing will go anywhere.


The concept of God seems to be reasonably similar in various  
religions. Samiya Illias' definition seems close to most of them...


Why not define God as the Creator and Sustainer of the Universe and  
Everything Else that is or may exist?


It's just the details that tend to differ from one religion to  
another.


If you need a God there is only one possible rational definition and  
that is to just define God as the universe itself. First there is  
now absolute certainty that God does exist (all the interminable  
meaningless arguments vanish), and second his attributes now become  
the proper subject matter of science and reason rather than  
ideology, faith or myth.


I don't see how this gets us anywhere, but then I don't see how any  
definition of God gets us anywhere.



I think it is a good term to point on a (transcendental) reality, when  
we are in the state of mind of doubting if it is a thing, or a person,  
or a physical object, or a mathematical process, etc. It is what is  
fundamental and that we might be ignoring. It is what we search, and  
it is not necessarily the physical universe, although it could be, in  
some theological theory.


Bruno





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Re: God or not?

2013-12-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 24 Dec 2013, at 17:24, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:

My iteration is simply this: How does this help our species, how  
might this all change the human condition? My interruption in this  
flow of rational, logical, and analytical reasoning. I am sorry if  
this offends, but like Dr. Suess's Who's in Whoville, The Horton  
Hears a Who, and not the Grinch one, I must rudely, ask,, how this  
could help us?


Science is the search of truth, even if the truth is not helpful.
That is why science needs more courage than anything else. It is a  
cure of wishful thinking a priori.


The separation of theology from science has abandoned the field to the  
wishful thinking and its political exploitation by those who want  
think at our place in the fundamental matter (life and death, and  
health).


In that sense, coming back to modest scientific interrogative thinking  
in theology, could help everybody in front of the truth, especially if  
truth appears to be not as friendly as we would have liked.


Bruno



Us, the pitiful, violent, human species. God, Mind, Consciousness,  
and all that? It needs to be asked, although, yes, some efforts are  
purely intellectual. I always home in, the Existential.


Sincerely,

Mitch
-Original Message-
From: Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Tue, Dec 24, 2013 11:12 am
Subject: Re: God or not?

Bruno,

No. The totality of reality must be logically consistent and  
logically complete if it is computational (for which there is  
overwhelming evidence) because if it wasn't it would fall apart at  
the inconsistencies and pause at the incompletenesses and could not  
exist. Thus since it does exist it must be logically consistent and  
logically complete.


True that only direct experience is certain on the most fundamental  
level, but it is also clear upon consistent examination that direct  
experience is never as it seems to be in the sense that there is  
clearly a deeper reality that is obscured by direct experience. If  
we accept that reality is logical, which it must be to exist, then  
all else follows and we can continue to discuss. Otherwise all would  
be meaningless and futile which it clearly and self-evidently is  
not, since if reality was not logical we could not function within  
it which we do to varying degrees of competence. Therefore our  
direct experience tells us that reality is a consistent logical  
structure.


We can simply define what reality is = everything that exists. We  
don't have to search for reality since it is everywhere and cannot  
be escaped. What we search for is not reality, but its structural  
details.


Lastly no, I do not believe in any primitive physical reality. Not  
at all. At its fundamental level reality is information running in  
ontological energy which is not anything physical, it's simply my  
name for the actuality and presence of existence which is  
information and realness in the present moment rather than anything  
physical. It is the actuality and presence of reality which  
manifests as a present moment in which everything, including  
ourselves, exists. It is the locus of reality which conveys actual  
reality upon the computationally evolving information forms within  
it. Because of its non-physical nature OE is difficult to properly  
describe as Lao Tse noted about the Tao which was his take on OE.


Edgar


On Monday, December 23, 2013 1:48:40 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
All,

The question of whether God exists is meaningless without first  
giving some definition of what is meant by God, of how God is  
defined. Otherwise everyone is talking about different things and  
nothing will go anywhere.


If you need a God there is only one possible rational definition and  
that is to just define God as the universe itself. First there is  
now absolute certainty that God does exist (all the interminable  
meaningless arguments vanish), and second his attributes now become  
the proper subject matter of science and reason rather than  
ideology, faith or myth.


But most certainly the dogmas of all the organized religions are all  
atavistic myths in the same category as Zeus and Odin which, like  
them, should have been discarded millennia ago


Edgar


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Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 22 Dec 2013, at 20:04, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:

Your theory comes from Von Neumann, and Chaitin, and Wolfram, does  
it not, Edgar? That everything is a program or cellular automata,  
and in the beginning was a program. Following along, what is this  
Logic comprised of (sort of like SPK's query) is it electrons, is it  
virtual particles, is it field lines? Where doth the logical  
structure sleep? In Planck Cells? I apologize if my questions annoy,  
but where is the computer network that computes the current state of  
the universe.


In the arithmletical reality which probably emulates all computations  
(in the standard sense of computer science).


But the Wolfram theory is incorrect, as it assumes comp, and don't  
take the FPI into account (nor even the quantum one).


Bruno



Can we get MIT physicist Seth Lloyd to shake a stick or a laser  
pointer, or otherwise, display, where this abacus dwells?


Thanks,
Mitch
-Original Message-
From: Stephen Paul King stephe...@charter.net
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Sun, Dec 22, 2013 1:36 pm
Subject: Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

Dear Edger,

  Where does the fire come from that animates the logic?


On Friday, December 20, 2013 6:52:54 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
All,

The fundamental nature of reality is examined in detail in my recent  
book on Reality available on Amazon under my name.


Marchal is on the right track, but reality consists not just of  
numbers (math) but is a running logical structure analogous to  
software that continually computes the current state of the  
universe. Just as software includes but doesn't consist only of  
numbers and math, so does reality. In fact the equations of physical  
science make sense only when embedded in a logical structure just as  
is the case in computational reality.


Modern science has a major lacuna, the notion that all of reality is  
mathematical, that prevents science from grasping the complete  
nature of reality. In truth all of reality is logical, as is  
software, and the mathematics is just a subset of the logic. After  
all, modern science with its misguided insistence that all of  
reality is mathematical, has had nothing useful to say about the  
nature of either consciousness or the present moment, the two most  
fundamental aspects of experience. However I present a computational  
based information approach to these in my book among many other  
things.


The second clarification that needs to be made to the post on  
Marchal's work is that human math and logic are distinct from the  
actual math and logic that computes reality. The human version is a  
generalized and extended approximation of the actual that differs  
from the actual logico-mathematical structure of reality in  
important ways (e.g. infinities and infinitesimals which don't  
actually exist in external reality).


I can explain further if anyone is interested, or you can read about  
it in my book...


Edgar Owen

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Re: God or not?

2013-12-25 Thread spudboy100

I am sympathetic to your defense of the search for truth. I would differ with 
you, however,  and probably everyone on this list, in stating that science must 
have a goal. Some Transhumanists are ok with the entire human endeavor turned 
over to the Machines, and this includes Science. It may be inevitable, in fact. 
I disagree, and believe that science needs to be harnessed for human betterment 
(I am sure we all do) and, perhaps, diminishing what some theologians have 
called, The Human Condition.  I am all for directing some of the scientific 
search bent towards things that benefit our species, in profound ways. 

Everyone, on this mailing list disagrees with me and has no interest or wanting 
to waste valuable time with such a pursuit. But, as the old English children's' 
song goes, The Cheese Stands alone.  Apologies, if I am coming across as 
limburger ;-)  Joyes Noel, to all,  (Tho' tis' not my faith). 

Mitch


-Original Message-
From: Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Wed, Dec 25, 2013 6:14 am
Subject: Re: God or not?




On 24 Dec 2013, at 17:24, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:


 
My iteration is simply this: How does this help our species, how might this all 
change the human condition? My interruption in this flow of rational, logical, 
and analytical reasoning. I am sorry if this offends, but like Dr. Suess's 
Who's in Whoville, The Horton Hears a Who, and not the Grinch one, I must 
rudely, ask,, how this could help us? 



Science is the search of truth, even if the truth is not helpful. 
That is why science needs more courage than anything else. It is a cure of 
wishful thinking a priori.


The separation of theology from science has abandoned the field to the wishful 
thinking and its political exploitation by those who want think at our place in 
the fundamental matter (life and death, and health).


In that sense, coming back to modest scientific interrogative thinking in 
theology, could help everybody in front of the truth, especially if truth 
appears to be not as friendly as we would have liked. 


Bruno






Us, the pitiful, violent, human species. God, Mind, Consciousness, and all 
that? It needs to be asked, although, yes, some efforts are purely 
intellectual. I always home in, the Existential. 
 
 
 
Sincerely,
 
 
 
Mitch
 
 
 
-Original Message-
 From: Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net
 To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Tue, Dec 24, 2013 11:12 am
 Subject: Re: God or not?
 
 
 
Bruno, 

 
 
No. The totality of reality must be logically consistent and logically complete 
if it is computational (for which there is overwhelming evidence) because if it 
wasn't it would fall apart at the inconsistencies and pause at the 
incompletenesses and could not exist. Thus since it does exist it must be 
logically consistent and logically complete.
 

 
 
True that only direct experience is certain on the most fundamental level, but 
it is also clear upon consistent examination that direct experience is never as 
it seems to be in the sense that there is clearly a deeper reality that is 
obscured by direct experience. If we accept that reality is logical, which it 
must be to exist, then all else follows and we can continue to discuss. 
Otherwise all would be meaningless and futile which it clearly and 
self-evidently is not, since if reality was not logical we could not function 
within it which we do to varying degrees of competence. Therefore our direct 
experience tells us that reality is a consistent logical structure.
 

 
 
We can simply define what reality is = everything that exists. We don't have to 
search for reality since it is everywhere and cannot be escaped. What we 
search for is not reality, but its structural details.
 

 
 
Lastly no, I do not believe in any primitive physical reality. Not at all. At 
its fundamental level reality is information running in ontological energy 
which is not anything physical, it's simply my name for the actuality and 
presence of existence which is information and realness in the present moment 
rather than anything physical. It is the actuality and presence of reality 
which manifests as a present moment in which everything, including ourselves, 
exists. It is the locus of reality which conveys actual reality upon the 
computationally evolving information forms within it. Because of its 
non-physical nature OE is difficult to properly describe as Lao Tse noted about 
the Tao which was his take on OE.
 

 
 
Edgar
 

 
 On Monday, December 23, 2013 1:48:40 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
 
All,
 
 The question of whether God exists is meaningless without first giving some 
definition of what is meant by God, of how God is defined. Otherwise everyone 
is talking about different things and nothing will go anywhere.
 
 If you need a God there is only one possible rational definition and that is 
to just define God as the universe itself. First there 

Re: A proper definition of reality

2013-12-25 Thread Russell Standish
More to the point, the product of the two cycles gives a much greater
period than what their predators can track - in effect implementing
the linear congruential pseudo random number generation algorithm.

Evolution is very smart!

Cheers

On Tue, Dec 24, 2013 at 12:43:01PM -0600, Jason Resch wrote:
 There is also a 13 year cicada.  Is it a coincidence they cycle
 their mass appearances on large prime numbers?
 
 It is thought that this strategy prevents predators from tuning
 their population cycles to those of the cicadas.
 
 Jason
 
 On Dec 24, 2013, at 12:19 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:
 
 Cowboy,
 
 The fact that cicadas tend to emerge at 17 year intervals has
 nothing at all to do with the fact that 17 is a prime number. It's
 simply counting. If I find 17 cents in my pocket that's just
 counting - nothing at all to do with primes or prime theory.
 
 That should be obvious...
 
 Edgar
 
 
 
 On Tuesday, December 24, 2013 7:48:24 AM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
 All,
 
 Both Roger and Bruno took issue with my definition of reality to
 include theories about reality. But the proper definition of
 reality is that reality includes everything that exists and
 theories of reality most certainly exist. Roger and Bruno seem to
 be coming from the old dualistic definition of reality in which
 some things (generally the 'physical' world) are real and some
 things aren't real (generally thoughts e.g. about the physical
 world).
 
 While this dualistic definition of reality may be useful in daily
 life it fails on the philosophical level. In truth the entirety of
 reality is computational and both 'physical' events and mental are
 both part of that same single computational nexus. Roger gives the
 example of hitting a table with his fist as something that is real
 as opposed to a theory about reality which isn't but in fact the
 reality of the experience of both is electrical signals
 (information computations) in the brain. They are both
 computations in the brain.
 
 The proper definition is that everything that exists is real and
 therefore part of reality. Everything that exists is a
 computationally evolving information state in reality and that is
 why it is real, however its reality is exactly what it actually
 is, what its computational forms actually are, and this is true
 for everything including both what our minds interpret as
 'physical' events and 'mental'. If you must make that distinction
 then of course everything without exception in our thoughts and
 experience is mental, but the deeper truth is that its all
 computationally evolving information however it's interpreted by
 our minds.
 
 Thus the only philosophically consistent definition of reality
 includes everything that exists without exception, including
 thoughts and theories.
 
 But there is a deeper truth here in that reality itself exists
 independently of its particular contents as a thing in itself. In
 fact prior to the big bang it was empty of any actualized
 information at all, but it still existed in a state similar to a
 generalized quantum vacuum.
 
 This reality itself is what makes the computations that occur
 within it real and actual and have being, it is what gives them
 life. It is what I call 'Ontological Energy' which is simply the
 (non-physical) space of reality whose presence manifests as the
 present moment in which we and everything exists. All the
 computationally evolving information that exists exists like
 waves, ripples and currents in the sea of existence itself, in the
 ocean of ontological energy, the logical space or locus of reality
 and actuality.
 
 Reality is a single ocean of ontological energy and everything
 that exists exists as a computationally evolving information form
 within it. There is nothing outside of it because there is no
 outside. Therefore there is no possibility of anything being 'not
 real' or not part of reality. There is only the different
 categories of reality of different information forms within
 reality.
 
 Edgar
 
 
 
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Re: How the STc principle (special relativity) puts both the arrow of time and a common present moment on a firm physical basis.

2013-12-25 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Brent,

I agree up until your last sentence. There you ignore the fact that the 
different orders of events are seen by both observers in the exact same 
common present moment. This can only be understood when two kinds of time 
are accepted and the difference between clock time (different for different 
observers) and P-time, the time of the present moment, are recognized.

See my new topic on 2 different kinds of time for an explanation

Edgar

On Tuesday, December 24, 2013 8:26:00 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Liz states that Special relativity shows that there is no such thing as 
 a common present moment. but this is incorrect.

 Actually special relativity shows exactly the opposite. In my book I 
 explain how this works. It is well known, though little understood, that 
 everything without exception continually travels through spacetime at the 
 speed of light according to its own comoving clock. I call this the STc 
 Principle. This is a well known consequence of special relativity but 
 actually as I point out in my book this is an even more fundamental 
 Principle than Special Relativity and Special Relativity is properly a 
 consequence of it and can be derived from it.

 What the STc Principle says is that the total velocity through both space 
 and through time of everything without exception is = to the speed of 
 light. This is the reason that time slows on a clock moving with some 
 relative spatial velocity, as Special Relativity tells us.

 It also demonstrates that the speed of light is properly understood as the 
 speed of TIME. That's what c really is. Light just happens to move entirely 
 in space according to its own comoving clock, therefore its entire 
 spacetime velocity is in space only.

 Anyway it is precisely this STc Principle that puts both the arrow of time 
 and a privileged present moment on a firm physical basis. Why? Because it 
 requires that everything must be in one particular place in spacetime (the 
 present moment) and moving at the speed of light (the arrow of time).

 So exactly contrary to your statement, it is precisely special relativity, 
 properly understood, that puts both the arrow of time and a common present 
 moment on a firm physical basis.

 This insight simultaneously solves two of the big problems of the 
 philosophy of science, the source of the arrow of time, and the reason for 
 a common present moment, though no one seems to have recognized this prior 
 to my exposition in 1997 in my paper 'Spacetime and Consciousness'.

 Edgar




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Why there is something rather than nothing...

2013-12-25 Thread Edgar L. Owen
All,

As I state in my book on Reality in Part I: Fundamentals, Existence MUST 
exist because non-existence canNOT exist. That is why there was never a 
nothing out of which something appeared. Therefore there is no need for a 
creator nor a creation event. The very notion is illogical and 
impossible

This is the solution to the most basic of philosophical/scientific 
questions: Why is there something rather than nothing?

This is the fundamental self-necessitating axiom of Reality upon which all 
else is based. It is the bottom turtle in the stack!

Edgar

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Re: God or not?

2013-12-25 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Bruno,

There simply is no physical universe. The universe is information being 
computed in OE only. Physical universes are interpretations of the actual 
information universe in organismic minds. That is their only reality. They 
are mental models or simulations of the actual information reality, and 
they also as parts of that information reality are themselves also only 
information.

Edgar




On Sunday, December 22, 2013 3:10:30 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 All, 

 The question of whether God exists is meaningless without first giving 
 some definition of what is meant by God, of how God is defined. Otherwise 
 everyone is talking about different things and nothing will go anywhere. 

 If you need a God there is only one possible rational definition and that 
 is to just define God as the universe itself. First there is now absolute 
 certainty that God does exist (all the interminable meaningless arguments 
 vanish), and second his attributes now become the proper subject matter of 
 science and reason rather than ideology, faith or myth. 

 But most certainly the dogmas of all the organized religions are all 
 atavistic myths in the same category as Zeus and Odin which, like them, 
 should have been discarded millennia ago 

 Edgar 





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Re: God or not?

2013-12-25 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Bruno, and Samiya,

Because there can be no creator sustainer God that stands outside the 
universe. Where would he/it stand? That's an irrational belief from 
millennia ago. The universe by definition is all that exists...

Edgar

On Sunday, December 22, 2013 3:10:30 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 All, 

 The question of whether God exists is meaningless without first giving 
 some definition of what is meant by God, of how God is defined. Otherwise 
 everyone is talking about different things and nothing will go anywhere. 

 If you need a God there is only one possible rational definition and that 
 is to just define God as the universe itself. First there is now absolute 
 certainty that God does exist (all the interminable meaningless arguments 
 vanish), and second his attributes now become the proper subject matter of 
 science and reason rather than ideology, faith or myth. 

 But most certainly the dogmas of all the organized religions are all 
 atavistic myths in the same category as Zeus and Odin which, like them, 
 should have been discarded millennia ago 

 Edgar 





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Re: God or not?

2013-12-25 Thread Samiya Illias
Why and How does all exist?
 
Samiya

On 25-Dec-2013, at 8:21 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Bruno, and Samiya,
 
 Because there can be no creator sustainer God that stands outside the 
 universe. Where would he/it stand? That's an irrational belief from millennia 
 ago. The universe by definition is all that exists...
 
 Edgar
 
 On Sunday, December 22, 2013 3:10:30 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
 
 All, 
 
 The question of whether God exists is meaningless without first giving some 
 definition of what is meant by God, of how God is defined. Otherwise 
 everyone is talking about different things and nothing will go anywhere. 
 
 If you need a God there is only one possible rational definition and that is 
 to just define God as the universe itself. First there is now absolute 
 certainty that God does exist (all the interminable meaningless arguments 
 vanish), and second his attributes now become the proper subject matter of 
 science and reason rather than ideology, faith or myth. 
 
 But most certainly the dogmas of all the organized religions are all 
 atavistic myths in the same category as Zeus and Odin which, like them, 
 should have been discarded millennia ago 
 
 Edgar
 
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The 'Super Anthropic Principle' - why multiverses are not needed and thus very unlikely

2013-12-25 Thread Edgar L. Owen
All,

ST=spacetime, c=speed of light, thus STc Principle.

To answer some of Jason's questions. Block time is wrong. Only the common 
present moment exists. All the comments Jason makes refer only to 
differences in clock times which are well known, but the important point is 
that all those differences in clock time occur in the SAME common present 
moment.. I find it difficult to understand why so many people can't get 
their minds around the difference which proves there are two distinct kinds 
of time.

The past exists only as inferences from the present as to what states would 
have resulted in the present according to the currently known laws of 
physics. Therefore the past is actually determined by the present state of 
reality from the perspective of the present which is the only valid 
perspective. Therefore the logical network of past and present is absolute 
100% exact and could not have been different in even the slightest detail. 
The actual currently state of the universe falsifies the very possibility 
of other pasts. This is another difficult concept for many. 

Only the future is probabilistic because it does not yet exist and has 
never been computed. But the past - present logical state has been actually 
computed and thus is completely deterministic now that it exists and it 
could not have been different in any minute detail at all.

This solves the problem of the original fine tuning. Given the current 
state of reality which is all that exists, all other conceivable fine 
tunings are impossible. This is what I call the 'Super Anthropic 
Principle', and it negates the necessity and probably the actuality of 
postulating any multiverses and strongly implies our observable universe is 
most probably the only one that exists.

Edgar


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Re: Privacy

2013-12-25 Thread John Mikes
Liz:   W E  A R E .


On Tue, Dec 24, 2013 at 4:33 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 I trust everyone is celebrating Newton-mas today?

 One of the greatest men of the past 2000 years, without whom we would
 probably still be ignorant peasants ruled by clergy and kings...

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Re: The 'Super Anthropic Principle' - why multiverses are not needed and thus very unlikely

2013-12-25 Thread spudboy100
Ok, so the Quantum needs an Observer. Who are the Observers, Boltzmann Brains. 
When intelligent Observers croak, Boltzmann Brains, Humans, The Intelligent 
Octopii, from the Sombrero Galaxy, should not the universe (one universe) 
collapse or devolve into chaos (particle probabilities)? Am I too insipid for 
addressing this?



-Original Message-
From: Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Wed, Dec 25, 2013 11:52 am
Subject: The 'Super Anthropic Principle' - why multiverses are not needed and 
thus very unlikely


All,


ST=spacetime, c=speed of light, thus STc Principle.


To answer some of Jason's questions. Block time is wrong. Only the common 
present moment exists. All the comments Jason makes refer only to differences 
in clock times which are well known, but the important point is that all those 
differences in clock time occur in the SAME common present moment.. I find it 
difficult to understand why so many people can't get their minds around the 
difference which proves there are two distinct kinds of time.


The past exists only as inferences from the present as to what states would 
have resulted in the present according to the currently known laws of physics. 
Therefore the past is actually determined by the present state of reality from 
the perspective of the present which is the only valid perspective. Therefore 
the logical network of past and present is absolute 100% exact and could not 
have been different in even the slightest detail. The actual currently state of 
the universe falsifies the very possibility of other pasts. This is another 
difficult concept for many. 


Only the future is probabilistic because it does not yet exist and has never 
been computed. But the past - present logical state has been actually computed 
and thus is completely deterministic now that it exists and it could not have 
been different in any minute detail at all.


This solves the problem of the original fine tuning. Given the current state of 
reality which is all that exists, all other conceivable fine tunings are 
impossible. This is what I call the 'Super Anthropic Principle', and it negates 
the necessity and probably the actuality of postulating any multiverses and 
strongly implies our observable universe is most probably the only one that 
exists.


Edgar





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Re: God or not?

2013-12-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 25 Dec 2013, at 12:39, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:

I am sympathetic to your defense of the search for truth. I would  
differ with you, however,  and probably everyone on this list, in  
stating that science must have a goal. Some Transhumanists are ok  
with the entire human endeavor turned over to the Machines, and this  
includes Science. It may be inevitable, in fact. I disagree, and  
believe that science needs to be harnessed for human betterment (I  
am sure we all do) and, perhaps, diminishing what some theologians  
have called, The Human Condition.  I am all for directing some of  
the scientific search bent towards things that benefit our species,  
in profound ways.


Everyone, on this mailing list disagrees with me and has no interest  
or wanting to waste valuable time with such a pursuit. But, as the  
old English children's' song goes, The Cheese Stands alone.   
Apologies, if I am coming across as limburger ;-)  Joyes Noel, to  
all,  (Tho' tis' not my faith).


That is very honorable from you. I think that honest research of the  
truth can help here, but indirectly, perhaps through examples.
I think that most human suffering due to humans is a product of moral  
and altruism: hell is really paved with the good intention.


Comp has some quasi-ethic, like don't ever do moral (uncommunicable  
of course, as it would be a moral).


Comp might help also, in the sense that if the humans are encouraged  
to listen to the machines, they will be encouraged to listen to the  
humans.


Then it can help (or perturb) by making us realize how ignorant we are  
in the fundamental questions. Science has simply not yet really begun,  
for a computationalist.


Truth is not enough for the good, but it light be necessary.

Bruno






Mitch
-Original Message-
From: Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Wed, Dec 25, 2013 6:14 am
Subject: Re: God or not?


On 24 Dec 2013, at 17:24, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:

My iteration is simply this: How does this help our species, how  
might this all change the human condition? My interruption in this  
flow of rational, logical, and analytical reasoning. I am sorry if  
this offends, but like Dr. Suess's Who's in Whoville, The Horton  
Hears a Who, and not the Grinch one, I must rudely, ask,, how this  
could help us?


Science is the search of truth, even if the truth is not helpful.
That is why science needs more courage than anything else. It is a  
cure of wishful thinking a priori.


The separation of theology from science has abandoned the field to  
the wishful thinking and its political exploitation by those who  
want think at our place in the fundamental matter (life and death,  
and health).


In that sense, coming back to modest scientific interrogative  
thinking in theology, could help everybody in front of the truth,  
especially if truth appears to be not as friendly as we would have  
liked.


Bruno



Us, the pitiful, violent, human species. God, Mind, Consciousness,  
and all that? It needs to be asked, although, yes, some efforts are  
purely intellectual. I always home in, the Existential.


Sincerely,

Mitch
-Original Message-
From: Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Tue, Dec 24, 2013 11:12 am
Subject: Re: God or not?

Bruno,

No. The totality of reality must be logically consistent and  
logically complete if it is computational (for which there is  
overwhelming evidence) because if it wasn't it would fall apart at  
the inconsistencies and pause at the incompletenesses and could not  
exist. Thus since it does exist it must be logically consistent and  
logically complete.


True that only direct experience is certain on the most fundamental  
level, but it is also clear upon consistent examination that direct  
experience is never as it seems to be in the sense that there is  
clearly a deeper reality that is obscured by direct experience. If  
we accept that reality is logical, which it must be to exist, then  
all else follows and we can continue to discuss. Otherwise all  
would be meaningless and futile which it clearly and self-evidently  
is not, since if reality was not logical we could not function  
within it which we do to varying degrees of competence. Therefore  
our direct experience tells us that reality is a consistent logical  
structure.


We can simply define what reality is = everything that exists. We  
don't have to search for reality since it is everywhere and  
cannot be escaped. What we search for is not reality, but its  
structural details.


Lastly no, I do not believe in any primitive physical reality.  
Not at all. At its fundamental level reality is information running  
in ontological energy which is not anything physical, it's simply  
my name for the actuality and presence of existence which is  
information and realness in the present moment rather than anything  
physical. It is 

Re: Bruno's mathematical reality

2013-12-25 Thread spudboy100
Are we not presuming, structure, or a-priori, existence of something, doing 
this processing, this work? Idea-wise, Wolfram and Von Neumann's cellular 
automata, also known as programs. I am not saying there is a programmer (like 
Herr Doctor Scmidhuber has pondered) but there seems to be a pre-existing 
program, producing your Arithmetic. Platonism is great, but I am doubtful that 
the magic of self organization can come up with forms all on its own. Before 
the chicken came the animal that preceded the chicken-maybe a raptor, forget 
the egg. 



-Original Message-
From: Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Wed, Dec 25, 2013 6:18 am
Subject: Re: Bruno's mathematical reality




On 22 Dec 2013, at 20:04, spudboy...@aol.com wrote:


 
Your theory comes from Von Neumann, and Chaitin, and Wolfram, does it not, 
Edgar? That everything is a program or cellular automata, and in the beginning 
was a program. Following along, what is this Logic comprised of (sort of like 
SPK's query) is it electrons, is it virtual particles, is it field lines? Where 
doth the logical structure sleep? In Planck Cells? I apologize if my questions 
annoy, but where is the computer network that computes the current state of the 
universe. 



In the arithmletical reality which probably emulates all computations (in the 
standard sense of computer science).


But the Wolfram theory is incorrect, as it assumes comp, and don't take the FPI 
into account (nor even the quantum one).


Bruno






Can we get MIT physicist Seth Lloyd to shake a stick or a laser pointer, or 
otherwise, display, where this abacus dwells?  
 
 
 
Thanks, 
 
Mitch
 
 
 
-Original Message-
 From: Stephen Paul King stephe...@charter.net
 To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Sun, Dec 22, 2013 1:36 pm
 Subject: Re: Bruno's mathematical reality
 
 
 
Dear Edger, 

 
 
  Where does the fire come from that animates the logic?
 

 
 On Friday, December 20, 2013 6:52:54 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
 
 
 
All,
 

 
 
The fundamental nature of reality is examined in detail in my recent book on 
Reality available on Amazon under my name.
 

 
 
Marchal is on the right track, but reality consists not just of numbers (math) 
but is a running logical structure analogous to software that continually 
computes the current state of the universe. Just as software includes but 
doesn't consist only of numbers and math, so does reality. In fact the 
equations of physical science make sense only when embedded in a logical 
structure just as is the case in computational reality.
 

 
 
Modern science has a major lacuna, the notion that all of reality is 
mathematical, that prevents science from grasping the complete nature of 
reality. In truth all of reality is logical, as is software, and the 
mathematics is just a subset of the logic. After all, modern science with its 
misguided insistence that all of reality is mathematical, has had nothing 
useful to say about the nature of either consciousness or the present moment, 
the two most fundamental aspects of experience. However I present a 
computational based information approach to these in my book among many other 
things.
 

 
 
The second clarification that needs to be made to the post on Marchal's work is 
that human math and logic are distinct from the actual math and logic that 
computes reality. The human version is a generalized and extended approximation 
of the actual that differs from the actual logico-mathematical structure of 
reality in important ways (e.g. infinities and infinitesimals which don't 
actually exist in external reality).
 

 
 
I can explain further if anyone is interested, or you can read about it in my 
book...
 

 
 
Edgar Owen
 

 
 
 
 
 
 
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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



 



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To post to 

Re: Yes, my book 'Reality' does cover quantum reality.

2013-12-25 Thread Russell Standish
On Mon, Dec 23, 2013 at 04:15:13PM -0800, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
 All,
 
 Someone asked somewhere if I cover quantum theory in my book. Yes, I do. 
 The entire 'Part III: Elementals' of the book covers reality at its finest 
 scale, the quantum world. I'll summarize here but can only gloss over some 
 of the main points.
 
 As stated before reality, at its most fundamental level, consists of pure 
 computationally evolving information only. It is not physical. Thus there 
 is no dimensional spacetime. Dimensional spacetime is in fact something 
 that arises from quantum events, e.g. the conservation of particle 
 properties as they are computed in particle interactions that specify the 
 dimensional relationships between particles emerging from particle 
 interactions, such as relative energies and momenta.
 
 It is these purely numeric NON-physical computed dimensional relationships 
 that are part of the fundamental computational reality. Thus instead of a 
 single pre-existing all pervading spacetime that exists as a background to 
 all events, what really happens is that many independent mini-spacetimes 
 arise from networks of particle interactions. 
 
 It is only when these networks connect via common events that their 
 spacetimes merge into larger mini-spacetimes, and the spacetime that we 
 think we inhabit is actually the end result of the merging of innumerable 
 mini-spacetimes as the result of all the billions of particle level events 
 we continually interact with, e.g. all the photons impinging on our retinas.
 
 These continual particle level interactions build up the simulacrum of a 
 classical spacetime and our minds then interpolate that and mentally 
 construct a fixed, pre-existing common spacetime that does not actually 
 exist in external reality itself even though our minds convince us that it 
 does.
 
 Now there is plenty of evidence this view is correct, part of which is that 
 it solves two of the most profound problems of physics.
 
 
 
 The beauty of this insight is that it enables two very important advances.
 
 1. First it enables the conceptual unification of general relativity and 
 quantum theory because the reason they seem incompatible is precisely the 
 pre-existing all pervading spacetime that quantum theory mistakenly 
 assumes. When it is understood that spacetime emerges from quantum events 
 rather than being a pre-existing background to them this incompatibility 
 vanishes and in fact it is easy to get the curved spacetime of general 
 relativity directly from this emergence by simply taking the mass-energy 
 particle property as the scale of the spacetime that emerges.
 
 2. In one fell swoop it eliminates ALL quantum paradox. Why? Because 
 quantum processes only seem paradoxical again with respect to the 
 pre-existing fixed common spacetime mistakenly assumed. When the way 
 spacetime emerges FROM quantum processes is understood all the paradoxical 
 nature of quantum theory vanishes.
 
 
 Now, I know this probably seems counter intuitive and is a lot to get one's 
 mind around in one post which is not as clearly stated as I'd like but I'd 
 be happy to explain further or you can read my book available on Amazon 
 under my name. When it is properly understood it becomes quite clear and 
 very obvious and it is so simple and straightforward one wonders why no one 
 discovered it before
 
 Edgar
 
 

Hi Edgar,

In principle, this strikes me as being right. Spacetime must be
emergent from quantum interactions via the process of observation, but
getting the mathematical details right is tricky. I know of the PaW
model, for example, which attempts to do this (eg see arXiv:1310.4691),
but haven't really grokked the details. Is you model related, and do
you have a shorter paper where you give the mathematical details? 

Cheers

-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au


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Re: God or not?

2013-12-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 25 Dec 2013, at 16:15, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Bruno,

There simply is no physical universe.



We might agree, if you use physical universe in the Aristotelian  
sense.





The universe is information being computed in OE only.


OE?
Can you make precise what you mean by information being computed?



Physical universes are interpretations of the actual information  
universe in organismic minds.


What are organismic minds?

Bruno



That is their only reality. They are mental models or simulations of  
the actual information reality, and they also as parts of that  
information reality are themselves also only information.


Edgar




On Sunday, December 22, 2013 3:10:30 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
All,

The question of whether God exists is meaningless without first  
giving some definition of what is meant by God, of how God is  
defined. Otherwise everyone is talking about different things and  
nothing will go anywhere.


If you need a God there is only one possible rational definition and  
that is to just define God as the universe itself. First there is  
now absolute certainty that God does exist (all the interminable  
meaningless arguments vanish), and second his attributes now become  
the proper subject matter of science and reason rather than  
ideology, faith or myth.


But most certainly the dogmas of all the organized religions are all  
atavistic myths in the same category as Zeus and Odin which, like  
them, should have been discarded millennia ago


Edgar




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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: The 'Super Anthropic Principle' - why multiverses are not needed and thus very unlikely

2013-12-25 Thread Howard Marks

  
  
Amen on most points, Edgar. I also have
  misgivings about the existence of the multiverse for different
  reasons that this posting is not the place to vent. 
  
  But, for we humans, the present moment exists for each of us. Your
  "common present moment" is an assumption that all x, y, and z of
  this 3-D realm experience simultaneity, even though every local
  set of coordinates, for instance, x1, y1, z1, if they have a
  self-aware structure (SAS), i.e. an observer, will have different
  experiences - albeit, even if only that the coordinates are
  different. You are trying to make your "common present moment" an
  axiom of reality that, for all x, y, and z, there is only one t.
  Though it makes common sense for a strictly Newtonian universe,
  when one adds relativistic considerations of the connectivity of
  space and time into a space-time continuum, your axiom of a common
  present may not hold. 
  
I
am, BTW, a physicist by education. I don't post much.
  
  Howard Marks
  
  Certainly, your assumption can be made and explored.

On 12/25/2013 10:52 AM, Edgar L. Owen
  wrote:


  All,


ST=spacetime, c=speed of
  light, thus STc Principle.


To answer some of Jason's
  questions. Block time is wrong. Only the common present moment
  exists. All the comments Jason makes refer only to differences
  in clock times which are well known, but the important point
  is that all those differences in clock time occur in the SAME
  common present moment.. I find it difficult to understand why
  so many people can't get their minds around the difference
  which proves there are two distinct kinds of time.


The past exists only as
  inferences from the present as to what states would have
  resulted in the present according to the currently known laws
  of physics. Therefore the past is actually determined by the
  present state of reality from the perspective of the present
  which is the only valid perspective. Therefore the logical
  network of past and present is absolute 100% exact and could
  not have been different in even the slightest detail. The
  actual currently state of the universe falsifies the very
  possibility of other pasts. This is another difficult concept
  for many.


Only the future is
  probabilistic because it does not yet exist and has never been
  computed. But the past - present logical state has been
  actually computed and thus is completely deterministic now
  that it exists and it could not have been different in any
  minute detail at all.


This solves the problem
  of the original fine tuning. Given the current state of
  reality which is all that exists, all other conceivable fine
  tunings are impossible. This is what I call the 'Super
  Anthropic Principle', and it negates the necessity and
  probably the actuality of postulating any multiverses and
  strongly implies our observable universe is most probably the
  only one that exists.


Edgar




  
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Re: Why there is something rather than nothing...

2013-12-25 Thread John Clark
On Wed, Dec 25, 2013 at 10:05 AM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrot

 As I state in my book on Reality in Part I: Fundamentals, Existence MUST
 exist because non-existence canNOT exist. [...] The very notion is
 illogical and impossible


Provided of course that the laws of logic exist.

 there is no need for a creator


Postulating the existence of God would just make the problem of explaining
existence worse. If science can't explain everything it would be nuts to
turn to religion which has a track record of never being able of explaining
anything; or rather it would be nuts provided that the laws of logic exist.

 nor a creation event.


I'm not so sure about that, most astronomers would disagree with you.

And happy Newton's birthday everybody!

  John K Clark

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Re: God or not?

2013-12-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 25 Dec 2013, at 16:21, Edgar L. Owen wrote:


Bruno, and Samiya,

Because there can be no creator sustainer God that stands outside  
the universe. Where would he/it stand? That's an irrational belief  
from millennia ago. The universe by definition is all that exists...



But what exists need to be define in some TOE.

God created the natural numbers, all the rest belongs to natural  
numbers dreams (paraphrasing Kronecker again). The physical reality  
is a first person statistics on cohering dreams. Normally. My point  
is that this can be made precise (thanks to computer science) and  
tested experimentally (and somehow QM weirdness get easily explained,  
but the classical, symplectic, part of physics is much harder.


Bruno




Edgar

On Sunday, December 22, 2013 3:10:30 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
All,

The question of whether God exists is meaningless without first  
giving some definition of what is meant by God, of how God is  
defined. Otherwise everyone is talking about different things and  
nothing will go anywhere.


If you need a God there is only one possible rational definition and  
that is to just define God as the universe itself. First there is  
now absolute certainty that God does exist (all the interminable  
meaningless arguments vanish), and second his attributes now become  
the proper subject matter of science and reason rather than  
ideology, faith or myth.


But most certainly the dogmas of all the organized religions are all  
atavistic myths in the same category as Zeus and Odin which, like  
them, should have been discarded millennia ago


Edgar




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Re: How the STc principle (special relativity) puts both the arrow of time and a common present moment on a firm physical basis.

2013-12-25 Thread Jesse Mazer
The notion that everything travels through spacetime at the speed of
light was popularized by Brian Greene, but it only works if you choose a
rather odd definition of speed through spacetime, one which I haven't
seen any other physicists make use of. See my post #3 on the thread at
http://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=59901 where I quote
Greene's explanation of the math behind his statement and explain why this
terminology seems counter-intuitive and not particularly illuminating to me.

In any case, you haven't really addressed the basic argument in SR that
there is no single objective present--the principle of the relativity of
simultaneity. In relativity there are different inertial reference frames,
and the two basic postulates of relativity are that the laws of physics
must work exactly the same in each inertial frame (so if you were in a
windowless room moving inertially in space, there'd be no experiment you
could do that would give different results depending on what inertial frame
you were at rest in), and the speed of light must be measured to be c in
every inertial frame--see
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Postulates_of_special_relativity

From these two postulates you can derive the fact that different frames
must judge simultaneity differently. For example, suppose I am standing on
a space station watching you travel by me on a spaceship, with one wall
transparent so I can see what's going on inside your ship. Suppose you set
off a flash of light at the exact center of your ship, and I measure the
time it takes in my frame for the light from the flash to hit the front and
back walls of your ship. At the moment the flash happened it was
equidistant from the front and back wall, but since the ship is moving
forwards in my frame, the back wall is moving *towards* the photons that
are heading in the direction of the back wall, while the front wall is
moving *away* from the photons that are heading in the direction of the
front wall. So, if both sets of photons move at the same speed relative to
*my* frame, I must conclude that the photons will reach the back wall at an
earlier time than the photons reach the front wall.

On the other hand, in your rest frame the ship is simply at rest, so
neither wall is moving towards or away from the point where the flash
happened, and it's still true that both walls are equidistant from the
flash. So if both sets of photons move at the same speed as measured in
your frame, then it must be true that in your frame the photons reach the
front and back walls simultaneously. So, in this way we can see that the
basic postulates imply that different frames cannot agree about the
simultaneity of events that happen at different locations in spacetime,
like photons hitting two different walls (though all frames do agree about
events that coincide in space and time, like two twins comparing ages at
the moment they reunite). There's a good youtube video illustrating a
somewhat similar argument involving lightning hitting two ends of a moving
train at http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=wteiuxyqtoM

Anyway, the upshot is that in SR, if Alice and Bob are moving away from
each other at some significant fraction of lightspeed, you can have a
situation where in Alice's frame, the event of her 40th birthday happens
simultaneously with the event of Bob's 32nd birthday, but in Bob's frame
the event of Alice's 40th birthday is simultaneous with his own 50th
birthday. Unless you are claiming that the same present moment can
include both the event of Bob celebrating his 32nd birthday and the event
of him celebrating his 50th birthday, it seems that your notion of a
privileged present moment must pick one frame's definition of
simultaneity out as the correct one while others are incorrect. But all
of relativistic physics is derived from the basic postulates which say the
laws of physics are the same in all frames, so unless the equations derived
this way are fundamentally incorrect, there can be absolutely no
experimental way to distinguish one frame as more correct than any other.
So, the only way you can have a true present compatible with the
experimental accuracy of relativity is to say the there is some kind of
metaphysically preferred definition of simultaneity which has no
experimental consequences whatsoever. This wouldn't contradict any known
physics, but it seems kind of ad hoc...it seems a lot more parsimonious to
assume metaphysics lines up with physics in this case, so that a lack of
any physically preferred definition of simultaneity would imply a lack of a
metaphysically preferred definition too, which would mean the philosophy of
time known as eternalism or block time (see
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eternalism_(philosophy_of_time) ) would have
to be favored over the philosophy known as presentism which you seem to
advocate (see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Presentism_(philosophy_of_time)
 )

Finally, note that special relativity already has built into it some 

Re: God or not?

2013-12-25 Thread John Clark
On Mon, Dec 23, 2013 at 1:48 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 The question of whether God exists is meaningless without first giving
 some definition of what is meant by God, of how God is defined.


God
noun

A noise many members of the Everything list still insist on making with
their mouth even though they've long ago abandoned the idea behind it.

  John K Clark














 Otherwise everyone is talking about different things and nothing will go
 anywhere.

 If you need a God there is only one possible rational definition and that
 is to just define God as the universe itself. First there is now absolute
 certainty that God does exist (all the interminable meaningless arguments
 vanish), and second his attributes now become the proper subject matter of
 science and reason rather than ideology, faith or myth.

 But most certainly the dogmas of all the organized religions are all
 atavistic myths in the same category as Zeus and Odin which, like them,
 should have been discarded millennia ago

 Edgar


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Re: Minds, Machines and Gödel

2013-12-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 25 Dec 2013, at 16:18, Craig Weinberg wrote:




On Wednesday, December 25, 2013 5:07:22 AM UTC-5, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 24 Dec 2013, at 17:31, Craig Weinberg wrote:



It's straighforward I think. What you are saying is that this  
semantic trick prevents us from seeing that the truth does not  
agree with the theory.


? (sorry but I still fail to see the connection). I am just saying  
that the discovery of the many non computable attribute of machine  
makes invalid the reasoning against comp invoking non computable  
aspect of the human mind.


What I'm saying is that the reference to non-computable phenomena  
means that they are not likely to be attributes of machines.


Yes, that is what you were saying, and my point is that this is not  
valid.


Most machine's or number's attributes are not computable.

In fact, it is the price of the consistency of Church thesis, as I  
have often explained in detail. If interested I could show it to you.





Comp has no right to ever mention non computable attributes of  
anything and still be comp.



?
Comp is I am a machine (3-I). This does not entail that everything  
is computable. Worse, the price of universality entails that many  
things *about* machine will necessarily be non-computable.
A large part of computability theory is really incomputability theory,  
the studies of the complex hierarchies of non computability and non  
solvability in arithmetic and computer science.




It would have to explain how non-computable phenomena are derived  
from computation and what that can even mean.


I can do that. I can prove that if a universal number exists, then non  
computable relation between numbers exists.

Löbian numbers can actually already prove that about themselves.



For comp to be consistent, it can only ask 'what do you mean 'non- 
computable?'.


For finite to be consistent, it can only ask what do you mean by  
infinite? Well, OK. But we can do that.


Even with the intuitive definition, we can do that.
A function (from N to N) is computable iff you can explain in a finite  
numbers of words, in a non ambiguous grammar, to a reasonably dumb  
fellow, how to compute it, in a finite time, for each of its finite  
argument.


Now, a function is not computable, if you cannot do that, even  
assuming you are immortal.


Church thesis say the number LAMDDA is a universal number. This  
simplifies non computability. A function is not computable if you  
cannot program it in LAMBDA. The universal number LAMBDA cannot  
simulate that function.








If I had a theory of autovehicularism in which cars drive  
themselves, I can't then claim that these soft things that sit  
behind the wheel inside the car are non-vehicular attributes of  
cars. If there can be non-vehicular attributes of cars then any  
autovehicular theory of cars is false.











It means also that most proposition *about* machine, cannot be  
found in a mechanical way.
The simplest examples are that no machine can decide if some  
arbitrary machine will stop not, or no machine can decide if two  
arbitrary machine compute or not the same function, etc.
If there is no complete theories for machines and/or numbers, it  
makes harder to defend non-comp, etc.




How can computationalism support the idea of there being a non- 
mechanical way though? What other way is there?


Computation with oracle for non computable arithmetical truth, or  
just some non computable arithmetical truth. Arithmetic is full of  
them.



You are telling me that arithmetic is full of non-arithmetic,


No. Full of non computable relations between number.

If they are not computable, how do you know they are part of  
arithmetic rather than physics or sense?



Because I work in arithmetic. I use Gödel's arithmetization of meta- 
arithmetic. In AUDA, I never leave arithmetic.


Most of arithmetic is not computable. Truth escapes proof, and many  
computations do not stop, without us able to prove this in advance in  
any specific way.
I'm afraid you are unaware of computer science. I told you to be  
cautious with machines and numbers, because since Gödel we know that  
we know about nothing on them.









so therefore your computationalism - the idea that consciousness  
and physics develop from unconscious computation, includes  
(unspecified, unknowable) non-computationalism too.


I don't see what you mean by includes non-computationalism.
I can try to make sense. yes, the arithmetical reality is 99,999...%  
non computable. But computationalism is not the thesis that  
everything is computable. It is the thesis that the working of my  
brain can be imitate enough closely by a digital machine so that my  
first person experience will not see any difference.


If only 0.000...1% of arithmetic truth is computable, why would a  
digital computation be enough to imitate anything other than another  
digital computation?


It can't, indeed. Computation and imitation or simulation, or  

Re: Yes, my book 'Reality' does cover quantum reality.

2013-12-25 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Hi Russell,

Glad you agree with my approach here. No, I haven't worked out the 
mathematical details and that certainly should be on science's 'to do' 
list. However there is considerable more detail on how this works and how 
General Relativity emerges automatically from quantum events in my book 
'Reality' on Amazon.

I can discuss more details here if they come up...

Best,
Edgar



On Monday, December 23, 2013 7:15:13 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 All,

 Someone asked somewhere if I cover quantum theory in my book. Yes, I do. 
 The entire 'Part III: Elementals' of the book covers reality at its finest 
 scale, the quantum world. I'll summarize here but can only gloss over some 
 of the main points.

 As stated before reality, at its most fundamental level, consists of pure 
 computationally evolving information only. It is not physical. Thus there 
 is no dimensional spacetime. Dimensional spacetime is in fact something 
 that arises from quantum events, e.g. the conservation of particle 
 properties as they are computed in particle interactions that specify the 
 dimensional relationships between particles emerging from particle 
 interactions, such as relative energies and momenta.

 It is these purely numeric NON-physical computed dimensional relationships 
 that are part of the fundamental computational reality. Thus instead of a 
 single pre-existing all pervading spacetime that exists as a background to 
 all events, what really happens is that many independent mini-spacetimes 
 arise from networks of particle interactions. 

 It is only when these networks connect via common events that their 
 spacetimes merge into larger mini-spacetimes, and the spacetime that we 
 think we inhabit is actually the end result of the merging of innumerable 
 mini-spacetimes as the result of all the billions of particle level events 
 we continually interact with, e.g. all the photons impinging on our retinas.

 These continual particle level interactions build up the simulacrum of a 
 classical spacetime and our minds then interpolate that and mentally 
 construct a fixed, pre-existing common spacetime that does not actually 
 exist in external reality itself even though our minds convince us that it 
 does.

 Now there is plenty of evidence this view is correct, part of which is 
 that it solves two of the most profound problems of physics.



 The beauty of this insight is that it enables two very important advances.

 1. First it enables the conceptual unification of general relativity and 
 quantum theory because the reason they seem incompatible is precisely the 
 pre-existing all pervading spacetime that quantum theory mistakenly 
 assumes. When it is understood that spacetime emerges from quantum events 
 rather than being a pre-existing background to them this incompatibility 
 vanishes and in fact it is easy to get the curved spacetime of general 
 relativity directly from this emergence by simply taking the mass-energy 
 particle property as the scale of the spacetime that emerges.

 2. In one fell swoop it eliminates ALL quantum paradox. Why? Because 
 quantum processes only seem paradoxical again with respect to the 
 pre-existing fixed common spacetime mistakenly assumed. When the way 
 spacetime emerges FROM quantum processes is understood all the paradoxical 
 nature of quantum theory vanishes.


 Now, I know this probably seems counter intuitive and is a lot to get 
 one's mind around in one post which is not as clearly stated as I'd like 
 but I'd be happy to explain further or you can read my book available on 
 Amazon under my name. When it is properly understood it becomes quite clear 
 and very obvious and it is so simple and straightforward one wonders why no 
 one discovered it before

 Edgar







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Re: The 'Super Anthropic Principle' - why multiverses are not needed and thus very unlikely

2013-12-25 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Hi Howard,

Your comments pertain (correctly) to clock time but not to P-time, the time 
of the present moment. It is clear that the t's of clock time differ 
between clocks according to relativistic conditions.

You need to understand that the present moment is independent of any 
particular clock time, it is the common present moment WITHIN which all 
clock times may have different t values.

When the space traveling twins reunite with different clock time t values 
they ALWAYS reunite in the exact same present moment.

That's the key insight I'm trying to get across. 

Edgar



On Wednesday, December 25, 2013 11:52:10 AM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 All,

 ST=spacetime, c=speed of light, thus STc Principle.

 To answer some of Jason's questions. Block time is wrong. Only the common 
 present moment exists. All the comments Jason makes refer only to 
 differences in clock times which are well known, but the important point is 
 that all those differences in clock time occur in the SAME common present 
 moment.. I find it difficult to understand why so many people can't get 
 their minds around the difference which proves there are two distinct kinds 
 of time.

 The past exists only as inferences from the present as to what states 
 would have resulted in the present according to the currently known laws of 
 physics. Therefore the past is actually determined by the present state of 
 reality from the perspective of the present which is the only valid 
 perspective. Therefore the logical network of past and present is absolute 
 100% exact and could not have been different in even the slightest detail. 
 The actual currently state of the universe falsifies the very possibility 
 of other pasts. This is another difficult concept for many. 

 Only the future is probabilistic because it does not yet exist and has 
 never been computed. But the past - present logical state has been actually 
 computed and thus is completely deterministic now that it exists and it 
 could not have been different in any minute detail at all.

 This solves the problem of the original fine tuning. Given the current 
 state of reality which is all that exists, all other conceivable fine 
 tunings are impossible. This is what I call the 'Super Anthropic 
 Principle', and it negates the necessity and probably the actuality of 
 postulating any multiverses and strongly implies our observable universe is 
 most probably the only one that exists.

 Edgar




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Re: Why there is something rather than nothing...

2013-12-25 Thread Edgar L. Owen
John,

Yes, you are absolutely correct it depends on the universe being a logical 
structure. That 2nd fundamental Axiom is in my book on Reality also. 
However there is overwhelming evidence for that...

You slightly misunderstand my statement that 'there is no need for a 
creation event'. Of course it is clear the big bang occurred but that was 
not a creation event so much as an actualization event out of a state of 
existence similar to a generalized quantum vacuum which existed 'prior' (in 
single quotes since there was no clock time then so prior is misleading in 
that sense) to the big bang and in fact must have always existed and still 
exists as the substrate, or logical space of reality, in which the 
information of the actualized universe continually computes its current 
state.

Hope that clarifies things... Never fear, I agree with you and the 
astronomers there was a big bang!

Edgar





On Wednesday, December 25, 2013 10:05:34 AM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 All,

 As I state in my book on Reality in Part I: Fundamentals, Existence MUST 
 exist because non-existence canNOT exist. That is why there was never a 
 nothing out of which something appeared. Therefore there is no need for a 
 creator nor a creation event. The very notion is illogical and 
 impossible

 This is the solution to the most basic of philosophical/scientific 
 questions: Why is there something rather than nothing?

 This is the fundamental self-necessitating axiom of Reality upon which all 
 else is based. It is the bottom turtle in the stack!

 Edgar



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Re: How the STc principle (special relativity) puts both the arrow of time and a common present moment on a firm physical basis.

2013-12-25 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Jesse,

Good physics based post. Yes, Brian Greene mentions everything travels 
through spacetime at the speed of light in both his books but only in 
passing as a curiosity without recognizing its profound significance.

Thanks for your link to your physicsforums post. The meaning of 'speed 
through time' is actually pretty clear as it's based on the universally 
accepted fundamental equation for 4-d spacetime in which the t variable has 
to be multiplied by c to make sense. That has to be accepted if we accept 
that spacetime is a single 4-dimensional structure which everyone agrees is 
fundamental to relativity theory. The equation for velocity through 
spacetime works the same way and has to be accepted for the same reason. 
Once you accept time as distance along a 4th dimension you have to accept 
velocity through time and all the math of relativity works fine and is 
consistent. I don't think there should be any reservations about this.

The problem with all your other comments (which I agree with as I scanned 
them) is they refer to clock time, not the P-time of the present moment. Of 
course clock time t values vary in a number of ways, but the key insight is 
they always vary in the exact same present moment which is proved by the 
time traveling twins reuniting with different clock time t's but always in 
the exact same present moment.

This proves there is a single common universal present moment in which all 
clock time variations occur. And as you infer proper time is the direct 
experience of P-time which is the same for all observers even as their 
clock times are running at different relativistic rates.

Edgar



On Tuesday, December 24, 2013 8:26:00 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Liz states that Special relativity shows that there is no such thing as 
 a common present moment. but this is incorrect.

 Actually special relativity shows exactly the opposite. In my book I 
 explain how this works. It is well known, though little understood, that 
 everything without exception continually travels through spacetime at the 
 speed of light according to its own comoving clock. I call this the STc 
 Principle. This is a well known consequence of special relativity but 
 actually as I point out in my book this is an even more fundamental 
 Principle than Special Relativity and Special Relativity is properly a 
 consequence of it and can be derived from it.

 What the STc Principle says is that the total velocity through both space 
 and through time of everything without exception is = to the speed of 
 light. This is the reason that time slows on a clock moving with some 
 relative spatial velocity, as Special Relativity tells us.

 It also demonstrates that the speed of light is properly understood as the 
 speed of TIME. That's what c really is. Light just happens to move entirely 
 in space according to its own comoving clock, therefore its entire 
 spacetime velocity is in space only.

 Anyway it is precisely this STc Principle that puts both the arrow of time 
 and a privileged present moment on a firm physical basis. Why? Because it 
 requires that everything must be in one particular place in spacetime (the 
 present moment) and moving at the speed of light (the arrow of time).

 So exactly contrary to your statement, it is precisely special relativity, 
 properly understood, that puts both the arrow of time and a common present 
 moment on a firm physical basis.

 This insight simultaneously solves two of the big problems of the 
 philosophy of science, the source of the arrow of time, and the reason for 
 a common present moment, though no one seems to have recognized this prior 
 to my exposition in 1997 in my paper 'Spacetime and Consciousness'.

 Edgar




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Re: How the STc principle (special relativity) puts both the arrow of time and a common present moment on a firm physical basis.

2013-12-25 Thread Jesse Mazer
Hi Edgar, thanks for the reply. But do you agree or disagree with the point
that since different frames are considered equally valid and they define
simultaneity differently, either there would have to be no experimental
means to determine which frame's definition of simultaneity is correct (so
that the assumption of a true definition of simultaneity would be a purely
metaphysical postulate with no experimental significance), or else we would
have to discover new physics that violates the two postulates of special
relativity? If you disagree I think you are misunderstanding something
basic about relativity...on the other hand, if you agree, then which of
those two options are you arguing for?

Also, what do you think of my point that relativity already has a notion of
time separate from proper time, namely coordinate time, and that this
allows physicists to make sense of the notion that the two twins meet and
compare ages simultaneously even though their ages are different, without
requiring us to choose presentism over eternalism/block time?

Since the block time view treats time as analogous to a fourth spatial
dimension, a spatial analogy might come in handy here. If we have various
paths of some kind (roads, say) on a 2D surface, we have a notion of path
length between any two points along a given road, which could be measured
for example by a car driving along the road with its odometer running. This
is analogous to the proper time along a given worldline in relativity.
But we could also have a Cartesian coordinate grid on the surface, so that
any two points could be labeled with an x and a y coordinate. Then if we
have roads that start from the same point A, diverge, then reconverge at
some other point B (akin to the world-lines of the twins who depart at some
point A in spacetime and reunite at some other point B), we can assign x,y
coordinates to both the divergence point and the reconvergence point. If
one road was a straight line between A and B while another had some changes
in direction, we will see that the straight-line path always has the
shorter path length (analogous to the fact that the inertial twin always
has a *larger* elapsed proper time--the reason it's larger rather than
shorter is because path length for a straight segment of a path in
Euclidean space is calculated by sqrt[(change in x coordinate)^2 + (change
in y coordinate)^2], whereas proper time for an inertial segment of a path
in spacetime is calculated by sqrt[(change in t coordinate)^2 - (change in
position coordinates)^2]...the fact that you have a minus sign in the
square root rather than a plus sign turns out to imply that in spacetime, a
straight path between points is the *longest*, not the shortest). But
despite the fact that the two roads have different path lengths between A
and B, so that cars that started from A and took each road would reunite
with different odometer readings, the two cars do meet at the same x or y
coordinate (either one can be treated as analogous to the t-coordinate in
spacetime). Clearly this does not imply that other earlier parts of the
road have ceased to exist when the cars meet, they're just at a different
spatial position; and similarly a block time advocate can say that even
though the twins do meet at the same t-coordinate, this doesn't mean that
earlier segments of their worldline have ceased to exist as a presentist
would believe, they're just at a different position in spacetime than the
event of their meeting.

Jesse


On Wed, Dec 25, 2013 at 2:59 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Jesse,

 Good physics based post. Yes, Brian Greene mentions everything travels
 through spacetime at the speed of light in both his books but only in
 passing as a curiosity without recognizing its profound significance.

 Thanks for your link to your physicsforums post. The meaning of 'speed
 through time' is actually pretty clear as it's based on the universally
 accepted fundamental equation for 4-d spacetime in which the t variable has
 to be multiplied by c to make sense. That has to be accepted if we accept
 that spacetime is a single 4-dimensional structure which everyone agrees is
 fundamental to relativity theory. The equation for velocity through
 spacetime works the same way and has to be accepted for the same reason.
 Once you accept time as distance along a 4th dimension you have to accept
 velocity through time and all the math of relativity works fine and is
 consistent. I don't think there should be any reservations about this.

 The problem with all your other comments (which I agree with as I scanned
 them) is they refer to clock time, not the P-time of the present moment. Of
 course clock time t values vary in a number of ways, but the key insight is
 they always vary in the exact same present moment which is proved by the
 time traveling twins reuniting with different clock time t's but always in
 the exact same present moment.

 This proves there is a single common 

Bruno's fundamental mistake (IMHO)

2013-12-25 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Bruno,

Correct me if I'm wrong about where you are coming from in your basic 
approach.

Bruno seems to believe that mathematicians discover a math that already 
exists in reality (as opposed to math being a human invention which is the 
alternative view). Thus he believes that reality itself is a mathematical 
structure which 'contains' in some sense all of the math that 
mathematicians have come up with, and no doubt much more to be discovered. 
Thus he believes that ANY correct mathematical theory can be validly 
applied to reality to generate true results, which he does with facility.

However there are a number of problems with this theory. For one thing the 
edifice of human math is static, it just sits there waiting for humans to 
apply it to something, whereas the math that actually computes reality is 
active and continuously runs like software. There is, in my view, no 
evidence at all for any math in reality at all except for what is actually 
running and computing reality's current state.

Therefore most of human math is NOT going to be applicable to the math of 
reality. One can't just apply the results of any human math theory to 
reality and expect it accurately describe reality. Instead of trying to 
 applying Godel, Church, etc. etc. etc. to reality one has to actually look 
at the actual computations reality is executing and see what they tell US, 
as opposed to what mathematicians try to tell them. This is basic 
scientific method and is the correct approach.

So my repeated point is that human math and reality math are different. Of 
course they share some fundamental logic. But human math is a structure 
that was first approximated from the math of reality, but then widely 
generalized and extended far beyond what reality math is actually computing 
in the process losing some of the actual essentials of reality math.

For example all computations in reality math are finite with no infinities 
nor infinitesimals since reality is granular at its elemental level and 
nothing actual can be infinite. The human math number system is a 
generalized extension of reality's number system which is more subtle as 
there are no numbers that just keep going forever (pi) to greater and 
greater accuracies far greater than the scale of the universe. And there 
may well be no zeros in reality math, since we could expect reality math to 
compute only what actually exists.

Basically reality math is a particular program running in reality that 
computes the current state of reality. All the other programs that don't 
actually run and whatever math or logical results they may be based upon 
have no relevance and cannot be blindly applied to reality math.

Therefore let me respectfully suggest that Bruno needs to examine the 
actual math of reality that is actually computing reality, and use his 
mathematical skills to elucidate that, rather than automatically trying to 
apply the results of human math without examining whether they actually 
apply.

Edgar

 

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Re: How the STc principle (special relativity) puts both the arrow of time and a common present moment on a firm physical basis.

2013-12-25 Thread Edgar L. Owen
Hi Jesse,

Thanks for your thoughtful reply again.

Your notion of 'simultaneity' in your first paragraph is clock time 
simultaneity (same clock time readings), not the common actual present 
moment of P-time. Big difference. So it doesn't apply to my points.

Coordinate time is clock time, proper time is P-time, at least as I 
interpret it. Note the important, crucial, point that clocks measure only 
clock time. P-time can't be measured by clocks but it is measurable by 
Omega, the curvature of the universe (see below). However P-time is 
experienced, and in fact our consciousness of the present moment is the 
basic experience of our existence.

Yes, block time treats time as a 4th dimension. That's correct so far as it 
goes, but since only the present moment exists that 4th dimension is 
actually only a surface, not a whole time dimension extending into past and 
future. Specifically it's the 4th dimension is only present time moment of 
our 4-dimensional hypersphere in which our 3-dimensions are the surface, 
and non-existent past time back to the big bang the radius. It is the 
continual extension of that radius that is the source of the passage and 
arrow of time and the present moment.

And again most of your last paragraph discusses clock time phenomena rather 
than the common present moment in which those all play out.

Best,
Edgar

On Tuesday, December 24, 2013 8:26:00 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Liz states that Special relativity shows that there is no such thing as 
 a common present moment. but this is incorrect.

 Actually special relativity shows exactly the opposite. In my book I 
 explain how this works. It is well known, though little understood, that 
 everything without exception continually travels through spacetime at the 
 speed of light according to its own comoving clock. I call this the STc 
 Principle. This is a well known consequence of special relativity but 
 actually as I point out in my book this is an even more fundamental 
 Principle than Special Relativity and Special Relativity is properly a 
 consequence of it and can be derived from it.

 What the STc Principle says is that the total velocity through both space 
 and through time of everything without exception is = to the speed of 
 light. This is the reason that time slows on a clock moving with some 
 relative spatial velocity, as Special Relativity tells us.

 It also demonstrates that the speed of light is properly understood as the 
 speed of TIME. That's what c really is. Light just happens to move entirely 
 in space according to its own comoving clock, therefore its entire 
 spacetime velocity is in space only.

 Anyway it is precisely this STc Principle that puts both the arrow of time 
 and a privileged present moment on a firm physical basis. Why? Because it 
 requires that everything must be in one particular place in spacetime (the 
 present moment) and moving at the speed of light (the arrow of time).

 So exactly contrary to your statement, it is precisely special relativity, 
 properly understood, that puts both the arrow of time and a common present 
 moment on a firm physical basis.

 This insight simultaneously solves two of the big problems of the 
 philosophy of science, the source of the arrow of time, and the reason for 
 a common present moment, though no one seems to have recognized this prior 
 to my exposition in 1997 in my paper 'Spacetime and Consciousness'.

 Edgar




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Re: Bruno's fundamental mistake (IMHO)

2013-12-25 Thread LizR
On 26 December 2013 09:35, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Bruno,

 Correct me if I'm wrong about where you are coming from in your basic
 approach.


See below.


 Bruno seems to believe that mathematicians discover a math that already
 exists in reality (as opposed to math being a human invention which is the
 alternative view). Thus he believes that reality itself is a mathematical
 structure which 'contains' in some sense all of the math that
 mathematicians have come up with, and no doubt much more to be discovered.
 Thus he believes that ANY correct mathematical theory can be validly
 applied to reality to generate true results, which he does with facility.


This approach has worked extremely well for the last 400 years. And it
explains the famous unreasonable effectiveness of maths in the physical
sciences (some have taken issue with this, but not very effectively imho).


 However there are a number of problems with this theory. For one thing the
 edifice of human math is static, it just sits there waiting for humans to
 apply it to something, whereas the math that actually computes reality is
 active and continuously runs like software. There is, in my view, no
 evidence at all for any math in reality at all except for what is actually
 running and computing reality's current state.


To be exact, if maths does anything (and leaving aside whether it is an
ontolgical basis of reality) - it describes the state of reality. That is
what it was developed for, at least. For example, the inverse square law
describes the attraction between two objects. The inverse sqIt's quite
capable of doing this across time while not actually being in time itself,
e.g. through differential equations. This is equally true of software,
which just sits there (unless it is self-modifying code) and which is
effectively read by the processor's instruction pointer one instruction at
a time. Hence software is like a recipe and the processor is like a chef.
No reason to think that maths requires any internal dynamism, any more than
a recipe or computer progamme does. Time and change emerge naturally from
the static structure.


 Therefore most of human math is NOT going to be applicable to the math of
 reality. One can't just apply the results of any human math theory to
 reality and expect it accurately describe reality. Instead of trying to
  applying Godel, Church, etc. etc. etc. to reality one has to actually look
 at the actual computations reality is executing and see what they tell US,
 as opposed to what mathematicians try to tell them. This is basic
 scientific method and is the correct approach.


This is true. Maths is far greater than (our) reality, a fact which makes
Max Tegmark's ideas of a mathematical multiverse seem more plausible.


 So my repeated point is that human math and reality math are different. Of
 course they share some fundamental logic. But human math is a structure
 that was first approximated from the math of reality, but then widely
 generalized and extended far beyond what reality math is actually computing
 in the process losing some of the actual essentials of reality math.


Begs the question of why human maths still works so well. It contains
many results that have been discovered independently, for example, and
plenty of results that can be applied to either abstract or real world
problems *outside* the fundamental description of reality.

This is a false dichotomy imho.


 For example all computations in reality math are finite with no infinities
 nor infinitesimals since reality is granular at its elemental level and
 nothing actual can be infinite. The human math number system is a
 generalized extension of reality's number system which is more subtle as
 there are no numbers that just keep going forever (pi) to greater and
 greater accuracies far greater than the scale of the universe. And there
 may well be no zeros in reality math, since we could expect reality math to
 compute only what actually exists.


We don't know that reality is granular. Recent results suggest it isn't, in
fact. What actually exists is unknown, and if there is a mathematical
multiverse there is a good reason why we don't have access to all of
reality maths (which in this case is all of maths). As for infinity, our
universe may in fact be infinite, and if it is then transfinite numbers
could be generated, for example, by drawing lines across the universe and
treating the distribution of matter along them as bits. These lines would
in actual fact be infinite, and reality would in actual fact contain
transcendental numbers. Similarly if space-time is actually a continuum.
Even more so if it's an infinite continuum (OK maybe not even more so, but
I do like a transfinite cardinal, especially at Christmas!)


 Basically reality math is a particular program running in reality that
 computes the current state of reality. All the other programs that don't
 actually run and whatever math or logical results 

Re: Bruno's fundamental mistake (IMHO)

2013-12-25 Thread LizR
Oops, the browser seems to have decided to post before I did. Oh well, I
must have hit the wrong key. I'd almost finished but I see there's a bit of
a muck up in one place.

ERRATUM :)

The inverse * sqIt's *quite capable of doing this across time while not
actually being in time itself, e.g. through differential equations.

Should be the inverse *square law's* quite capable of... and I may have
rephrased the whole sentence actually, but I guess I'll let it stand.

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Re: Why there is something rather than nothing...

2013-12-25 Thread meekerdb

On 12/25/2013 7:05 AM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

All,

As I state in my book on Reality in Part I: Fundamentals, Existence MUST exist because 
non-existence canNOT exist. That is why there was never a nothing out of which something 
appeared. Therefore there is no need for a creator nor a creation event. The very notion 
is illogical and impossible


This is the solution to the most basic of philosophical/scientific questions: 
Why is there something rather than nothing?


This is the fundamental self-necessitating axiom of Reality upon which all else is 
based. It is the bottom turtle in the stack!



What is there?  Everything! So what isn't there?  Nothing!
 --- Norm Levitt, after Quine

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Re: God or not?

2013-12-25 Thread LizR
On 26 December 2013 04:21, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Bruno, and Samiya,

 Because there can be no creator sustainer God that stands outside the
 universe. Where would he/it stand? That's an irrational belief from
 millennia ago. The universe by definition is all that exists...

  ...and not merely everything we observe to exist, which after all keeps
expanding as we learn new ways of looking. It's only 100 years since the
discovery of the rest of the universe!!!

I exaggerate slightly. It's actually only 86 years since Lemaitre
postulated that the universe might be expanding. Some people alive today
were born when we didn't even know about the cosmological redshift...!

Then there was the discovery of radio astronomy and quasars and pulsars and
dark energy, missing out a few steps along the way. Whether we have
finished yet seems unlikely. So who knows whether there is somewhere for
God to stand ? Seems unlikely, but maybe we aint seen nuffin yet.

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Re: God or not?

2013-12-25 Thread LizR
I use my fingers.


On 26 December 2013 07:26, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Mon, Dec 23, 2013 at 1:48 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

  The question of whether God exists is meaningless without first giving
 some definition of what is meant by God, of how God is defined.


 God
 noun

 A noise many members of the Everything list still insist on making with
 their mouth even though they've long ago abandoned the idea behind it.

   John K Clark














 Otherwise everyone is talking about different things and nothing will go
 anywhere.

 If you need a God there is only one possible rational definition and that
 is to just define God as the universe itself. First there is now absolute
 certainty that God does exist (all the interminable meaningless arguments
 vanish), and second his attributes now become the proper subject matter of
 science and reason rather than ideology, faith or myth.

 But most certainly the dogmas of all the organized religions are all
 atavistic myths in the same category as Zeus and Odin which, like them,
 should have been discarded millennia ago

 Edgar


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Re: God or not?

2013-12-25 Thread LizR
What is OE? In New Zealand that stands for Overseas Experience when you go
off in your gap year to travel. Or is it Owen, Edgar?! :)

Again this begs the question of how and where and when are these
computations occurring? This implies a time external to the universe, at
the very least, computations being dynamic processes.





On 26 December 2013 06:57, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 25 Dec 2013, at 16:15, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 Bruno,

 There simply is no physical universe.



 We might agree, if you use physical universe in the Aristotelian sense.



 The universe is information being computed in OE only.


 OE?
 Can you make precise what you mean by information being computed?



 Physical universes are interpretations of the actual information universe
 in organismic minds.


 What are organismic minds?

 Bruno



 That is their only reality. They are mental models or simulations of the
 actual information reality, and they also as parts of that information
 reality are themselves also only information.

 Edgar




 On Sunday, December 22, 2013 3:10:30 PM UTC-5, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

 All,

 The question of whether God exists is meaningless without first giving
 some definition of what is meant by God, of how God is defined. Otherwise
 everyone is talking about different things and nothing will go anywhere.

 If you need a God there is only one possible rational definition and that
 is to just define God as the universe itself. First there is now absolute
 certainty that God does exist (all the interminable meaningless arguments
 vanish), and second his attributes now become the proper subject matter of
 science and reason rather than ideology, faith or myth.

 But most certainly the dogmas of all the organized religions are all
 atavistic myths in the same category as Zeus and Odin which, like them,
 should have been discarded millennia ago

 Edgar




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 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: The 'Super Anthropic Principle' - why multiverses are not needed and thus very unlikely

2013-12-25 Thread LizR
All this stuff about time is attempting to solve a problem that doesn't
exist, or at least hasn't been shown to exist. No one has yet shown what is
wrong with the relativity of simultaneity and the block universe (or
multiverse).

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Re: How the STc principle (special relativity) puts both the arrow of time and a common present moment on a firm physical basis.

2013-12-25 Thread LizR
On 26 December 2013 07:23, Jesse Mazer laserma...@gmail.com wrote:

 The notion that everything travels through spacetime at the speed of
 light was popularized by Brian Greene, but it only works if you choose a
 rather odd definition of speed through spacetime, one which I haven't
 seen any other physicists make use of.


Mainly because it doesn't make sense. Speed is change of position with
time, hence speed in spacetime equates to the angle a world-line makes
relative to some world-line chosen as a basis, e.g. the rest frame of the
Hubble flow. Things don't move through space-time, they move through space.
They are 4 dimensional objects embedded in space-time.

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Re: Why there is something rather than nothing...

2013-12-25 Thread LizR
Arithmetical reality theories like comp and Tegmark's MUH assume that the
only things that exist are those that must exist (in this case some simple
numerical relations). This seems to me to be a good starting hypothesis -
show that some specific thing must exist, such as the facts of simple
arithmetic, and see what happens. Descartes tried this when he started with
his own thoughts (i.e., as we generally assume, with the idea of
computation). Which is pretty darn close to assuming just abstract
relations exist...

My favourite answer to the question Why is there something rather than
nothing? is There isn't!

(See Theory of nothing for more details.)

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Re: The 'Super Anthropic Principle' - why multiverses are not needed and thus very unlikely

2013-12-25 Thread meekerdb

On 12/25/2013 11:29 AM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:

Hi Howard,

Your comments pertain (correctly) to clock time but not to P-time, the time of the 
present moment. It is clear that the t's of clock time differ between clocks according 
to relativistic conditions.


You need to understand that the present moment is independent of any particular clock 
time, it is the common present moment WITHIN which all clock times may have different t 
values.


When the space traveling twins reunite with different clock time t values they ALWAYS 
reunite in the exact same present moment.


Seems like a mere definition.  What's the operational meaning?  All clocks measure 
propertime along their worldlines.  What measure's P-time?  Your examples only imply that 
two people *at the same place* can agree on now.  But it doesn't follow that they can 
agree about now on Jupiter.


Brent


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Fwd: Better late than never? Turing has been pardoned.

2013-12-25 Thread meekerdb

Me too.

Brent


 Original Message 

 There are also brighter theories; I personally hope this one was true:

http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/science-environment-18561092


-- Mike Stay

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Re: How the STc principle (special relativity) puts both the arrow of time and a common present moment on a firm physical basis.

2013-12-25 Thread meekerdb

On 12/25/2013 12:59 PM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
Coordinate time is clock time, proper time is P-time, at least as I interpret it. Note 
the important, crucial, point that clocks measure only clock time. 


?? Clock is proper-time along the worldline of the clock.

P-time can't be measured by clocks but it is measurable by Omega, the curvature of the 
universe (see below). 


So you're taking the FRW spherical, homogeneous cosmology as the clock that measures 
P-time.  And then coordinates in which the cosmic microwave background  is isotropic are 
privileged.


However P-time is experienced, and in fact our consciousness of the present moment is 
the basic experience of our existence.


But we, the Earth, is not this privileged frame.  There is a dipole temperature gradient 
in the observed CMB due to motion of the Earth.


Brent

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Re: How the STc principle (special relativity) puts both the arrow of time and a common present moment on a firm physical basis.

2013-12-25 Thread meekerdb

On 12/25/2013 2:45 PM, LizR wrote:
On 26 December 2013 07:23, Jesse Mazer laserma...@gmail.com 
mailto:laserma...@gmail.com wrote:


The notion that everything travels through spacetime at the speed of 
light was
popularized by Brian Greene, but it only works if you choose a rather odd 
definition
of speed through spacetime, one which I haven't seen any other physicists 
make use of.


Mainly because it doesn't make sense. Speed is change of position with time, hence 
speed in spacetime equates to the angle a world-line makes relative to some world-line 
chosen as a basis, e.g. the rest frame of the Hubble flow. Things don't move through 
space-time, they move through space. They are 4 dimensional objects embedded in space-time.


But when you are standing still your time coordinate keeps increasing.  Your 4-velocity 
in your own inertial frame is always (1 0 0 0).


Brent

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Re: How the STc principle (special relativity) puts both the arrow of time and a common present moment on a firm physical basis.

2013-12-25 Thread meekerdb

On 12/25/2013 11:59 AM, Edgar L. Owen wrote:
The problem with all your other comments (which I agree with as I scanned them) is they 
refer to clock time, not the P-time of the present moment. Of course clock time t values 
vary in a number of ways, but the key insight is they always vary in the exact same 
present moment which is proved by the time traveling twins reuniting with different 
clock time t's but always in the exact same present moment.


But reuniting in the exact same present moment is not a global time.  It's an EVENT and 
it has no
extent in space or time.  If the two persons are moving relative to one another then they 
have different spacelike hypersurfaces of constant time.  Einstein rejected the idea of 
preferring one person's time over the other.  You apparently think that one of them might 
agree with P-time (however that is defined) while the other did not.


Brent

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Re: Bruno's fundamental mistake (IMHO)

2013-12-25 Thread Jason Resch
On Wed, Dec 25, 2013 at 3:35 PM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 Bruno,

 Correct me if I'm wrong about where you are coming from in your basic
 approach.

 Bruno seems to believe that mathematicians discover a math that already
 exists in reality (as opposed to math being a human invention which is the
 alternative view). Thus he believes that reality itself is a mathematical
 structure which 'contains' in some sense all of the math that
 mathematicians have come up with, and no doubt much more to be discovered.
 Thus he believes that ANY correct mathematical theory can be validly
 applied to reality to generate true results, which he does with facility.

 However there are a number of problems with this theory. For one thing the
 edifice of human math is static, it just sits there waiting for humans to
 apply it to something, whereas the math that actually computes reality is
 active and continuously runs like software.


From the perspective of the software traces existing in arithmetic, it
seems like it is running.  It is known that no software can ever
determine the true hardware it runs on. Thus from the point-of-view of some
software running on a human laptop, or some software running in a platonic,
statically existing Turing machine, if it is the same software things look
the same.

You add nothing to the computation by dematerializing past states of the
machine in some effort to make it active. A machine in which all states
continue to exist is no less of a computation than one in which past states
disappear.


 There is, in my view, no evidence at all for any math in reality at all
 except for what is actually running and computing reality's current state.


Does your theory account for what runs these computations?



 Therefore most of human math is NOT going to be applicable to the math of
 reality. One can't just apply the results of any human math theory to
 reality and expect it accurately describe reality. Instead of trying to
  applying Godel, Church, etc. etc. etc. to reality one has to actually look
 at the actual computations reality is executing and see what they tell US,
 as opposed to what mathematicians try to tell them. This is basic
 scientific method and is the correct approach.

 So my repeated point is that human math and reality math are different. Of
 course they share some fundamental logic. But human math is a structure
 that was first approximated from the math of reality, but then widely
 generalized and extended far beyond what reality math is actually computing
 in the process losing some of the actual essentials of reality math.

 For example all computations in reality math are finite with no infinities
 nor infinitesimals since reality is granular at its elemental level and
 nothing actual can be infinite. The human math number system is a
 generalized extension of reality's number system which is more subtle as
 there are no numbers that just keep going forever (pi) to greater and
 greater accuracies far greater than the scale of the universe. And there
 may well be no zeros in reality math, since we could expect reality math to
 compute only what actually exists.

 Basically reality math is a particular program running in reality that
 computes the current state of reality.


You really ought to read the UDA...


 All the other programs that don't actually run and whatever math or
 logical results they may be based upon have no relevance and cannot be
 blindly applied to reality math.


How can we be so sure those other programs don't run? Why do you suppose
they don't?



 Therefore let me respectfully suggest that Bruno needs to examine the
 actual math of reality that is actually computing reality, and use his
 mathematical skills to elucidate that,


He has.  He's even written the program that (possibly) computes reality.


 rather than automatically trying to apply the results of human math
 without examining whether they actually apply.


What other math can we use if not human math?

Jason

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Re: How the STc principle (special relativity) puts both the arrow of time and a common present moment on a firm physical basis.

2013-12-25 Thread LizR
On 26 December 2013 15:56, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/25/2013 2:45 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 26 December 2013 07:23, Jesse Mazer laserma...@gmail.com wrote:

 The notion that everything travels through spacetime at the speed of
 light was popularized by Brian Greene, but it only works if you choose a
 rather odd definition of speed through spacetime, one which I haven't
 seen any other physicists make use of.


  Mainly because it doesn't make sense. Speed is change of position with
 time, hence speed in spacetime equates to the angle a world-line makes
 relative to some world-line chosen as a basis, e.g. the rest frame of the
 Hubble flow. Things don't move through space-time, they move through space.
 They are 4 dimensional objects embedded in space-time.


 But when you are standing still your time coordinate keeps increasing.
 Your 4-velocity in your own inertial frame is always (1 0 0 0).


If you insist on using this velocity through space-time view, yes. But if
you consider yourself to be a worldline then you have no 4-velocity, only a
3-velocity, which is measured as the angle your worldline makes to the
vertical axis (modulo the usual caveats about there being no preferred
reference frames).

Here is a diagram of how time isn't...

[image: Inline images 1]
And here's a diagram of how it actually is...

[image: Inline images 2]

...both are from Chapter 11 of FOR.

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Re: The 'Super Anthropic Principle' - why multiverses are not needed and thus very unlikely

2013-12-25 Thread Jason Resch
On Wed, Dec 25, 2013 at 11:52 AM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 All,

 ST=spacetime, c=speed of light, thus STc Principle.

 To answer some of Jason's questions. Block time is wrong.


Can you explain your justification for this assertion?


 Only the common present moment exists. All the comments Jason makes refer
 only to differences in clock times which are well known, but the important
 point is that all those differences in clock time occur in the SAME common
 present moment..


How can there be a single common present if relativity says one person can
consistently believe that A happens before B, while, another person, every
bit as consistent, could believe that B happens before A.

If anything like a present exists, there must be at least two of them (one
for each person in this example), and they must each be different in their
content. Relativity of simultaneity absolutely rules out the notion of a
single objective present.  The only alternatives are: 1. a present for each
inertial reference frame, 2. four dimensionalism (block time / eternalism).



 I find it difficult to understand why so many people can't get their minds
 around the difference which proves there are two distinct kinds of time.

 The past exists only as inferences from the present as to what states
 would have resulted in the present according to the currently known laws of
 physics.


If there are two observers in relative motion to each other, Alice and Bob,
then Alice's present contains things that exist in both Bob's future, and
Bob's past. How can something exist in Alice's present which supposedly
stopped existing for Bob, and how can something exist in Alice's present
which hasn't yet happened, from Bob's point of view?  I think this is clear
evidence that all points in time exist. They don't stop existing just
because we can't see them--to me this seems a head-in-the-sand mentality,
i.e. if I can't see it, it mustn't be there.

If a theory explains why we can't see some particular thing, our inability
to see that thing should not be considered evidence against that thing
(within that theory).


 Therefore the past is actually determined by the present state of reality
 from the perspective of the present which is the only valid perspective.


What if multiple possibilities exist for the present moment, such as after
a quantum erasure. Could there be more than one past moment consistent with
the current present moment?


 Therefore the logical network of past and present is absolute 100% exact
 and could not have been different in even the slightest detail.


How does this work with QM?  You expressed distaste for multiverse
theories, but quantum mechanics is not 100% exact and predictable under
single-universe interpretations.


 The actual currently state of the universe falsifies the very possibility
 of other pasts.


Say there are two very similar but different universes, one in which a
photon took path A, and another where it took path B.  However, mirrors are
arranged such that regardless of which path is taken, the photon bounces to
the same spot. After this happens the two universes are in identical
states.  Could either Edgar Owen (in either of the two universes) rule out
the idea of multiple pasts consistent with their present?


 This is another difficult concept for many.

 Only the future is probabilistic because it does not yet exist


If Julius Caesar still exists (in a point in space time some 2000 light
years away), nothing changes in the laws of physics, and yet the future
would seem just as as probabalistic and unpredictable from his point of
view as it seems to us in ours.  We can't use the presumed lack of
existence as an explanation for the unpredictability of the future.

Actually, we can entirely explain the unpredictability of the future from
thermodynamics.  Storing information requires energy, and energy can only
be used to perform useful work in the direction of time through which
entropy increases. Therefore no machine, brain, etc. can operate backwards
in time and store information about future events, as it would represent a
thermodynamically impossible system. Imagine a device using energy to store
memories running backwards in time (from our point of view).  It would be
expending energy to store those bits, but from out perspective, expending
energy in a useful way (backwards in time) from our perspective, appears as
gather energy from the environment. It would be like seeing light bounce
randomly off all the walls in the room to focus on the filament of a
flashlight and recharge its batteries.  It's physically possible but
extremely unlikely. If no (likely) process can possess information stored
about the future, then we have an explanation for our inability to know
future outcomes.


 and has never been computed. But the past - present logical state has been
 actually computed and thus is completely deterministic now that it exists
 and it could not have been different in 

Re: The 'Super Anthropic Principle' - why multiverses are not needed and thus very unlikely

2013-12-25 Thread Jason Resch
On Thu, Dec 26, 2013 at 12:30 AM, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com wrote:




 On Wed, Dec 25, 2013 at 11:52 AM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 All,

 ST=spacetime, c=speed of light, thus STc Principle.

 To answer some of Jason's questions. Block time is wrong.


 Can you explain your justification for this assertion?


  Only the common present moment exists. All the comments Jason makes
 refer only to differences in clock times which are well known, but the
 important point is that all those differences in clock time occur in the
 SAME common present moment..


 How can there be a single common present if relativity says one person can
 consistently believe that A happens before B, while, another person, every
 bit as consistent, could believe that B happens before A.

 If anything like a present exists, there must be at least two of them (one
 for each person in this example), and they must each be different in their
 content. Relativity of simultaneity absolutely rules out the notion of a
 single objective present.  The only alternatives are: 1. a present for each
 inertial reference frame, 2. four dimensionalism (block time / eternalism).



 I find it difficult to understand why so many people can't get their
 minds around the difference which proves there are two distinct kinds of
 time.

 The past exists only as inferences from the present as to what states
 would have resulted in the present according to the currently known laws of
 physics.


 If there are two observers in relative motion to each other, Alice and
 Bob, then Alice's present contains things that exist in both Bob's future,
 and Bob's past. How can something exist in Alice's present which supposedly
 stopped existing for Bob, and how can something exist in Alice's present
 which hasn't yet happened, from Bob's point of view?  I think this is clear
 evidence that all points in time exist. They don't stop existing just
 because we can't see them--to me this seems a head-in-the-sand mentality,
 i.e. if I can't see it, it mustn't be there.

 If a theory explains why we can't see some particular thing, our inability
 to see that thing should not be considered evidence against that thing
 (within that theory).


  Therefore the past is actually determined by the present state of
 reality from the perspective of the present which is the only valid
 perspective.


 What if multiple possibilities exist for the present moment, such as after
 a quantum erasure. Could there be more than one past moment consistent with
 the current present moment?


 Therefore the logical network of past and present is absolute 100% exact
 and could not have been different in even the slightest detail.


 How does this work with QM?  You expressed distaste for multiverse
 theories, but quantum mechanics is not 100% exact and predictable under
 single-universe interpretations.


 The actual currently state of the universe falsifies the very possibility
 of other pasts.


 Say there are two very similar but different universes, one in which a
 photon took path A, and another where it took path B.  However, mirrors are
 arranged such that regardless of which path is taken, the photon bounces to
 the same spot. After this happens the two universes are in identical
 states.  Could either Edgar Owen (in either of the two universes) rule out
 the idea of multiple pasts consistent with their present?


 This is another difficult concept for many.

 Only the future is probabilistic because it does not yet exist


 If Julius Caesar still exists (in a point in space time some 2000 light
 years away), nothing changes in the laws of physics, and yet the future
 would seem just as as probabalistic and unpredictable from his point of
 view as it seems to us in ours.  We can't use the presumed lack of
 existence as an explanation for the unpredictability of the future.

 Actually, we can entirely explain the unpredictability of the future from
 thermodynamics.  Storing information requires energy, and energy can only
 be used to perform useful work in the direction of time through which
 entropy increases. Therefore no machine, brain, etc. can operate backwards
 in time and store information about future events, as it would represent a
 thermodynamically impossible system. Imagine a device using energy to store
 memories running backwards in time (from our point of view).  It would be
 expending energy to store those bits, but from out perspective, expending
 energy in a useful way (backwards in time) from our perspective, appears as
 gather energy from the environment. It would be like seeing light bounce
 randomly off all the walls in the room to focus on the filament of a
 flashlight and recharge its batteries.  It's physically possible but
 extremely unlikely. If no (likely) process can possess information stored
 about the future, then we have an explanation for our inability to know
 future outcomes.


 and has never been computed. But the past - present 

Re: How the STc principle (special relativity) puts both the arrow of time and a common present moment on a firm physical basis.

2013-12-25 Thread meekerdb

On 12/25/2013 9:15 PM, LizR wrote:
On 26 December 2013 15:56, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
wrote:


On 12/25/2013 2:45 PM, LizR wrote:

On 26 December 2013 07:23, Jesse Mazer laserma...@gmail.com
mailto:laserma...@gmail.com wrote:

The notion that everything travels through spacetime at the speed of 
light
was popularized by Brian Greene, but it only works if you choose a 
rather odd
definition of speed through spacetime, one which I haven't seen any 
other
physicists make use of.


Mainly because it doesn't make sense. Speed is change of position with 
time, hence
speed in spacetime equates to the angle a world-line makes relative to 
some
world-line chosen as a basis, e.g. the rest frame of the Hubble flow. 
Things don't
move through space-time, they move through space. They are 4 dimensional 
objects
embedded in space-time.


But when you are standing still your time coordinate keeps increasing.  
Your
4-velocity in your own inertial frame is always (1 0 0 0).


If you insist on using this velocity through space-time view, yes.


Hey, it's not something I made up.  Check Weinberg's Gravitation and Cosmology.  He uses 
the 4-velocity frequently, e.g. in Ch9 eqn 9.8.1 thru 9.8.6 he writes the T^00 component 
of the stress energy tensor as rho*U^0U^0, where U^0 is the time-like component of the 
4-velocity of a perfect fluid. Robert Wald does much the same in General Relativity.  Or 
look at page 50 of Misner, Thorne, and Wheeler where they write,More fundamental than the 
components of a vector is the vector itself. It is a geometric object with a meaning 
independent of all coordinates. Thus a particle has a world line, P(tau), and a 4-velocity 
U=dP/dtau, that have nothing to do with any coordinates.


But if you consider yourself to be a worldline then you have no 4-velocity, only a 
3-velocity, which is measured as the angle your worldline makes to the vertical axis 
(modulo the usual caveats about there being no preferred reference frames).


Here is a diagram of how time isn't...

Inline images 1
And here's a diagram of how it actually is...

Inline images 2

...both are from Chapter 11 of FOR.


First, I said nothing about a present moment; that's Edgar's concept.  I referred to the 
4-velocity.  By treating the velocity as a 3-vector, instead of suppressing the 
0-component, the above diagrams do not show how one's clock runs slower relative to the 
coordinate frame.  When you use some of your 4-velocity to move thru space, there is less 
of it available to move you through time.  So when you say it is the angle between the 
vertical axis and the world line, that's a statement in a specific coordinate system.  
But one's proper velocity is always 1, independent of coordinates.


Brent

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Re: The 'Super Anthropic Principle' - why multiverses are not needed and thus very unlikely

2013-12-25 Thread LizR
On 26 December 2013 18:30, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Wed, Dec 25, 2013 at 11:52 AM, Edgar L. Owen edgaro...@att.net wrote:

 All,

 ST=spacetime, c=speed of light, thus STc Principle.

 To answer some of Jason's questions. Block time is wrong.


 Can you explain your justification for this assertion?


  Only the common present moment exists. All the comments Jason makes
 refer only to differences in clock times which are well known, but the
 important point is that all those differences in clock time occur in the
 SAME common present moment..


 How can there be a single common present if relativity says one person can
 consistently believe that A happens before B, while, another person, every
 bit as consistent, could believe that B happens before A.

 This is the point at which Mr Owen's argument appears to fail. Until I
hear a sensible answer to this objection, I can spare myself the necessity
to waste my precious remaining worldline on the rest of his modest proposal
about the nature of reality.

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Re: How the STc principle (special relativity) puts both the arrow of time and a common present moment on a firm physical basis.

2013-12-25 Thread LizR
On 26 December 2013 19:11, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 12/25/2013 9:15 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 26 December 2013 15:56, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

   On 12/25/2013 2:45 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 26 December 2013 07:23, Jesse Mazer laserma...@gmail.com wrote:

 The notion that everything travels through spacetime at the speed of
 light was popularized by Brian Greene, but it only works if you choose a
 rather odd definition of speed through spacetime, one which I haven't
 seen any other physicists make use of.


  Mainly because it doesn't make sense. Speed is change of position with
 time, hence speed in spacetime equates to the angle a world-line makes
 relative to some world-line chosen as a basis, e.g. the rest frame of the
 Hubble flow. Things don't move through space-time, they move through space.
 They are 4 dimensional objects embedded in space-time.


  But when you are standing still your time coordinate keeps
 increasing.  Your 4-velocity in your own inertial frame is always (1 0 0 0).


  If you insist on using this velocity through space-time view, yes.


 Hey, it's not something I made up.  Check Weinberg's Gravitation and
 Cosmology.  He uses the 4-velocity frequently, e.g. in Ch9 eqn 9.8.1 thru
 9.8.6 he writes the T^00 component of the stress energy tensor as
 rho*U^0U^0, where U^0 is the time-like component of the 4-velocity of a
 perfect fluid. Robert Wald does much the same in General Relativity.  Or
 look at page 50 of Misner, Thorne, and Wheeler where they write,More
 fundamental than the components of a vector is the vector itself. It is a
 geometric object with a meaning independent of all coordinates. Thus a
 particle has a world line, P(tau), and a 4-velocity U=dP/dtau, that have
 nothing to do with any coordinates.


OK, Brent, my apologies if I have misread you. But you are supporting a
view that doesn't make sense in terms of SR - nothing is actually moving
through spacetime, and giving (apparent) support to the notion that it is
isn't going to help.

I don't have most of those books you mention, but I do have Gravitation
(which my other half got for his 18th birthday in 1973) open to page 51,
box 2.1 - Farewell to ict - and have just had my mind suitably boggled
by reading about 4-velocities. Please note, everyone (I'm sure Brent knows
this already) that these are NOT velocities *through* space-time, they are
handy vectors for working out what is going on at a point along an object's
world-line. The object doesn't move through space-time, it exists at
various points in space-time which joined together make a 4 dimensional
object known as a world line. One can draw vectors at points along this
world line and use them to work out its 4-velocity, which I assume is a
quantity useful for working out how its clock goes in relation to other
objects, and/or how the various Lorentz transformations work - or something
along these (world) lines - but this does *not* mean that things are moving
through space-time or that there is a common present moment, or that the
past doesn't exist, or any of the other things Mr Owen has claimed. I think
Brent, who knows all this stuff backwards and sideways, is just toying with
us  naughty Mr Meeker.

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Re: How the STc principle (special relativity) puts both the arrow of time and a common present moment on a firm physical basis.

2013-12-25 Thread meekerdb

On 12/25/2013 10:53 PM, LizR wrote:
On 26 December 2013 19:11, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
wrote:


On 12/25/2013 9:15 PM, LizR wrote:

On 26 December 2013 15:56, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 12/25/2013 2:45 PM, LizR wrote:

On 26 December 2013 07:23, Jesse Mazer laserma...@gmail.com
mailto:laserma...@gmail.com wrote:

The notion that everything travels through spacetime at the speed 
of
light was popularized by Brian Greene, but it only works if you 
choose a
rather odd definition of speed through spacetime, one which I 
haven't
seen any other physicists make use of.


Mainly because it doesn't make sense. Speed is change of position with 
time,
hence speed in spacetime equates to the angle a world-line makes 
relative to
some world-line chosen as a basis, e.g. the rest frame of the Hubble 
flow.
Things don't move through space-time, they move through space. They are 
4
dimensional objects embedded in space-time.


But when you are standing still your time coordinate keeps 
increasing.  Your
4-velocity in your own inertial frame is always (1 0 0 0).


If you insist on using this velocity through space-time view, yes.


Hey, it's not something I made up.  Check Weinberg's Gravitation and Cosmology. 
He uses the 4-velocity frequently, e.g. in Ch9 eqn 9.8.1 thru 9.8.6 he writes the

T^00 component of the stress energy tensor as rho*U^0U^0, where U^0 is the 
time-like
component of the 4-velocity of a perfect fluid. Robert Wald does much the 
same in
General Relativity.  Or look at page 50 of Misner, Thorne, and Wheeler 
where they
write,More fundamental than the components of a vector is the vector 
itself. It is
a geometric object with a meaning independent of all coordinates. Thus a 
particle
has a world line, P(tau), and a 4-velocity U=dP/dtau, that have nothing to 
do with
any coordinates.


OK, Brent, my apologies if I have misread you. But you are supporting a view that 
doesn't make sense in terms of SR - nothing is actually moving through spacetime, and 
giving (apparent) support to the notion that it is isn't going to help.


I don't have most of those books you mention, but I do have Gravitation (which my 
other half got for his 18th birthday in 1973) open to page 51, box 2.1 - Farewell to 
ict - and have just had my mind suitably boggled by reading about 4-velocities. Please 
note, everyone (I'm sure Brent knows this already) that these are NOT velocities 
/through/ space-time, they are handy vectors for working out what is going on at a point 
along an object's world-line. The object doesn't move through space-time, it exists at 
various points in space-time which joined together make a 4 dimensional object known as 
a world line. One can draw vectors at points along this world line and use them to work 
out its 4-velocity, which I assume is a quantity useful for working out how its clock 
goes in relation to other objects, and/or how the various Lorentz transformations work - 
or something along these (world) lines - but this does /not/ mean that things are moving 
through space-time or that there is a common present moment, or that the past doesn't 
exist, or any of the other things Mr Owen has claimed. I think Brent, who knows all this 
stuff backwards and sideways, is just toying with us  naughty Mr Meeker.




There are other viewpoints though.  QM makes for some interesting questions about time as 
raised in this speculative paper by a couple of top experimentalists:



http://a-c-elitzur.co.il/uploads/articlesdocs/Elitzur-Dolev13.pdf

A few discontents in present-day physics' account of time are pointed out,
and a few novel quantum-mechanical results are described. Based on these, an
outline for a new interpretation of QM is proposed, based on the assumption
that spacetime itself is subject to incessant evolution.

...
One of us (AE) owes this insight to a student's question about SchrÄodinger's 
cat.
She argued that, if the box is opened after suąciently many hours, it should be
possible to know whether the cat has been dead or alive during the preceding
hours. If it has been alive, it would soil the box and leave scratches on its 
walls,
whereas if it has been dead, it would show signs of decomposition. Here too, the
measurement at the moment of opening the box must select not only the cat's
state at the moment of opening the box but its entire history within the box.

=

Brent

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