RE: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-26 Thread Stephen P. King
Hi Brent and Bruno,

 

Thank you for pointing this out! I did mean infinite subsets, or
else the isomorphism would obviously not obtain, but in what Brent wrote is
the escape from the reason why infinities are not observable; we can only
observe those finite parts because we can distinguish those from each other
and from the whole of which they are subsets. In a sense you are making the
point that I was trying to make. Hopefully I will finish the sketch of my
bisimulation idea by this weekend.



 

Thanks! J

 

Stephen

 

From: everything-list@googlegroups.com
[mailto:everything-l...@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of Bruno Marchal
Sent: Saturday, September 25, 2010 3:33 PM
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: What's wrong with this?

 

 


Stephen P. King wrote:

Umm, I had no idea that this would be so difficult to understand! I am
claiming that if there does not exist a means to determine a difference then
no difference can be said to exist. This is just a restatement of the
principle of identity of indiscernibles. If the totality of all that exists
is such that it does not exclude any possibility then it is infinite and as
such would have that property of infinities, namely that any proper subset
of that infinity is isomorphic with the infinity itself. This is equivalent
to saying that an infinity is such that is cannot distinguish itself as a
whole from any part of itself.  To distinguish objects from each other
there must be some form of deviation and/or weakening from this isomorphism
relationship.

 

 

On 25 Sep 2010, at 18:06, Brent Meeker wrote:

This is wrong.  Proper subsets of infinite sets may well be finite, {1,2} is
a proper subset of the integers.

 

On 9/25/2010 12:38 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote: 

Perhaps Stephen meant infinite subset, in which case it is correct for N or
any enumerable set (N is isomorphe (in bijection) with all its infinite
proper and improper subsets). But still incorrect in general. N is an
infinite proper subset of R. All infinite set injects properly in bigger
sets; by Cantor theorem. 

People are usually more intrigued by improper subset.  That {1, 2} is
included in {1, 2, 3} is normal, but that {1, 2, 3} is included in {1, 2, 3}
astonished the beginners. Of course A is included in B means just that x in
A implies x in B.

 

I guess everyone know the argument that cannabis is a gateway drug. I goes
like that: 90 % of the heroine user have begun with Cannabis. Of course it
is non valid. 100% of the heroin users have begun with water. This does not
imply that water is a gateway product to heroin. To evaluate if cannabis
leads to heroin, you have to count the proportion of heroin user in the
cannabis smoker population; not to count the number of cannabis smoker among
the heroin user. This error is a confusion between A included in B and B
included in A, or between (x in A  -  x in B) with (x in B  -  x in A)..

That error is widespread and is due to local associative reasoning (itself
due to Darwinian selection). Logical validity distinguish the relevant
association, making some emotional association irrelevant, despite natural
predisposition.

You can be sure that innocent people have been condemned to the death
penalty due to that error. 

 

Paul Valery said that in life the only choice you have is the choice between
logic and war. He said: ask for proof, and if you don't get them understand
that some people are doing a war against you. Proof, said Valery, is
elementary politeness. 

I think logic is a tool for preventing manipulation indeed. But alas logic
is not well taught nor even applied in the human affair. It is a false
secret that nobody has found any evidence that cannabis is toxic or
addictive so they insist: it is gateway drug, and parents can blame cannabis
for leading their children to heroin, but it is a mistake, an error, a
confusion between p - q and q - p. I am paid for giving bad notes to
students, but in the health politics it is done all the time, since more
than a century. By doing such error you can manipulate people for fearing or
hating anything, and do the war to anyone, just use emotional association. 

 

Actually when you do the correct statistics, despite illegality there is no
evidence at all that cannabis lead to other drug, on the contrary it seems
to prevent it slightly (and would be more so if legalized probably).

The whole prohibition stuff is a complete hoax. Prohibition of a drug
literally creates a huge non taxed black market. Prohibitionism does not
protect the children, it makes them the main target of that unregulated
market. It creates the drug problem. It leads also to misinformation. If all
the drug were legalized and taxed with respect to their damage cost, people
would quickly understand what are the real dangerous drug, and I bet many
would be astonished. Democracy did not prevent brain washing. Cannabis and
salvia divinorum are about infinitely less dangerous than aspirin

Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-25 Thread Brent Meeker

On 9/25/2010 12:38 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Umm, I had no idea that this would be so difficult to understand! I am 
claiming that if there does not exist a means to determine a 
difference then no difference can be said to exist. This is just a 
restatement of the principle of identity of indiscernibles. If the 
totality of all that exists is such that it does not exclude any 
possibility then it is infinite and as such would have that property 
of infinities, namely that any proper subset of that infinity is 
isomorphic with the infinity itself. This is equivalent to saying that 
an infinity is such that is cannot distinguish itself as a whole from 
any part of itself.  To distinguish objects from each other there 
must be some form of deviation and/or weakening from this isomorphism 
relationship.


This is wrong.  Proper subsets of infinite sets may well be finite, 
{1,2} is a proper subset of the integers.


Brent

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 25 Sep 2010, at 18:06, Brent Meeker wrote:


On 9/25/2010 12:38 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


Umm, I had no idea that this would be so difficult to understand! I  
am claiming that if there does not exist a means to determine a  
difference then no difference can be said to exist. This is just a  
restatement of the principle of identity of indiscernibles. If the  
totality of all that exists is such that it does not exclude any  
possibility then it is infinite and as such would have that  
property of infinities, namely that any proper subset of that  
infinity is isomorphic with the infinity itself. This is equivalent  
to saying that an infinity is such that is cannot distinguish  
itself as a whole from any part of itself.  To distinguish  
objects from each other there must be some form of deviation and/or  
weakening from this isomorphism relationship.


This is wrong.  Proper subsets of infinite sets may well be finite,  
{1,2} is a proper subset of the integers.


Perhaps Stephen meant infinite subset, in which case it is correct for  
N or any enumerable set (N is isomorphe (in bijection) with all its  
infinite proper and improper subsets). But still incorrect in general.  
N is an infinite proper subset of R. All infinite set injects properly  
in bigger sets; by Cantor theorem.
People are usually more intrigued by improper subset.  That {1, 2} is  
included in {1, 2, 3} is normal, but that {1, 2, 3} is included in {1,  
2, 3} astonished the beginners. Of course A is included in B means  
just that x in A implies x in B.


I guess everyone know the argument that cannabis is a gateway drug.  
I goes like that: 90 % of the heroine user have begun with Cannabis.  
Of course it is non valid. 100% of the heroin users have begun with  
water. This does not imply that water is a gateway product to heroin.  
To evaluate if cannabis leads to heroin, you have to count the  
proportion of heroin user in the cannabis smoker population; not to  
count the number of cannabis smoker among the heroin user. This error  
is a confusion between A included in B and B included in A, or between  
(x in A  -  x in B) with (x in B  -  x in A)..
That error is widespread and is due to local associative reasoning  
(itself due to Darwinian selection). Logical validity distinguish the  
relevant association, making some emotional association irrelevant,  
despite natural predisposition.
You can be sure that innocent people have been condemned to the death  
penalty due to that error.


Paul Valery said that in life the only choice you have is the choice  
between logic and war. He said: ask for proof, and if you don't get  
them understand that some people are doing a war against you. Proof,  
said Valery, is elementary politeness.
I think logic is a tool for preventing manipulation indeed. But alas  
logic is not well taught nor even applied in the human affair. It is a  
false secret that nobody has found any evidence that cannabis is toxic  
or addictive so they insist: it is gateway drug, and parents can blame  
cannabis for leading their children to heroin, but it is a mistake, an  
error, a confusion between p - q and q - p. I am paid for giving bad  
notes to students, but in the health politics it is done all the time,  
since more than a century. By doing such error you can manipulate  
people for fearing or hating anything, and do the war to anyone, just  
use emotional association.


Actually when you do the correct statistics, despite illegality there  
is no evidence at all that cannabis lead to other drug, on the  
contrary it seems to prevent it slightly (and would be more so if  
legalized probably).
The whole prohibition stuff is a complete hoax. Prohibition of a drug  
literally creates a huge non taxed black market. Prohibitionism does  
not protect the children, it makes them the main target of that  
unregulated market. It creates the drug problem. It leads also to  
misinformation. If all the drug were legalized and taxed with respect  
to their damage cost, people would quickly understand what are the  
real dangerous drug, and I bet many would be astonished. Democracy did  
not prevent brain washing. Cannabis and salvia divinorum are about  
infinitely less dangerous than aspirin or caffeine. The hardest drug  
today are alcohol and tobacco, mainly.


I'm optimist. The prohibition of drug policy will crash down like  
Berlin wall. Too much lies accumulate.
OK, apology for my rambling. It is not completely unrelated to  
löbianity though, if you consider good as being a löbian virtue. No  
one can decide for you what is good or bad for you, in the world of  
ideally self-referential correct machines. It is natural respect by  
modesty of the ever known first person. Löbianity would imply a form  
of libertarianity 'for the others', like it implies already a form of  
universal dissidence fo one self (as I explained once in a post to  
John). Machine's theology might be very *practically* deeply  

RE: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-23 Thread Stephen P. King
Hi Bruno,

 

Thank you for your kind considerations and comments. I will 
interleave my replies below.

 

 

From: everything-list@googlegroups.com 
[mailto:everything-l...@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of Bruno Marchal
Sent: Thursday, September 23, 2010 10:44 AM
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: What's wrong with this?

 

Hi Stephen,

 

The 1004 fallacy is when people argue, generally on vocabulary, by demanding 
precision which is actually not relevant with the concerned issue. It come from 
a passage of Sylvie and Bruno by Lewis Carroll. Bruno was looking at a flock 
of sheep. Sylvie asked how many sheep there are, and Bruno answered about 
1004. Sylvie said that about contradicts the four in 1004, and that he 
should have said about 1000. To say about 1004 is what I like to call the 
1004 fallacy. It is very common in some kind of pseudo human science, and is 
akin to jargon. (Of course Bruno likes to have the last word, and justified 
his 1004 by saying he was sure about the 4, given that he distinctly see 
four sheep here and there, and that the about applied to the 1000 which 
could have been 100 or 1 (something like that).

 

[SPK] 

Ah! I understand and I beg your indulgence on that point. I am trying to 
communicate an idea for which I do not yet have a precise and well-formed 
symbolic representation and thus am throwing a lot of notions your way hoping 
that you might intuit a rough version of the idea and ignore the extraneous 
noise. I am using several ideas that are similar, within my understanding, to 
several ideas that are present in mathematics and logics and so I beg your 
indulgence.

 

[BM]

Now I do have that feeling a bit with your last posts, where you refer to hard 
technical works when at the same time I have some difficulties to understand 
your position (just to make sense of it). 

 

[SPK]  

Yes, we are coming from differing backgrounds and learning and thinking styles. 
My position is to look at interactions and the implications of such as a 
possible source and origin for notions that have been usually assumed and even 
postulated to be primitive and fundamental, but I am also aware that my ideas 
are a bit divergent of the kinds of things that you are focused upon. As I 
understand your work so far, you are building a model of the internal and 
grundladen structure that is an alternative to the diffuse and sometimes naïve 
metamathematical and metaphysical underpinnings of current physics and that 
model seems to focus on a single and static entity. I am focused on the 
external and interactive aspects that highlight many entities in an ongoing and 
even eternal dialogue with each other.

 

[BM]

I think that you try to defend the idea that time is fundamental. Now do you 
mean some physical notion of time, or do you mean the first person feeling of 
duration?

 

[SPK] 

No, time is not fundamental as I understand it. I am advancing and defending 
the idea that Change is fundamental; time is merely a particular measure of 
such within finite perception and interactions. I try to go further and advance 
the idea that we can recover the usual notions of substance and being in 
terms of isomorphisms within this underlying and fundamental Change. This is 
done from a Hereclitian perspective informed by the ideas of Plato and others, 
the latter of which focused upon Being and changelessness as fundamental. 

I see in most logics and mathematics a tacit axiom of changelessness and I 
understand the reasoning for such. Truth must be an invariant, but such 
invariance, I argue, does not necessitate that changelessness be fundamental 
and primitive. Thus I bet on Arithmetic Realism as True but point out that 
there is more involved that cannot be captured only within the framework of AR 
+ digital substitution.

I argue that we need to have a place within our models for 
interaction and time, even if that notion of time is emergent and not 
fundamental. I take duration to be a 1st person aspect that is part of what 
generates an emergent notion of 3rd person duration for many, such that an 
appearance of an evolving Common universe obtains. My argument on this are 
based on my study of computational complexity, concurrency and intractability 
issues that I found in many philosophical systems. I found that Leibniz' 
Monadology offered the best framework to explain my reasoning and possible 
solution. I see your work on modal logics as part of the structure of a Monad, 
aspects that even Leibniz did not consider and thus am very eager to understand 
the subtle points of your model.

 

[BM]

Are you aware that in both case you have to abandon the mechanist hypothesis, 
because the digital mechanist hypothesis makes the ultimate reality 
undistinguishable with arithmetical truth (which is something 
atemporal/aspatial). In the first case you introduce some physicalism, and in 
the second case you make consciousness primitive, like

Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-20 Thread Bruno Marchal


Hi  Stephen,






OK, did you make sense of the idea of representing  
Integer with a sort of equivalence class that have members that are  
the arithmetic generators or creators or acts that equal examples of  
the number? We can think of 1 in the Platonic sense as the class of  
all arithmetic operations that are equal to 1, 2 as the class of all  
arithmetic operations that equal 2, etc. OK, given that then it  
seems to follow that, say a 2 in the operation that equals some  
other number is in a sense a mapping of the entire class of 2 into  
that other class. Does this make sense so far?


With a lot of effort!
Why introduce impredicativity for the numbers? It does not make a lot  
of sense: it introduces complexity. It seems to me like doing alpinism  
with a microscope. It is akin to the 1004 fallacy.




[BM]
But this has been shown not working. You cannot both capture
consciousness by Turing machine states, and at the same time to invoke
a notion of physical resource. It is the whole point of most of my
posts. Physical resource including space and time have to be recovered
from the math of (abstract) computer science.

[SPK]

No no no! I am not capturing consciousness by Turing  
machine! I am

pointing at the content, using Descartes' brain in a vat and related
gedankenexperiments to show how there is an equivalence relation  
between the
content of experience (minus agency notions, self-awareness,  
etc.)  and
the content of what can be generated by universal Virtual reality  
machines,

as explained by D. Deutsch in Fabric of Reality, that can be used. The
notion of a physical resource is allowed because I am assuming that  
both
mind (crudely an information structure, like a Boolean algebra) and  
matter
(crudely as a Cantor dust or completely disconnected Hausdorff  
space) are
both equally existent and real. The idea in Pratt's work is that  
Logic and

Time (the evolution of physical systems) form a duality see:
http://boole.stanford.edu/pub/dti.pdf
[BM]
This pleads for no fundamental matter, nor time.

[SPK]

Yes, but bOnly in the limit of the totality of  
Existence, there is no measure or differentiation, thus no matter or  
time in that fundamental sense. That’s why the dualism that I am  
advocating is one that degenerates to a neutral monism in that  
limit. But the Totality includes the finite and in that finite case  
we have matter and time.



snip

[SPK]  Your modelization so far seems to only consider a frozen
perspective and there is scant mention of how the model is extended
to cover
a plurality of entities, except for the diamond^alpha aspect mentioned
below. As far as I can tell, your Model offers a logical structure
to a new
version of the individual Leibnizian Monad (
http://www.iep.utm.edu/leib-met/#H8  ) that I am trying to develop,
but only in the static sense. There is no dynamic in it.
[BM]
The 'sensible' modalities, like Bp  p, and Bp  Dp  p, introduces an
internal dynamic. S4Grz is not just a logic of knowledge, it is a
logic of evolving knowledge, or time. It is due to the  p. It makes
the first person intuitionist, the builder of its mental reality.

[SPK]

It may exist there Bruno, but it is by no means  
explicit. The fact

that we can map Bp  p, etc. to some abstract structure and use the
orderings of those relations to act as a quotienting does nothing to  
obtain

the experiential transitivity that is explicit in the 1st person.
[BM]
Why? The experiential logic is typically transitive, and anti- 
symmetrical.


[SPK] Yes, that is true but in a static Platonic Idea sense. The  
main problem, I suspect, obtains from the enumerability of the  
content of experiential logic as I see in your Model.



It is enumerable, but not recursively enumerable.





This makes a computation of logical sentence something that has  
properties in-it-self independent of any notion of interaction;



Well, yes. At least in the third person global view.




therefore it is, in a deep sense, solipsistic.


It is platonistic. Why solispsist. You lost me again I' afraid.



To boil this down, we need to start with the existence of a  
plurality of minds, explaining why it is necessary that there is  
more than just the One. You move toward this in SIENA.pdf but not  
sufficiently to nail down the reasoning.



What is missing?




[BM]
Nobody said that. I said only that the natural numbers does provide  
a kind of computational time, but the subjective time (and space  
time) comes from the first person logic S4Grz (and S4Grz1), in the  
ideal case under scrutiny.


[SPK]
A Liebnitzian order of succession aspect of time, certainly obtain  
in what you point out here, but that is cheap, for there are no a  
priori alternatives in the notion of the number that is subsequent  
to n, for example n +1 or n+2 have only a single and unique  
property. We do not see this kind of singular one- to one and onto  
like map of 

Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-19 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

on 19.09.2010 01:52 1Z said the following:



On 18 Sep, 19:32, Evgenii Rudnyiuse...@rudnyi.ru  wrote:

on 18.09.2010 19:40 1Z said the following:






On 18 Sep, 17:20, Evgenii Rudnyiuse...@rudnyi.ruwrote:

on 18.09.2010 18:08 1Z said the following:



...



By the way, about the water. The difference between H, O
and H2O is in chemical bonds in H2O.



such bonds can be considered basic elements of reality, too



I am not sure if I understand your answer. Say we have H2 and
O2 at room temperature in some enclosure. Then we put a
catalyst there and if the enclosure is strong enough, then we
obtain there water, H20. The question is then what happened
with bonds in H2 and O2 and where from come new bonds in H20?
The bonds in H2, 02 and H20 are completely different from each
other.



Basic elements of realit6 can appear and disappear too


How it would be possible to use your ideas, for example in drug
design? Or in the development of a new material?


Dunno. They can't brew coffee either. I was exploring the
consequences of reductionism. If you want an engineer, hire an
engineer.


Well, I thought that reductionism could help an engineer. So way my 
question. Or you mean that reductionism is completely useless?


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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-19 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

on 18.09.2010 23:35 Brent Meeker said the following:

On 9/18/2010 12:19 PM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

on 18.09.2010 21:09 Brent Meeker said the following:

On 9/18/2010 9:20 AM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

on 18.09.2010 18:08 1Z said the following:




...



By the way, about the water. The difference between H, O
and H2O is in chemical bonds in H2O.


such bonds can be considered basic elements of reality, too



I am not sure if I understand your answer. Say we have H2 and
O2 at room temperature in some enclosure. Then we put a
catalyst there and if the enclosure is strong enough, then we
obtain there water, H20. The question is then what happened
with bonds in H2 and O2 and where from come new bonds in H20?
The bonds in H2, 02 and H20 are completely different from each
other.



Why do you think they are completely different? They are just
local energy minima in the wave functions of the outer
electrons.


It could be that the word completely is not quite right. Sure they
are similar in respect that this is an interplay between nuclei and
 electrons. Yet, what I have meant, that their properties are quite
 different. Say the OO bond in O2 and the HH bond in H2 are not the
 same. This also concerns H0 bonds in HOH.



But they are the same at the level of QED, i.e. they are described
by the same theory and in fact exist in a superposition of the states
2H20 -- 2H2 + O2.


You forget here about level of designing drugs and new materials. Can a 
physicist specialized in QED do it? I guess no, here one has to hire a 
chemist.


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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-19 Thread 1Z


On 19 Sep, 07:30, Evgenii Rudnyi use...@rudnyi.ru wrote:

 Well, I thought that reductionism could help an engineer.

I don't think anyone said that

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-19 Thread 1Z


On 19 Sep, 07:34, Evgenii Rudnyi use...@rudnyi.ru wrote:
 on 18.09.2010 23:35 Brent Meeker said the following:



  On 9/18/2010 12:19 PM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:
  on 18.09.2010 21:09 Brent Meeker said the following:
  On 9/18/2010 9:20 AM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:
  on 18.09.2010 18:08 1Z said the following:

  ...

  By the way, about the water. The difference between H, O
  and H2O is in chemical bonds in H2O.

  such bonds can be considered basic elements of reality, too

  I am not sure if I understand your answer. Say we have H2 and
  O2 at room temperature in some enclosure. Then we put a
  catalyst there and if the enclosure is strong enough, then we
  obtain there water, H20. The question is then what happened
  with bonds in H2 and O2 and where from come new bonds in H20?
  The bonds in H2, 02 and H20 are completely different from each
  other.

  Why do you think they are completely different? They are just
  local energy minima in the wave functions of the outer
  electrons.

  It could be that the word completely is not quite right. Sure they
  are similar in respect that this is an interplay between nuclei and
   electrons. Yet, what I have meant, that their properties are quite
   different. Say the OO bond in O2 and the HH bond in H2 are not the
   same. This also concerns H0 bonds in HOH.

  But they are the same at the level of QED, i.e. they are described
  by the same theory and in fact exist in a superposition of the states
  2H20 -- 2H2 + O2.

 You forget here about level of designing drugs and new materials. Can a
 physicist specialized in QED do it? I guess no, here one has to hire a
 chemist.

No-one thinks reductionism leads to a collapse of the special sciences

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-19 Thread John Mikes
Evgeniy, I may be the one agreeing with your sentence 1Z did not hear so
far. Maybe he is right. Let me try to explain why I am congruent with your
suggestion:
*Reductionism *(as I identify it, - not congruent with the classical
definitions - is the process in which the ongoing conventional sciences
consider ALL - i.e. the wholeness, the totality, - as the compendium of
our yesterday's knowledge: the content of our so far accepted epistemic
enrichment in the sciences (and the world in general). This is how
conventional sciences draw conclusions further reaching than our present
knowledge (in most cases not knowing about the rest of the world not yet
provided by our epistemic enrichment). Think of the Flat Earth, of the
'veins' circulating air, the uncuttable 'atoms', the DNA-genetics, etc.
etc., examples that changed the prior (scientific) knowledge by new
leanings. You may think of neurology as well, explaining all mental effects
upon the brain's so far learned characteristics as measured by the
instruments of 2010 - which is more than how it was 25 years ago. It is
still reductionist.

Engineering has to solve practical tasks in quantitative solutions and
cannot resort to include 'maybe'-s for possible extensions of our scientific
knowledge. So it takes the reductionist inventory and constructs brilliant
contraptions upon 'yesterday's (reductionistic) knowledge that are
*ALMOST*good. Almost? well, some airplanes fall off the skyies, some
diseases
strike, some wars break out, etc. etc., in spite of our incrredible
technology we acieved by the results of engineering. The 'still?' unknown
rest of the world has its influence in the overall complexity of the world
upon those partially solved problems as well, and of course, nobody can
include unknowable factors into any consideraton. We use what we know =
reduced.

*Brent* had a short remark recently to the H2O discussion: 2H2O = 2H2 + O2
- no problem.
He stopped short at the reductionist formula and the conventional physical
views of water, not extending the complexity of such situations into the
'potentials that are'. - formation of halos of diffusely disappearing
hydration and similar hydrated/not hydrated (hydrophil/hydrophob) situations
as result of the surrounding chemical(?) environment (unlimited???)  - all
not expressed in the conventional chemical formulae - or their physical
calculations (so far).

It is hard to transfer from the 'conventional' to the 'unlimited' because we
have no knowledge about the 'rest of the world'. I claim my (scientific)
agnosticism and say I dunno. We use the 'reductionist' *MODELs* of the so
far known in our calculations and work in equations (maybe not true ones).
The 'engineering' style.
Respectfully

John M


On 9/19/10, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:



 On 19 Sep, 07:30, Evgenii Rudnyi use...@rudnyi.ru wrote:

  Well, I thought that reductionism could help an engineer.

 I don't think anyone said that

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-19 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

John,

I am not sure if I have a particular position. I am a chemist by 
background, well I was doing all the life simulation only.


Actually I am comfortable with reductionism ideas, as many scientist 
are. Yet, I do not understand something.


Say chemistry starts that H2 has a single bond, 02 has a double bond, 
both being covalent. In H20 we have already partially ionic bonds and so 
on. What do these terms mean? Hard to define precisely. On the other 
hand it is possible to say that chemistry is a part of physics, one 
needs just to solve the Schrödinger equation and that's it, in this case 
one does not need ambiguous chemical terms. However the latter does not 
work in practice. Only chemists talking some strange ambiguous language 
can create new molecules, substances and materials. Why? I do not know.


Then recently I have read The Elegant Universe about the superstring 
theory. The book is written very nicely, I envy the author's ability to 
write in such simple language. Yet, I do not like the idea of Equation 
of Everything and my feeling is that the superstring theory is just a 
dead end:


http://blog.rudnyi.ru/2010/07/end-of-reductionism.html

However I cannot explain fully my feeling. So basically I just follow 
what other people say and try to think it over.


Evgenii

on 19.09.2010 21:13 John Mikes said the following:

Evgeniy, I may be the one agreeing with your sentence 1Z did not hear
so far. Maybe he is right. Let me try to explain why I am congruent
with your suggestion: *Reductionism *(as I identify it, - not
congruent with the classical definitions - is the process in which
the ongoing conventional sciences consider ALL - i.e. the
wholeness, the totality, - as the compendium of our yesterday's
knowledge: the content of our so far accepted epistemic enrichment in
the sciences (and the world in general). This is how conventional
sciences draw conclusions further reaching than our present knowledge
(in most cases not knowing about the rest of the world not yet
provided by our epistemic enrichment). Think of the Flat Earth, of
the 'veins' circulating air, the uncuttable 'atoms', the
DNA-genetics, etc. etc., examples that changed the prior (scientific)
knowledge by new leanings. You may think of neurology as well,
explaining all mental effects upon the brain's so far learned
characteristics as measured by the instruments of 2010 - which is
more than how it was 25 years ago. It is still reductionist.

Engineering has to solve practical tasks in quantitative solutions
and cannot resort to include 'maybe'-s for possible extensions of our
scientific knowledge. So it takes the reductionist inventory and
constructs brilliant contraptions upon 'yesterday's (reductionistic)
knowledge that are *ALMOST*good. Almost? well, some airplanes fall
off the skyies, some diseases strike, some wars break out, etc. etc.,
in spite of our incrredible technology we acieved by the results of
engineering. The 'still?' unknown rest of the world has its
influence in the overall complexity of the world upon those partially
solved problems as well, and of course, nobody can include unknowable
factors into any consideraton. We use what we know = reduced.

*Brent* had a short remark recently to the H2O discussion: 2H2O =
2H2 + O2 - no problem. He stopped short at the reductionist formula
and the conventional physical views of water, not extending the
complexity of such situations into the 'potentials that are'. -
formation of halos of diffusely disappearing hydration and similar
hydrated/not hydrated (hydrophil/hydrophob) situations as result of
the surrounding chemical(?) environment (unlimited???)  - all not
expressed in the conventional chemical formulae - or their physical
calculations (so far).

It is hard to transfer from the 'conventional' to the 'unlimited'
because we have no knowledge about the 'rest of the world'. I claim
my (scientific) agnosticism and say I dunno. We use the
'reductionist' *MODELs* of the so far known in our calculations and
work in equations (maybe not true ones). The 'engineering' style.
Respectfully

John M


On 9/19/10, 1Zpeterdjo...@yahoo.com  wrote:




On 19 Sep, 07:30, Evgenii Rudnyiuse...@rudnyi.ru  wrote:


Well, I thought that reductionism could help an engineer.


I don't think anyone said that

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-19 Thread John Mikes
Evgeniy,
thanks for the reply.
With H2o you use all those expressions the millenia-long reductionist
development came up with and modified them according to newer learned
details. (Bond?)  You asked What do these terms mean? Chmistry is NOT part
of physics, especially not the polymer branch in which I worked and produced
characteristics unheard of by changing conditions/additives. Physicists try
to occupy all science with their math - which is an applied one. String?
wave function? you may add spin and 25 more words. Not Alice's, but
physicists' Wunderland.
Quark is an honest addition: they chose it as a meaningless word. There is a
lot of It Must Be Like That becaus at the time of identification nobody
knew better. No other way! - only the Flat Earth.
So careful with the chemical expressions: most date back to the 18th c. -
yet if you have a head-ache, you take one of those 'compounds' - and not the
Schroedinger equation. To be able to talk about 'everything' I ask for some
more time, maybe 3-800 years and let us talk then.

Best wishes
John M


On 9/19/10, Evgenii Rudnyi use...@rudnyi.ru wrote:

 John,

 I am not sure if I have a particular position. I am a chemist by
 background, well I was doing all the life simulation only.

 Actually I am comfortable with reductionism ideas, as many scientist are.
 Yet, I do not understand something.

 Say chemistry starts that H2 has a single bond, 02 has a double bond, both
 being covalent. In H20 we have already partially ionic bonds and so on. What
 do these terms mean? Hard to define precisely. On the other hand it is
 possible to say that chemistry is a part of physics, one needs just to solve
 the Schrödinger equation and that's it, in this case one does not need
 ambiguous chemical terms. However the latter does not work in practice. Only
 chemists talking some strange ambiguous language can create new molecules,
 substances and materials. Why? I do not know.

 Then recently I have read The Elegant Universe about the superstring
 theory. The book is written very nicely, I envy the author's ability to
 write in such simple language. Yet, I do not like the idea of Equation of
 Everything and my feeling is that the superstring theory is just a dead end:

 http://blog.rudnyi.ru/2010/07/end-of-reductionism.html

 However I cannot explain fully my feeling. So basically I just follow what
 other people say and try to think it over.

 Evgenii

 on 19.09.2010 21:13 John Mikes said the following:

 Evgeniy, I may be the one agreeing with your sentence 1Z did not hear
 so far. Maybe he is right. Let me try to explain why I am congruent
 with your suggestion: *Reductionism *(as I identify it, - not
 congruent with the classical definitions - is the process in which
 the ongoing conventional sciences consider ALL - i.e. the
 wholeness, the totality, - as the compendium of our yesterday's
 knowledge: the content of our so far accepted epistemic enrichment in
 the sciences (and the world in general). This is how conventional
 sciences draw conclusions further reaching than our present knowledge
 (in most cases not knowing about the rest of the world not yet
 provided by our epistemic enrichment). Think of the Flat Earth, of
 the 'veins' circulating air, the uncuttable 'atoms', the
 DNA-genetics, etc. etc., examples that changed the prior (scientific)
 knowledge by new leanings. You may think of neurology as well,
 explaining all mental effects upon the brain's so far learned
 characteristics as measured by the instruments of 2010 - which is
 more than how it was 25 years ago. It is still reductionist.

 Engineering has to solve practical tasks in quantitative solutions
 and cannot resort to include 'maybe'-s for possible extensions of our
 scientific knowledge. So it takes the reductionist inventory and
 constructs brilliant contraptions upon 'yesterday's (reductionistic)
 knowledge that are *ALMOST*good. Almost? well, some airplanes fall
 off the skyies, some diseases strike, some wars break out, etc. etc.,
 in spite of our incrredible technology we acieved by the results of
 engineering. The 'still?' unknown rest of the world has its
 influence in the overall complexity of the world upon those partially
 solved problems as well, and of course, nobody can include unknowable
 factors into any consideraton. We use what we know = reduced.

 *Brent* had a short remark recently to the H2O discussion: 2H2O =
 2H2 + O2 - no problem. He stopped short at the reductionist formula
 and the conventional physical views of water, not extending the
 complexity of such situations into the 'potentials that are'. -
 formation of halos of diffusely disappearing hydration and similar
 hydrated/not hydrated (hydrophil/hydrophob) situations as result of
 the surrounding chemical(?) environment (unlimited???)  - all not
 expressed in the conventional chemical formulae - or their physical
 calculations (so far).

 It is hard to transfer from the 'conventional' to the 'unlimited'
 because we have 

Re: What's wrong with this? (a side question)

2010-09-19 Thread Bruno Marchal


Hi John,


Bruno:

thanks for the I thinkG in your text below - also: I cannot  
argue against your negative assessement about atheism - who IMO  
require a 'God to deny. You know my shortcomings to equate physics  
with other domains of hearsay belief systems, like theology (as  
religion mainly). What I mean is a 'system' based on primitive  
misunderstandings of phenomena at a lower level epistemicly enriched  
explanatory attempt, at a very early age (way before the Greeks)  
that was kept as a basis and equipped by the newer epistemic  
additions over the eons of development up to our times now (and  
continued probably for the future). You add to that your belief  
system of the numerals as constituting 'our world' - if used in  
large enough sequences - what I do not address at this moment.


My point is technical. Mechanism and materialism are incompatible.





At any rate: it is a 'human' base for constituting a worldview.


It is a Löbian one. It concerns the aliens also, except those who are  
ultrafinitists.

I dont' identify myself more with humans than with Löbians.




We are not capable of more.


That could be John Mikes limitation.
I don't like to much Teilhard de Chardin but he said that we are not  
humans having spiritual experience, but we are sipiritual being having  
a human experience. That does resonate with Löbian machine's experience.



Our capabilities are restricted to absorb only parts of the totality  
and that. too, in ways how our PERSONAL thinking machine (brain?)  
adjusted them into its genetic buildup AND our personal experience- 
background, making it into a PERSONAL mini-solipsism, (expression  
from Hale) - also callable a perceived reality.


That's the first person views. But we can bet on other people and  
entities, and we can use logic to study the consequence of our  
hypotheses.





Partial, that is.


Yes.




Since you slanted the 'mind-body' problem towards religious  
connotations(?), I turned to the Cartesian body-soul dualistic  
pair which was a result of Descartes's fear of the Inquisition.


I think so too.



Not finding reasonable that a short-lived body should impose  
'eternal' judgements upon an 'eternal' soul,


Bodies make no judgement. Only our (eternal) soul do. That is not a  
religious belief, it is a theorem in mechanist theory (which may be  
correct or not, we will never *know*).




in such respect (at least in its effectiveness?) the 'body' extends  
the time-limit we assign to the contraption enclosed (spacially)  
into our 'skin' - what I find untrue as well.
This may be done by questioning the precision of our 'time' (and  
arrow of it) concept as physics takes it into account more or less.


Physics come later. Plotinus is right: physics is the study of what  
God cannot control.
The physical reality is the clothe of God when he look to itself.  
(images).





As someone who does not include the necessity of a creator or  
god into a worldview and claims agnostic ignorance about the much  
dicussed origins as well as the conclusions of physics-based  
conventional sciences and considers 'eternity' a timeless concept  
(maybe just an instant?)


OK.



furthermore the 'numerals' and math - as David Bohm said: a human  
invention, -


Ok for the numerals and humpan math. But not necessarily for the  
numbers. This does not makes sense in the mechanist theory (which  
might be wrong of course).




I have no proposal how to formulate answers to those 'burning'  
questions of 'everything'.


Just a thought that may be wrong, but could lead to further  
enlightening ideas if  some smarter-than-me minds add their remarks  
to it.


Best,

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-18 Thread 1Z


On 1 Sep, 05:18, Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com wrote:

 That these rules generate rational beliefs is a leap of faith, and can
 neither be refuted nor proven.

apart from noting the survival value of
rationality over irrationality

 If the underlying process *didn’t* cause us to present and believe
 rational arguments, there would be no way to detect this, since there
 is no way to step outside of the process’s control of one’s beliefs to
 independently verify the reasonableness of the beliefs it generates.

 A physicalist may be correct about the physical nature of reality, but
 if so, this is solely due to his improbable good luck in existing in a
 rare honest physical universe whose initial conditions and causal
 laws resulted in his holding true beliefs about his universe's initial
 conditions and causal laws.

He can only exist in a universe where he has a long evolutionary
history. Even under MWI the chances of such a complex being assembling
himself
in a vaccuum are infinitessimal

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Re: What's wrong with this? (a side question)

2010-09-18 Thread 1Z


On 3 Sep, 09:10, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Physicists have a tradition of putting mind and consciousness under  
 the rug,

Physicists have a tradition of not being psychologists
 front of the 'hard consciousness problem', or the mind-body problem.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-18 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

on 18.09.2010 01:38 1Z said the following:



On 17 Sep, 18:52, Evgenii Rudnyiuse...@rudnyi.ru  wrote:

on 17.09.2010 14:33 1Z said the following:




On 26 Aug, 17:37, David Nymandavid.ny...@gmail.comwrote:


...


The next citation by Robert B. Laughlin (Nobel laureate in
physics) could be of interest here:

http://blog.rudnyi.ru/2010/08/matter-and-little-ghosts.html

By the most important effect of phase organisation is to cause
objects to exist. This point is subtle and easily overlooked, since
we are accustomed to thinking about solidification in terms of
packing of Newtonian spheres. Atoms are not Newtonian spheres,
however, but ethereal quantum-mechanical entities lacking that most
central of all properties of an object an identifiable position.
This is why attempts to describe free atoms in Newtonian terms
always result in nonsense statements such as their being neither
here nor there but simultaneously everywhere. It is aggregation
into large objects that makes a Newtonian description of the atoms
meaningful, not the reverse. One might compare this phenomenon with
a yet-to-be-filmed Stephen Spilberg movie in which a huge number of
little ghosts lock arms and, in doing so, become corporeal.

Evgenii


Physics may well be less reductionist than the reductionism of the
philosophers. But the reductionism of the philosophers still does not
entail elimination


On the other hand, the philosophers should somehow relate their thoughts 
with the development in physics.


By the way, about the water. The difference between H, O and H2O is in 
chemical bonds in H2O. Also one may not necessarily obtain H2O from H 
and O. It depends on temperature and pressure, if temperature is high 
enough then there are no water molecules anymore. There is some kinetics 
as well. Say diamond is thermodynamically unstable at normal conditions, 
but this fact does not influence the diamond prices


http://www.diamondse.info/diamonds-price-index.asp

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-18 Thread 1Z


On 18 Sep, 16:11, Evgenii Rudnyi use...@rudnyi.ru wrote:
 on 18.09.2010 01:38 1Z said the following:



  On 17 Sep, 18:52, Evgenii Rudnyiuse...@rudnyi.ru  wrote:
  on 17.09.2010 14:33 1Z said the following:

  On 26 Aug, 17:37, David Nymandavid.ny...@gmail.com    wrote:

 ...



  The next citation by Robert B. Laughlin (Nobel laureate in
  physics) could be of interest here:

 http://blog.rudnyi.ru/2010/08/matter-and-little-ghosts.html

  By the most important effect of phase organisation is to cause
  objects to exist. This point is subtle and easily overlooked, since
  we are accustomed to thinking about solidification in terms of
  packing of Newtonian spheres. Atoms are not Newtonian spheres,
  however, but ethereal quantum-mechanical entities lacking that most
  central of all properties of an object an identifiable position.
  This is why attempts to describe free atoms in Newtonian terms
  always result in nonsense statements such as their being neither
  here nor there but simultaneously everywhere. It is aggregation
  into large objects that makes a Newtonian description of the atoms
  meaningful, not the reverse. One might compare this phenomenon with
  a yet-to-be-filmed Stephen Spilberg movie in which a huge number of
  little ghosts lock arms and, in doing so, become corporeal.

  Evgenii

  Physics may well be less reductionist than the reductionism of the
  philosophers. But the reductionism of the philosophers still does not
  entail elimination

 On the other hand, the philosophers should somehow relate their thoughts
 with the development in physics.

 By the way, about the water. The difference between H, O and H2O is in
 chemical bonds in H2O.

such bonds can be considered basic elements of reality, too

Also one may not necessarily obtain H2O from H
 and O. It depends on temperature and pressure, if temperature is high
 enough then there are no water molecules anymore. There is some kinetics
 as well. Say diamond is thermodynamically unstable at normal conditions,
 but this fact does not influence the diamond prices

 http://www.diamondse.info/diamonds-price-index.asp

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-18 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

on 18.09.2010 18:08 1Z said the following:




...



By the way, about the water. The difference between H, O and H2O is
in chemical bonds in H2O.


such bonds can be considered basic elements of reality, too



I am not sure if I understand your answer. Say we have H2 and O2 at room 
temperature in some enclosure. Then we put a catalyst there and if the 
enclosure is strong enough, then we obtain there water, H20. The 
question is then what happened with bonds in H2 and O2 and where from 
come new bonds in H20? The bonds in H2, 02 and H20 are completely 
different from each other.


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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-18 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 17 Sep 2010, at 19:52, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:


on 17.09.2010 14:33 1Z said the following:



On 26 Aug, 17:37, David Nymandavid.ny...@gmail.com  wrote:



...


Whatever composite categories we might be tempted to have recourse
to - you know: molecules, cells, bodies, planets, ideas,
explanations, theories, the whole ball of wax - none of these are
available from this perspective.  Don't need them.  More
rigorously, they *must not be invoked* because they *do not exist*.
They don't need to exist, because the machine doesn't need them to
carry all the load and do all the work.


OTOH, they must exist because if you have two hydrogens and an
oxygen, you inevitably have the compound H2O. You also have many
other compounds which are not dreamt of in our philosophy. the set of
compounds is basically the powerset of the set of basic entities.
there may not be any objective facts about what is a true compound,
but the powerset unproblematically includes everything we
conventionally regard as a compound as a powerset


The next citation by Robert B. Laughlin (Nobel laureate in physics)  
could be of interest here:


http://blog.rudnyi.ru/2010/08/matter-and-little-ghosts.html

By the most important effect of phase organisation is to cause  
objects to exist. This point is subtle and easily overlooked, since  
we are accustomed to thinking about solidification in terms of  
packing of Newtonian spheres.


That is indeed naive.



Atoms are not Newtonian spheres, however, but ethereal quantum- 
mechanical entities lacking that most central of all properties of  
an object – an identifiable position.


That is naive, and fuzzy.


This is why attempts to describe free atoms in Newtonian terms  
always result in nonsense statements such as their being neither  
here nor there but simultaneously everywhere.


IMO, this has been solved by Everett 1957 (many-worlds). This is also  
a necessary consequence of logic + arithmetic + I am a machine.



It is aggregation into large objects that makes a Newtonian  
description of the atoms meaningful, not the reverse.


I would say it is the first person filtration of coherent histories,  
to be short.




One might compare this phenomenon with a yet-to-be-filmed Stephen  
Spilberg movie in which a huge number of little ghosts lock arms  
and, in doing so, become corporeal.


Why not, if the atoms are the positive integers and the arms are  
addition and multiplication, but the physical reality is a projection  
of infinities of numbers, a biew of arithmetic from inside. No need of  
magical matter, nor magical arms, just numbers confronted to their own  
self-referential abilities.


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: What's wrong with this? (a side question)

2010-09-18 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 18 Sep 2010, at 14:34, 1Z wrote:




On 3 Sep, 09:10, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


Physicists have a tradition of putting mind and consciousness under
the rug,


Physicists have a tradition of not being psychologists
front of the 'hard consciousness problem', or the mind-body problem.


Indeed. Since Aristotle. Even more so since Christians burns those who  
depart from the Dogma, and atheism blocks progress in a less hot but  
as irrational way.
But the platonist start with the right unifying principles, I think.  
The idea to separate physics from theology has been fertile  
methodologically, but, as I explained,  it just does not work without  
reintroducing magical matter and/or magical minds, and/or magical  
dualist supervenience principles.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-18 Thread 1Z


On 18 Sep, 17:20, Evgenii Rudnyi use...@rudnyi.ru wrote:
 on 18.09.2010 18:08 1Z said the following:



 ...



  By the way, about the water. The difference between H, O and H2O is
  in chemical bonds in H2O.

  such bonds can be considered basic elements of reality, too

 I am not sure if I understand your answer. Say we have H2 and O2 at room
 temperature in some enclosure. Then we put a catalyst there and if the
 enclosure is strong enough, then we obtain there water, H20. The
 question is then what happened with bonds in H2 and O2 and where from
 come new bonds in H20? The bonds in H2, 02 and H20 are completely
 different from each other.

Basic elements of realit6 can appear and disappear too

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Re: What's wrong with this? (a side question)

2010-09-18 Thread 1Z


On 18 Sep, 18:21, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
 On 18 Sep 2010, at 14:34, 1Z wrote:



  On 3 Sep, 09:10, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  Physicists have a tradition of putting mind and consciousness under
  the rug,

  Physicists have a tradition of not being psychologists
  front of the 'hard consciousness problem', or the mind-body problem.

 Indeed. Since Aristotle. Even more so since Christians burns those who  
 depart from the Dogma, and atheism blocks progress in a less hot but  
 as irrational way.

???

That wasn't at all what I meant.

I meant that consciousness isn't obviously a physics problem (although
it
is obviousy a psychology problem)

People who think consciousness is part of physics have presupposed
it is fundamental

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Re: What's wrong with this? (a side question)

2010-09-18 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 18 Sep 2010, at 19:43, 1Z wrote:




On 18 Sep, 18:21, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 18 Sep 2010, at 14:34, 1Z wrote:




On 3 Sep, 09:10, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:



Physicists have a tradition of putting mind and consciousness under
the rug,



Physicists have a tradition of not being psychologists
front of the 'hard consciousness problem', or the mind-body problem.


Indeed. Since Aristotle. Even more so since Christians burns those  
who

depart from the Dogma, and atheism blocks progress in a less hot but
as irrational way.


???

That wasn't at all what I meant.

I meant that consciousness isn't obviously a physics problem (although
it
is obviousy a psychology problem)

People who think consciousness is part of physics have presupposed
it is fundamental


When a physicists use a formula to predict an eclipse, he can forget  
for a while consciousness, but if the physicist want to predict that  
he will *see* an eclipse, he needs some form of supervenience. Now  
with classical mechanics, usually he will use (implicitly) the mind/ 
brain identity thesis, but this breaks down with quantum mechanics and  
digital mechanism.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-18 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

on 18.09.2010 19:02 Bruno Marchal said the following:


On 17 Sep 2010, at 19:52, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:


...


This is why attempts to describe free atoms in Newtonian terms
always result in nonsense statements such as their being neither
here nor there but simultaneously everywhere.


IMO, this has been solved by Everett 1957 (many-worlds). This is also


A naive question. How an idea of many-worlds helps to solve the 
mind-body problem?



a necessary consequence of logic + arithmetic + I am a machine.



It is aggregation into large objects that makes a Newtonian
description of the atoms meaningful, not the reverse.


I would say it is the first person filtration of coherent histories,
to be short.


Robert B. Laughlin plays in his book with the term emergence, whatever 
it means. It is quite popular among biologists nowadays, for example


http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/properties-emergent/

and some physicists. Basically it means that More Is Different, see

More Is Different
P. W. Anderson
Science, New Series, Vol. 177, No. 4047. (Aug. 4, 1972), pp. 393-396.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-18 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

on 18.09.2010 19:40 1Z said the following:



On 18 Sep, 17:20, Evgenii Rudnyiuse...@rudnyi.ru  wrote:

on 18.09.2010 18:08 1Z said the following:



...




By the way, about the water. The difference between H, O and
H2O is in chemical bonds in H2O.



such bonds can be considered basic elements of reality, too


I am not sure if I understand your answer. Say we have H2 and O2 at
room temperature in some enclosure. Then we put a catalyst there
and if the enclosure is strong enough, then we obtain there water,
H20. The question is then what happened with bonds in H2 and O2 and
where from come new bonds in H20? The bonds in H2, 02 and H20 are
completely different from each other.


Basic elements of realit6 can appear and disappear too



How it would be possible to use your ideas, for example in drug design? 
Or in the development of a new material?


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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-18 Thread Brent Meeker

On 9/18/2010 9:20 AM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

on 18.09.2010 18:08 1Z said the following:




...



By the way, about the water. The difference between H, O and H2O is
in chemical bonds in H2O.


such bonds can be considered basic elements of reality, too



I am not sure if I understand your answer. Say we have H2 and O2 at 
room temperature in some enclosure. Then we put a catalyst there and 
if the enclosure is strong enough, then we obtain there water, H20. 
The question is then what happened with bonds in H2 and O2 and where 
from come new bonds in H20? The bonds in H2, 02 and H20 are completely 
different from each other.




Why do you think they are completely different?  They are just local 
energy minima in the wave functions of the outer electrons.


Brent

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-18 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

on 18.09.2010 21:09 Brent Meeker said the following:

On 9/18/2010 9:20 AM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

on 18.09.2010 18:08 1Z said the following:




...



By the way, about the water. The difference between H, O and
H2O is in chemical bonds in H2O.


such bonds can be considered basic elements of reality, too



I am not sure if I understand your answer. Say we have H2 and O2 at
 room temperature in some enclosure. Then we put a catalyst there
and if the enclosure is strong enough, then we obtain there water,
H20. The question is then what happened with bonds in H2 and O2 and
where from come new bonds in H20? The bonds in H2, 02 and H20 are
completely different from each other.



Why do you think they are completely different? They are just local
energy minima in the wave functions of the outer electrons.


It could be that the word completely is not quite right. Sure they are 
similar in respect that this is an interplay between nuclei and 
electrons. Yet, what I have meant, that their properties are quite 
different. Say the OO bond in O2 and the HH bond in H2 are not the same. 
This also concerns H0 bonds in HOH.


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Re: What's wrong with this? (a side question)

2010-09-18 Thread John Mikes
Bruno:

thanks for the I thinkG in your text below - also: I cannot argue
against your negative assessement about atheism - who IMO require a 'God to
deny. You know my shortcomings to equate physics with other domains of *hearsay
belief systems*, like *theology* (as *religion* mainly). What I mean is a
'system' based on primitive misunderstandings of phenomena at a lower level
epistemicly enriched explanatory attempt, at a very early age (way before
the Greeks) that was kept as a basis and equipped by the newer epistemic
additions over the eons of development up to our times *now* (and continued
probably for the future). You add to that your belief system of the
numerals as constituting 'our world' - if used in large enough sequences -
what I do not address at this moment.

At any rate: it is a 'human' base for constituting a worldview.
We are not capable of more.
Our capabilities are restricted to absorb only parts of the totality and
that. too, in ways how our PERSONAL thinking machine (brain?) adjusted them
into its genetic buildup AND our personal experience-background, making it
into a PERSONAL *mini-solipsism*, (expression from Hale) - also
callable a *perceived
reality*. Partial, that is.

Since you slanted the 'mind-body' problem towards religious connotations(?),
I turned to the Cartesian body-soul dualistic pair which was a result of
Descartes's fear of the Inquisition.
Not finding reasonable that a short-lived body should impose 'eternal'
judgements upon an 'eternal' soul, in such respect (at least in its
effectiveness?) the 'body' extends the *time-limit* we assign to the
contraption enclosed (*spacially*) into our 'skin' - what I find untrue as
well.
This may be done by questioning the precision of our 'time' (and arrow of
it) concept as physics takes it into account more or less.

As someone who does not include the necessity of a creator or god into a
worldview and claims agnostic ignorance about the much dicussed origins as
well as the conclusions of physics-based conventional sciences and considers
'eternity' a timeless concept (maybe just an instant?) furthermore the
'numerals' and math - as David Bohm said: a human invention, -
I have no proposal how to formulate answers to those 'burning' questions of
'everything'.

Just a thought that may be wrong, but could lead to further enlightening
ideas if  some smarter-than-me minds add their remarks to it.

With best regards, respectfully

John M




On 9/18/10, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 18 Sep 2010, at 14:34, 1Z wrote:



 On 3 Sep, 09:10, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Physicists have a tradition of putting mind and consciousness under
 the rug,


 Physicists have a tradition of not being psychologists
 front of the 'hard consciousness problem', or the mind-body problem.


 Indeed. Since Aristotle. Even more so since Christians burns those who
 depart from the Dogma, and atheism blocks progress in a less hot but as
 irrational way.
 But the platonist start with the right unifying principles, I think. The
 idea to separate physics from theology has been fertile methodologically,
 but, as I explained,  it just does not work without reintroducing magical
 matter and/or magical minds, and/or magical dualist supervenience
 principles.

 Bruno


 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-18 Thread Brent Meeker

On 9/18/2010 12:19 PM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

on 18.09.2010 21:09 Brent Meeker said the following:

On 9/18/2010 9:20 AM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

on 18.09.2010 18:08 1Z said the following:




...



By the way, about the water. The difference between H, O and
H2O is in chemical bonds in H2O.


such bonds can be considered basic elements of reality, too



I am not sure if I understand your answer. Say we have H2 and O2 at
 room temperature in some enclosure. Then we put a catalyst there
and if the enclosure is strong enough, then we obtain there water,
H20. The question is then what happened with bonds in H2 and O2 and
where from come new bonds in H20? The bonds in H2, 02 and H20 are
completely different from each other.



Why do you think they are completely different? They are just local
energy minima in the wave functions of the outer electrons.


It could be that the word completely is not quite right. Sure they are 
similar in respect that this is an interplay between nuclei and 
electrons. Yet, what I have meant, that their properties are quite 
different. Say the OO bond in O2 and the HH bond in H2 are not the 
same. This also concerns H0 bonds in HOH.




But they are the same at the level of QED, i.e. they are described by 
the same theory and in fact exist in a superposition of the states 2H20 
-- 2H2 + O2.


Brent

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-18 Thread John Mikes
Friends,
that reminds me of my 1/2 c profession in - more or less - chemistry with a
conclusion that averted the brainwashing received in college (and applied in
my successful RD work as long as it lasted) that the chemical 'formulae' of
compounds describe 'ingredients'.

You mentioned H2O - which is standing for *WATER.*  as solid ice, liquid, or
gas (vapor). You did not detail the 'ingredients' mixed up as H, O,
naturally non-existing entities except for quite esoteric conditions we
almost do not even know.  What we know is H2 and O2 molecules, none of them
detectable in water (any form) not even resembling characteristic in the mix
produced when water has been *DESTROYED*. Similarly we learned about H and O
when destroying H2 and O2 gasses. The resemblance comes as a result of
mathematical transforms. (Forget for now spectroscopical matches: they were
named backwards over hundreds of steps in tests just to show such matches).
Now every child knows that water consists of oxygen and hydrogen. And the
tooth fairy provides for the teeth. Gross negligence and superficiality.

So:

That is in a compound with MW(?) 18, ingredients: 2, extensively findable
and general. Imagine our conventional scientific question marks in - say -
proteins (MW: millions, ingredients 18+) and zillions of
configurational/conformational design-potentials. Synthetic polymers seem
more regulated if you stick to the imagined atomic composition and forget
about the (conf/conf) design potentials, restricted into the features we
considered yesterday. (Nano-structures are new and who knows what else is
coming up?)
Conventional sciences is a nice pipe-dream, we take what we know - period.
Think further: and you are out, no publisher available, no pulpit to expose
ideas - of course, because those ideas usually exceed the measuring
capabilities of the past instrumental designs and so do not provide
(numerical!) data for mathematical churnings.

*Compounds exist???*  of course, we think of them, eo ipso they 'exist'
*in our minds*. Is there any other definition of *existing?* do we have
criteria for 'objective' reality? Can we observe/count measure it? Nope.

*  Compounds aren't postulated as some separate set  of entities--they
  are just set theoretic constructs put of what does exsit. **H2O is not
  distinct from the two H's and the O.*
just - as I tried to show it above - has nothing to do with them. Even
if you 'synthesize' for proof - you burn H2 *gas* in O2 *gas* (or vice
versa, nothing about *H* and *O*, with completely different attributes
and characteristics.

Careful with 'belief systems' called: conventional sciences: they are mostly
hearsay-based and justified backwards with evidence manufactured in the
course of million steps. Some retrograded.

Frustrated in my conventional knowledge-memories regarding chemistry
(Ph.D.,) and polymer molecular technology (D.Sc)  when thinking
forward

John M.

On 9/17/10, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:



 On 17 Sep, 14:10, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:
  On 17 September 2010 13:33, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:
 
   Compounds aren't postulated as some separate set  of entities--they
   are just set theoretic constructs put of what does exsit. H2O is not
   distinct from the two H's and the O.
 
  That's exactly my point.  Think about it.

 I did. It turns out that compounds exist, but not primarily.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-18 Thread 1Z


On 18 Sep, 19:32, Evgenii Rudnyi use...@rudnyi.ru wrote:
 on 18.09.2010 19:40 1Z said the following:





  On 18 Sep, 17:20, Evgenii Rudnyiuse...@rudnyi.ru  wrote:
  on 18.09.2010 18:08 1Z said the following:

  ...

  By the way, about the water. The difference between H, O and
  H2O is in chemical bonds in H2O.

  such bonds can be considered basic elements of reality, too

  I am not sure if I understand your answer. Say we have H2 and O2 at
  room temperature in some enclosure. Then we put a catalyst there
  and if the enclosure is strong enough, then we obtain there water,
  H20. The question is then what happened with bonds in H2 and O2 and
  where from come new bonds in H20? The bonds in H2, 02 and H20 are
  completely different from each other.

  Basic elements of realit6 can appear and disappear too

 How it would be possible to use your ideas, for example in drug design?
 Or in the development of a new material?

Dunno.
They can't brew coffee either.
I was exploring the consequences of reductionism.
If you want an engineer, hire an  engineer.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-17 Thread 1Z


On 26 Aug, 17:37, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:

 I should stress, again, I'm not personally committed to this view - it
 seems indeed highly problematic - but it is what the recipe says.
 Now, just to emphasise the point, when I say it's a hard thing to do
 this imaginatively, I mean that it isn't permissible to look back
 from this reductionist-god's eye view and continue to conjure familiar
 composite entities from the conjectural base components, because
 reductionism is a commitment to the proposition that these don't
 exist.

not at all. reductionism is a commitment to the idea that
all higher level entities are compounds and nothing but compounds,
wholes
which are exactly the sums of their parts.


Whatever composite categories we might be tempted to have
 recourse to - you know: molecules, cells, bodies, planets, ideas,
 explanations, theories, the whole ball of wax - none of these are
 available from this perspective.  Don't need them.  More rigorously,
 they *must not be invoked* because they *do not exist*.  They don't
 need to exist, because the machine doesn't need them to carry all the
 load and do all the work.

OTOH, they must exist because if you have two hydrogens and an oxygen,
you inevitably have the compound H2O. You also have many other
compounds which are not
dreamt of in our philosophy. the set of compounds is basically the
powerset of the set of basic entities. there may not be any objective
facts about what is a true compound, but the powerset
unproblematically includes everything we conventionally regard as a
compound as a powerset

 Now, many people might be prompted to object at this point that's not
 reducing, that's eliminating as though these terms could be kept
 distinct.  But I'm arguing that reductionism, consistently applied, is
 inescapably eliminative.  The hypothesis was that base-level events
 are self-sufficient and consequently must be granted metaphysical (and
 hence physical) reality.  Nothing else is required to explain why
 the machine exists and works, so nothing else need - or indeed can non-
 question-beggingly - be postulated.

Compounds aren't postulated as some separate set  of entities--they
are just set theoretic constructs put of what does exsit. H2O is not
distinct from the two H's and the O.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-17 Thread David Nyman
On 17 September 2010 13:33, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

 Compounds aren't postulated as some separate set  of entities--they
 are just set theoretic constructs put of what does exsit. H2O is not
 distinct from the two H's and the O.

That's exactly my point.  Think about it.

David



 On 26 Aug, 17:37, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:

 I should stress, again, I'm not personally committed to this view - it
 seems indeed highly problematic - but it is what the recipe says.
 Now, just to emphasise the point, when I say it's a hard thing to do
 this imaginatively, I mean that it isn't permissible to look back
 from this reductionist-god's eye view and continue to conjure familiar
 composite entities from the conjectural base components, because
 reductionism is a commitment to the proposition that these don't
 exist.

 not at all. reductionism is a commitment to the idea that
 all higher level entities are compounds and nothing but compounds,
 wholes
 which are exactly the sums of their parts.


Whatever composite categories we might be tempted to have
 recourse to - you know: molecules, cells, bodies, planets, ideas,
 explanations, theories, the whole ball of wax - none of these are
 available from this perspective.  Don't need them.  More rigorously,
 they *must not be invoked* because they *do not exist*.  They don't
 need to exist, because the machine doesn't need them to carry all the
 load and do all the work.

 OTOH, they must exist because if you have two hydrogens and an oxygen,
 you inevitably have the compound H2O. You also have many other
 compounds which are not
 dreamt of in our philosophy. the set of compounds is basically the
 powerset of the set of basic entities. there may not be any objective
 facts about what is a true compound, but the powerset
 unproblematically includes everything we conventionally regard as a
 compound as a powerset

 Now, many people might be prompted to object at this point that's not
 reducing, that's eliminating as though these terms could be kept
 distinct.  But I'm arguing that reductionism, consistently applied, is
 inescapably eliminative.  The hypothesis was that base-level events
 are self-sufficient and consequently must be granted metaphysical (and
 hence physical) reality.  Nothing else is required to explain why
 the machine exists and works, so nothing else need - or indeed can non-
 question-beggingly - be postulated.

 Compounds aren't postulated as some separate set  of entities--they
 are just set theoretic constructs put of what does exsit. H2O is not
 distinct from the two H's and the O.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-17 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

on 17.09.2010 14:33 1Z said the following:



On 26 Aug, 17:37, David Nymandavid.ny...@gmail.com  wrote:



...


Whatever composite categories we might be tempted to have recourse
to - you know: molecules, cells, bodies, planets, ideas,
explanations, theories, the whole ball of wax - none of these are
available from this perspective.  Don't need them.  More
rigorously, they *must not be invoked* because they *do not exist*.
They don't need to exist, because the machine doesn't need them to
carry all the load and do all the work.


OTOH, they must exist because if you have two hydrogens and an
oxygen, you inevitably have the compound H2O. You also have many
other compounds which are not dreamt of in our philosophy. the set of
compounds is basically the powerset of the set of basic entities.
there may not be any objective facts about what is a true compound,
but the powerset unproblematically includes everything we
conventionally regard as a compound as a powerset


The next citation by Robert B. Laughlin (Nobel laureate in physics) 
could be of interest here:


http://blog.rudnyi.ru/2010/08/matter-and-little-ghosts.html

By the most important effect of phase organisation is to cause objects 
to exist. This point is subtle and easily overlooked, since we are 
accustomed to thinking about solidification in terms of packing of 
Newtonian spheres. Atoms are not Newtonian spheres, however, but 
ethereal quantum-mechanical entities lacking that most central of all 
properties of an object – an identifiable position. This is why attempts 
to describe free atoms in Newtonian terms always result in nonsense 
statements such as their being neither here nor there but simultaneously 
everywhere. It is aggregation into large objects that makes a Newtonian 
description of the atoms meaningful, not the reverse. One might compare 
this phenomenon with a yet-to-be-filmed Stephen Spilberg movie in which 
a huge number of little ghosts lock arms and, in doing so, become 
corporeal.


Evgenii

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-17 Thread 1Z


On 17 Sep, 14:10, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:
 On 17 September 2010 13:33, 1Z peterdjo...@yahoo.com wrote:

  Compounds aren't postulated as some separate set  of entities--they
  are just set theoretic constructs put of what does exsit. H2O is not
  distinct from the two H's and the O.

 That's exactly my point.  Think about it.

I did. It turns out that compounds exist, but not primarily.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-17 Thread 1Z


On 17 Sep, 18:52, Evgenii Rudnyi use...@rudnyi.ru wrote:
 on 17.09.2010 14:33 1Z said the following:



  On 26 Aug, 17:37, David Nymandavid.ny...@gmail.com  wrote:

 ...

  Whatever composite categories we might be tempted to have recourse
  to - you know: molecules, cells, bodies, planets, ideas,
  explanations, theories, the whole ball of wax - none of these are
  available from this perspective.  Don't need them.  More
  rigorously, they *must not be invoked* because they *do not exist*.
  They don't need to exist, because the machine doesn't need them to
  carry all the load and do all the work.

  OTOH, they must exist because if you have two hydrogens and an
  oxygen, you inevitably have the compound H2O. You also have many
  other compounds which are not dreamt of in our philosophy. the set of
  compounds is basically the powerset of the set of basic entities.
  there may not be any objective facts about what is a true compound,
  but the powerset unproblematically includes everything we
  conventionally regard as a compound as a powerset

 The next citation by Robert B. Laughlin (Nobel laureate in physics)
 could be of interest here:

 http://blog.rudnyi.ru/2010/08/matter-and-little-ghosts.html

 By the most important effect of phase organisation is to cause objects
 to exist. This point is subtle and easily overlooked, since we are
 accustomed to thinking about solidification in terms of packing of
 Newtonian spheres. Atoms are not Newtonian spheres, however, but
 ethereal quantum-mechanical entities lacking that most central of all
 properties of an object an identifiable position. This is why attempts
 to describe free atoms in Newtonian terms always result in nonsense
 statements such as their being neither here nor there but simultaneously
 everywhere. It is aggregation into large objects that makes a Newtonian
 description of the atoms meaningful, not the reverse. One might compare
 this phenomenon with a yet-to-be-filmed Stephen Spilberg movie in which
 a huge number of little ghosts lock arms and, in doing so, become
 corporeal.

 Evgenii

Physics may well be less reductionist than the reductionism
of the philosophers. But the reductionism of the philosophers
still does not entail elimination

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RE: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-15 Thread Stephen P. King
Hi Bruno,

 

It seems that we need to discuss more basic ideas as it
seems that my attempted explanations are not bisimulating with your
thoughts.

 

From: everything-list@googlegroups.com
[mailto:everything-l...@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of Bruno Marchal
Sent: Tuesday, September 14, 2010 9:40 AM
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: What's wrong with this?

 

 

On 12 Sep 2010, at 21:43, Stephen P. King wrote:





Hi Bruno,

-Original Message-
From: everything-list@googlegroups.com
[mailto:everything-l...@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of Bruno Marchal
Sent: Saturday, September 11, 2010 11:36 AM
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: What's wrong with this?


On 11 Sep 2010, at 00:42, Stephen P. King wrote:




Hi Bruno,

 

-Original Message-

From: everything-list@googlegroups.com 

[mailto:everything-l...@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of Bruno Marchal

Sent: Friday, September 10, 2010 11:16 AM

To: everything-list@googlegroups.com

Subject: Re: What's wrong with this?

snip

***

Integers as Arithmetic Equivalence Classes and implications

 

by S. P. King

9/10/2010

 

Zero-ness

___

0 + 0 = 0

0 - 0 = 0

0^1 - 0^1 = 0

1 - 1 = 0

2 - 2 = 0

3 - 3 = 0

...

0 x 0 = 0

___

 

One-ness

___

0 + 1 = 1

1^1 + 0 = 1

1 - 0 = 1

1^1 - 0 = 1

2 - 1 = 1

3 - 2 = 1

4 - 3 = 1

.

1 x 1 = 1

2 / 2 = 1

3 / 3 = 1

4 / 4 = 1

.

_

 

Two-ness



1 + 1 = 2

1^1 + 1^1 = 2

0 + 2 = 2

3 - 1 = 2

4 - 2 = 2

5 - 3 = 2

.

4 / 2 = 2

6 / 3 = 2

8 / 4 = 2

..

___

Etc.

 

 

External symmetry = 3rd person aspect.

 

Each Class has aleph_null tuples and thus has the same
cardinality.

We could use the permutation symmetry over the cardinality to  

identify an external or 3rd person notion of Integer. This would generate a


notion of that is an Integer that is invariant to a change from one of the N


classes to another.

 

What would be the internal symmetry?

 

Internal Symmetries = 1st person aspect.

 

Note that we can substitute equivalent elements of the tuples
with

each other by the use of bracketing or some other push/pop method.  

This would ultimately show that the tuples are combinations of images  

of each other's elements so that there is 1) no primitive atom and 2) that
the

pattern of similarities and differences over this tapestry of combinatorics

would encode the operations of Arithmetic. Property 1 is the reason  

I use non-well founded set theory, by the way...

*

[BM]
It is difficult for me to follow. In ZF there is no atom, yet it is  
well-founded. Non well-foundedness is motivate by introducing set  
having themselves as elements, or having elements having elements ...  
having elements having the starting set as an element.

[SPK]

Yes, in my example above it seems to be the case that the N-ness
classes can have themselves as elements and so forth. For example, in the
Zero-ness class, there is a couple of 0s that are equaling 0 when added,
subtracted or multiplied. Is this not an example of an element having itself
as an element? My wording might be incorrect according to the usual
definition of class, etc. but I hope that my meanings are communicated.

[BM]

Honesty I am a bit lost.

 

[SPKnew] 

 

OK, did you make sense of the idea of representing Integer
with a sort of equivalence class that have members that are the arithmetic
generators or creators or acts that equal examples of the number? We can
think of 1 in the Platonic sense as the class of all arithmetic operations
that are equal to 1, 2 as the class of all arithmetic operations that equal
2, etc. OK, given that then it seems to follow that, say a 2 in the
operation that equals some other number is in a sense a mapping of the
entire class of 2 into that other class. Does this make sense so far?

 





snip
[SPK]

Let me quote something from Carlo Rovelli that I found in Quo
Vadis
Quantum Mechanics? referring to C. E. Shannon's 1949 book:

...the definition of Shannon, not the popular one, but the one in his book,
where you have two systems with many states, and there is a possible state
of the couple but there is only a restricted subset of all joint states.
Information is simply the way of counting the allowed joint possible states.
The fact that there is a common allowed state tells you that if you know
something about one system you also know something about the other one. This
is exactly what you need in communication theory when you have a channel, a
receiver and a transmitter. So I have two systems. If there is a quantum
correlation of the two, I can say that, if this system is UP, the other is
DOWN, and vice versa. This is what I mean by information, period.

I am attempting to be faithful to this definition.

Interestingly, it seems that since the equivalence classes that
I
pointed out above are countably infinite

Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-14 Thread Rex Allen
On Tue, Sep 14, 2010 at 9:40 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 On 12 Sep 2010, at 21:43, Stephen P. King wrote:
 The only
 explanation that I can think of for this is that the hope of an impersonal
 determinism that obtains from the block-static reality doctrine allows it
 adherents to avoid all notions of personal responsibility for their
 behaviors.


 On the contrary, it is explained that free-will and responsibility is
 unavoidable from inside. To use the determinacy of the big whole would be
 like to give a name to God, and that is explicitly making any Löbian machine
 inconsistent, and worth: incorrect.
 We are typically partially responsible for our normal futures.


Bertrand Russell:

Whatever may be thought about it as a matter of ultimate metaphysics,
it is quite clear that nobody believes it in practice. Everyone has
always believed that it is possible to train character; everyone has
always known that alcohol or opium will have a certain effect on
behaviour. The apostle of free will maintains that a man can by will
power avoid getting drunk, but he does not maintain that when drunk a
man can say British Constitution as clearly as if he were sober. And
everybody who has ever had to do with children knows that a suitable
diet does more to make them virtuous than the most eloquent preaching
in the world. The one effect that the free- will doctrine has in
practice is to prevent people from following out such common-sense
knowledge to its rational conclusion. When a man acts in ways that
annoy us we wish to think him wicked, and we refuse to face the fact
that his annoying behaviour is a result of antecedent causes which, if
you follow them long enough, will take you beyond the moment of his
birth and therefore to events for which he cannot be held responsible
by any stretch of imagination.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-14 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 14 Sep 2010, at 17:23, Rex Allen wrote:

On Tue, Sep 14, 2010 at 9:40 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 12 Sep 2010, at 21:43, Stephen P. King wrote:

The only
explanation that I can think of for this is that the hope of an  
impersonal
determinism that obtains from the block-static reality doctrine  
allows it

adherents to avoid all notions of personal responsibility for their
behaviors.



On the contrary, it is explained that free-will and responsibility is
unavoidable from inside. To use the determinacy of the big whole  
would be
like to give a name to God, and that is explicitly making any  
Löbian machine

inconsistent, and worth: incorrect.
We are typically partially responsible for our normal futures.



Bertrand Russell:

Whatever may be thought about it as a matter of ultimate metaphysics,
it is quite clear that nobody believes it in practice. Everyone has
always believed that it is possible to train character; everyone has
always known that alcohol or opium will have a certain effect on
behaviour. The apostle of free will maintains that a man can by will
power avoid getting drunk, but he does not maintain that when drunk a
man can say British Constitution as clearly as if he were sober. And
everybody who has ever had to do with children knows that a suitable
diet does more to make them virtuous than the most eloquent preaching
in the world. The one effect that the free- will doctrine has in
practice is to prevent people from following out such common-sense
knowledge to its rational conclusion. When a man acts in ways that
annoy us we wish to think him wicked, and we refuse to face the fact
that his annoying behaviour is a result of antecedent causes which, if
you follow them long enough, will take you beyond the moment of his
birth and therefore to events for which he cannot be held responsible
by any stretch of imagination.


Bertrand Russell has been my favorite philosopher during a long time  
in my youth. But he is deadly wrong on many things. He thought that  
mathematics can be based on logic alone, but this has been refuted by  
Gödel's theorem, and then that very theorem imposes to distinguish the  
knower machine and the believer (even when correct) machine, and  
actually forces us to introduce many different ways to see the  
arithmetical reality, from inside. The quoted text confuses the  
deterministic third person description of a (putative) reality, and  
the first person knowledge available to a subject living inside that  
reality.


Note that, having said this, I should insist that free will is NOT  
related to the first person indeterminacy, but free-will is related to  
the fact that we can have a rather good idea of what hurt and what  
please to oneself, and we can see that sometimes we can get personally  
a bigger amount of what please by methods leading to the hurting of  
other people, and that we can face our conscience and decide on its  
account.
To believe the contrary would lead to the confusion of the sadic (in  
Sade sense) with the psychopath, and it would lead to the substitution  
of the judge by the psychiatre, the jail by the asylum. This would  
converge toward authoritative regime and eventually every person would  
be judge irresponsible and would find itself in a controled asylum. A  
bit like modern prohibition of drugs, it is an self-prophetic path  
which makes people irresponsible, indeed.


Incompleteness provides for the ideally correct machine a coherent  
picture making it, from inside, partially responsible for its futures,  
including possible amounts of what please and what hurts to oneself  
and other machines.


The whole picture is determined, but as I said to Stephen, to invoke  
it from inside is a mechanist blasphem; it is akin to say that God  
told you what is good and bad for *me* (or anyone who is not you). It  
would be like saying that a sadist is not responsible for his action  
given that it obeyed strictly to the laws of physics when committing  
its murder. In Löbian term, it is a confusion between the Human  
(Löbian) first person experiences and exact (that is falsifiable!)  
third person science.


Mechanism explains why consciousness leads to conscience.

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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RE: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-12 Thread Stephen P. King
Hi Bruno,

-Original Message-
From: everything-list@googlegroups.com
[mailto:everything-l...@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of Bruno Marchal
Sent: Saturday, September 11, 2010 11:36 AM
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: What's wrong with this?


On 11 Sep 2010, at 00:42, Stephen P. King wrote:

 Hi Bruno,

 -Original Message-
 From: everything-list@googlegroups.com 
 [mailto:everything-l...@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of Bruno Marchal
 Sent: Friday, September 10, 2010 11:16 AM
 To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Subject: Re: What's wrong with this?


 On 09 Sep 2010, at 14:37, Stephen P. King wrote:

 Hi Bruno,

  My thought is to look at the transformation group around which some 
 property is invariant to act as a generator of the properties of the, 
 say, quark.
 [BM]
 Good idea. That is related with the importance of group theory and
 (soon) category theory in physics.


 For simple numbers this would be a permutation over fields, one field 
 per number,

 [BM]
 Why? We may have use combinators instead of numbers. Their role are 
 intensional, and representational. Their intrinsic mathematical 
 structure certainly plays some role, but I don't see why to use them 
 directly to mirror physics. Even if that works (by chance) it would 
 hidden the mind-body problem. Of course it might be very interesting, 
 and the relation between physics and number theory suggest that such 
 approach have their merits.

 [SPK]

   YES!!! You nailed it! Let me paste a little note here that I just
 wrote up. I apologize in advance for the crudeness of this.
 ***
 Integers as Arithmetic Equivalence Classes and implications

 by S. P. King
 9/10/2010

 Zero-ness
 ___
 0 + 0 = 0
 0 - 0 = 0
 0^1 - 0^1 = 0
 1 - 1 = 0
 2 - 2 = 0
 3 - 3 = 0
 ...
 0 x 0 = 0
 ___

 One-ness
 ___
 0 + 1 = 1
 1^1 + 0 = 1
 1 - 0 = 1
 1^1 - 0 = 1
 2 - 1 = 1
 3 - 2 = 1
 4 - 3 = 1
 .
 1 x 1 = 1
 2 / 2 = 1
 3 / 3 = 1
 4 / 4 = 1
 .
 _

 Two-ness
 
 1 + 1 = 2
 1^1 + 1^1 = 2
 0 + 2 = 2
 3 - 1 = 2
 4 - 2 = 2
 5 - 3 = 2
 .
 4 / 2 = 2
 6 / 3 = 2
 8 / 4 = 2
 ..
 ___
 Etc.


 External symmetry = 3rd person aspect.

   Each Class has aleph_null tuples and thus has the same cardinality.
 We could use the permutation symmetry over the cardinality to  
 identify an
 external or 3rd person notion of Integer. This would generate a  
 notion of
 that is an Integer that is invariant to a change from one of the N  
 classes
 to another.

   What would be the internal symmetry?

 Internal Symmetries = 1st person aspect.

   Note that we can substitute equivalent elements of the tuples with
 each other by the use of bracketing or some other push/pop method.  
 This
 would ultimately show that the tuples are combinations of images  
 of each
 other's elements so that there is 1) no primitive atom and 2) that the
 pattern of similarities and differences over this tapestry of  
 combinatorics
 would encode the operations of Arithmetic. Property 1 is the reason  
 I use
 non-well founded set theory, by the way...
 *
[BM]
It is difficult for me to follow. In ZF there is no atom, yet it is  
well-founded. Non well-foundedness is motivate by introducing set  
having themselves as elements, or having elements having elements ...  
having elements having the starting set as an element.

[SPK]

Yes, in my example above it seems to be the case that the N-ness
classes can have themselves as elements and so forth. For example, in the
Zero-ness class, there is a couple of 0s that are equaling 0 when added,
subtracted or multiplied. Is this not an example of an element having itself
as an element? My wording might be incorrect according to the usual
definition of class, etc. but I hope that my meanings are communicated.


   It is my suspicion that the mind-body problem is caused by a lack of
 understanding of what is involved. It is far too easy to throw up  
 one's
 hands and settle for some silly eliminatism; Ignorance is Bliss.  
 Notice that
 both the internal and external symmetry notions here yield a kind of
 indefiniteness that Plotinus would point to, as per your  
 discussions, to
 define Matter.

You should elaborate, but you should make clear the relation between  
math and philosophy/theology.

[SPK]]
Yes, I agree but I am sure that you can see that this is very
difficult to do.


 But what about the information content itself of the
 relations themselves? Is Information identical to Indeterminateness?
[BM]
Information is a tricky word having different meaning in different  
theories. It can be a measure of surprise, like in the old Shannon  
theory, or something related to meaning, like in logics and in the  
press. We can relate all that, but then we have to be almost formal  
for not falling in the traps of non genuine analogies.

[SPK]
 
Let me quote something from Carlo Rovelli that I found in Quo Vadis
Quantum Mechanics? referring to C. E. Shannon's

Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-11 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 11 Sep 2010, at 00:42, Stephen P. King wrote:


Hi Bruno,

-Original Message-
From: everything-list@googlegroups.com
[mailto:everything-l...@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of Bruno Marchal
Sent: Friday, September 10, 2010 11:16 AM
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: What's wrong with this?


On 09 Sep 2010, at 14:37, Stephen P. King wrote:


Hi Bruno,

My thought is to look at the transformation group around which some
property is invariant to act as a generator of the properties of the,
say, quark.

[BM]
Good idea. That is related with the importance of group theory and
(soon) category theory in physics.



For simple numbers this would be a permutation over fields, one field
per number,


[BM]
Why? We may have use combinators instead of numbers. Their role are
intensional, and representational. Their intrinsic mathematical  
structure

certainly plays some role, but I don't see why to use them directly to
mirror physics. Even if that works (by chance) it would hidden the  
mind-body
problem. Of course it might be very interesting, and the relation  
between
physics and number theory suggest that such approach have their  
merits.


[SPK]

YES!!! You nailed it! Let me paste a little note here that I just
wrote up. I apologize in advance for the crudeness of this.
***
Integers as Arithmetic Equivalence Classes and implications

by S. P. King
9/10/2010

Zero-ness
___
0 + 0 = 0
0 - 0 = 0
0^1 - 0^1 = 0
1 - 1 = 0
2 - 2 = 0
3 - 3 = 0
...
0 x 0 = 0
___

One-ness
___
0 + 1 = 1
1^1 + 0 = 1
1 - 0 = 1
1^1 - 0 = 1
2 - 1 = 1
3 - 2 = 1
4 - 3 = 1
.
1 x 1 = 1
2 / 2 = 1
3 / 3 = 1
4 / 4 = 1
.
_

Two-ness

1 + 1 = 2
1^1 + 1^1 = 2
0 + 2 = 2
3 - 1 = 2
4 - 2 = 2
5 - 3 = 2
.
4 / 2 = 2
6 / 3 = 2
8 / 4 = 2
..
___
Etc.


External symmetry = 3rd person aspect.

Each Class has aleph_null tuples and thus has the same cardinality.
We could use the permutation symmetry over the cardinality to  
identify an
external or 3rd person notion of Integer. This would generate a  
notion of
that is an Integer that is invariant to a change from one of the N  
classes

to another.

What would be the internal symmetry?

Internal Symmetries = 1st person aspect.

Note that we can substitute equivalent elements of the tuples with
each other by the use of bracketing or some other push/pop method.  
This
would ultimately show that the tuples are combinations of images  
of each

other's elements so that there is 1) no primitive atom and 2) that the
pattern of similarities and differences over this tapestry of  
combinatorics
would encode the operations of Arithmetic. Property 1 is the reason  
I use

non-well founded set theory, by the way...
*


It is difficult for me to follow. In ZF there is no atom, yet it is  
well-founded. Non well-foundedness is motivate by introducing set  
having themselves as elements, or having elements having elements ...  
having elements having the starting set as an element.






It is my suspicion that the mind-body problem is caused by a lack of
understanding of what is involved. It is far too easy to throw up  
one's
hands and settle for some silly eliminatism; Ignorance is Bliss.  
Notice that

both the internal and external symmetry notions here yield a kind of
indefiniteness that Plotinus would point to, as per your  
discussions, to

define Matter.


You should elaborate, but you should make clear the relation between  
math and philosophy/theology.





But what about the information content itself of the
relations themselves? Is Information identical to Indeterminateness?


Information is a tricky word having different meaning in different  
theories. It can be a measure of surprise, like in the old Shannon  
theory, or something related to meaning, like in logics and in the  
press. We can relate all that, but then we have to be almost formal  
for not falling in the traps of non genuine analogies.





It
seems to me that the answer is a resounding NO! I claim that it is  
its Dual.

Thus I advocate a form of mind-matter dualism in terms of an
Information-Matter dualism following the lines of the Pontryagin and  
Stone

dualities. http://en.academic.ru/dic.nsf/enwiki/327868


You may elaborate, but Stone dualities are very technical hard matter.  
I guess you are alluding to Vaughan Pratt's work on Chu Spaces.








but this seems to not really resolve the question entirely.


[BM]
I am not sure I have a clear idea of the question, here.

[SPK]

Am I making any sense so far?


It
makes me suspicious of the entire Platonic program, for what would  
act

as the universal generator of twoness as distinguished from
threeness be in-itself? Why not some kind of nominalism that
transforms asymptotically into universalism?

[BM]
You lost me.

You know how I work. I start from an assumption about some link  
between
consciousness and Turing 'machine', and from this I derived step by  
step a
frame

Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-10 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 09 Sep 2010, at 14:37, Stephen P. King wrote:


Hi Bruno,

My thought is to look at the transformation group around which some
property is invariant to act as a generator of the properties of  
the, say,

quark.


Good idea. That is related with the importance of group theory and  
(soon) category theory in physics.





For simple numbers this would be a permutation over fields, one field
per number,


Why? We may have use combinators instead of numbers. Their role are  
intensional, and representational. Their intrinsic mathematical  
structure certainly plays some role, but I don't see why to use them  
directly to mirror physics. Even if that works (by chance) it would  
hidden the mind-body problem. Of course it might be very interesting,  
and the relation between physics and number theory suggest that such  
approach have their merits.





but this seems to not really resolve the question entirely.



I am not sure I have a clear idea of the question, here.




It
makes me suspicious of the entire Platonic program, for what would  
act as
the universal generator of twoness as distinguished from  
threeness be
in-itself? Why not some kind of nominalism that transforms  
asymptotically

into universalism?


You lost me.

You know how I work. I start from an assumption about some link  
between consciousness and Turing 'machine', and from this I derived  
step by step a frame which is closer to Plato and Plotinus than to  
Aristotle, at least on the Matter notion.





BTW, I really enjoyed reading your SIENA paper. My only comment on
it is that I wish you would elaborate more on the diamond^alpha t  
aspect

because that is where plurality obtains.



Thanks. Actually I think, but I'm still not quite sure, that the  
^alpha feature should explain the graded aspect of the quantum  
logics, which should explains the origin of the tensor product, of the  
plurality of dimension, and eventually the (quantum) structure of  
space-time. The many worlds are more due to the extreme redundancy of  
the computational histories in arithmetic.


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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RE: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-10 Thread Stephen P. King
Hi Bruno,

-Original Message-
From: everything-list@googlegroups.com
[mailto:everything-l...@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of Bruno Marchal
Sent: Friday, September 10, 2010 11:16 AM
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: What's wrong with this?


On 09 Sep 2010, at 14:37, Stephen P. King wrote:

 Hi Bruno,

   My thought is to look at the transformation group around which some 
 property is invariant to act as a generator of the properties of the, 
 say, quark.
[BM]
Good idea. That is related with the importance of group theory and
(soon) category theory in physics.


 For simple numbers this would be a permutation over fields, one field 
 per number,

[BM]
Why? We may have use combinators instead of numbers. Their role are
intensional, and representational. Their intrinsic mathematical structure
certainly plays some role, but I don't see why to use them directly to
mirror physics. Even if that works (by chance) it would hidden the mind-body
problem. Of course it might be very interesting, and the relation between
physics and number theory suggest that such approach have their merits.

[SPK]

YES!!! You nailed it! Let me paste a little note here that I just
wrote up. I apologize in advance for the crudeness of this.
***
Integers as Arithmetic Equivalence Classes and implications

by S. P. King
9/10/2010

Zero-ness
___
0 + 0 = 0
0 - 0 = 0
0^1 - 0^1 = 0
1 - 1 = 0
2 - 2 = 0
3 - 3 = 0
...
0 x 0 = 0
___

One-ness
___
0 + 1 = 1
1^1 + 0 = 1
1 - 0 = 1 
1^1 - 0 = 1
2 - 1 = 1
3 - 2 = 1
4 - 3 = 1
.
1 x 1 = 1
2 / 2 = 1 
3 / 3 = 1
4 / 4 = 1
.
_

Two-ness

1 + 1 = 2
1^1 + 1^1 = 2
0 + 2 = 2
3 - 1 = 2 
4 - 2 = 2
5 - 3 = 2
.
4 / 2 = 2 
6 / 3 = 2 
8 / 4 = 2
..
___
Etc.


External symmetry = 3rd person aspect.

Each Class has aleph_null tuples and thus has the same cardinality.
We could use the permutation symmetry over the cardinality to identify an
external or 3rd person notion of Integer. This would generate a notion of
that is an Integer that is invariant to a change from one of the N classes
to another. 

What would be the internal symmetry?

Internal Symmetries = 1st person aspect.

Note that we can substitute equivalent elements of the tuples with
each other by the use of bracketing or some other push/pop method. This
would ultimately show that the tuples are combinations of images of each
other's elements so that there is 1) no primitive atom and 2) that the
pattern of similarities and differences over this tapestry of combinatorics
would encode the operations of Arithmetic. Property 1 is the reason I use
non-well founded set theory, by the way...
*

It is my suspicion that the mind-body problem is caused by a lack of
understanding of what is involved. It is far too easy to throw up one's
hands and settle for some silly eliminatism; Ignorance is Bliss. Notice that
both the internal and external symmetry notions here yield a kind of
indefiniteness that Plotinus would point to, as per your discussions, to
define Matter. But what about the information content itself of the
relations themselves? Is Information identical to Indeterminateness? It
seems to me that the answer is a resounding NO! I claim that it is its Dual.
Thus I advocate a form of mind-matter dualism in terms of an
Information-Matter dualism following the lines of the Pontryagin and Stone
dualities. http://en.academic.ru/dic.nsf/enwiki/327868


 but this seems to not really resolve the question entirely.

[BM]
I am not sure I have a clear idea of the question, here.

[SPK]

Am I making any sense so far?

 It
 makes me suspicious of the entire Platonic program, for what would act 
 as the universal generator of twoness as distinguished from 
 threeness be in-itself? Why not some kind of nominalism that 
 transforms asymptotically into universalism?
[BM]
You lost me.

You know how I work. I start from an assumption about some link between
consciousness and Turing 'machine', and from this I derived step by step a
frame which is closer to Plato and Plotinus than to Aristotle, at least on
the Matter notion.

[SPK]
Yes and I use the assumption that any 1st person content of
consciousness can be show to be equivalent to the content of some virtual
reality generated by a Turing Machine (given with sufficient physical
resources) and following your arguments will agree that while the content
itself is computable, *which one of the computations it is* that is the
actual generator of the particular content of a particular point of view is
not computational. These thoughts tie back to the point about
indeterminateness that Plotinus brilliantly made and you point out.

Your modelization so far seems to only consider a frozen
perspective and there is scant mention of how the model is extended to cover
a plurality of entities, except for the diamond^alpha aspect mentioned
below. As far as I can tell, your Model offers a logical structure to a new

Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 08 Sep 2010, at 20:28, Rex Allen wrote:

On Wed, Sep 8, 2010 at 10:50 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:



On 9/7/2010 1:48 PM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:



Having said this your point does not follow, in the sense that even  
if
consciousness supervenes on interactions of particles (non  
mechanism) this
would not prevents consciousness to retroact on the particles, like  
when a
painter moves ink and papers to express his artistic feelings.  
Another
example: we may argue that guns and atomic bombs are produced in  
part by

human fears.


But then what causes human fears?


Assuming Mechanism (and thus non-physicalism) we could say that very  
old self-referential subroutines cause human fear. It is the qualia  
associated with anything threatening our probability survival.






You could say quarks and electrons cause human fears which then cause
guns and bombs.


Not really. Quarks and electrons can locally play a role in the local  
and relative implementation of the subroutines above.





OR, you could say quarks and electrons cause human fears *and also
cause* guns and bombs.  Human fears being epiphenomenal and
non-causal.


This does not work because we already known that quark and electron  
exists relatively to us because our consciousness selects or filters  
the realities which sustain us consistently. Consciousness is more  
primitive than quarks and electrons. This is probably not obvious, but  
follows from the UDA. Consciousness is just inference by machine of  
their own consistency.






How could you tell which option was correct?


The first one is a bit closer to what we have to deduce from the  
digital mechanist hypothesis.





Human flesh and guns and bombs all boil down to specific arrangements
of quarks and electrons.  There's no mystery as to how one could lead
to the others.

The mystery is why there should be an experience of fear associated
certain arrangements of quarks and electrons and experiences of
happiness associated with other arrangements and (presumably) no
experience at all associated with yet other arrangements.


The mystery is solved when you understand that consciousness  
(immaterial) is a necessarily existing inference of machines  
(immaterial)  observing themselves, and that quarks and bombs are  
their constructs/filtration. Probably the quarks are much common in  
any Löbian observable (physical) reality, given that they come from  
quantum phenomena already build by the Löbian machines (infinitely  
more common in the arithmetical multi-dreams than humans).
The only mystery which remains is the qualia of the natural numbers  
itself, but this one is enough to explain why it is not humanly, nor  
Löbianly, solvable.


So everything, including a mystery, fit together nicely. And  
consciousness has a role: that reality-inference speed up the  
processes deepening our histories. The stability and persistence of  
observable reality needs that consciousness filtration.


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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RE: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-09 Thread Stephen P. King
Hi Bruno,

My thought is to look at the transformation group around which some
property is invariant to act as a generator of the properties of the, say,
quark. For simple numbers this would be a permutation over fields, one field
per number, but this seems to not really resolve the question entirely. It
makes me suspicious of the entire Platonic program, for what would act as
the universal generator of twoness as distinguished from threeness be
in-itself? Why not some kind of nominalism that transforms asymptotically
into universalism? 
BTW, I really enjoyed reading your SIENA paper. My only comment on
it is that I wish you would elaborate more on the diamond^alpha t aspect
because that is where plurality obtains.

Onward!

Stephen P. King



-Original Message-
From: everything-list@googlegroups.com
[mailto:everything-l...@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of Bruno Marchal
Sent: Thursday, September 09, 2010 4:42 AM
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: What's wrong with this?


snip

The mystery is solved when you understand that consciousness
(immaterial) is a necessarily existing inference of machines
(immaterial)  observing themselves, and that quarks and bombs are their
constructs/filtration. Probably the quarks are much common in any Löbian
observable (physical) reality, given that they come from quantum phenomena
already build by the Löbian machines (infinitely more common in the
arithmetical multi-dreams than humans).
The only mystery which remains is the qualia of the natural numbers itself,
but this one is enough to explain why it is not humanly, nor Löbianly,
solvable.

So everything, including a mystery, fit together nicely. And consciousness
has a role: that reality-inference speed up the processes deepening our
histories. The stability and persistence of observable reality needs that
consciousness filtration.

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/


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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-08 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 07 Sep 2010, at 23:13, Brent Meeker wrote:


On 9/7/2010 1:48 PM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:


on 07.09.2010 05:11 Rex Allen said the following:

On Mon, Sep 6, 2010 at 11:01 PM, Brent Meeker
meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:

On 9/6/2010 6:45 PM, Rex Allen wrote:


...


Put a different way:

According to physicalism conscious experience supervenes on quarks
and electrons.  Quarks and electrons do not supervene on conscious  
experience.




I have just read Vital Dust, The Origin and Evolution of Life on  
Earth by Christian de Duve. One citation from the chapter The  
Future of Life (p. 271).


We have reached a crucial state in the history of life. The face  
of the Earth has changed dramatically in the last few thousand  
years, a mere instant in evolution time, and it is changing ever  
faster. What would have taken one thousands generations in the past  
may now happen in a single generation. Biological evolution is on a  
runaway course toward severe instability.


In a way, our time recalls one of those major breaks in evolution  
signaled by massive extinctions. But there is a difference. The  
cause of instability is not the impact of a large asteroid or some  
other uncontrollable event. The perturbation is from life itself  
acting through a species of its own creation, an immensely  
successful species filling every corner of the planet with  
continually growing throngs, increasingly subjugating and  
exploiting the world. For the first time, also, in the history of  
life, natural selection has been replaced, be it only partly, by  
willful intervention on the part of a member of the bioshperic  
community. The facts are before us clear and unmistakable.  
Everybody can read the message and draw the obvious conclusions.


This means that conscious experience at least changes the movements  
of quarks and electrons.


I don't think that follows.  Maybe as Rex said, conscious experience  
supervenes on the interaction of particles.


In which case the interaction of particles is not Turing emulable. If  
*we* are Turing emulable (in the yes doctor sense), then physicalism  
is wrong, and consciousness, including bodies observations,  relies or  
supervenes on infinities of computations or number relations (or  
combinators relations, etc.).


Having said this your point does not follow, in the sense that even if  
consciousness supervenes on interactions of particles (non mechanism)  
this would not prevents consciousness to retroact on the particles,  
like when a painter moves ink and papers to express his artistic  
feelings. Another example: we may argue that guns and atomic bombs are  
produced in part by human fears.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-08 Thread John Mikes
Evgeniy,
you may read anything and the contrary of it. We have to make up *our own
mind* for ourselves, I mean: *not to persuade others to accept it*, yet
maybe *include* in our version whatever we find reasonable in all those
(contradictory?) opinions that have been published by smart scientists.

I could go with Brent's formulation: quarks etc. are figments of the model
we formulated in the 'physicalstic' train of explanations *till
yesterday*(my def. for 'up-to-date') while whatever we call
'consciousness, even
'conscious experience' is closer to the unlimited complexity - assumable as
a building block for the totality. So no wonder of the 'supervenience'
assigned.
We call I wrote showing my agnostic stance.

Your closing sentence is appreciable:

*This means that conscious experience at least changes the movements of
quarks and electrons*
inmy terms at least: considering the physicalist view as a figment of our
model-construct of whatever we so far know (learned through our epistemic
enrichment till yesterday).
I try to be more evasive and uncertain in my ignorance (agnosticism) of the
*TOTALITY - *
*my (our) *knowledge restricted to a portion of it only.
But the 'conventional science' is admirable, the technology it helped to
develop is incredible and ALMOST good - as I put it referring to the
(influencing) factors of the still unknow(n)(able) part of it. With
mathematical equations we substitute all of it for the part we already
know. No licence for the still unknown (maybe in Heisenberg's thinking yes).


I have no intention to engage in a physicalistic discussion which is beyond
me.

John M


On 9/7/10, Evgenii Rudnyi use...@rudnyi.ru wrote:

 on 07.09.2010 05:11 Rex Allen said the following:

 On Mon, Sep 6, 2010 at 11:01 PM, Brent Meeker
 meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:

 On 9/6/2010 6:45 PM, Rex Allen wrote:


 ...

 Put a different way:

 According to physicalism conscious experience supervenes on quarks
 and electrons.  Quarks and electrons do not supervene on conscious
 experience.


 I have just read Vital Dust, The Origin and Evolution of Life on Earth by
 Christian de Duve. One citation from the chapter The Future of Life (p.
 271).

 We have reached a crucial state in the history of life. The face of the
 Earth has changed dramatically in the last few thousand years, a mere
 instant in evolution time, and it is changing ever faster. What would have
 taken one thousands generations in the past may now happen in a single
 generation. Biological evolution is on a runaway course toward severe
 instability.

 In a way, our time recalls one of those major breaks in evolution signaled
 by massive extinctions. But there is a difference. The cause of instability
 is not the impact of a large asteroid or some other uncontrollable event.
 The perturbation is from life itself acting through a species of its own
 creation, an immensely successful species filling every corner of the planet
 with continually growing throngs, increasingly subjugating and exploiting
 the world. For the first time, also, in the history of life, natural
 selection has been replaced, be it only partly, by willful intervention on
 the part of a member of the bioshperic community. The facts are before us
 clear and unmistakable. Everybody can read the message and draw the obvious
 conclusions.

 This means that conscious experience at least changes the movements of
 quarks and electrons.

 Evgenii


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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-08 Thread Rex Allen
On Wed, Sep 8, 2010 at 10:50 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 On 9/7/2010 1:48 PM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:
 

 Having said this your point does not follow, in the sense that even if
 consciousness supervenes on interactions of particles (non mechanism) this
 would not prevents consciousness to retroact on the particles, like when a
 painter moves ink and papers to express his artistic feelings. Another
 example: we may argue that guns and atomic bombs are produced in part by
 human fears.

But then what causes human fears?

You could say quarks and electrons cause human fears which then cause
guns and bombs.

OR, you could say quarks and electrons cause human fears *and also
cause* guns and bombs.  Human fears being epiphenomenal and
non-causal.

How could you tell which option was correct?

Human flesh and guns and bombs all boil down to specific arrangements
of quarks and electrons.  There's no mystery as to how one could lead
to the others.

The mystery is why there should be an experience of fear associated
certain arrangements of quarks and electrons and experiences of
happiness associated with other arrangements and (presumably) no
experience at all associated with yet other arrangements.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-07 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

on 07.09.2010 05:11 Rex Allen said the following:

On Mon, Sep 6, 2010 at 11:01 PM, Brent Meeker
meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:

On 9/6/2010 6:45 PM, Rex Allen wrote:


...


Put a different way:

According to physicalism conscious experience supervenes on quarks
and electrons.  Quarks and electrons do not supervene on conscious 
experience.




I have just read Vital Dust, The Origin and Evolution of Life on Earth 
by Christian de Duve. One citation from the chapter The Future of Life 
(p. 271).


We have reached a crucial state in the history of life. The face of the 
Earth has changed dramatically in the last few thousand years, a mere 
instant in evolution time, and it is changing ever faster. What would 
have taken one thousands generations in the past may now happen in a 
single generation. Biological evolution is on a runaway course toward 
severe instability.


In a way, our time recalls one of those major breaks in evolution 
signaled by massive extinctions. But there is a difference. The cause of 
instability is not the impact of a large asteroid or some other 
uncontrollable event. The perturbation is from life itself acting 
through a species of its own creation, an immensely successful species 
filling every corner of the planet with continually growing throngs, 
increasingly subjugating and exploiting the world. For the first time, 
also, in the history of life, natural selection has been replaced, be it 
only partly, by willful intervention on the part of a member of the 
bioshperic community. The facts are before us clear and unmistakable. 
Everybody can read the message and draw the obvious conclusions.


This means that conscious experience at least changes the movements of 
quarks and electrons.


Evgenii

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-07 Thread Brent Meeker

On 9/7/2010 1:48 PM, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

on 07.09.2010 05:11 Rex Allen said the following:

On Mon, Sep 6, 2010 at 11:01 PM, Brent Meeker
meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:

On 9/6/2010 6:45 PM, Rex Allen wrote:


...


Put a different way:

According to physicalism conscious experience supervenes on quarks
and electrons.  Quarks and electrons do not supervene on conscious 
experience.




I have just read Vital Dust, The Origin and Evolution of Life on Earth 
by Christian de Duve. One citation from the chapter The Future of Life 
(p. 271).


We have reached a crucial state in the history of life. The face of 
the Earth has changed dramatically in the last few thousand years, a 
mere instant in evolution time, and it is changing ever faster. What 
would have taken one thousands generations in the past may now happen 
in a single generation. Biological evolution is on a runaway course 
toward severe instability.


In a way, our time recalls one of those major breaks in evolution 
signaled by massive extinctions. But there is a difference. The cause 
of instability is not the impact of a large asteroid or some other 
uncontrollable event. The perturbation is from life itself acting 
through a species of its own creation, an immensely successful species 
filling every corner of the planet with continually growing throngs, 
increasingly subjugating and exploiting the world. For the first time, 
also, in the history of life, natural selection has been replaced, be 
it only partly, by willful intervention on the part of a member of the 
bioshperic community. The facts are before us clear and unmistakable. 
Everybody can read the message and draw the obvious conclusions.


This means that conscious experience at least changes the movements of 
quarks and electrons.


I don't think that follows.  Maybe as Rex said, conscious experience 
supervenes on the interaction of particles.


Brent



Evgenii



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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-06 Thread Rex Allen
On Sat, Sep 4, 2010 at 11:07 PM, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
 On 9/4/2010 5:28 PM, Rex Allen wrote:
 That still makes them physicalist theories, not quasi-physicalist.  As
 long as the mad scientist and his vats/computers are physical.


 Does this mad scientist have free will, i.e. can he act independent of any
 physical constraints in our universe?  Then he's *super* our natural.

Hmmm.  This is a peculiar direction for you to go.  Why would I think
the mad scientist has free will?

Again, I don't even think free will is conceivable.

Every decision is either caused, or it's not caused.  I see no third option.

If the decision was not caused, then it's random.  No free will.

If the decision is caused, then what caused the cause?  And what
caused the cause of the cause?  And so on.  The decision is a link in
a causal chain which must eventually be traced outside the person
making the choice.  No free will.

I assume that by free will you mean that the mad scientist is
ultimately responsible for his actions.  But I don't see how that
could ever be the case.


 We'd just be inside the Matrix.  Nothing supernatural about that.


 Yes it is.  It's super our natural.  Anything can happen - no physical
 laws.

Anything can happen in dreams too - no physical laws apply there.  But
dreams aren't generally considered supernatural occurrences.

Being inside the Matrix is just like being inside a dream.  A more
coherent, orderly dream.  But a kind of dream nonetheless.

Assuming physicalism, the physical world causes our dream experiences.

Assuming physicalism, the physical world causes our Matrix experiences.

Finding out you were in the Matrix would be equivalent to realizing
you were in a dream.


 This is fine.  As long as you're not claiming that physicalism is
 superior to idealistic accidentalism by virtue of being falsifiable.


 I'm not.  But I claim that particular physical theories are falsifiable,
 whereas idealistic accidentalism either has no theories or has ones that are
 not falsifiable - depending on how you look at it.

But it doesn't matter that particular physical theories are
falsifiable, because in the event of falsification you will always
just fall back to another physical theory.  With the many-worlds
interpretation serving as an ultimate safety net.

Further, physicalism isn't necessary to formulate falsifiable
theories.  Take, for instance, idealistic occasionalism.  Here
mathematical theories would be interpreted as describing the patterns
behind God's causal interventions so that you can predict what God
will cause to happen next.  If your theory gets falsified then you
theorized incorrectly about the pattern behind God's actions.

The existence of God himself is taken as a given.  As the existence of
a physical substrate is taken as a given in physicalism.

However, note that both physicalism and idealistic occasionalism have
similar problems when you put yourself inside the framework of your
theory:  the formulation of the theories is a result of the underlying
mechanism that is being theorized about.

So if the idealistic occasionalist theorized correctly, this can only
be because God *caused* him to theorize correctly.

Alternatively, if the physicalist theorizes correctly, this can only
be because his universe's particular initial conditions and causal
laws *caused* him to theorize correctly.


 Indeed.  The same goes for the physical.

 What's good for the goose is good for the gander.


 Exactly my point.  What's your definition of physicalism?

I would say that physicalism is the claim that *all* conscious
experiences are due to the independent existence of some other more
fundamental set of entities (particles, fields, wavefunctions,
strings, whatever) whose nature must be such that their existence and
properties are (in principle) directly inferable from the details of
our sensory data and serve some role in generating that sensory data.

Note that the in principle qualifier is meant to include
counterfactuals...i.e., the existence and properties of these entities
*would be* directly inferable from the details of our sensory data if
some particular scenario were to occur.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-06 Thread Rex Allen
On Sun, Sep 5, 2010 at 3:13 PM, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:
 Brent and Rex:
 after many many discussions I suffered along - reading utter stupidity,

Ouch!

 this
 one is a refreshingly reasonable one.

Excellent!

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-06 Thread Brent Meeker

On 9/6/2010 6:45 PM, Rex Allen wrote:

On Sat, Sep 4, 2010 at 11:07 PM, Brent Meekermeeke...@dslextreme.com  wrote:
   

On 9/4/2010 5:28 PM, Rex Allen wrote:
 

That still makes them physicalist theories, not quasi-physicalist.  As
long as the mad scientist and his vats/computers are physical.

   

Does this mad scientist have free will, i.e. can he act independent of any
physical constraints in our universe?  Then he's *super* our natural.
 

Hmmm.  This is a peculiar direction for you to go.  Why would I think
the mad scientist has free will?

Again, I don't even think free will is conceivable.

Every decision is either caused, or it's not caused.  I see no third option.

If the decision was not caused, then it's random.  No free will.

If the decision is caused, then what caused the cause?  And what
caused the cause of the cause?  And so on.  The decision is a link in
a causal chain which must eventually be traced outside the person
making the choice.  No free will.

I assume that by free will you mean that the mad scientist is
ultimately responsible for his actions.  But I don't see how that
could ever be the case.


   

We'd just be inside the Matrix.  Nothing supernatural about that.

   

Yes it is.  It's super our natural.  Anything can happen - no physical
laws.
 

Anything can happen in dreams too - no physical laws apply there.  But
dreams aren't generally considered supernatural occurrences.

Being inside the Matrix is just like being inside a dream.  A more
coherent, orderly dream.  But a kind of dream nonetheless.

Assuming physicalism, the physical world causes our dream experiences.

Assuming physicalism, the physical world causes our Matrix experiences.

Finding out you were in the Matrix would be equivalent to realizing
you were in a dream.


   

This is fine.  As long as you're not claiming that physicalism is
superior to idealistic accidentalism by virtue of being falsifiable.

   

I'm not.  But I claim that particular physical theories are falsifiable,
whereas idealistic accidentalism either has no theories or has ones that are
not falsifiable - depending on how you look at it.
 

But it doesn't matter that particular physical theories are
falsifiable, because in the event of falsification you will always
just fall back to another physical theory.  With the many-worlds
interpretation serving as an ultimate safety net.

Further, physicalism isn't necessary to formulate falsifiable
theories.  Take, for instance, idealistic occasionalism.  Here
mathematical theories would be interpreted as describing the patterns
behind God's causal interventions so that you can predict what God
will cause to happen next.  If your theory gets falsified then you
theorized incorrectly about the pattern behind God's actions.

The existence of God himself is taken as a given.  As the existence of
a physical substrate is taken as a given in physicalism.

However, note that both physicalism and idealistic occasionalism have
similar problems when you put yourself inside the framework of your
theory:  the formulation of the theories is a result of the underlying
mechanism that is being theorized about.

So if the idealistic occasionalist theorized correctly, this can only
be because God *caused* him to theorize correctly.

Alternatively, if the physicalist theorizes correctly, this can only
be because his universe's particular initial conditions and causal
laws *caused* him to theorize correctly.


   

Indeed.  The same goes for the physical.

What's good for the goose is good for the gander.

   

Exactly my point.  What's your definition of physicalism?
 

I would say that physicalism is the claim that *all* conscious
experiences are due to the independent existence of some other more
fundamental set of entities (particles, fields, wavefunctions,
strings, whatever) whose nature must be such that their existence and
properties are (in principle) directly inferable from the details of
our sensory data and serve some role in generating that sensory data.
   


But in that case the conscious experiences and the existence of those 
particles are *not* independent.  Your definition seems incoherent.


Brent


Note that the in principle qualifier is meant to include
counterfactuals...i.e., the existence and properties of these entities
*would be* directly inferable from the details of our sensory data if
some particular scenario were to occur.

   


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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-06 Thread Rex Allen
On Mon, Sep 6, 2010 at 11:01 PM, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
 On 9/6/2010 6:45 PM, Rex Allen wrote:

 I would say that physicalism is the claim that *all* conscious
 experiences are due to the independent existence of some other more
 fundamental set of entities (particles, fields, wavefunctions,
 strings, whatever) whose nature must be such that their existence and
 properties are (in principle) directly inferable from the details of
 our sensory data and serve some role in generating that sensory data.


 But in that case the conscious experiences and the existence of those
 particles are *not* independent.  Your definition seems incoherent.

The words are due to is meant in the sense are dependent on.

The word independent was meant in the sense that the more
fundamental entities are not affected by conscious experience.

As an example of what I mean:

Conscious experience is *dependent* on the interactions of quarks and
electrons.

But quarks, electrons, their interactions are *independent* of
conscious experience.

The dependency flows one way.

Put a different way:

According to physicalism conscious experience supervenes on quarks and
electrons.  Quarks and electrons do not supervene on conscious
experience.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-05 Thread John Mikes
Brent and Rex:
after many many discussions I suffered along - reading utter stupidity, this
one is a refreshingly reasonable one.
Most assign to so called atheists arguments of 'almost believeing'
superstitionists. I don't call myself 'atheist',
with the name requiring a 'god' to not-believeing in. Also not a
physicalist, who requires 'physical' reasons to start
the universe (whatever). Nor any 'supernatural' since I find it 'natural' no
matter how esoteric an idea of the
beginnings may be (it belongs to nature, ha ha).

The question: ***Who said God is omnibeneficient? * is a precondition of
religious neoief, except for the Satanaites.
Beneficient as much, that the warring opponents, believeing in the 'same'
god expect it to desstroty the 'other one'
i.e. both do so. Of course it depends waht behavior would a certain culture
call 'beneficient'.
Upon the 'supernatural' argument SPK gave a good answer, unless we are
willing to call comp supernaturalG.

*...*but* the vast majority of people are already religiously inclined
*
*ALREADY?* rather *still,* since it is the mental evolutionary beginning
based on fear or on exalted and/or/ exploitive
arguments. Or we may call it a 'hereditary' gullibility of hearsay stories.
Let's forget about a popularity contest among
ignorant, gullible, or a plain mindless intimidated hearsay-ridden crowd.
Then comes enlarging our cognitive inventory:
Explaining the (still) mysterious, what is also covered by 'miraculous'.
Once we have learned the 'inner'(?) actions
(originative mechanism) it's not mysterious/miraculous anymore. Till then I
claim ignorance and call my own ignorance
an agnostic stance. Sounds more scientific.

Then again in 'physicalistic view': *infinite universe*? who identified
physically the* 'infinite'* (beyond the joke of a circle)?


















On 9/4/10, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:

 On 9/4/2010 12:45 AM, Rex Allen wrote:

 On Sat, Sep 4, 2010 at 2:58 AM, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com 
 meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:


 You've made up some just-so stories about how some other quasi-physical
 explanation *might* be adopted.


 In what way are my proposed explanations quasi-physical instead of
 just physical?



 Brain-in-vat and the-universe-as-a-computer-simulation are not really
 physical theories since they assume that everything we consider physical
 just exists at the whim of some mad scientist.

You haven't show that they *would* be
 preferred to supernatural ones.


 I don't need to show that they would be preferred.  I just need to
 show that physicalism is still a live option, and thus not
 falsifiable.

 And honestly I find my proposed explanations more plausible than
 supernatural ones.  While God would explain the Sikhs prayer thing,
 that also runs into the problem of evil.



 Who said God is omnibeneficient?

 The simulation argument alone is enough to see off any God-based
 competition.


 No, it's just a another conception of God - the world is still created and
 formed by a supernatural agent.

 Anyone who already leans in that direction would
 probably take this option over God in the event of an outbreak of
 miracles.

 Initially I'm sure the vast majority of people would be convinced of a
 supernatural explanation for OBEs or healing prayer...*but* the vast
 majority of people are already religiously inclined.  So I'm not sure
 that a popularity contest counts.

 I'd bet that the majority of atheists would choose one of my
 proposals, or maybe come up with an even better physicalist
 alternative.




 You can always speculate that any
 regularity we note is just a false positive  that in inevitable in an
 infinite universe - but that will convince no one.


 No one is way too strong.  It would convince some.

 Also you could conclude that we'd wondered into a low-probability
 branch of the universal wave function a-la the many worlds
 interpretation.

 I think all many worlders would take this interpretation of events
 if there were an outbreak of miracles.  Do you disagree?

 And the many world interpretation isn't that different than the
 infinite universe option.



 That's one of the criticisms of many-worlds.  If the theory can't derive
 the Born rules then it's not falsifiable, even in a probabilistic sense.

 I think this argument though is ill defined.  Physicalism or naturalism
 isn't a particular theory anymore that supernaturalism or everythingism
 or Platonism is.  It's kind of metaphysics which says some things exist
 and some don't, and things that exist are ones we can in some sense interact
 with (If you kick it, it kicks back. is the slogan).  But generally
 metatheories aren't testable in the same sense that theories are.  If you
 want to test whether God exists, you first need to make your definition of
 God sufficiently precise to make some inferences about what would or
 wouldn't be the case if God did or didn't exist.

 Brent

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-04 Thread Brent Meeker

On 9/3/2010 12:49 PM, Rex Allen wrote:

On Fri, Sep 3, 2010 at 12:46 AM, Brent Meekermeeke...@dslextreme.com  wrote:
   

Scientifically I think there are possible data
that would count as evidence against physicalism.  For example, if persons
reporting out-of-body experiences could actually gain knowledge not
otherwise available via these experiences.  Another example would be prayer
healing studies.  If it happened that prayers by say Sikhs were effective
with statistical significance while prayers by other religionists were not;
that would be strong evidence against physicalism.
 

First, one might prefer the physicalist Nick Bostrom style
explanation that we are in a computer simulation over adopting a
supernatural explanation.  In effect making God physical.  The deity
outside the computer simulation can arrange things however he
likes...including allowing OBEs and Sikh prayer healing.  Or those
might be a sign of a flaw in the simulation's programming.

Second, both OBEs and Sikh prayer healing might be explained by
entanglement style action at a distance mechanisms.  Certainly one
could start with that claim, quantum mechanics having already blazed
the trail.  Why only Sikh healing?  Well, presumably different beliefs
would be associated with different physical brain structures, and
maybe only some brain structures have the right triggering
configuration.

Third, even without action at a distance or resonant brain structures,
there's still the equivalent of dark matter style explanations.
That there is an additional physical layer that only weakly (and maybe
probabilistically) interacts with the layer we have relatively easy
access to.

If the OBE/prayer process could be mathematically modeled, then it
would just be a matter of assigning physical interpretations to the
equations of the model.  As the Many Worlds, consistent histories,
copenhagen, and Bohmian interpretations do for quantum mechanics.

And again, it seems to me that in an infinite universe, SOMEWHERE
someone should find what seems to be statistically significant
evidence of Sikh prayer healing and OBEs.  Since it seems to me that
in enough trials with all possible initial conditions and all possible
outcomes of probabilistic causal laws, *someone* should see a false
positive...in fact, a lot of false positives.  So many false positives
as to establish reasonable belief that there is a causal connection.

And that's just off the top of my head.

So, I don't see how OBEs or prayer healing would in any way falsify
physicalism, or even dent it.


You've made up some just-so stories about how some other quasi-physical 
explanation *might* be adopted.  You haven't show that they *would* be 
preferred to supernatural ones.  You can always speculate that any 
regularity we note is just a false positive  that in inevitable in an 
infinite universe - but that will convince no one.


Brent



Though they might demolish the Standard
Model.


   

An idealistic accidentalist would take an instrumentalist view of
quantum mechanics.  As opposed to some form of scientific realism that
a physicalist might support.

   

Many physicists take an instrumentalist view of quantum mechanics, c.f.
Asher Peres  graduate textbook.
 

For the record, I didn't claim that physicalism entailed scientific realism.

   


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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-04 Thread Rex Allen
On Sat, Sep 4, 2010 at 2:58 AM, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:

 You've made up some just-so stories about how some other quasi-physical
 explanation *might* be adopted.

In what way are my proposed explanations quasi-physical instead of
just physical?


 You haven't show that they *would* be
 preferred to supernatural ones.

I don't need to show that they would be preferred.  I just need to
show that physicalism is still a live option, and thus not
falsifiable.

And honestly I find my proposed explanations more plausible than
supernatural ones.  While God would explain the Sikhs prayer thing,
that also runs into the problem of evil.

The simulation argument alone is enough to see off any God-based
competition.  Anyone who already leans in that direction would
probably take this option over God in the event of an outbreak of
miracles.

Initially I'm sure the vast majority of people would be convinced of a
supernatural explanation for OBEs or healing prayer...*but* the vast
majority of people are already religiously inclined.  So I'm not sure
that a popularity contest counts.

I'd bet that the majority of atheists would choose one of my
proposals, or maybe come up with an even better physicalist
alternative.


 You can always speculate that any
 regularity we note is just a false positive  that in inevitable in an
 infinite universe - but that will convince no one.

No one is way too strong.  It would convince some.

Also you could conclude that we'd wondered into a low-probability
branch of the universal wave function a-la the many worlds
interpretation.

I think all many worlders would take this interpretation of events
if there were an outbreak of miracles.  Do you disagree?

And the many world interpretation isn't that different than the
infinite universe option.

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Re: What's wrong with this? (And Another Thing edition)

2010-09-04 Thread Rex Allen
On Sat, Sep 4, 2010 at 2:58 AM, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
 You can always speculate that any
 regularity we note is just a false positive  that in inevitable in an
 infinite universe - but that will convince no one.

Also, I think you're underestimating the extent to which people will
re-evaluate their estimates of what's likely and unlikely when
presented with scientific evidence for OBEs and Sikh prayer healing.

A lot of things that had sounded far-fetched before will sound much
more plausible when set against the reality of OBEs and Sikh prayer
healing.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-04 Thread Brent Meeker

On 9/4/2010 12:45 AM, Rex Allen wrote:

On Sat, Sep 4, 2010 at 2:58 AM, Brent Meekermeeke...@dslextreme.com  wrote:
   

You've made up some just-so stories about how some other quasi-physical
explanation *might* be adopted.
 

In what way are my proposed explanations quasi-physical instead of
just physical?
   


Brain-in-vat and the-universe-as-a-computer-simulation are not really 
physical theories since they assume that everything we consider physical 
just exists at the whim of some mad scientist.




   

  You haven't show that they *would* be
preferred to supernatural ones.
 

I don't need to show that they would be preferred.  I just need to
show that physicalism is still a live option, and thus not
falsifiable.

And honestly I find my proposed explanations more plausible than
supernatural ones.  While God would explain the Sikhs prayer thing,
that also runs into the problem of evil.
   


Who said God is omnibeneficient?


The simulation argument alone is enough to see off any God-based
competition.


No, it's just a another conception of God - the world is still created 
and formed by a supernatural agent.



Anyone who already leans in that direction would
probably take this option over God in the event of an outbreak of
miracles.

Initially I'm sure the vast majority of people would be convinced of a
supernatural explanation for OBEs or healing prayer...*but* the vast
majority of people are already religiously inclined.  So I'm not sure
that a popularity contest counts.

I'd bet that the majority of atheists would choose one of my
proposals, or maybe come up with an even better physicalist
alternative.


   

You can always speculate that any
regularity we note is just a false positive  that in inevitable in an
infinite universe - but that will convince no one.
 

No one is way too strong.  It would convince some.

Also you could conclude that we'd wondered into a low-probability
branch of the universal wave function a-la the many worlds
interpretation.

I think all many worlders would take this interpretation of events
if there were an outbreak of miracles.  Do you disagree?

And the many world interpretation isn't that different than the
infinite universe option.
   


That's one of the criticisms of many-worlds.  If the theory can't derive 
the Born rules then it's not falsifiable, even in a probabilistic sense.


I think this argument though is ill defined.  Physicalism or 
naturalism isn't a particular theory anymore that supernaturalism or 
everythingism or Platonism is.  It's kind of metaphysics which says 
some things exist and some don't, and things that exist are ones we can 
in some sense interact with (If you kick it, it kicks back. is the 
slogan).  But generally metatheories aren't testable in the same sense 
that theories are.  If you want to test whether God exists, you first 
need to make your definition of God sufficiently precise to make some 
inferences about what would or wouldn't be the case if God did or didn't 
exist.


Brent

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RE: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-04 Thread Stephen P. King
Dear Brent,

 

From: everything-list@googlegroups.com
[mailto:everything-l...@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of Brent Meeker
Sent: Saturday, September 04, 2010 7:39 PM
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: What's wrong with this?

 

On 9/4/2010 12:45 AM, Rex Allen wrote: 

On Sat, Sep 4, 2010 at 2:58 AM, Brent Meeker
mailto:meeke...@dslextreme.com meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
  

 
You've made up some just-so stories about how some other quasi-physical
explanation *might* be adopted.


 
In what way are my proposed explanations quasi-physical instead of
just physical?
  


Brain-in-vat and the-universe-as-a-computer-simulation are not really
physical theories since they assume that everything we consider physical
just exists at the whim of some mad scientist.




[SPK]
I disagree strongly! Is the mad scientist not
constrained by its equivalent to physical laws? AFAIK, the brain-in-vat and
universe-as-a-computer-simulation are related thought experiments that allow
us to think more deeply about our tacit assumptions about our world and
ourselves. Maybe you might help us to better understand your thoughts by
explaining what physical means to you.
 
  

 You haven't show that they *would* be
preferred to supernatural ones.


 
I don't need to show that they would be preferred.  I just need to
show that physicalism is still a live option, and thus not
falsifiable.
 
And honestly I find my proposed explanations more plausible than
supernatural ones.  While God would explain the Sikhs prayer thing,
that also runs into the problem of evil.
  


Who said God is omnibeneficient?

[SPK]

Who said that the term even applied? I think that any
anthropomorphic notions of deity would be subject to a thorough examination.
The mere idea that we can adjoin the term omni with some other
anthropomorphic term seems to be oxymoronic from the start. This gets to
John Mikes discomfort with the indiscriminate use to the term all, a
discomfort that I share.

 

 
The simulation argument alone is enough to see off any God-based
competition.  


No, it's just a another conception of God - the world is still created and
formed by a supernatural agent.

[SPK]

How so? Is a computational system with sufficient resources
unable to generate a simulation of the universe that we experience? We are
not talking about the actual construction or specification of such, only the
mere possibility that such a system could exist.

 

Anyone who already leans in that direction would
probably take this option over God in the event of an outbreak of
miracles.
 
Initially I'm sure the vast majority of people would be convinced of a
supernatural explanation for OBEs or healing prayer...*but* the vast
majority of people are already religiously inclined.  So I'm not sure
that a popularity contest counts.
 
I'd bet that the majority of atheists would choose one of my
proposals, or maybe come up with an even better physicalist
alternative.
 
 
  

You can always speculate that any
regularity we note is just a false positive  that in inevitable in an
infinite universe - but that will convince no one.


 
No one is way too strong.  It would convince some.
 
Also you could conclude that we'd wondered into a low-probability
branch of the universal wave function a-la the many worlds
interpretation.
 
I think all many worlders would take this interpretation of events
if there were an outbreak of miracles.  Do you disagree?
 
And the many world interpretation isn't that different than the
infinite universe option.
  


That's one of the criticisms of many-worlds.  If the theory can't derive the
Born rules then it's not falsifiable, even in a probabilistic sense.



[SPK]

Hold on just a moment, Brent. The derivation of the Born rules is still not
a settled issue in the sense that we don't have a single theory that would
explain how the Born rule is even a necessary condition. I would love to be
wrong on this latter claim. J


I think this argument though is ill defined.  Physicalism or naturalism
isn't a particular theory anymore that supernaturalism or everythingism
or Platonism is.  It's kind of metaphysics which says some things exist
and some don't, and things that exist are ones we can in some sense interact
with (If you kick it, it kicks back. is the slogan).  But generally
metatheories aren't testable in the same sense that theories are.  If you
want to test whether God exists, you first need to make your definition of
God sufficiently precise to make some inferences about what would or
wouldn't be the case if God did or didn't exist.

Brent

 

[SPK]

We can judge a metatheory by examination of its logical
consequences, the good 'ol GIGO rule still applies. J

 

Onward!

 

Stephen P. King

 

 

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-04 Thread Rex Allen
On Sat, Sep 4, 2010 at 7:38 PM, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
 On 9/4/2010 12:45 AM, Rex Allen wrote:
 In what way are my proposed explanations quasi-physical instead of
 just physical?


 Brain-in-vat and the-universe-as-a-computer-simulation are not really
 physical theories since they assume that everything we consider physical
 just exists at the whim of some mad scientist.

That still makes them physicalist theories, not quasi-physicalist.  As
long as the mad scientist and his vats/computers are physical.



 And honestly I find my proposed explanations more plausible than
 supernatural ones.  While God would explain the Sikhs prayer thing,
 that also runs into the problem of evil.


 Who said God is omnibeneficient?

The Sikhs.


 The simulation argument alone is enough to see off any God-based
 competition.

 No, it's just a another conception of God - the world is still created and
 formed by a supernatural agent.

We'd just be inside the Matrix.  Nothing supernatural about that.



 I think all many worlders would take this interpretation of events
 if there were an outbreak of miracles.  Do you disagree?
 And the many world interpretation isn't that different than the
 infinite universe option.


 That's one of the criticisms of many-worlds.  If the theory can't derive the
 Born rules then it's not falsifiable, even in a probabilistic sense.

See?  Physicalism isn't falsifiable.  It falls into the same category
as idealistic accidentalism.

And thus, according to Quentin, is worthless.

Specific scientific theories that posit the existence of particular
physical entities are falsifiable, but in no sense does physicalism
stand or fall with them.


 I think this argument though is ill defined.  Physicalism or naturalism
 isn't a particular theory anymore that supernaturalism or everythingism
 or Platonism is.

The Merriam Webster dictionary shows 9 definitions for the word
theory.  I'm pretty certain that our usage here fits at least one of
them.


 It's kind of metaphysics which says some things exist
 and some don't, and things that exist are ones we can in some sense interact
 with (If you kick it, it kicks back. is the slogan).  But generally
 metatheories aren't testable in the same sense that theories are.

This is fine.  As long as you're not claiming that physicalism is
superior to idealistic accidentalism by virtue of being falsifiable.


 If you
 want to test whether God exists, you first need to make your definition of
 God sufficiently precise to make some inferences about what would or
 wouldn't be the case if God did or didn't exist.

Indeed.  The same goes for the physical.

What's good for the goose is good for the gander.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-04 Thread Brent Meeker

On 9/4/2010 5:28 PM, Rex Allen wrote:

On Sat, Sep 4, 2010 at 7:38 PM, Brent Meekermeeke...@dslextreme.com  wrote:
   

On 9/4/2010 12:45 AM, Rex Allen wrote:
 

In what way are my proposed explanations quasi-physical instead of
just physical?

   

Brain-in-vat and the-universe-as-a-computer-simulation are not really
physical theories since they assume that everything we consider physical
just exists at the whim of some mad scientist.
 

That still makes them physicalist theories, not quasi-physicalist.  As
long as the mad scientist and his vats/computers are physical.
   


Does this mad scientist have free will, i.e. can he act independent of 
any physical constraints in our universe?  Then he's *super* our natural.





   

And honestly I find my proposed explanations more plausible than
supernatural ones.  While God would explain the Sikhs prayer thing,
that also runs into the problem of evil.

   

Who said God is omnibeneficient?
 

The Sikhs.
   
I never heard that.  Pick another supenatural being to pray to then - 
it's just an example.
   

The simulation argument alone is enough to see off any God-based
competition.
   

No, it's just a another conception of God - the world is still created and
formed by a supernatural agent.
 

We'd just be inside the Matrix.  Nothing supernatural about that.
   


Yes it is.  It's super our natural.  Anything can happen - no physical 
laws.





   

I think all many worlders would take this interpretation of events
if there were an outbreak of miracles.  Do you disagree?
And the many world interpretation isn't that different than the
infinite universe option.

   

That's one of the criticisms of many-worlds.  If the theory can't derive the
Born rules then it's not falsifiable, even in a probabilistic sense.
 

See?  Physicalism isn't falsifiable.  It falls into the same category
as idealistic accidentalism.
   


But you're equating naturalism with a particular theory.


And thus, according to Quentin, is worthless.

Specific scientific theories that posit the existence of particular
physical entities are falsifiable, but in no sense does physicalism
stand or fall with them.


   

I think this argument though is ill defined.  Physicalism or naturalism
isn't a particular theory anymore that supernaturalism or everythingism
or Platonism is.
 

The Merriam Webster dictionary shows 9 definitions for the word
theory.  I'm pretty certain that our usage here fits at least one of
them.


   

It's kind of metaphysics which says some things exist
and some don't, and things that exist are ones we can in some sense interact
with (If you kick it, it kicks back. is the slogan).  But generally
metatheories aren't testable in the same sense that theories are.
 

This is fine.  As long as you're not claiming that physicalism is
superior to idealistic accidentalism by virtue of being falsifiable.
   


I'm not.  But I claim that particular physical theories are falsifiable, 
whereas idealistic accidentalism either has no theories or has ones that 
are not falsifiable - depending on how you look at it.




   

If you
want to test whether God exists, you first need to make your definition of
God sufficiently precise to make some inferences about what would or
wouldn't be the case if God did or didn't exist.
 

Indeed.  The same goes for the physical.

What's good for the goose is good for the gander.
   


Exactly my point.  What's your definition of physicalism?

Brent


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Re: What's wrong with this? (a side question)

2010-09-03 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 02 Sep 2010, at 19:23, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:


on 02.09.2010 17:57 Bruno Marchal said the following:
...


Science is only collection of theories, and statements derive in
those theories, and intepretation rules, and confirmation modus
operandi. Only layman and engineers have to hope that their theories
fits enough a reality.
The theories and the reasoning can be presented informally or
formally. Rigor has nothing to do with formalization, but a lot to do
with clarity. It is also better that the theory/assumption are shared
by many, because ... it is more fun.


How would you define what a physical law is?


Empirically: physical laws are the laws which can relate what I can  
observe and share with others.


Assuming digital mechanism, after the UDA reasoning,  the physical  
laws are no more primitive laws, inferable from observation, but they  
emerge from the coupling consciousness/reality itself emerging from  
the additive/multiplicative structure of numbers. The laws of physics  
are no more fundamental. The emergence is enough constrained as to  
make the mechanist assumption testable. If we are in a 'matrix', we  
can verify it. (mechanism entails we are in a matrix, actually in an  
infinities of matrix, existing platonistically in the structure of  
numbers+addition+multiplication. Note that this makes the ultimate  
physical laws much more solid: such laws are shown to have a reason.






The reason I am asking is that recently I have read The Elegant  
Universe by Brian Green about the superstring theory. For some  
reasons physicists insist that they can find Equation of Everything.


Physicists have a tradition of putting mind and consciousness under  
the rug, and they usually confuse everything with everything-physical.  
This has been a fertile methodological simplification, but it breaks  
in front of the 'hard consciousness problem', or the mind-body problem.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: What's wrong with this? (a side question)

2010-09-03 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

on 03.09.2010 10:10 Bruno Marchal said the following:


On 02 Sep 2010, at 19:23, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:


on 02.09.2010 17:57 Bruno Marchal said the following: ...

Science is only collection of theories, and statements derive in 
those theories, and intepretation rules, and confirmation modus 
operandi. Only layman and engineers have to hope that their

theories fits enough a reality. The theories and the reasoning
can be presented informally or formally. Rigor has nothing to do
with formalization, but a lot to do with clarity. It is also
better that the theory/assumption are shared by many, because ...
it is more fun.


How would you define what a physical law is?


Empirically: physical laws are the laws which can relate what I can 
observe and share with others.


How to distinguish then a law and a correlation?


Assuming digital mechanism, after the UDA reasoning,  the physical
laws are no more primitive laws, inferable from observation, but they
emerge from the coupling consciousness/reality itself emerging from
the additive/multiplicative structure of numbers. The laws of physics
are no more fundamental. The emergence is enough constrained as to
make the mechanist assumption testable. If we are in a 'matrix', we
can verify it. (mechanism entails we are in a matrix, actually in an
infinities of matrix, existing platonistically in the structure of 
numbers+addition+multiplication. Note that this makes the ultimate 
physical laws much more solid: such laws are shown to have a reason.


Let me continue with my question. So we have observations and then we 
make some model. It could be of empirical nature or we say that this 
model is a law. How do we know when a model becomes a law?


The reason I am asking is that recently I have read The Elegant 
Universe by Brian Green about the superstring theory. For some

reasons physicists insist that they can find Equation of
Everything.


Physicists have a tradition of putting mind and consciousness under
the rug, and they usually confuse everything with
everything-physical. This has been a fertile methodological
simplification, but it breaks in front of the 'hard consciousness
problem', or the mind-body problem.


Could you please recommend some modern books in this respect?

Say I have just listened to audio book

Best of the Brain from Scientific American: Mind, Matter, and Tomorrow’s 
Brain

http://blog.rudnyi.ru/2010/09/what-crazy-scientists-make-with-brain-nowadays.html

and they have found an effective way to treat depression: plant an 
electrode to some brain area (area 25) and put a voltage. Could it be 
also a way in the future to solve the mind-body problem? A couple of 
electrodes, some voltage pattern, and that's it?


Evgenii

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Re: What's wrong with this? (a side question)

2010-09-03 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 03 Sep 2010, at 15:55, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:


on 03.09.2010 10:10 Bruno Marchal said the following:

On 02 Sep 2010, at 19:23, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

on 02.09.2010 17:57 Bruno Marchal said the following: ...
Science is only collection of theories, and statements derive in  
those theories, and intepretation rules, and confirmation modus  
operandi. Only layman and engineers have to hope that their

theories fits enough a reality. The theories and the reasoning
can be presented informally or formally. Rigor has nothing to do
with formalization, but a lot to do with clarity. It is also
better that the theory/assumption are shared by many, because ...
it is more fun.

How would you define what a physical law is?
Empirically: physical laws are the laws which can relate what I can  
observe and share with others.


How to distinguish then a law and a correlation?


By doing the correct statistics, we can *infer* laws from observation.  
But this needs always some theory in the background.







Assuming digital mechanism, after the UDA reasoning,  the physical
laws are no more primitive laws, inferable from observation, but they
emerge from the coupling consciousness/reality itself emerging from
the additive/multiplicative structure of numbers. The laws of physics
are no more fundamental. The emergence is enough constrained as to
make the mechanist assumption testable. If we are in a 'matrix', we
can verify it. (mechanism entails we are in a matrix, actually in an
infinities of matrix, existing platonistically in the structure of  
numbers+addition+multiplication. Note that this makes the ultimate  
physical laws much more solid: such laws are shown to have a reason.


Let me continue with my question. So we have observations and then  
we make some model.


Before mechanism, I insist.  Mechanism says that physical laws have to  
deduced from number theory/computer science. In principle we need no  
more observation than the trivial assessment of our own  
consciousness, and then some introspective work. This is not  
practical, but the goal is to solve conceptually the mind body  
problem, not to predict physical phenomena.
The conceptual advantage of mechanism is that it gives directly the  
correct physics (correct with respect to mechanism!). With observation  
we can never be sure that the laws are only local, if not based on  
lucky correlations, or hallucinated.





It could be of empirical nature or we say that this model is a law.  
How do we know when a model becomes a law?



Never. But in science we never know. We may believe in a theory, for a  
time. Or we may derive a laws from another theory, on which we already  
*bet*. It is always a sort of bet. Science search truth, but never  
know when it finds it. Of course the more you derive from simple  
hypotheses, the more you can be confident for the theory, but it is  
confidence, never certainty.
Actually, this is a theorem of machine psychology : assertable  
certainty is *only* a symptom of madness.





The reason I am asking is that recently I have read The Elegant  
Universe by Brian Green about the superstring theory. For some

reasons physicists insist that they can find Equation of
Everything.

Physicists have a tradition of putting mind and consciousness under
the rug, and they usually confuse everything with
everything-physical. This has been a fertile methodological
simplification, but it breaks in front of the 'hard consciousness
problem', or the mind-body problem.


Could you please recommend some modern books in this respect?

Say I have just listened to audio book

Best of the Brain from Scientific American: Mind, Matter, and  
Tomorrow’s Brain

http://blog.rudnyi.ru/2010/09/what-crazy-scientists-make-with-brain-nowadays.html

and they have found an effective way to treat depression: plant an  
electrode to some brain area (area 25) and put a voltage. Could it  
be also a way in the future to solve the mind-body problem? A couple  
of electrodes, some voltage pattern, and that's it?


Not at all. If we accept mechanism, we have to abandon the  
Aristotelian idea that there is a primitive universe, and that physics  
is the fundamental science. We have to backtrack on Pythagorus, Plato  
and Plotinus. The relation between consciousness and brain is far more  
subtle than the materialists believe. In a sense the brain does not  
create consciousness. The brain makes it possible for consciousness to  
be manifested relatively to some computational histories. We may find  
correlation between brain activity and some problem like depression,  
but this is just the art of the physician, or the shaman (plants are  
still better than electrode today). It does not address the  
fundamental issues.


For books, you could take a look for books here:
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list/web/resources
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list/web/auda

Have a good day,

Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



--
You 

Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-03 Thread Rex Allen
On Fri, Sep 3, 2010 at 12:46 AM, Brent Meeker meeke...@dslextreme.com wrote:
 Scientifically I think there are possible data
 that would count as evidence against physicalism.  For example, if persons
 reporting out-of-body experiences could actually gain knowledge not
 otherwise available via these experiences.  Another example would be prayer
 healing studies.  If it happened that prayers by say Sikhs were effective
 with statistical significance while prayers by other religionists were not;
 that would be strong evidence against physicalism.

First, one might prefer the physicalist Nick Bostrom style
explanation that we are in a computer simulation over adopting a
supernatural explanation.  In effect making God physical.  The deity
outside the computer simulation can arrange things however he
likes...including allowing OBEs and Sikh prayer healing.  Or those
might be a sign of a flaw in the simulation's programming.

Second, both OBEs and Sikh prayer healing might be explained by
entanglement style action at a distance mechanisms.  Certainly one
could start with that claim, quantum mechanics having already blazed
the trail.  Why only Sikh healing?  Well, presumably different beliefs
would be associated with different physical brain structures, and
maybe only some brain structures have the right triggering
configuration.

Third, even without action at a distance or resonant brain structures,
there's still the equivalent of dark matter style explanations.
That there is an additional physical layer that only weakly (and maybe
probabilistically) interacts with the layer we have relatively easy
access to.

If the OBE/prayer process could be mathematically modeled, then it
would just be a matter of assigning physical interpretations to the
equations of the model.  As the Many Worlds, consistent histories,
copenhagen, and Bohmian interpretations do for quantum mechanics.

And again, it seems to me that in an infinite universe, SOMEWHERE
someone should find what seems to be statistically significant
evidence of Sikh prayer healing and OBEs.  Since it seems to me that
in enough trials with all possible initial conditions and all possible
outcomes of probabilistic causal laws, *someone* should see a false
positive...in fact, a lot of false positives.  So many false positives
as to establish reasonable belief that there is a causal connection.

And that's just off the top of my head.

So, I don't see how OBEs or prayer healing would in any way falsify
physicalism, or even dent it.  Though they might demolish the Standard
Model.


 An idealistic accidentalist would take an instrumentalist view of
 quantum mechanics.  As opposed to some form of scientific realism that
 a physicalist might support.


 Many physicists take an instrumentalist view of quantum mechanics, c.f.
 Asher Peres  graduate textbook.

For the record, I didn't claim that physicalism entailed scientific realism.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-03 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

on 03.09.2010 06:46 Brent Meeker said the following:

On 9/2/2010 1:32 AM, Rex Allen wrote:

On Thu, Sep 2, 2010 at 1:51 AM, Quentin Anciauxallco...@gmail.com
 wrote:



...

Of course it is *logically* possible that any new data could be 
consistent with physicalism - but then logical possibility is a very

 weak standard; it just excludes X and not-X.  Scientifically I
think there are possible data that would count as evidence against 
physicalism.  For example, if persons reporting out-of-body

experiences could actually gain knowledge not otherwise available via
these experiences. 


Nice experiments with out-of-body experience are at the Laboratory of 
Cognitive Neuroscience


http://lnco.epfl.ch/

Just look at video at this page. There is a good paper in Die Zeit about it

http://www.zeit.de/2008/15/OdE24-Gehirn

but it is in German.

Evgenii

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-02 Thread Rex Allen
On Wed, Sep 1, 2010 at 4:21 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 In some case the metatheory can itself be an object of the theory. For
 example zoologists are animal (but botanist are not plant). Since Gödel we
 know that the theory Peano Arithmetic can be studied in Peano
 arithmetic. And monist philosophies makes mandatory that the theory and/or
 the theoretican has to belong to the collection of objects or phenomena of
 the theory. Physicists do obey to the laws of gravitation for example. A
 physicist of masse m will attract a physicist of mass M with a force
 proportional to mM/(square of the distance between two physicists). of
 course that force is negligible compared to the natural repulsion that a
 physicist can or cannot have for a colleague ...

This is part of the point I'm making.  You have to place yourself
within your proposed framework.  If you posit the existence of a
rule-based system as an explanation for conscious experience, then the
rules of that system determine the arguments that you present and
believe.

At this point you are merely a cog in the machine of your system.
Your every thought, belief, and emotion are the byproduct of the
inexorable action of its metaphysical gears.

How is this situation an improvement on solipsism?  Only you exist.
Only the machine exists.

Six of one, half a dozen of the other I’d say.

And there’s still the problem that the vast majority of physical
universes (or mathematical structures) would be dishonest “Matrix”
universes (or structures), so how likely is it that our beliefs are
true of anything outside of our subjective experience?

 So obviously something exists...my conscious experience of this
 moment.

 That is obvious for you. I have to postulate it.

I don’t see the importance of this point?  I am certain that my
experience of this moment (or instant) exists...nothing important
hinges on whether your experience exists.  If it doesn’t, that’s fine.

I’m not trying to explain your conscious experience, I’m only trying
to explain mine.  Bouncing ideas off of you is a useful
activity...which would still be true even if it turned out that you
were just an Eliza-like chat-bot that parsed incoming emails,
rearranged the wording, and added some logician-speak before mailing
them back out.


 I can agree with that, at some level, but you waould not refer to this
 moment. I am not sure what you mean by moment with idealist accidentalism
 (IA).

Moment as in “Instant of consciousness”.  Or even as in “instance of
consciousness”.


 This experience is a multifaceted thing...in that there are
 many things I am conscious of in this moment.

 But this is true of dreams as well.  I am conscious of many things in
 a dream, but those aren't things that exist outside or independently
 of the dream.

 In which theory.

I was thinking of physicalism.

 Such a sentence seems to assume a lot, if only to make some
 sense. If IA is correct, words like world, outside refer to what?

Aspects of experience.

 So what accounts for the dream?  Numbers?

 In the theory digital mechanism, aka computationnalism, we can argue for
 this, indeed.

So IF it is true that some particular some set of numbers and the
relations between them just *are* my conscious experience of seeing an
oak tree, THEN *something* has to make that true.

It’s not the numbers themselves that would make that true, because
numbers are numbers, and have nothing obvious to do with oak trees or
experience.

And it’s not the relations between numbers, because these also have
nothing obvious to do with oak trees or experience.

So, what is it that makes the previous statement true?  If it is true,
then it seems to me that there must be some other kind of relationship
that can connect numbers, relationships between numbers, and the
experience of oak trees.

What, in your opinion, is the nature of this extra relationship?

 I have no problem with people trying different kind of theory, but to posit
 consciousness at the start (or matter, actually) does not satisfy me.

Consciousness is the start though, isn’t it?  It doesn’t have to be
posited...it’s a given.  Directly known.

Trying to ignore this givenness and re-derive it from things that are
inferred FROM conscious experience is where you go astray I think.

 As I said it prevents further research.

Why do you want to do further research?

Putting yourself in your own proposed metaphysical framework, what is
the cause of your insatiable lust for more research?  In the grand
scheme of things, what does it mean that you want further research?

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-02 Thread Rex Allen
On Thu, Sep 2, 2010 at 3:50 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 On 02 Sep 2010, at 04:15, Rex Allen wrote:

 Accidentalism, and...what else?  Refraining from metaphysical
 speculation altogether?

 That is the good idea!

Easier said than done!  I've sworn it off 4 times this year...but here
I am again.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-02 Thread Rex Allen
On Thu, Sep 2, 2010 at 1:51 AM, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:

 I did read your preceeding message.  And what I got out of it is that
 if you consistently apply your evaluative criteria, you should
 conclude that physicalism, platonism, deism, theism, arithmetical
 realism and all other metaphysical theories that reduce conscious
 experience to some sort of underlying rule-governed framework are
 irrefutable and thus valueless.


 You're the one saying that.

You are correct, I seem to be the only one saying that if you apply
your evaluative criteria consistently, then your charge against
idealist accidentalism applies equally to physicalism and the rest.


 The problem with idealist accidentalism (like
 with sollipsism) is that you can change at will to adapt to the fact. It's
 not the case with the others (but is the case with
 theism/deism/magic/bisounours world/etc).

Physicalism is exactly as changeable as idealistic accidentalism.
That was the point of my earlier response to you.

What new fact could possibly refute physicalism??? (or mathematical
platonism, or whatever)

Keep in mind that idealistic accidentalism is an alternative to
physicalism, not to quantum field theory.

Physicalism just being the thesis that that everything which exists is
no more extensive than its physical properties; that there are no
kinds of things other than physical things.

So, what new data couldn't be interpreted as being consistent with that?


An idealistic accidentalist would take an instrumentalist view of
quantum mechanics.  As opposed to some form of scientific realism that
a physicalist might support.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-02 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2010/9/2 Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com

 On Thu, Sep 2, 2010 at 1:51 AM, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com
 wrote:
 
  I did read your preceeding message.  And what I got out of it is that
  if you consistently apply your evaluative criteria, you should
  conclude that physicalism, platonism, deism, theism, arithmetical
  realism and all other metaphysical theories that reduce conscious
  experience to some sort of underlying rule-governed framework are
  irrefutable and thus valueless.
 
 
  You're the one saying that.

 You are correct, I seem to be the only one saying that if you apply
 your evaluative criteria consistently, then your charge against
 idealist accidentalism applies equally to physicalism and the rest.


  The problem with idealist accidentalism (like
  with sollipsism) is that you can change at will to adapt to the fact.
 It's
  not the case with the others (but is the case with
  theism/deism/magic/bisounours world/etc).

 Physicalism is exactly as changeable as idealistic accidentalism.
 That was the point of my earlier response to you.


No



 What new fact could possibly refute physicalism??? (or mathematical
 platonism, or whatever)


How could physicalism account for a big giant hand of god (?) appearing in
the sky ? :D

It can't... idealist accidentalism can account *all* the facts, not some
of them but all... the worst thing is that it can account everything and has
no explanatory value, it denies explanation in its own definition. So yes
it's useless, you can posit it and then go sleeping.

If you can always say to any question some thing like 'it's because the
pastafari did it'... then I don't see the value of the theory.

And yes theories which could never ever be disproved have little value.

Keep in mind that idealistic accidentalism is an alternative to
 physicalism, not to quantum field theory.


quantum field theory in a idealistic accidentalism world has no value
because it accidentaly works...

Quentin


 Physicalism just being the thesis that that everything which exists is
 no more extensive than its physical properties; that there are no
 kinds of things other than physical things.

 So, what new data couldn't be interpreted as being consistent with that?


 An idealistic accidentalist would take an instrumentalist view of
 quantum mechanics.  As opposed to some form of scientific realism that
 a physicalist might support.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-02 Thread David Nyman
On 1 September 2010 21:51, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  In
 other words, it would appear that he cannot, with pure logic, rule out
 the possibility - even to himself - of Logical-David being merely a
 zombie.

 No. Even the zombie can see that he cannot. That's why the
 self-referentially correct machine cannot be a zombie.

Yes, my emphasis here was indeed **with pure logic**.  That is to say,
the purely logical part - i.e. the believer - begins by suspecting
that it perhaps can't rule out the possibility that it is *only* that:
i.e. pure logic.  But the subtlety is that it can also realise that
this very possibility begs the question of its own self-referential
integrity.  That is, it would place into doubt its very existence for
itself as something (i.e. anything whatsoever) metaphysically
distinct from the substrate of logic considered to be constituting it.
 The following dilemma is then presented: either a) there simply *is
no believer* in any way metaphysically distinct from the substrate in
general, or b) the truth of such distinctness is for the believer
alone to assert.  But then, since the unpalatable consequence of
option a) would be the annihilation of both the Cat and the Grin, the
believer (thankfully) realises that self-referential correctness
mandates the truth of its own existence-for-itself.  What a relief!

Why can this be so hard to see?  This thought was what motivated my
original post - i.e. that the reason (or at least a major reason) why
all this can seem so elusive is that we continually seek to escape
self-reference by adopting - per impossibile - some maximally analytic
objectivised viewpoint: i.e. the reductionist-god's eye view, or
observer at infinity.  Although success in achieving such a view
should entail the consequence of entirely banishing any
self-referential distinctness we possess, somehow we can fail to
appreciate this, and the Cheshire Cat-like apparition of the objects
of experience remains in full view. How is this?  Because we forget
that any view purporting to be both entirely analytic and *outside
of everything* must, by that very restriction, have abandoned any
legitimate grasp of *internally-referenced* categories predicated on
integration, composition, or synthesis.  We just go on projecting
all this from afar, just as though we had not absented ourselves from
the scene.  Such metaphysical absent-mindedness tricks us into begging
the question of just how such synthetic categories could in fact
acquire any transcendence over a putative analytic substrate.  In
effect, this kind of metaphysical circularity is hard-wired into our
naturalistic modes of thought - though we may blind ourselves to
self-reference, we cannot escape it.

 You have to study Gödel and Tarski theorem, or a result by Kaplan and
 Montague, recasted in the Solovay logics. Smorynski wrote a paper 50 years
 of arithmetical self-reference, a rather long time ago. Boolos 1979 and
 1993 consecrated a chapter to the knower (S4Grz). A student and friend of
 mine has formalized Bp  Dp (the Z, Z1, Z* and Z1*) logics, but the case for
 S4GRz1, and the X, X1, X*, X1* logics remains unsolved. There are theorem
 prover for those logics, and so by an indirect argument we know them
 formalizable, but no one has found the axioms yet. Note that all those logic
 are non effectively soluble, once extended at the modal predicate level.
 The hypostases give a knowledge of the believer, the conscious knower, the
 observer, the feeler each with they communicable and non communicable
 part, from which you can derive, the observable, the non observable, the
 feelable and the non feelable, well many things, including quanta and
 qualia.
 Weakness: hard mathematics.
 Ask any question if you feel so. I am aware it is hard and ultra-subtle
 stuff. Well, that is why only technics can handle those self-references.

It is, as you say, remarkable that there exist detailed systems of
self-referential logic that can capture such subtleties, and make
rigorous the distinction between formal and non-formal parts.  I am
grateful for your continued perseverance and patience in affording me
even the most basic insight into them, and I only wish I had the sheer
tenacity to get to grips with them in the extended technical detail
they demand, as you do.  But you, after all, are a logician and I am a
mere quibbler.  Nevertheless, it intrigues me that my quibbling
occasionally seems to lead me somewhere in the vicinity of these
notions, so I won't abandon it entirely!

David


 On 01 Sep 2010, at 20:03, David Nyman wrote:

 On 1 September 2010 09:21, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 How does my experience of

 dreaming of a tree connect to numbers?  What is it that generates my

 experience of a tree from the brutely existing substrate of numbers?

 Well, from the true but non communicable part given by the self-reference

 logic of self-introspecting (ideally correct) programs (machine, numbers,

 theories ... 

Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-02 Thread Rex Allen
On Thu, Sep 2, 2010 at 5:12 AM, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:


 What new fact could possibly refute physicalism??? (or mathematical
 platonism, or whatever)

 How could physicalism account for a big giant hand of god (?) appearing in
 the sky ? :D

Would you believe it was the hand of god?  Why not the hand of some
space alien *pretending* to be god?

That would be a physicalist interpretation.  How could anyone prove otherwise?

OR, it could turn out that god just is a superpowerful space
alien...that would also be a valid physicalist interpretation.

OR it you could say you were hallucinating it.  Also a physicalist interpration.

OR it could be taken as the result of an extremely unlikely but not
impossible quantum fluctuation, followed by a whole series of supposed
miracles that are *also* just quantum fluctions.  In an infinite
universe anything that's not strictly impossible in inevitable.

So another physicalist interpretation.

Did you never see that episode of Star Trek TNG where Picard faces
down a woman claiming to be the devil?  Devil's Due.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Devil's_Due_(Star_Trek:_The_Next_Generation)

SO, as I said,physicalism is exactly as changeable as idealistic accidentalism.



 It can't... idealist accidentalism can account *all* the facts, not some
 of them but all... the worst thing is that it can account everything and has
 no explanatory value, it denies explanation in its own definition. So yes
 it's useless, you can posit it and then go sleeping.

 If you can always say to any question some thing like 'it's because the
 pastafari did it'... then I don't see the value of the theory.

Whereas a phyiscalist would always say, quantum mechanics did it, or
unlikely but not impossible initial conditions explains it, or
whatever.

I don't see the value of a physicalist interpretation of the
descriptive/predictive equations that constitute quantum theory.


 And yes theories which could never ever be disproved have little value.

Then physicalism, mathematical platonism, deism, etc. have little value.


 Keep in mind that idealistic accidentalism is an alternative to
 physicalism, not to quantum field theory.


 quantum field theory in a idealistic accidentalism world has no value
 because it accidentaly works...

Even assuming that physicalism is true, what explains the fact that
our universe had the particular initial conditions and causal laws
that it does?  Aren't these, in effect, accidental?

Everything else that we observe is just a coincidence of those two
contingent things...initial conditions and causal laws.  Everything,
*including* our discovery of these causal laws and our theories about
the initial conditions.  If we're right, this is an accident...a
stroke of good fortune in living in an honest universe, and not a
matrix universe.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 02 Sep 2010, at 10:03, Rex Allen wrote:

On Thu, Sep 2, 2010 at 3:50 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:



On 02 Sep 2010, at 04:15, Rex Allen wrote:

Accidentalism, and...what else?  Refraining from metaphysical
speculation altogether?


That is the good idea!


Easier said than done!  I've sworn it off 4 times this year...but here
I am again.


:)

There is no problem with metaphysical speculation. It is, I think,  
unavoidable when we do fundamental research.
But personally, I think that when we want make a public presentation,  
it is best to separate the speculative part, which is the theory, from  
the conclusion/theorem we can derive from the theory. It is vain to  
defend the assumption-speculation-theory as being true or real or  
whatever.


Science is only collection of theories, and statements derive in those  
theories, and intepretation rules, and confirmation modus operandi.  
Only layman and engineers have to hope that their theories fits enough  
a reality.


The theories and the reasoning can be presented informally or  
formally. Rigor has nothing to do with formalization, but a lot to do  
with clarity. It is also better that the theory/assumption are shared  
by many, because ... it is more fun.


Take it easy,

Bruno






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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 02 Sep 2010, at 10:01, Rex Allen wrote:

On Wed, Sep 1, 2010 at 4:21 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


In some case the metatheory can itself be an object of the theory.  
For
example zoologists are animal (but botanist are not plant). Since  
Gödel we

know that the theory Peano Arithmetic can be studied in Peano
arithmetic. And monist philosophies makes mandatory that the theory  
and/or
the theoretican has to belong to the collection of objects or  
phenomena of
the theory. Physicists do obey to the laws of gravitation for  
example. A

physicist of masse m will attract a physicist of mass M with a force
proportional to mM/(square of the distance between two physicists).  
of
course that force is negligible compared to the natural repulsion  
that a

physicist can or cannot have for a colleague ...


This is part of the point I'm making.  You have to place yourself
within your proposed framework.  If you posit the existence of a
rule-based system as an explanation for conscious experience,


I don't do that. I insist that if 3-we are machine, that if we have a  
body capable as being described by a (digital) machine, then  
(simplifying a bit to be short), consciousness is not produced by that  
machine, but filtered from 'arithmetical truth'.





then the
rules of that system determine the arguments that you present and
believe.


This looks like a universal critics of science. I assume indeed that  
we are machine, and then I make a reasoning, and then indeed I also  
ask the machines what they think about the theory. Computer science  
makes the interview of ideally correct machines indeed feasible.





At this point you are merely a cog in the machine of your system.
Your every thought, belief, and emotion are the byproduct of the
inexorable action of its metaphysical gears.


Not really, because by proceeding in that way, I may discover  
evidences that I am wrong.





How is this situation an improvement on solipsism?  Only you exist.
Only the machine exists.


?

I believe in electron, bridge, numbers, nations, humans, planet,  
galaxies, etc. But that is just a personal confession.
Then all what I say is that if I am machine, then all those things I  
just mention have to emerge from numbers with their additive and  
multiplicative structure, and I explain how and why.






Six of one, half a dozen of the other I’d say.

And there’s still the problem that the vast majority of physical
universes (or mathematical structures) would be dishonest “Matrix”
universes (or structures), so how likely is it that our beliefs are
true of anything outside of our subjective experience?



Well, most people do share with me the assumptions, they do believe  
that there is an infinity of prime numbers, that consciousness could  
be plausibly preserve in functional digital brain substitution, and  
then they follow, with varying degrees of easyness the reasoning.


The matrix and machine's dreams obey to the laws of computer  
science.







So obviously something exists...my conscious experience of this
moment.


That is obvious for you. I have to postulate it.


I don’t see the importance of this point?  I am certain that my
experience of this moment (or instant) exists...nothing important
hinges on whether your experience exists.  If it doesn’t, that’s fine.

I’m not trying to explain your conscious experience, I’m only trying
to explain mine.  Bouncing ideas off of you is a useful
activity...which would still be true even if it turned out that you
were just an Eliza-like chat-bot that parsed incoming emails,
rearranged the wording, and added some logician-speak before mailing
them back out.


I can agree with that, at some level, but you waould not refer to  
this
moment. I am not sure what you mean by moment with idealist  
accidentalism

(IA).


Moment as in “Instant of consciousness”.  Or even as in “instance of
consciousness”.



This experience is a multifaceted thing...in that there are
many things I am conscious of in this moment.

But this is true of dreams as well.  I am conscious of many things  
in

a dream, but those aren't things that exist outside or independently
of the dream.


In which theory.


I was thinking of physicalism.


Such a sentence seems to assume a lot, if only to make some
sense. If IA is correct, words like world, outside refer to what?


Aspects of experience.


So what accounts for the dream?  Numbers?


In the theory digital mechanism, aka computationnalism, we can  
argue for

this, indeed.


So IF it is true that some particular some set of numbers and the
relations between them just *are* my conscious experience of seeing an
oak tree, THEN *something* has to make that true.


No identity thesis. The relation between consciousness and the number  
relation is more holistic than the materialist usually thinks.







It’s not the numbers themselves that would make that true, because
numbers are numbers, and have nothing obvious to do with oak trees 

Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-02 Thread Sami Perttu
What about reductive maximalism? :) The physicalist has the problem
that he doesn't know what the right level is, as in his world, all
observationally equivalent explanations are interchangeable. What he
can do is appeal to simplicity in reducing everything to some atomic
objects, which are then really real.

Would it be simpler still to guess that every observer is in a
superposition of worlds that are consistent with his observations?
Then we don't have to pick any level. Some of the worlds would
correspond to idealistic accidentalism in its many forms. In some he
would be recreated each moment, in some he would be a zombie, in
others some kind of Brahman, and so on.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 02 Sep 2010, at 17:02, David Nyman wrote:


On 1 September 2010 21:51, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


In
other words, it would appear that he cannot, with pure logic, rule  
out

the possibility - even to himself - of Logical-David being merely a
zombie.

No. Even the zombie can see that he cannot. That's why the
self-referentially correct machine cannot be a zombie.


Yes, my emphasis here was indeed **with pure logic**.  That is to say,
the purely logical part - i.e. the believer - begins by suspecting
that it perhaps can't rule out the possibility that it is *only* that:
i.e. pure logic.


Not at all. He has a relation with truth. He begins by confusing its  
belief with truth, but introspecting itself, it discovers the gap  
between truth and its beliefs.
So that he discovers the gap between beliefs (the logical system)  
and knowledge (by definition: those beliefs which are, some perhaps  
serendipitously, others perhaps necessarily, true.







But the subtlety is that it can also realise that
this very possibility begs the question of its own self-referential
integrity.


Yes. Indeed.



 That is, it would place into doubt its very existence for
itself as something (i.e. anything whatsoever) metaphysically
distinct from the substrate of logic considered to be constituting it.


Good.





The following dilemma is then presented: either a) there simply *is
no believer* in any way metaphysically distinct from the substrate in
general,


Certainly not.



or b) the truth of such distinctness is for the believer
alone to assert.


Exact.





But then, since the unpalatable consequence of
option a) would be the annihilation of both the Cat and the Grin, the
believer (thankfully) realises that self-referential correctness
mandates the truth of its own existence-for-itself.  What a relief!


I think so.





Why can this be so hard to see?  This thought was what motivated my
original post - i.e. that the reason (or at least a major reason) why
all this can seem so elusive is that we continually seek to escape
self-reference by adopting - per impossibile - some maximally analytic
objectivised viewpoint: i.e. the reductionist-god's eye view, or
observer at infinity.  Although success in achieving such a view
should entail the consequence of entirely banishing any
self-referential distinctness we possess, somehow we can fail to
appreciate this, and the Cheshire Cat-like apparition of the objects
of experience remains in full view. How is this?  Because we forget
that any view purporting to be both entirely analytic and *outside
of everything* must, by that very restriction, have abandoned any
legitimate grasp of *internally-referenced* categories predicated on
integration, composition, or synthesis.


That sentence is long ;-)




We just go on projecting
all this from afar, just as though we had not absented ourselves from
the scene.  Such metaphysical absent-mindedness tricks us into begging
the question of just how such synthetic categories could in fact
acquire any transcendence over a putative analytic substrate.  In
effect, this kind of metaphysical circularity is hard-wired into our
naturalistic modes of thought - though we may blind ourselves to
self-reference, we cannot escape it.


I think so. As far as I don't misunderstand. Give me time to digest.






You have to study Gödel and Tarski theorem, or a result by Kaplan and
Montague, recasted in the Solovay logics. Smorynski wrote a paper  
50 years
of arithmetical self-reference, a rather long time ago. Boolos  
1979 and
1993 consecrated a chapter to the knower (S4Grz). A student and  
friend of
mine has formalized Bp  Dp (the Z, Z1, Z* and Z1*) logics, but the  
case for
S4GRz1, and the X, X1, X*, X1* logics remains unsolved. There are  
theorem

prover for those logics, and so by an indirect argument we know them
formalizable, but no one has found the axioms yet. Note that all  
those logic
are non effectively soluble, once extended at the modal predicate  
level.
The hypostases give a knowledge of the believer, the conscious  
knower, the
observer, the feeler each with they communicable and non  
communicable
part, from which you can derive, the observable, the non  
observable, the

feelable and the non feelable, well many things, including quanta and
qualia.
Weakness: hard mathematics.
Ask any question if you feel so. I am aware it is hard and ultra- 
subtle
stuff. Well, that is why only technics can handle those self- 
references.


It is, as you say, remarkable that there exist detailed systems of
self-referential logic that can capture such subtleties, and make
rigorous the distinction between formal and non-formal parts.  I am
grateful for your continued perseverance and patience in affording me
even the most basic insight into them, and I only wish I had the sheer
tenacity to get to grips with them in the extended technical detail
they demand, as you do.  But you, after all, are a logician and I am a
mere quibbler.  

Re: What's wrong with this? (a side question)

2010-09-02 Thread Evgenii Rudnyi

on 02.09.2010 17:57 Bruno Marchal said the following:



...


Science is only collection of theories, and statements derive in
those theories, and intepretation rules, and confirmation modus
operandi. Only layman and engineers have to hope that their theories
fits enough a reality.

The theories and the reasoning can be presented informally or
formally. Rigor has nothing to do with formalization, but a lot to do
with clarity. It is also better that the theory/assumption are shared
by many, because ... it is more fun.


How would you define what a physical law is?

The reason I am asking is that recently I have read The Elegant Universe 
by Brian Green about the superstring theory. For some reasons physicists 
insist that they can find Equation of Everything.


Best wishes,

Evgenii
http://blog.rudnyi.ru

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-02 Thread David Nyman
On 2 September 2010 18:32, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 So, as far as I am true, beliefs coincide with knowledge.

Yes, I can see that this statement essentially sums up exactly what I
was trying to say!  Its structure expresses the relation between
formal (belief) and non-formal (knowledge), from the synthetic
perspective of the believer/knower.  What I was criticising in my
original post was the kind of view that purports to ignore the
indispensable non-formal roots of this tree of knowledge, whilst
continuing to make off with its fruit!

If I may speak (even) more loosely for a moment, I tend to think of
the Real, insofar as we can conceptualise it at all (and we can't) as
being in some sense a Big Whole, but a Big Whole that is somehow also
able to manifest itself as a multitude.  In this, I guess I've always
broadly shared the metaphysical intuitions of the neo-Platonist and
Eastern traditions.  Because both these poles seem to me ineliminable,
truth can be found only in the tension between analysis and
integration, not at either limit.  The Big Whole is eternally engaged
in some process of maximal fragmentation - a cosmic self-analysis, so
to speak - but any knowledge gained thereby can be absorbed only by
re-integration into the Whole.  It seems to me that much
eliminativist theorising is driven into incoherence as a result of
ignoring considerations essentially of this type, with the further
paradoxical consequence that the theories themselves are expressible
only in terms of knowledge gained through the very integrative
phenomena that they explicitly rule out!

David


 On 02 Sep 2010, at 17:02, David Nyman wrote:

 On 1 September 2010 21:51, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 In
 other words, it would appear that he cannot, with pure logic, rule out
 the possibility - even to himself - of Logical-David being merely a
 zombie.

 No. Even the zombie can see that he cannot. That's why the
 self-referentially correct machine cannot be a zombie.

 Yes, my emphasis here was indeed **with pure logic**.  That is to say,
 the purely logical part - i.e. the believer - begins by suspecting
 that it perhaps can't rule out the possibility that it is *only* that:
 i.e. pure logic.

 Not at all. He has a relation with truth. He begins by confusing its belief
 with truth, but introspecting itself, it discovers the gap between truth and
 its beliefs.
 So that he discovers the gap between beliefs (the logical system) and
 knowledge (by definition: those beliefs which are, some perhaps
 serendipitously, others perhaps necessarily, true.





 But the subtlety is that it can also realise that
 this very possibility begs the question of its own self-referential
 integrity.

 Yes. Indeed.


  That is, it would place into doubt its very existence for
 itself as something (i.e. anything whatsoever) metaphysically
 distinct from the substrate of logic considered to be constituting it.

 Good.




 The following dilemma is then presented: either a) there simply *is
 no believer* in any way metaphysically distinct from the substrate in
 general,

 Certainly not.


 or b) the truth of such distinctness is for the believer
 alone to assert.

 Exact.




 But then, since the unpalatable consequence of
 option a) would be the annihilation of both the Cat and the Grin, the
 believer (thankfully) realises that self-referential correctness
 mandates the truth of its own existence-for-itself.  What a relief!

 I think so.




 Why can this be so hard to see?  This thought was what motivated my
 original post - i.e. that the reason (or at least a major reason) why
 all this can seem so elusive is that we continually seek to escape
 self-reference by adopting - per impossibile - some maximally analytic
 objectivised viewpoint: i.e. the reductionist-god's eye view, or
 observer at infinity.  Although success in achieving such a view
 should entail the consequence of entirely banishing any
 self-referential distinctness we possess, somehow we can fail to
 appreciate this, and the Cheshire Cat-like apparition of the objects
 of experience remains in full view. How is this?  Because we forget
 that any view purporting to be both entirely analytic and *outside
 of everything* must, by that very restriction, have abandoned any
 legitimate grasp of *internally-referenced* categories predicated on
 integration, composition, or synthesis.

 That sentence is long ;-)



 We just go on projecting
 all this from afar, just as though we had not absented ourselves from
 the scene.  Such metaphysical absent-mindedness tricks us into begging
 the question of just how such synthetic categories could in fact
 acquire any transcendence over a putative analytic substrate.  In
 effect, this kind of metaphysical circularity is hard-wired into our
 naturalistic modes of thought - though we may blind ourselves to
 self-reference, we cannot escape it.

 I think so. As far as I don't misunderstand. Give me time to digest.




 You have to 

Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-02 Thread Brent Meeker

On 9/2/2010 1:32 AM, Rex Allen wrote:

On Thu, Sep 2, 2010 at 1:51 AM, Quentin Anciauxallco...@gmail.com  wrote:
   

I did read your preceeding message.  And what I got out of it is that
if you consistently apply your evaluative criteria, you should
conclude that physicalism, platonism, deism, theism, arithmetical
realism and all other metaphysical theories that reduce conscious
experience to some sort of underlying rule-governed framework are
irrefutable and thus valueless.
   


You're the one saying that.
 

You are correct, I seem to be the only one saying that if you apply
your evaluative criteria consistently, then your charge against
idealist accidentalism applies equally to physicalism and the rest.


   

The problem with idealist accidentalism (like
with sollipsism) is that you can change at will to adapt to the fact. It's
not the case with the others (but is the case with
theism/deism/magic/bisounours world/etc).
 

Physicalism is exactly as changeable as idealistic accidentalism.
That was the point of my earlier response to you.

What new fact could possibly refute physicalism??? (or mathematical
platonism, or whatever)

Keep in mind that idealistic accidentalism is an alternative to
physicalism, not to quantum field theory.

Physicalism just being the thesis that that everything which exists is
no more extensive than its physical properties; that there are no
kinds of things other than physical things.

So, what new data couldn't be interpreted as being consistent with that?

   
Of course it is *logically* possible that any new data could be 
consistent with physicalism - but then logical possibility is a very 
weak standard; it just excludes X and not-X.  Scientifically I think 
there are possible data that would count as evidence against 
physicalism.  For example, if persons reporting out-of-body experiences 
could actually gain knowledge not otherwise available via these 
experiences.  Another example would be prayer healing studies.  If it 
happened that prayers by say Sikhs were effective with statistical 
significance while prayers by other religionists were not; that would be 
strong evidence against physicalism.




An idealistic accidentalist would take an instrumentalist view of
quantum mechanics.  As opposed to some form of scientific realism that
a physicalist might support.
   


Many physicists take an instrumentalist view of quantum mechanics, c.f. 
Asher Peres  graduate textbook.


Brent

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-01 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2010/9/1 Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com

 On Tue, Aug 31, 2010 at 6:15 PM, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com
 wrote:
 
  I should just add that idealist accidentalism is *exactly* as
 irrefutable
  as solipsism.
 
  Hence by that it has no value... but it's not refuted.

 What would refute physicalism?  It would seem to me that quantum
 mechanics is sufficiently flexible to account for nearly any
 observation, especially since the many worlds interpretation and the
 possibility of multiverses would seem likely to give rise to so many
 permutations.

 Even probabilistic physical laws and a single infinite universe would
 still seem likely to give rise to some pretty bizarre scenarios,
 wouldn’t it?

 Now, maybe quantum mechanics will be replaced by a different theory,
 but can you imagine any possible feature of such a theory that would
 rule out a physicalist interpretation?

 And, again, any rule-based framework for explaining our conscious
 experiences means, by definition, that don’t present or believe
 arguments for reasons of logic or rationality.  Instead, the arguments
 that we present and believe are those entailed by the rules that
 underlie our experiences.

 That these rules generate rational beliefs is a leap of faith, and can
 neither be refuted nor proven.

 If the underlying process *didn’t* cause us to present and believe
 rational arguments, there would be no way to detect this, since there
 is no way to step outside of the process’s control of one’s beliefs to
 independently verify the reasonableness of the beliefs it generates.

 A physicalist may be correct about the physical nature of reality, but
 if so, this is solely due to his improbable good luck in existing in a
 rare honest physical universe whose initial conditions and causal
 laws resulted in his holding true beliefs about his universe's initial
 conditions and causal laws.

 Given all that, ultimately I doubt your beliefs are any better footing
 than solipsism either.

 Rex


Euh..

I'm sorry but where did I state my belief in the preceeding message ? Where
did I spoke about physicalism ?

I spoke about idealist accidentalism in answer to Bruno who said wrongly
it's been refuted when it's not because well... read the preceeding message.

Quentin


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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Sep 2010, at 00:13, Quentin Anciaux wrote:




2010/8/30 Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be

On 29 Aug 2010, at 21:20, Rex Allen wrote:

On Sat, Aug 28, 2010 at 12:00 PM, Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net 
 wrote:


  Excellent topic and comments! Naturalism does seem to be a
natural condition of humans given their predilection for  
supernatural or
supranatural explanations of events that have no simplistic  
explanations,
i.e. in terms of their common every day experiences which are  
limited by
their socioeconomic conditions. I am not sure what Idealist  
Accidentalism

would entail… Could you elaborate on this, Rex?

By idealist I'm referring to metaphysical idealism...that what
fundamentally exists is mental, not physical.  And by mental I mean
either consciousness or existing only as an aspect of consciousness.
For example, there is my conscious experience of a dream, and then
there are the things that appear in my dreams that I am conscious
of...houses and chairs and trees and people.  Both categories of
things are mental.  The trees that appear in my dreams only exist as
an aspect of the dream.

And by accidentalism I mean the theory that nothing that exists or
occurs is caused.  There is nothing that connects or controls the flow
of events.  The only rule is that there are no rules to appeal to.

So idealist accidentalism...the view that what exists is mental, and
that there is no underlying process that explains or governs this
existence.

If idealist accidentalism is correct then there is no theory at all.
But idealist accidentalism is a theory (even if vague)
So there is no theory, and there is one theory.
So 0 = 1.
Contradiction.
So idealist accidentalism is refuted.

I'm sorry bruno... but that is sophism...


I was applying idealist accidentalism. I could have written anything.

I should just add that idealist accidentalism is *exactly* as  
irrefutable as solipsism.


Hence by that it has no value... but it's not refuted.


I can agree with that. Usually I agree with Popper that a theory has  
to be refutable to be qualified as a theory. But I don't want initiate  
a vocabulary discussion. Note that solipsism has some value in the  
sense that we can imagine it to be true, and somehow it is true from  
the first person point of view: our mental world is somehow a personal  
construction. It is just false once we posit two observers, as we do  
when we want communicate. Idealist accidentalism seem to me almost  
equivalent with the idea that there is no theory at all.


Best,

Bruno




You may save it by insisting that idealist accidentalism is not a  
theory. It would be a mere philosophical injunction of the type   
dont' ask, don't search.


hmm...


Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 31 Aug 2010, at 19:36, Rex Allen wrote:

On Mon, Aug 30, 2010 at 11:11 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


So idealist accidentalism...the view that what exists is mental,  
and

that there is no underlying process that explains or governs this
existence.


If idealist accidentalism is correct then there is no theory at all.


Well, I'd have to hear your definition of theory and what the
conditions are for its existence.


The existence of a theory is usually not the object of the theory, but  
of a metatheory.


In some case the metatheory can itself be an object of the theory. For  
example zoologists are animal (but botanist are not plant). Since  
Gödel we know that the theory Peano Arithmetic can be studied in  
Peano arithmetic. And monist philosophies makes mandatory that the  
theory and/or the theoretican has to belong to the collection of  
objects or phenomena of the theory. Physicists do obey to the laws of  
gravitation for example. A physicist of masse m will attract a  
physicist of mass M with a force proportional to mM/(square of the  
distance between two physicists). of course that force is negligible  
compared to the natural repulsion that a physicist can or cannot have  
for a colleague ...






So obviously something exists...my conscious experience of this
moment.


That is obvious for you. I have to postulate it.
Unless you postulate we are the same person?
I can agree with that, at some level, but you waould not refer to  
this moment. I am not sure what you mean by moment with idealist  
accidentalism (IA).





This experience is a multifaceted thing...in that there are
many things I am conscious of in this moment.

But this is true of dreams as well.  I am conscious of many things in
a dream, but those aren't things that exist outside or independently
of the dream.


In which theory. Such a sentence seems to assume a lot, if only to  
make some sense. If IA is correct, words like world, outside refer  
to what?





So what accounts for the dream?  Numbers?


In the theory digital mechanism, aka computationnalism, we can  
argue for this, indeed.





How does my experience of
dreaming of a tree connect to numbers?  What is it that generates my
experience of a tree from the brutely existing substrate of numbers?


Well, from the true but non communicable part given by the self- 
reference logic of self-introspecting (ideally correct) programs  
(machine, numbers, theories ... words are used in a large sense here).





Why should numbers give rise to my dream experience of a tree?
Obviously I can use numbers to represent the tree...in the sense that
I can use saved numerical measurements to re-present the tree to my
self...if I can remember how to interpret the measurements.  And I'm
even willing to grant that I can use numbers to represent my
experience of the tree.  But representation is just the re-presenting
of something to your conscious experience, which is not at all the
same as explaining the fact of that experience.


The fact of experience is given by the true fixed point of the  
representation, like a map of the USA, when situated in the USA will  
have a representing point superposed on the real point.








But idealist accidentalism is a theory (even if vague)
So there is no theory, and there is one theory.
So 0 = 1.
Contradiction.
So idealist accidentalism is refuted.


I think you should have your logician license revoked...


I will not insist on that littel reasoning. Was just trying to shortly  
points that IA makes little sense for me.






You may save it by insisting that idealist accidentalism is not a  
theory. It
would be a mere philosophical injunction of the type  dont' ask,  
don't

search.


I think it is a just a recognition that Agrippa's trilemma and the
principle of sufficient reason lead to infinite levels of infinite
regress.  Which I take as a sign that there's something wrong with
that type of interpretation of our conscious experience.




When put in computer science terms (which computationalism invites  
naturally to do), we inherit of the fixed point solutions of recursive  
equation.


I have no problem with people trying different kind of theory, but to  
posit consciousness at the start (or matter, actually) does not  
satisfy me. As I said it prevents further research. I understand that  
feeling (consciousness cannot be explained), but I can at least  
explain why machine/numbers develop discourse invoking similar failure  
feeling about their own consciousness/consistency, or true but non  
provable predicate on themselves.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-01 Thread David Nyman
On 1 September 2010 09:21, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 How does my experience of
 dreaming of a tree connect to numbers?  What is it that generates my
 experience of a tree from the brutely existing substrate of numbers?

 Well, from the true but non communicable part given by the self-reference
 logic of self-introspecting (ideally correct) programs (machine, numbers,
 theories ... words are used in a large sense here).

Rex's question excerpted above, and Bruno's response to it, seem to
relate directly to the topic I had in mind in my original post.
Speaking, as it were, somewhat in Bruno's rather large sense, the
brutely existing substrate of numbers might correspond to that
particular perspective on the Real which is characterised by
abstraction to what I called the pole of maximal fragmentation - i.e.
the role presumably occupied by the quantum field and its
manifestations in current physical theory.  The self-reference logic
of self-introspecting (ideally correct) programs (machine, numbers,
theories ..., would then be seen in the role of a combinatorial logic
operating over this domain - that occupied, in physical theory, by
whatever are supposed to be considered the fundamental relations
between physical ultimates.

The key subtlety then devolves on the true but non communicable
part.  This seems very difficult to state concisely.  Perhaps what
makes it elusive is that first one has to appreciate that the
self-introspecting logic is (somehow) already capable of grasping that
certain of its beliefs have the characteristic of implying to the
believer, in a certain sense, the metaphysical distinctness of their
referents.  To see this, let us consider Logical-David - i.e. that
aspect of David that is purely a manifestation of self-introspecting
(ideally correct) programs.  This Logical-David possesses - i.e. is
(partially) constituted by - certain self-referential beliefs that
mediate relations between himself and the objects of his
experience.  He is already, within the constraints of this purely
logical substrate, capable of demonstrating consistent commitment to
such beliefs, and to their putative referents; indeed this is what
motivates any communicable judgement or statement whatsoever that he
is capable of producing about them.  There is something more, however.
 There is something that already seems to him to transcend this purely
logical substrate, something somehow metaphysically distinct, that
seems to arise from its peculiarly self-referencing character.  It
seems somehow to be those very objects of experience themselves.

On reflection, however, Logical-David is (just) able to see that all
these considerations can still be confined within the constitutive
substrate of numbers and combinatorial logic.  Or to put it another
way, as someone notoriously said, he would say that, wouldn't he?
Whatever this extra something might, or might not, be, he is incapable
of communicating it directly.  Consequently, purely logically, he
must (just) concede that any such putative metaphysical distinctness
could still be, from a purely logical standpoint, chimerical.  In
other words, it would appear that he cannot, with pure logic, rule out
the possibility - even to himself - of Logical-David being merely a
zombie.  And indeed, Logical-David is, precisely, such a zombie.
Actually, in this somewhat etiolated form he really should be
considered more an intriguing interpretation of the
mathematico-logical substrate than a person, as it were, in his own
right

Can there be no escape from this seemingly doleful logic?  Yes, if
there is *in fact* a David whose personal individuation is able to
transcend its merely logical embodiment.  And such transcendence
indeed implies a metaphysically distinct, direct grasp of certain
truths beyond their mere logical implication; some sort of personal
integration or synthesis - apotheosis, even - correlated with, but
irreducible to, any substrate considered in its purely
analytical-combinatorial aspect.  In short, for such transcendent
individuation to be the case, there must *actually exist* a
first-person David who is conscious, as well as merely logically
possessed, of the objects of his experience.

And as to the truth of this - of course - only he would know.

David (both of him)




 On 31 Aug 2010, at 19:36, Rex Allen wrote:

 On Mon, Aug 30, 2010 at 11:11 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 So idealist accidentalism...the view that what exists is mental, and
 that there is no underlying process that explains or governs this
 existence.

 If idealist accidentalism is correct then there is no theory at all.

 Well, I'd have to hear your definition of theory and what the
 conditions are for its existence.

 The existence of a theory is usually not the object of the theory, but of a
 metatheory.

 In some case the metatheory can itself be an object of the theory. For
 example zoologists are animal (but botanist are not plant). Since Gödel we
 know 

Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-01 Thread Rex Allen
On Wed, Sep 1, 2010 at 2:14 AM, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:
 Euh..

 I'm sorry but where did I state my belief in the preceeding message ? Where
 did I spoke about physicalism ?

 I spoke about idealist accidentalism in answer to Bruno who said wrongly
 it's been refuted when it's not because well... read the preceeding message.

I did read your preceeding message.  And what I got out of it is that
if you consistently apply your evaluative criteria, you should
conclude that physicalism, platonism, deism, theism, arithmetical
realism and all other metaphysical theories that reduce conscious
experience to some sort of underlying rule-governed framework are
irrefutable and thus valueless.

But what are alternatives to rule-governed metaphysical frameworks?

Accidentalism, and...what else?  Refraining from metaphysical
speculation altogether?

Rex

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Sep 2010, at 20:03, David Nyman wrote:


On 1 September 2010 09:21, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


How does my experience of
dreaming of a tree connect to numbers?  What is it that generates my
experience of a tree from the brutely existing substrate of numbers?


Well, from the true but non communicable part given by the self- 
reference
logic of self-introspecting (ideally correct) programs (machine,  
numbers,

theories ... words are used in a large sense here).


Rex's question excerpted above, and Bruno's response to it, seem to
relate directly to the topic I had in mind in my original post.
Speaking, as it were, somewhat in Bruno's rather large sense, the
brutely existing substrate of numbers might correspond to that
particular perspective on the Real which is characterised by
abstraction to what I called the pole of maximal fragmentation - i.e.
the role presumably occupied by the quantum field and its
manifestations in current physical theory.  The self-reference logic
of self-introspecting (ideally correct) programs (machine, numbers,
theories ..., would then be seen in the role of a combinatorial logic
operating over this domain - that occupied, in physical theory, by
whatever are supposed to be considered the fundamental relations
between physical ultimates.

The key subtlety then devolves on the true but non communicable
part.  This seems very difficult to state concisely.  Perhaps what
makes it elusive is that first one has to appreciate that the
self-introspecting logic is (somehow) already capable of grasping that
certain of its beliefs have the characteristic of implying to the
believer, in a certain sense, the metaphysical distinctness of their
referents.  To see this, let us consider Logical-David - i.e. that
aspect of David that is purely a manifestation of self-introspecting
(ideally correct) programs.  This Logical-David possesses - i.e. is
(partially) constituted by - certain self-referential beliefs that
mediate relations between himself and the objects of his
experience.  He is already, within the constraints of this purely
logical substrate, capable of demonstrating consistent commitment to
such beliefs, and to their putative referents; indeed this is what
motivates any communicable judgement or statement whatsoever that he
is capable of producing about them.  There is something more, however.
There is something that already seems to him to transcend this purely
logical substrate, something somehow metaphysically distinct, that
seems to arise from its peculiarly self-referencing character.  It
seems somehow to be those very objects of experience themselves.

On reflection, however, Logical-David is (just) able to see that all
these considerations can still be confined within the constitutive
substrate of numbers and combinatorial logic.  Or to put it another
way, as someone notoriously said, he would say that, wouldn't he?
Whatever this extra something might, or might not, be, he is incapable
of communicating it directly.


Yes.  It is the truth as such that he cannot communicate. The third  
person description can be confined in the combinatorials, but not the  
truth. Like the truth of feeling to be the one reconstituted at here  
or there in self-multipliation. A part of truth is livable, but non  
communicable as such.




Consequently, purely logically, he
must (just) concede that any such putative metaphysical distinctness
could still be, from a purely logical standpoint, chimerical.


No. G* extended properly G. There is two self-referential logics. The  
true one, obeying G*, and the communicable part G.
The machine can expect that the same thing (truth) obeys different  
logic (first person, third person). Incompleteness protects the  
machine from confusing the views. If he takes G* minus G as  
chimerical, he becomes inconsistent, or it lacks self correctness.




 In
other words, it would appear that he cannot, with pure logic, rule out
the possibility - even to himself - of Logical-David being merely a
zombie.


No. Even the zombie can see that he cannot. That's why the self- 
referentially correct machine cannot be a zombie.




And indeed, Logical-David is, precisely, such a zombie.


In a sense you are right. But such a third person describable logical  
david, is more akin to David's body, than David the (first) person,  
which (by definition) is connected to the truth. You are confusing Bp,  
and Bp  p. The third person self and the first person self.



Actually, in this somewhat etiolated form he really should be
considered more an intriguing interpretation of the
mathematico-logical substrate than a person, as it were, in his own
right

Can there be no escape from this seemingly doleful logic?  Yes, if
there is *in fact* a David whose personal individuation is able to
transcend its merely logical embodiment.


That's what G* and its intensional variants offer on a plate.



And such transcendence
indeed implies a metaphysically distinct, 

Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-09-01 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2010/9/2 Rex Allen rexallen31...@gmail.com

 On Wed, Sep 1, 2010 at 2:14 AM, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com
 wrote:
  Euh..
 
  I'm sorry but where did I state my belief in the preceeding message ?
 Where
  did I spoke about physicalism ?
 
  I spoke about idealist accidentalism in answer to Bruno who said
 wrongly
  it's been refuted when it's not because well... read the preceeding
 message.

 I did read your preceeding message.  And what I got out of it is that
 if you consistently apply your evaluative criteria, you should
 conclude that physicalism, platonism, deism, theism, arithmetical
 realism and all other metaphysical theories that reduce conscious
 experience to some sort of underlying rule-governed framework are
 irrefutable and thus valueless.



You're the one saying that. The problem with idealist accidentalism (like
with sollipsism) is that you can change at will to adapt to the fact. It's
not the case with the others (but is the case with
theism/deism/magic/bisounours world/etc).

Quentin



 But what are alternatives to rule-governed metaphysical frameworks?

 Accidentalism, and...what else?  Refraining from metaphysical
 speculation altogether?

 Rex

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-08-31 Thread Rex Allen
On Mon, Aug 30, 2010 at 11:11 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 So idealist accidentalism...the view that what exists is mental, and
 that there is no underlying process that explains or governs this
 existence.

 If idealist accidentalism is correct then there is no theory at all.

Well, I'd have to hear your definition of theory and what the
conditions are for its existence.

So obviously something exists...my conscious experience of this
moment.  This experience is a multifaceted thing...in that there are
many things I am conscious of in this moment.

But this is true of dreams as well.  I am conscious of many things in
a dream, but those aren't things that exist outside or independently
of the dream.

So what accounts for the dream?  Numbers?  How does my experience of
dreaming of a tree connect to numbers?  What is it that generates my
experience of a tree from the brutely existing substrate of numbers?

Why should numbers give rise to my dream experience of a tree?
Obviously I can use numbers to represent the tree...in the sense that
I can use saved numerical measurements to re-present the tree to my
self...if I can remember how to interpret the measurements.  And I'm
even willing to grant that I can use numbers to represent my
experience of the tree.  But representation is just the re-presenting
of something to your conscious experience, which is not at all the
same as explaining the fact of that experience.


 But idealist accidentalism is a theory (even if vague)
 So there is no theory, and there is one theory.
 So 0 = 1.
 Contradiction.
 So idealist accidentalism is refuted.

I think you should have your logician license revoked...


 You may save it by insisting that idealist accidentalism is not a theory. It
 would be a mere philosophical injunction of the type  dont' ask, don't
 search.

I think it is a just a recognition that Agrippa's trilemma and the
principle of sufficient reason lead to infinite levels of infinite
regress.  Which I take as a sign that there's something wrong with
that type of interpretation of our conscious experience.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-08-31 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2010/8/30 Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be


 On 29 Aug 2010, at 21:20, Rex Allen wrote:

  On Sat, Aug 28, 2010 at 12:00 PM, Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net
 wrote:


   Excellent topic and comments! Naturalism does seem to be a
 natural condition of humans given their predilection for supernatural or
 supranatural explanations of events that have no simplistic explanations,
 i.e. in terms of their common every day experiences which are limited by
 their socioeconomic conditions. I am not sure what Idealist Accidentalism
 would entail… Could you elaborate on this, Rex?


 By idealist I'm referring to metaphysical idealism...that what
 fundamentally exists is mental, not physical.  And by mental I mean
 either consciousness or existing only as an aspect of consciousness.
 For example, there is my conscious experience of a dream, and then
 there are the things that appear in my dreams that I am conscious
 of...houses and chairs and trees and people.  Both categories of
 things are mental.  The trees that appear in my dreams only exist as
 an aspect of the dream.

 And by accidentalism I mean the theory that nothing that exists or
 occurs is caused.  There is nothing that connects or controls the flow
 of events.  The only rule is that there are no rules to appeal to.

 So idealist accidentalism...the view that what exists is mental, and
 that there is no underlying process that explains or governs this
 existence.


 If idealist accidentalism is correct then there is no theory at all.
 But idealist accidentalism is a theory (even if vague)
 So there is no theory, and there is one theory.
 So 0 = 1.
 Contradiction.
 So idealist accidentalism is refuted.


I'm sorry bruno... but that is sophism...

Regards,
Quentin



 You may save it by insisting that idealist accidentalism is not a theory.
 It would be a mere philosophical injunction of the type  dont' ask, don't
 search.

 hmm...


 Bruno

 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/%7Emarchal/



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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-08-31 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2010/9/1 Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com



 2010/8/30 Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be


 On 29 Aug 2010, at 21:20, Rex Allen wrote:

  On Sat, Aug 28, 2010 at 12:00 PM, Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net
 wrote:


   Excellent topic and comments! Naturalism does seem to be a
 natural condition of humans given their predilection for supernatural or
 supranatural explanations of events that have no simplistic
 explanations,
 i.e. in terms of their common every day experiences which are limited by
 their socioeconomic conditions. I am not sure what Idealist
 Accidentalism
 would entail… Could you elaborate on this, Rex?


 By idealist I'm referring to metaphysical idealism...that what
 fundamentally exists is mental, not physical.  And by mental I mean
 either consciousness or existing only as an aspect of consciousness.
 For example, there is my conscious experience of a dream, and then
 there are the things that appear in my dreams that I am conscious
 of...houses and chairs and trees and people.  Both categories of
 things are mental.  The trees that appear in my dreams only exist as
 an aspect of the dream.

 And by accidentalism I mean the theory that nothing that exists or
 occurs is caused.  There is nothing that connects or controls the flow
 of events.  The only rule is that there are no rules to appeal to.

 So idealist accidentalism...the view that what exists is mental, and
 that there is no underlying process that explains or governs this
 existence.


 If idealist accidentalism is correct then there is no theory at all.
 But idealist accidentalism is a theory (even if vague)
 So there is no theory, and there is one theory.
 So 0 = 1.
 Contradiction.
 So idealist accidentalism is refuted.


 I'm sorry bruno... but that is sophism...

 Regards,
 Quentin



I should just add that idealist accidentalism is *exactly* as irrefutable
as solipsism.

Hence by that it has no value... but it's not refuted.

Regards,
Quentin



 You may save it by insisting that idealist accidentalism is not a theory.
 It would be a mere philosophical injunction of the type  dont' ask, don't
 search.

 hmm...


 Bruno

 http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/ http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/%7Emarchal/



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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-08-31 Thread Rex Allen
On Tue, Aug 31, 2010 at 6:15 PM, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:

 I should just add that idealist accidentalism is *exactly* as irrefutable
 as solipsism.

 Hence by that it has no value... but it's not refuted.

What would refute physicalism?  It would seem to me that quantum
mechanics is sufficiently flexible to account for nearly any
observation, especially since the many worlds interpretation and the
possibility of multiverses would seem likely to give rise to so many
permutations.

Even probabilistic physical laws and a single infinite universe would
still seem likely to give rise to some pretty bizarre scenarios,
wouldn’t it?

Now, maybe quantum mechanics will be replaced by a different theory,
but can you imagine any possible feature of such a theory that would
rule out a physicalist interpretation?

And, again, any rule-based framework for explaining our conscious
experiences means, by definition, that don’t present or believe
arguments for reasons of logic or rationality.  Instead, the arguments
that we present and believe are those entailed by the rules that
underlie our experiences.

That these rules generate rational beliefs is a leap of faith, and can
neither be refuted nor proven.

If the underlying process *didn’t* cause us to present and believe
rational arguments, there would be no way to detect this, since there
is no way to step outside of the process’s control of one’s beliefs to
independently verify the reasonableness of the beliefs it generates.

A physicalist may be correct about the physical nature of reality, but
if so, this is solely due to his improbable good luck in existing in a
rare honest physical universe whose initial conditions and causal
laws resulted in his holding true beliefs about his universe's initial
conditions and causal laws.

Given all that, ultimately I doubt your beliefs are any better footing
than solipsism either.

Rex

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-08-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 Aug 2010, at 21:20, Rex Allen wrote:

On Sat, Aug 28, 2010 at 12:00 PM, Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net 
 wrote:


   Excellent topic and comments! Naturalism does seem to be a
natural condition of humans given their predilection for  
supernatural or
supranatural explanations of events that have no simplistic  
explanations,
i.e. in terms of their common every day experiences which are  
limited by
their socioeconomic conditions. I am not sure what Idealist  
Accidentalism

would entail… Could you elaborate on this, Rex?


By idealist I'm referring to metaphysical idealism...that what
fundamentally exists is mental, not physical.  And by mental I mean
either consciousness or existing only as an aspect of consciousness.
For example, there is my conscious experience of a dream, and then
there are the things that appear in my dreams that I am conscious
of...houses and chairs and trees and people.  Both categories of
things are mental.  The trees that appear in my dreams only exist as
an aspect of the dream.

And by accidentalism I mean the theory that nothing that exists or
occurs is caused.  There is nothing that connects or controls the flow
of events.  The only rule is that there are no rules to appeal to.

So idealist accidentalism...the view that what exists is mental, and
that there is no underlying process that explains or governs this
existence.


If idealist accidentalism is correct then there is no theory at all.
But idealist accidentalism is a theory (even if vague)
So there is no theory, and there is one theory.
So 0 = 1.
Contradiction.
So idealist accidentalism is refuted.

You may save it by insisting that idealist accidentalism is not a  
theory. It would be a mere philosophical injunction of the type   
dont' ask, don't search.


hmm...

Bruno

http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-08-29 Thread Rex Allen
On Sat, Aug 28, 2010 at 12:00 PM, Stephen P. King stephe...@charter.net wrote:

 Excellent topic and comments! Naturalism does seem to be a
 natural condition of humans given their predilection for supernatural or
 supranatural explanations of events that have no simplistic explanations,
 i.e. in terms of their common every day experiences which are limited by
 their socioeconomic conditions. I am not sure what Idealist Accidentalism
 would entail… Could you elaborate on this, Rex?

By idealist I'm referring to metaphysical idealism...that what
fundamentally exists is mental, not physical.  And by mental I mean
either consciousness or existing only as an aspect of consciousness.
For example, there is my conscious experience of a dream, and then
there are the things that appear in my dreams that I am conscious
of...houses and chairs and trees and people.  Both categories of
things are mental.  The trees that appear in my dreams only exist as
an aspect of the dream.

And by accidentalism I mean the theory that nothing that exists or
occurs is caused.  There is nothing that connects or controls the flow
of events.  The only rule is that there are no rules to appeal to.

So idealist accidentalism...the view that what exists is mental, and
that there is no underlying process that explains or governs this
existence.

Explaining the order of our experience by positing the existence of
orderly underlying processes (as with reductive physicalism, for
example) is just begging the question...because then what explains the
order of those underlying processes?

The total amount of mystery was conserved.  We just transferred the
mystery to a new location - from our conscious experience to a
hypothetical underlying process.  We are unwilling to accept that our
experiences just are orderly, so instead we appeal to an underlying
process which just is orderly.  Ordo Ex Machina.

Not only that, but this reductionist approach raises the question of
why we would be so lucky as to have our conscious experiences
generated by underlying processes that cause us to have correct
knowledge of those very processes.

We can only know what the underlying process causes us to know.  Thus,
the tendency to believe true things can't be a special feature of
humans.  Rather, it would be a special feature of the process that
underlies human experience.

But, again, this is a problem with any rule-based explanation of
reality, not just with reductive physicalism.

But the only alternative to a rule-based explanation of reality is
accidentalism, isn't it?


 Could I propose a hypothesis about rules and causality? I will try to keep
 my explanation here simplistic to save time and space so please take that
 into account as you read this. First, if we are going to eliminate all
 traces of supranaturalism from our considerations, does it not behoove us to
 be sure that we are bringing the Observer at Infinity in some other guise?
 This notion of rules concerns me because it seems to imply that either
 some entity established them ab initio or else their existence is simply the
 result of some selective mechanism.

But then what is the selective mechanism a result of?


 Naturalism would involve making sure
 that it is not the former case. I think that the work of thinkers like
 Russell Standish and Nick Bostrom are making great strides to help us
 understand this later possibility. It could very well be that these rules
 are simply patterns of commonality that emerge between a large number of
 interacting systems,

Emerge by what rule?  Or do they emerge randomly?  If so, that takes
us back to accidentalism, doesn't it?

Also, a large number of interacting systems is just a system, isn't
it?  At the very least a system of interacting systems.  Where the
boundaries are drawn is all in how you look at...I would think.

With the right mapping you can find any pattern anywhere, can't you?
What privileges one interpretational mapping over another?


 What Pratt proposes is a more subtle version of this that assumes a
 duality relationship between information and matter. Explained here
 http://chu.stanford.edu/guide.html#ratmech , this duality involves a
 transition rule that move us a bit toward making sense of the kinds of great
 questions that Rex points out below.

Maybe it is that way...but if so, I wonder why?  Why is it that way
instead of some other way?

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RE: What's wrong with this?

2010-08-28 Thread Stephen P. King
Hi Folks,

 

Excellent topic and comments! Naturalism does seem to be a
natural condition of humans given their predilection for supernatural or
supranatural explanations of events that have no simplistic explanations,
i.e. in terms of their common every day experiences which are limited by
their socioeconomic conditions. I am not sure what Idealist Accidentalism
would entail. Could you elaborate on this, Rex?

 

Could I propose a hypothesis about rules and causality? I will try to keep
my explanation here simplistic to save time and space so please take that
into account as you read this. First, if we are going to eliminate all
traces of supranaturalism from our considerations, does it not behoove us to
be sure that we are bringing the Observer at Infinity in some other guise?
This notion of rules concerns me because it seems to imply that either
some entity established them ab initio or else their existence is simply the
result of some selective mechanism. Naturalism would involve making sure
that it is not the former case. I think that the work of thinkers like
Russell Standish and Nick Bostrom are making great strides to help us
understand this later possibility. It could very well be that these rules
are simply patterns of commonality that emerge between a large number of
interacting systems, following something like a cross between learning or
'habituation and a least action principle. 

In the work of Vaughan Pratt
(http://boole.stanford.edu/pratt.html) I found an interesting way of
thinking of causality. It is part of his Chu space based model of
concurrence and interactions. To set things up let us first think of what
goes on in the transition from one event to another in a sequence in time,
the context within which the notion of causality arises. When we consider
some event a as being the cause of some other event b, is it always the case
that a and b where unique in that there was only one possible b for the
given a? 

This question might not make any sense in the classical regime where its
determinism involves a strict one-to-one and onto mapping between successive
events in time, but this is not true for QM. In quantum mechanics we have
the situation that unless the conditions and systems are severely restricted
for any a there is a spectrum of possible b_i that could obtain via the
superposition rule. This is one reason we have all sorts of so-called
problems with QM as it does not let us get away with the one-to-one and onto
maps of classical dynamics.

So, I am lead to the question, given the (a, b_i) pair which represents a
state and the set of its possible next states, what about the time
reversed situation? Well, we find that for some b there is not just one
possible a; what we find is another many-to-one sort of mapping, just
pointing in the opposite direction (b, a_j). We can see this explicitly in
the bra and ket notations and people like John Cramer and others have seized
upon this to think about interactions that go both forward and backward
in time. What Pratt proposes is a more subtle version of this that assumes a
duality relationship between information and matter. Explained here
http://chu.stanford.edu/guide.html#ratmech , this duality involves a
transition rule that move us a bit toward making sense of the kinds of great
questions that Rex points out below.

The rule, put very crudely, is that for a to cause b, b must imply a; where
the material act of causation is the dual of the logical act of implication.
Let me quote directly from Pratt's paper:

 

We propose to reduce complex mind-body interaction to the elementary
interactions

of their constituents. Events of the body interact with states of the

mind. This interaction has two dual forms. A physical event a in the body

A impresses its occurrence on a mental state x of the mind X, written a=|x.

Dually, in state x the mind infers the prior occurrence of event a, written
x |= a.

States may be understood as corresponding more or less to the possible
worlds

of a Kripke structure, and events to propositions that may or may not hold
in

different worlds of that structure.

With regard to orientation, impression is causal and its direction is that

of time. Inference is logical, and logic swims upstream against time.
Prolog's

backward-chaining strategy dualizes this by viewing logic as primary and
time

as swimming upstream against logic, but this amounts to the same thing. The

basic idea is that time and logic flow in opposite directions.

 

Of course we have to get past the objections to dualism for this
idea to be taken seriously, but I believe that it goes a long way to
understanding causality in a wider context.

 

Kindest regards,

 

Stephen

 

 

From: everything-list@googlegroups.com
[mailto:everything-l...@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of Rex Allen
Sent: Friday, August 27, 2010 1:09 PM
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: What's wrong with this?

 

On Thu

Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-08-28 Thread Brent Meeker
 and logic flow in opposite directions.

Of course we have to get past the objections to dualism 
for this idea to be taken seriously, but I believe that it goes a long 
way to understanding causality in a wider context.


Kindest regards,

Stephen

*From:* everything-list@googlegroups.com 
[mailto:everything-l...@googlegroups.com] *On Behalf Of *Rex Allen

*Sent:* Friday, August 27, 2010 1:09 PM
*To:* everything-list@googlegroups.com
*Subject:* Re: What's wrong with this?

On Thu, Aug 26, 2010 at 12:37 PM, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com 
mailto:david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:

 If we could remove ourselves from the universe and take a strict
 reductionist-god's eye view (which means having to drop all our usual
 mental categories - a very hard thing to achieve imaginatively) then,
 strictly adhering to the above hypothesis, all that would remain would
 be some ground-level physical machine grinding along, without the need
 for additional composite or macroscopic posits.  Take your pick from
 current theory what is supposed to represent this machine, but that
 needn't necessarily be at issue for the purpose of the argument.  The
 point is that removing everything composite from the picture
 supposedly results in zero difference at the base level - same events,
 same causality.

It seems to me that the primary question is about causality.  Once you 
commit to the idea of a rule-governed system, you're already in a 
radically restrictive regime.  Whether the system is physical or 
ideal or whatever seems largely irrelevant.


But what is the alternative to a rule-governed system?

How can the occurrence of any event be explained *except* by 
attributing that occurrence to some rule?  Which is just to say that 
the event occurred for some reason.


But if everything has a reason, then there are an infinity of reasons 
even if there are only a finite number of things that initially need 
explanation.  Because for every reason there should be a another 
reason that explains why the rule the reason refers to holds instead 
of not holding or instead of some other rule holding in it's place or 
in addition to it.


And then we need a reason for each one of the reasons for our original 
reasons.  And so on, ad infinitum.  But why our particular set of 
infinite reasons instead of some other set of infinite reasons?  What 
is the reason for that?


The alternative is that some things happen for no reason.  But in this 
case, why would some things have explanations while others don't?  
What is the reason for the two categories?


Maybe, instead, there is no reason for anything?  How would we know?  
What would eliminate this possibility from consideration?


So...reductive physicalism.  It seems like only one example of a 
larger problem.


Maybe Idealist Accidentalism is the answer?

snip.

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-08-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 Aug 2010, at 02:26, David Nyman wrote:


On 27 August 2010 19:21, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

But most reductionist would say that they believe in atom and in  
their

properties, and this makes it possible to enter in a great variety of
different combinations having themselves even more non trivial  
properties.
Why would a reductionist be committed in saying that such higher  
level

features do not exist?


Well, such reductionists could not of course be eliminativist about
these higher level features and properties.  But this then commits
them to the metaphysical reality - in some sense - of the higher level
features, as distinct from their components.  And this some sense is
- at minimum - Kant's sense of appearance as distinct from whatever
may be the thing in itself.  I guess my overall thesis is that
everyone, whatever kind of -ist they avow themselves to be, can't
help but be committed to the metaphysical reality of the objects of
perception (even when they implicitly locate them out there in some
un-Kantian, directly real way).  That's just our situation.
Eliminating this sense can only lead to frank incoherence, and my
argument, by pushing the notion to breaking point in the form of a
reductio ad absurdum, was simply meant to make this particularly
obvious.


I agree with you. We are going in the same drection.






But the reductionist-god's eye view (if we've done it
right) should convince us - weirdly, but unavoidably - that they  
just

aren't automatically out there, metaphysically, at our disposal.


I don't see why.


I mean out there, where some level-zero domain of maximal
fragmentation (what Levine calls basic physical properties) is
posited - according to the extreme view I'm criticising - as the sole
metaphysically reality.  Remember, my argument is presented in the
form of a reductio of just this position, by limiting it *strictly* to
what it is entitled to under its own explicit metaphysical
constraints.


OK.





I suppose the nub of this for me is that - whether we consider
ourselves monist or dualist, or amongst the ontological  
uncommitted -

we have need of both analytic and integrative principles to account
for the states of affairs that confront us.


But the reductionist will explain the integrative part through the
properties of its elementary objects.


Yes, and no such explaining can possibly be legitimate within the
constraint of a *strict eliminativist* metaphysics.  One cannot
consistently claim a) that only basic physical entities and events
are real, and b) go on appealing to explanations involving all
manner of composite entities and concepts.  A further metaphysical
something is thereby being invoked, whether one likes it or not.  The
fully eliminated mechanism isn't supposed to need explanations to
get its job done.  That is the point of the posit of metaphysical
exclusivity.  But of course eliminativists actually do still need
explanations, and that's their tragedy (or perhaps their salvation).
But they can't eat their metaphysical cake, and have it too.


You are right. In a sense that is what happened with the abndon of the  
Hilbert program in math, after Gödel's paper. Hilbert wanted to secure  
the foundation of math by eliminating intuition (your metaphysical  
import) and making math relying only on finite things and finite  
rules. It just don't work: intuition is just not eliminable. Scientist  
have to admit that they rely always on metaphysical assumption at some  
level.






Of course the extra metaphysical something is inextricably bound up
with consciousness and the first-person.


Her *I¨agree with you, sure.




My point is that
eliminativists have little option but to go on appealing to all the
paraphernalia of the composite objects of perception, even whilst
simultaneously denying that their referents have any metaphysical
reality.  They're still just as apparent - whether in here or out
there - as if they'd never been eliminated!  Such blatant
metaphysical theft is concealed only because of the almost insuperable
tendency to go on deploying this language and these concepts, even
after insisting that whatever they refer to is to be eliminated from
one's metaphysics.


OK.







But in elementary arithmetic, you can prove the existence of  
numbers with
very long and complex high level properties. You don't need to  
postulate

them.


This is a horse of a different colour, and perhaps a different
conversation.  I have been pondering quite a bit since our last
interchange, and now it strikes me (perhaps rather late in the
proceedings) that it is central to your thesis that the bare
properties of substance physics are just *insufficiently rich* to
explain the first person phenomena (including the metaphysical
distinctness of the composite entities of perception from the
fragmented events of physics).  My eliminativist reductio just makes
this more obvious, at least to me, because it demonstrates that one
cannot avoid 

Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-08-27 Thread Jason Resch
,
 
  Stephen
 
  -Original Message-
  From: everything-list@googlegroups.com
  [mailto:everything-l...@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of David Nyman
  Sent: Thursday, August 26, 2010 12:38 PM
  To: Everything List
  Subject: What's wrong with this?
 
  I've been waking up with a persistent thought again, prompted this time
 by
  the way many mainstream philosophers of mind seem to unconsciously adopt
 a
  particularly insidious form of direct realism, whilst being quite blind
 to
  it.  It centers on the idea of extreme physical reductionism, which I
 take
  to be the hypothesis that all composite phenomena can be completely
 recast,
  in principle, in the form of a causally complete and closed ground
 level
  account of non- composite micro-physical events.  I'm not concerned at
 this
  point whether such a restrictive view is true, or whether it is at odds
  with digital mechanism etc., but only that I take it to be a core
 assumption
  from which numerous people, including many philosophers, derive theories
 of
  the mental.  I want to argue that the consequences of such a view are
  perhaps more radically restrictive than commonly assumed.
 
  If we could remove ourselves from the universe and take a strict
  reductionist-god's eye view (which means having to drop all our usual
 mental
  categories - a very hard thing to achieve imaginatively) then, strictly
  adhering to the above hypothesis, all that would remain would be some
  ground-level physical machine grinding along, without the need for
  additional composite or macroscopic posits.  Take your pick from current
  theory what is supposed to represent this machine, but that needn't
  necessarily be at issue for the purpose of the argument.  The point is
 that
  removing everything composite from the picture supposedly results in zero
  difference at the base level - same events, same causality.
 
  I should stress, again, I'm not personally committed to this view - it
 seems
  indeed highly problematic - but it is what the recipe says.
  Now, just to emphasize the point, when I say it's a hard thing to do this
  imaginatively, I mean that it isn't permissible to look back
  from this reductionist-god's eye view and continue to conjure familiar
  composite entities from the conjectural base components, because
  reductionism is a commitment to the proposition that these don't exist.
  Whatever composite categories we might be tempted to have recourse to -
 you
  know: molecules, cells, bodies, planets, ideas, explanations, theories,
 the
  whole ball of wax - none of these are available from this perspective.
  Don't need them.  More rigorously, they *must not be invoked* because
 they
  *do not exist*.  They don't need to exist, because the machine doesn't
 need
  them to carry all the load and do all the work.
 
  Now, many people might be prompted to object at this point that's not
  reducing, that's eliminating as though these terms could be kept
 distinct.
  But I'm arguing that reductionism, consistently applied, is inescapably
  eliminative.  The hypothesis was that base-level events are
 self-sufficient
  and consequently must be granted metaphysical (and hence physical)
  reality.  Nothing else is required to explain why the machine exists and
  works, so nothing else need - or indeed can non- question-beggingly - be
  postulated.  If we really feel we must insist that there is something
  metaphysically indispensable above and beyond this (and it would seem
 that
  we have good reason to) we must look for an additional metaphysical
  somewhere to locate these somethings.
 
  Essentially we now have two options.  We can follow Kant in locating them
 in
  a metaphysically real synthetic first-person category that transcends the
  ground-level (which stands here, approximately, for the
 thing-in-itself).
  The alternative - and this is the option that many philosophers seem to
  adopt by some directly real sleight-of- intuition - is that we somehow
  locate them out there right on top of the micro-physical account.  It's
  easy to do: just look damn you, there they are, can't you see them?  And
 in
  any case, one wants to protest, how can one predict, explain or
 comprehend
  anything above the ground floor *without* such categories?  Yes, that is
  indeed the very question.  But the reductionist-god's eye view (if we've
  done it
  right) should convince us - weirdly, but unavoidably - that they just
 aren't
  automatically out there, metaphysically, at our disposal.  If this
 eludes
  us, it can only be because we've fallen into the error of retaining these
  indispensable organising categories intact, naturally but illicitly,
 whilst
  attempting this imaginative feat.  Unfortunately this is to beg the very
  questions we seek to answer.
 
  I suppose the nub of this for me is that - whether we consider ourselves
  monist or dualist, or amongst the ontological uncommitted - we have need
 of
  both analytic and integrative principles

Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-08-27 Thread Rex Allen
On Thu, Aug 26, 2010 at 12:37 PM, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 If we could remove ourselves from the universe and take a strict
 reductionist-god's eye view (which means having to drop all our usual
 mental categories - a very hard thing to achieve imaginatively) then,
 strictly adhering to the above hypothesis, all that would remain would
 be some ground-level physical machine grinding along, without the need
 for additional composite or macroscopic posits.  Take your pick from
 current theory what is supposed to represent this machine, but that
 needn't necessarily be at issue for the purpose of the argument.  The
 point is that removing everything composite from the picture
 supposedly results in zero difference at the base level - same events,
 same causality.

It seems to me that the primary question is about causality.  Once you
commit to the idea of a rule-governed system, you're already in a radically
restrictive regime.  Whether the system is physical or ideal or whatever
seems largely irrelevant.

But what is the alternative to a rule-governed system?

How can the occurrence of any event be explained *except* by attributing
that occurrence to some rule?  Which is just to say that the event occurred
for some reason.

But if everything has a reason, then there are an infinity of reasons even
if there are only a finite number of things that initially need
explanation.  Because for every reason there should be a another reason that
explains why the rule the reason refers to holds instead of not holding or
instead of some other rule holding in it's place or in addition to it.

And then we need a reason for each one of the reasons for our original
reasons.  And so on, ad infinitum.  But why our particular set of infinite
reasons instead of some other set of inifinite reasons?  What is the reason
for that?

The alternative is that some things happen for no reason.  But in this case,
why would some things have explanations while others don't?  What is the
reason for the two categories?

Maybe, instead, there is no reason for anything?  How would we know?  What
would eliminate this possibility from consideration?

So...reductive physicalism.  It seems like only one example of a larger
problem.

Maybe Idealist Accidentalism is the answer?


On Thu, Aug 26, 2010 at 7:04 PM, David Nyman david.ny...@gmail.com wrote:
 I suppose that evolution has equipped us with such an
 instinctive commitment to naturalism...

Why would that be the case?  And if true, what does it mean?

In a deterministic world view, such as the Newtonian one that was in favor
in 1859 when Darwin published On the Origin of Species, the answer is
simple:  it is a necessary and inevitable consequence of the universe's
initial conditions and causal laws that humans have an instinctive
commitment to naturalism.

So in a deterministic universe, questions about evolution are ultimately
just questions about initial conditions and causal laws.

In a probabilistic world view, we add an element of chance to initial
conditions and causal laws.  The universe no longer plays chess...instead it
plays poker.  There are still rules, but the rules include randomly
shuffling the deck between hands and keeping the hole cards hidden.

In a probabilistic universe, questions about evolution are still ultimately
questions about initial conditions and causal laws.  The constrained
randomness involved of how events actually transpire is an aspect of the
universe's framework of governing laws.

So, either way:  We have an instinctive commitment to naturalism because the
universe has caused us to have an instinctive commitment to naturalism.

Given that this is the case, should be more inclined to trust this instinct,
or less?

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Re: What's wrong with this?

2010-08-27 Thread David Nyman
On 27 August 2010 19:21, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 But most reductionist would say that they believe in atom and in their
 properties, and this makes it possible to enter in a great variety of
 different combinations having themselves even more non trivial properties.
 Why would a reductionist be committed in saying that such higher level
 features do not exist?

Well, such reductionists could not of course be eliminativist about
these higher level features and properties.  But this then commits
them to the metaphysical reality - in some sense - of the higher level
features, as distinct from their components.  And this some sense is
- at minimum - Kant's sense of appearance as distinct from whatever
may be the thing in itself.  I guess my overall thesis is that
everyone, whatever kind of -ist they avow themselves to be, can't
help but be committed to the metaphysical reality of the objects of
perception (even when they implicitly locate them out there in some
un-Kantian, directly real way).  That's just our situation.
Eliminating this sense can only lead to frank incoherence, and my
argument, by pushing the notion to breaking point in the form of a
reductio ad absurdum, was simply meant to make this particularly
obvious.

 But the reductionist-god's eye view (if we've done it
 right) should convince us - weirdly, but unavoidably - that they just
 aren't automatically out there, metaphysically, at our disposal.

 I don't see why.

I mean out there, where some level-zero domain of maximal
fragmentation (what Levine calls basic physical properties) is
posited - according to the extreme view I'm criticising - as the sole
metaphysically reality.  Remember, my argument is presented in the
form of a reductio of just this position, by limiting it *strictly* to
what it is entitled to under its own explicit metaphysical
constraints.

 I suppose the nub of this for me is that - whether we consider
 ourselves monist or dualist, or amongst the ontological uncommitted -
 we have need of both analytic and integrative principles to account
 for the states of affairs that confront us.

 But the reductionist will explain the integrative part through the
 properties of its elementary objects.

Yes, and no such explaining can possibly be legitimate within the
constraint of a *strict eliminativist* metaphysics.  One cannot
consistently claim a) that only basic physical entities and events
are real, and b) go on appealing to explanations involving all
manner of composite entities and concepts.  A further metaphysical
something is thereby being invoked, whether one likes it or not.  The
fully eliminated mechanism isn't supposed to need explanations to
get its job done.  That is the point of the posit of metaphysical
exclusivity.  But of course eliminativists actually do still need
explanations, and that's their tragedy (or perhaps their salvation).
But they can't eat their metaphysical cake, and have it too.

Of course the extra metaphysical something is inextricably bound up
with consciousness and the first-person. My point is that
eliminativists have little option but to go on appealing to all the
paraphernalia of the composite objects of perception, even whilst
simultaneously denying that their referents have any metaphysical
reality.  They're still just as apparent - whether in here or out
there - as if they'd never been eliminated!  Such blatant
metaphysical theft is concealed only because of the almost insuperable
tendency to go on deploying this language and these concepts, even
after insisting that whatever they refer to is to be eliminated from
one's metaphysics.


 But in elementary arithmetic, you can prove the existence of numbers with
 very long and complex high level properties. You don't need to postulate
 them.

This is a horse of a different colour, and perhaps a different
conversation.  I have been pondering quite a bit since our last
interchange, and now it strikes me (perhaps rather late in the
proceedings) that it is central to your thesis that the bare
properties of substance physics are just *insufficiently rich* to
explain the first person phenomena (including the metaphysical
distinctness of the composite entities of perception from the
fragmented events of physics).  My eliminativist reductio just makes
this more obvious, at least to me, because it demonstrates that one
cannot avoid further metaphysical posits even to be able to speak
intelligibly about reality.  But as you say above, arithmetic
potentially offers much more in terms of the needful combinatorial
richness of properties - perhaps enough to do the job, or at least
most of it.

David


 On 26 Aug 2010, at 18:37, David Nyman wrote:

 I've been waking up with a persistent thought again, prompted this
 time by the way many mainstream philosophers of mind seem to
 unconsciously adopt a particularly insidious form of direct realism,
 whilst being quite blind to it.  It centres on the idea of extreme
 physical reductionism, which I 

What's wrong with this?

2010-08-26 Thread David Nyman
I've been waking up with a persistent thought again, prompted this
time by the way many mainstream philosophers of mind seem to
unconsciously adopt a particularly insidious form of direct realism,
whilst being quite blind to it.  It centres on the idea of extreme
physical reductionism, which I take to be the hypothesis that all
composite phenomena can be completely recast, in principle, in the
form of a causally complete and closed ground level account of non-
composite micro-physical events.  I'm not concerned at this point
whether such a restrictive view is true, or whether it is at odds
with digital mechanism etc., but only that I take it to be a core
assumption from which numerous people, including many philosophers,
derive theories of the mental.  I want to argue that the consequences
of such a view are perhaps more radically restrictive than commonly
assumed.

If we could remove ourselves from the universe and take a strict
reductionist-god's eye view (which means having to drop all our usual
mental categories - a very hard thing to achieve imaginatively) then,
strictly adhering to the above hypothesis, all that would remain would
be some ground-level physical machine grinding along, without the need
for additional composite or macroscopic posits.  Take your pick from
current theory what is supposed to represent this machine, but that
needn't necessarily be at issue for the purpose of the argument.  The
point is that removing everything composite from the picture
supposedly results in zero difference at the base level - same events,
same causality.

I should stress, again, I'm not personally committed to this view - it
seems indeed highly problematic - but it is what the recipe says.
Now, just to emphasise the point, when I say it's a hard thing to do
this imaginatively, I mean that it isn't permissible to look back
from this reductionist-god's eye view and continue to conjure familiar
composite entities from the conjectural base components, because
reductionism is a commitment to the proposition that these don't
exist. Whatever composite categories we might be tempted to have
recourse to - you know: molecules, cells, bodies, planets, ideas,
explanations, theories, the whole ball of wax - none of these are
available from this perspective.  Don't need them.  More rigorously,
they *must not be invoked* because they *do not exist*.  They don't
need to exist, because the machine doesn't need them to carry all the
load and do all the work.

Now, many people might be prompted to object at this point that's not
reducing, that's eliminating as though these terms could be kept
distinct.  But I'm arguing that reductionism, consistently applied, is
inescapably eliminative.  The hypothesis was that base-level events
are self-sufficient and consequently must be granted metaphysical (and
hence physical) reality.  Nothing else is required to explain why
the machine exists and works, so nothing else need - or indeed can non-
question-beggingly - be postulated.  If we really feel we must insist
that there is something metaphysically indispensable above and beyond
this (and it would seem that we have good reason to) we must look for
an additional metaphysical somewhere to locate these somethings.

Essentially we now have two options.  We can follow Kant in locating
them in a metaphysically real synthetic first-person category that
transcends the ground-level (which stands here, approximately, for the
thing-in-itself).  The alternative - and this is the option that
many philosophers seem to adopt by some directly real sleight-of-
intuition - is that we somehow locate them out there right on top of
the micro-physical account.  It's easy to do: just look damn you,
there they are, can't you see them?  And in any case, one wants to
protest, how can one predict, explain or comprehend anything above the
ground floor *without* such categories?  Yes, that is indeed the very
question.  But the reductionist-god's eye view (if we've done it
right) should convince us - weirdly, but unavoidably - that they just
aren't automatically out there, metaphysically, at our disposal.  If
this eludes us, it can only be because we've fallen into the error of
retaining these indispensable organising categories intact, naturally
but illicitly, whilst attempting this imaginative feat.  Unfortunately
this is to beg the very questions we seek to answer.

I suppose the nub of this for me is that - whether we consider
ourselves monist or dualist, or amongst the ontological uncommitted -
we have need of both analytic and integrative principles to account
for the states of affairs that confront us.  There is, as it were, a
spectrum that extends from maximal fragmentation to maximal
integration, and neither extreme by itself suffices.  The only mystery
is why anyone would ever think it would.  Or am I just missing
something obvious as usual?

David

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