Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-15 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 14 Jul 2014, at 20:43, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/14/2014 10:59 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 14 Jul 2014, at 02:07, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/13/2014 11:17 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Then, look at my preceding post to you. I don't know for Tegmark,  
but computationalism excels in differentiating and relating the  
different sort of existence: ontological, epistemological,  
observational, communicable or not, theological, etc.






Lists like this that subscribe to everythingism Bruno's comp  
and Tegmark's MUH completely erase the boundary between math and  
physics.


On the contrary, Comp introduces a clear distinction between the  
physical, core of all universal being, and the geographical,  
which are the contingencies of the normal universal numbers  
living above their substitution level.


Physics is done today is just fuzzy about such distinction.


That would be a nice result.  How does it differentiate different  
sorts existence?




ExP(x)(the arithmetical usual sense. It means that ExP(x)  
is true if there is number n such that P(n). It is the chosen  
ontology, although we could have taken any other first order  
specification of a universal base)


Modal nuances:

[]ExP(x)
[]Ex[]P(x)
[]ExP(x)
[]Ex[]P(x)

With either [] () being the box (diamond) of the modal logics G,  
G*, S4Grz, , Z, Z*, X, X*, G1, G1*, S4Grz1, Z1, Z1*, X1, X1*.


Notions of physical existences are given by []Ex[]P(x)  in the  
S4Grz1,  Z1*, and X1* logics. Those logics are quantum logics. They  
are graded, as the logic of []p  p, or [][]p  p, and  
any []^n p  ^m p gives a quantum logic when n  m.


Hmmm.  I think I will have to take your course in modal logic before  
those become clear to me.



I think I could explain without using the modal logic. At step seven,  
it seems that you can intuitively understand that physics is somehow  
already reduced to a statistics on all computations, relative to your  
state, and the shape of that mathematics gives the core of the  
physical laws (for all universal machine).


The modal logic sum up in fact long series of theorems translating  
that measure question in arithmetical relations.


I have to go, and tomorrow is still busy, but I will try to say more  
later.


Bruno






Brent



In french, the basic ontology is given by the arithmetical  
existence of numbers, and the physical existence is given by the  
quantization provided by incompleteness on the consistent RE or  
sigma_1 extensions, as viewed from some machine points of view.  
Physics is the science of measurement of possibly alternated  
results (like W and M, in step 3 and 4, and like other  
computational states in the step seven generalization where the FPI  
is on UD*, or any sigma_1 complete reality).


All the boxes of G, G*, ... X1*, can be defined either in  
arithmetic, or in higher level arithmetical term, like the []p  p.


Bruno






Brent

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Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-14 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 14 Jul 2014, at 02:07, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/13/2014 11:17 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Then, look at my preceding post to you. I don't know for Tegmark,  
but computationalism excels in differentiating and relating the  
different sort of existence: ontological, epistemological,  
observational, communicable or not, theological, etc.






Lists like this that subscribe to everythingism Bruno's comp and  
Tegmark's MUH completely erase the boundary between math and  
physics.


On the contrary, Comp introduces a clear distinction between the  
physical, core of all universal being, and the geographical, which  
are the contingencies of the normal universal numbers living above  
their substitution level.


Physics is done today is just fuzzy about such distinction.


That would be a nice result.  How does it differentiate different  
sorts existence?




ExP(x)(the arithmetical usual sense. It means that ExP(x) is  
true if there is number n such that P(n). It is the chosen ontology,  
although we could have taken any other first order specification of a  
universal base)


Modal nuances:

[]ExP(x)
[]Ex[]P(x)
[]ExP(x)
[]Ex[]P(x)

With either [] () being the box (diamond) of the modal logics G, G*,  
S4Grz, , Z, Z*, X, X*, G1, G1*, S4Grz1, Z1, Z1*, X1, X1*.


Notions of physical existences are given by []Ex[]P(x)  in the  
S4Grz1,  Z1*, and X1* logics. Those logics are quantum logics. They  
are graded, as the logic of []p  p, or [][]p  p, and any  
[]^n p  ^m p gives a quantum logic when n  m.


In french, the basic ontology is given by the arithmetical existence  
of numbers, and the physical existence is given by the quantization  
provided by incompleteness on the consistent RE or sigma_1 extensions,  
as viewed from some machine points of view. Physics is the science of  
measurement of possibly alternated results (like W and M, in step 3  
and 4, and like other computational states in the step seven  
generalization where the FPI is on UD*, or any sigma_1 complete  
reality).


All the boxes of G, G*, ... X1*, can be defined either in arithmetic,  
or in higher level arithmetical term, like the []p  p.


Bruno






Brent

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Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-14 Thread meekerdb

On 7/14/2014 10:59 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 14 Jul 2014, at 02:07, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/13/2014 11:17 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Then, look at my preceding post to you. I don't know for Tegmark, but computationalism 
excels in differentiating and relating the different sort of existence: ontological, 
epistemological, observational, communicable or not, theological, etc.






Lists like this that subscribe to everythingism Bruno's comp and Tegmark's MUH 
completely erase the boundary between math and physics.


On the contrary, Comp introduces a clear distinction between the physical, core of all 
universal being, and the geographical, which are the contingencies of the normal 
universal numbers living above their substitution level.


Physics is done today is just fuzzy about such distinction.


That would be a nice result.  How does it differentiate different sorts 
existence?




ExP(x)(the arithmetical usual sense. It means that ExP(x) is true if there is 
number n such that P(n). It is the chosen ontology, although we could have taken any 
other first order specification of a universal base)


Modal nuances:

[]ExP(x)
[]Ex[]P(x)
[]ExP(x)
[]Ex[]P(x)

With either [] () being the box (diamond) of the modal logics G, G*, S4Grz, , Z, 
Z*, X, X*, G1, G1*, S4Grz1, Z1, Z1*, X1, X1*.


Notions of physical existences are given by []Ex[]P(x)  in the S4Grz1,  Z1*, and X1* 
logics. Those logics are quantum logics. They are graded, as the logic of []p  p, 
or [][]p  p, and any []^n p  ^m p gives a quantum logic when n  m.


Hmmm.  I think I will have to take your course in modal logic before those 
become clear to me.

Brent



In french, the basic ontology is given by the arithmetical existence of numbers, and the 
physical existence is given by the quantization provided by incompleteness on the 
consistent RE or sigma_1 extensions, as viewed from some machine points of view. Physics 
is the science of measurement of possibly alternated results (like W and M, in step 3 
and 4, and like other computational states in the step seven generalization where the 
FPI is on UD*, or any sigma_1 complete reality).


All the boxes of G, G*, ... X1*, can be defined either in arithmetic, or in higher level 
arithmetical term, like the []p  p.


Bruno






Brent

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Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-13 Thread LizR
On 13 July 2014 17:18, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 7/12/2014 9:18 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 13 July 2014 15:53, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  If you can explain what axiomatic means, I think you'll find it on
 the circle.  For example, it might mean whatever seems necessarily true to
 human beings, which could be explained in terms of physics, biology, and
 evolution (c.f. William S. Coopers The Origin of Reason).


  Well you appear to have defined it as necessarily true, which seems OK
 to me. But you can't find it on the circle, because each part of the circle
 relies on the previous one. So by your own definition there is nothing
 there that can seem necessarily true.

 Only as *seems* necessarily true to human beings.


As opposed to what? Do you have access to something other than human beings
to check what seems necessarily true to them?

 That is equivalent to postmodernist arguments that since everything is
 part of a linguistic web, we can't actually know or even surmise
 *anything* about reality.

 Interestingly I am also engaged today in editing and essay by Vic
 Stenger, James Lindsay, and Peter Boghossian which is intended to clarify
 the relation between philosophy and physics.  Something that was stirred up
 by Larry Kruass denigrating philosophy, at least as applied to physics.  In
 it, Stenger, who is as reductionist materialist as they come, says we can't
 know anything about reality; we only know our models.  I tried to get him
 to change it.


??? I thought you'd agree with that. What else can we know except our
models (plus experimental data used to test them) ?

 No it's not, because it's not just words.  For example, the explanation of
 biology in terms of physics depends on scientific propositions which are
 hypothesized and test in laboratories.


  I'm afraid it is, because it is free floating in exactly the same way
 that Pomo suggests all our explanations are. Each step relies on the
 previous one. There is no point at which you can claim the circle is
 anchored in reality.

 Do you thing strings are suitable to anchor reality?  Or set theory? I
 think they are anchored in experience and reason.  That's how you'd explain
 string theory to someone; you'd tell them about the particle data and
 mathematics.  But the truth of string theory is much shakier than the
 existence of what it purports to explain. I think parts of the circle,
 where science is well developed, are anchored in correspondence with facts.


Well, perhaps you can explain in more detail. This is looking a bit like
that hand waving I was worried about, when you start asking rhetorical
questions as though they explain something. Never mind what I think,
explain what you think.


 Post Modernism is more than Coherentism (
 http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/justep-coherence/).  Pomos hold that
 reality is a social construct which varies with society.

 I was talking about a particular branch of pomo, I guess what should be
called Wittgensteinian (I forget if it's the early or late W). But what
pomo does or doesn't do doesn't make the free floating ontology (as you
originally presented it) any better anchored.

   then for me at least it threatens to undermine everything else
 you've said, some of which I thought at the time was quite sensible.

  Apparently it can't undermine your confidence in judging what is
 sensible.

  No. Or my ability to spot snide remarks.

 Too bad.


Yes, sorry not to just agree but kick back. Must mean I exist or something.

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Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-13 Thread Telmo Menezes
On Sun, Jul 13, 2014 at 4:51 AM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 13 July 2014 07:17, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 7/12/2014 1:23 AM, LizR wrote:

  Brent,

  You left me hanging a week or so ago, and never got back to me about
 something I'm interested in finding out more about.

  On 2 July 2014 23:14, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

   On 2 July 2014 17:06, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

   On 7/1/2014 9:42 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 2 July 2014 15:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

OK, so how does that work? Like I said, I don't understand it.
 Intuitively, saying that A causes B and B causes A doesn't appear to make
 sense,

  It's not a causal relationship, it's an explanatory -.


  Sorry I should have said explains although I thought it was obvious
 I was using causal in an explanatory sense, not a physical one. Anyway,
 please continue the explanation.

  You don't understand what is meant by physics - biology or
 biology - evolution - mathematics or mathematics - physics?

   Yes I do.

   And there you stopped. I'm still waiting for you to continue the
 explanation.

  To refresh your memory, you said:

  OK, except I think the chain is:
 arithmetic - information - matter - consciousness - arithmetic


  To which I objected that I couldn't see how this makes sense globally,
 even if each local step makes sense. You appear to be claiming that there
 is no such thing as a fundamental explanatory level. Since this flies in
 the face of 3+ centuries of scientific progress (based on reductionism,
 which assumes there *is* a fundamental explanatory level)

 It's just that I noted that fundamental physics has become almost
 entirely abstract and mathematical, so that people like Tegmark and Wheeler
 started to speculate that the mathematics *is* the physics.  Lists like
 this that subscribe to everythingism Bruno's comp and Tegmark's MUH
 completely erase the boundary between math and physics.  The 3+ centuries
 of reductionist physics are also 3+ centuries of explaining things through
 synthesis of simpler (and presumably better understood) things.  At the
 same time I think mathematics is a human invention, a certain way of
 looking at the world made precise in language.  Humans and their inventions
 are explicable by evolution, biology, physics,...and mathematics.  So maybe
 the circle closes.  The usual objection of a circular explanation is it
 leaves stuff out, especially if it leaves out all the stuff you understand
 and just explains mystery X in terms of enigma Y.  But if the circle is big
 enough, if it encompasses everything, then either there's some part you
 understand and that allows you to reach all the rest; or you don't
 understand anything and there's no hope for you.


 OK, thanks, I get all that, and I can see where you're coming from, up to
 the point where maybe the circle closes. However at that point you appear
 to have veered off into fantasy (or at least you want to have you cake and
 eat it too).

 It may well be that the MUH and comp will turn out to be castles in the
 air, or whatever is the appropriate metaphor. But I don't think a good way
 to show this is using something that appears at least equally
 ridiculous (to me at least, but I suspect others will have the same
 reaction). It's quite possible that physics is too abstract, but it's
 certainly less abstract than an explanatory circle in which *nothing* is
 considered axiomatic. That is equivalent to postmodernist arguments that
 since everything is part of a linguistic web, we can't actually know or
 even surmise *anything* about reality. I rejected that viewpoint a few
 decades ago (I was briefly an ardent postmodernist, at least until I
 managed to engage my brain) and before I embrace it again I will need some
 VERY convincing evidence.


Then you might like this:
http://xkcd.com/451/

That being said, I tend to become a postmodernist when the word
explanation shows up. I see science as pure description. I find it is
easy to fall into the trap of seeing explanation where none is given.
People say to kids: the moon orbits the earth because the earth has more
mass and generates a stronger attractive force. But if we look at the
equations, this is not what they say. They contain no because. They just
describe.

The why? is a human construct. Possibly a language construct. I don't
find it so unthinkable that it throws us into an ontological loop like
Brent describes.

I don't agree with postmodernist epistemology. I bet that truth can be
approximated by the scientific method. But still, I cannot do more than bet
on this. The problem is that I'm not convinced that explanations or
causations are part of The Truth. I see them more as tricks that the human
mind uses to navigate reality, not so different from the ad hoc conventions
we use to communicate.

Cheers
Telmo.



 This gives me, at least, the same problem I would have with a time travel
 story in which a time traveller takes something 

Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-13 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 12 Jul 2014, at 21:17, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/12/2014 1:23 AM, LizR wrote:

Brent,

You left me hanging a week or so ago, and never got back to me  
about something I'm interested in finding out more about.


On 2 July 2014 23:14, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:
On 2 July 2014 17:06, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
On 7/1/2014 9:42 PM, LizR wrote:

On 2 July 2014 15:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
OK, so how does that work? Like I said, I don't understand it.  
Intuitively, saying that A causes B and B causes A doesn't appear  
to make sense,

It's not a causal relationship, it's an explanatory -.

Sorry I should have said explains although I thought it was  
obvious I was using causal in an explanatory sense, not a physical  
one. Anyway, please continue the explanation.
You don't understand what is meant by physics - biology or  
biology - evolution - mathematics or mathematics - physics?


Yes I do.

And there you stopped. I'm still waiting for you to continue the  
explanation.


To refresh your memory, you said:

OK, except I think the chain is:
arithmetic - information - matter - consciousness - arithmetic

To which I objected that I couldn't see how this makes sense  
globally, even if each local step makes sense. You appear to be  
claiming that there is no such thing as a fundamental explanatory  
level. Since this flies in the face of 3+ centuries of scientific  
progress (based on reductionism, which assumes there is a  
fundamental explanatory level)


It's just that I noted that fundamental physics has become almost  
entirely abstract and mathematical, so that people like Tegmark and  
Wheeler started to speculate that the mathematics *is* the physics.


Not at all.
First, it is the physicalist, or metaphycaily naturalist which  
speculate on a primary physical universe.
As much I agree that there are evidence for a physica reality, there  
are no evidence for a primary physical reality.
Then, look at my preceding post to you. I don't know for Tegmark, but  
computationalism excels in differentiating and relating the different  
sort of existence: ontological, epistemological, observational,  
communicable or not, theological, etc.






Lists like this that subscribe to everythingism Bruno's comp and  
Tegmark's MUH completely erase the boundary between math and physics.


On the contrary, Comp introduces a clear distinction between the  
physical, core of all universal being, and the geographical, which are  
the contingencies of the normal universal numbers living above their  
substitution level.


Physics is done today is just fuzzy about such distinction.




The 3+ centuries of reductionist physics are also 3+ centuries of  
explaining things through synthesis of simpler (and presumably  
better understood) things.  At the same time I think mathematics is  
a human invention, a certain way of looking at the world made  
precise in language.  Humans and their inventions are explicable by  
evolution, biology, physics,...and mathematics.  So maybe the circle  
closes.  The usual objection of a circular explanation is it leaves  
stuff out, especially if it leaves out all the stuff you understand  
and just explains mystery X in terms of enigma Y.  But if the circle  
is big enough, if it encompasses everything, then either there's  
some part you understand and that allows you to reach all the rest;  
or you don't understand anything and there's no hope for you.


UD* is full of many circles. If some circle win, that needs to be  
explained.







, not to mention what most people would regard as logic (or at  
least common sense), this looks like a fairly radical revision of  
our theories of knowledge.


So I'd be interested to know more, if you're prepared to continue  
explaining.


As I said, I don't have my own TOE.  I just put forward the virtuous  
circle of explanation based on a suggestion of Bruno (which he's  
disavowed) as a counter example to the idea that reductionism must  
either bottom out or be like infinite Russian dolls.


With mechanism, you have a nice simple ontology, and besides, physics  
becomes machine-independent. It does not depend which universal base  
of phi_i you start with. You appreciate how Vic Stenger (and Emmy  
Noether) derive some physical laws by postulating their invariance for  
some transformation. Comp gives a very strong invariance principle:  
indeed it redefines and explain physics in a new way which is  
invariant for universal base ontology. Useless in practice, but  
conceptually coherent with the canonical machine's sciences and  
correct theologies.


But again, my point is not that comp gives a better theory. My point  
is that you cannot have both  comp and primitive matter, and that if  
you keep comp, matter is refined as an computer-science-theoretical  
observational modality. We can test it, refute it, and measure our  
degree of non-computability, or improve it, etc.


No problem with physics. Only a problem 

Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-13 Thread meekerdb

On 7/13/2014 8:51 AM, Telmo Menezes wrote:
That being said, I tend to become a postmodernist when the word explanation shows up. 
I see science as pure description. I find it is easy to fall into the trap of seeing 
explanation where none is given. People say to kids: the moon orbits the earth because 
the earth has more mass and generates a stronger attractive force. But if we look at the 
equations, this is not what they say. They contain no because. They just describe.


The why? is a human construct. Possibly a language construct. I don't find it so 
unthinkable that it throws us into an ontological loop like Brent describes.


I don't agree with postmodernist epistemology. I bet that truth can be approximated by 
the scientific method. But still, I cannot do more than bet on this. The problem is that 
I'm not convinced that explanations or causations are part of The Truth. I see them more 
as tricks that the human mind uses to navigate reality, not so different from the ad hoc 
conventions we use to communicate.


I agree.  What we generally call a scientific explanation is just a description in terms 
of something we understand better than the thing being explained.  It includes things we 
can imagine being different or manipulating and it provides a model that predicts the 
result of such changes.  In the example of Newtonian gravity, the two masses and the 
distance between them are things we understand and can imagine manipulating.  But notice 
that this was not immediately considered a good explanation at the time.  Newton was 
asked, But what provides the force?


Brent

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Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-13 Thread meekerdb

On 7/13/2014 11:17 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Then, look at my preceding post to you. I don't know for Tegmark, but computationalism 
excels in differentiating and relating the different sort of existence: ontological, 
epistemological, observational, communicable or not, theological, etc.






Lists like this that subscribe to everythingism Bruno's comp and Tegmark's MUH 
completely erase the boundary between math and physics.


On the contrary, Comp introduces a clear distinction between the physical, core of all 
universal being, and the geographical, which are the contingencies of the normal 
universal numbers living above their substitution level.


Physics is done today is just fuzzy about such distinction.


That would be a nice result.  How does it differentiate different sorts 
existence?

Brent

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Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-12 Thread LizR
Brent,

You left me hanging a week or so ago, and never got back to me about
something I'm interested in finding out more about.

On 2 July 2014 23:14, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 2 July 2014 17:06, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 7/1/2014 9:42 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 2 July 2014 15:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

OK, so how does that work? Like I said, I don't understand it.
 Intuitively, saying that A causes B and B causes A doesn't appear to make
 sense,

  It's not a causal relationship, it's an explanatory -.


  Sorry I should have said explains although I thought it was obvious I
 was using causal in an explanatory sense, not a physical one. Anyway,
 please continue the explanation.

 You don't understand what is meant by physics - biology or biology -
 evolution - mathematics or mathematics - physics?

 Yes I do.

 And there you stopped. I'm still waiting for you to continue the
explanation.

To refresh your memory, you said:

OK, except I think the chain is:
 arithmetic - information - matter - consciousness - arithmetic


To which I objected that I couldn't see how this makes sense globally, even
if each local step makes sense. You appear to be claiming that there is no
such thing as a fundamental explanatory level. Since this flies in the face
of 3+ centuries of scientific progress (based on reductionism, which
assumes there *is* a fundamental explanatory level), not to mention what
most people would regard as logic (or at least common sense), this looks
like a fairly radical revision of our theories of knowledge.

So I'd be interested to know more, if you're prepared to continue
explaining.

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Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-12 Thread meekerdb

On 7/12/2014 1:23 AM, LizR wrote:

Brent,

You left me hanging a week or so ago, and never got back to me about something I'm 
interested in finding out more about.


On 2 July 2014 23:14, LizR lizj...@gmail.com mailto:lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

On 2 July 2014 17:06, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net
wrote:

On 7/1/2014 9:42 PM, LizR wrote:

On 2 July 2014 15:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


OK, so how does that work? Like I said, I don't understand it.
Intuitively, saying that A causes B and B causes A doesn't appear 
to make
sense,

It's not a causal relationship, it's an explanatory -.


Sorry I should have said explains although I thought it was obvious I 
was
using causal in an explanatory sense, not a physical one. Anyway, please
continue the explanation.

You don't understand what is meant by physics - biology or biology 
-
evolution - mathematics or mathematics - physics?

Yes I do.

And there you stopped. I'm still waiting for you to continue the explanation.

To refresh your memory, you said:

OK, except I think the chain is:
arithmetic - information - matter - consciousness - arithmetic


To which I objected that I couldn't see how this makes sense globally, even if each 
local step makes sense. You appear to be claiming that there is no such thing as a 
fundamental explanatory level. Since this flies in the face of 3+ centuries of 
scientific progress (based on reductionism, which assumes there /is/ a fundamental 
explanatory level)


It's just that I noted that fundamental physics has become almost entirely abstract and 
mathematical, so that people like Tegmark and Wheeler started to speculate that the 
mathematics *is* the physics. Lists like this that subscribe to everythingism Bruno's 
comp and Tegmark's MUH completely erase the boundary between math and physics.  The 3+ 
centuries of reductionist physics are also 3+ centuries of explaining things through 
synthesis of simpler (and presumably better understood) things.  At the same time I think 
mathematics is a human invention, a certain way of looking at the world made precise in 
language.  Humans and their inventions are explicable by evolution, biology, 
physics,...and mathematics.  So maybe the circle closes.  The usual objection of a 
circular explanation is it leaves stuff out, especially if it leaves out all the stuff you 
understand and just explains mystery X in terms of enigma Y.  But if the circle is big 
enough, if it encompasses everything, then either there's some part you understand and 
that allows you to reach all the rest; or you don't understand anything and there's no 
hope for you.


, not to mention what most people would regard as logic (or at least common sense), this 
looks like a fairly radical revision of our theories of knowledge.


So I'd be interested to know more, if you're prepared to continue explaining.


As I said, I don't have my own TOE.  I just put forward the virtuous circle of explanation 
based on a suggestion of Bruno (which he's disavowed) as a counter example to the idea 
that reductionism must either bottom out or be like infinite Russian dolls.


Brent



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Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-12 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2014-07-12 21:17 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

  On 7/12/2014 1:23 AM, LizR wrote:

  Brent,

  You left me hanging a week or so ago, and never got back to me about
 something I'm interested in finding out more about.

  On 2 July 2014 23:14, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

   On 2 July 2014 17:06, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

   On 7/1/2014 9:42 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 2 July 2014 15:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

OK, so how does that work? Like I said, I don't understand it.
 Intuitively, saying that A causes B and B causes A doesn't appear to make
 sense,

  It's not a causal relationship, it's an explanatory -.


  Sorry I should have said explains although I thought it was obvious
 I was using causal in an explanatory sense, not a physical one. Anyway,
 please continue the explanation.

  You don't understand what is meant by physics - biology or biology
 - evolution - mathematics or mathematics - physics?

   Yes I do.

   And there you stopped. I'm still waiting for you to continue the
 explanation.

  To refresh your memory, you said:

  OK, except I think the chain is:
 arithmetic - information - matter - consciousness - arithmetic


  To which I objected that I couldn't see how this makes sense globally,
 even if each local step makes sense. You appear to be claiming that there
 is no such thing as a fundamental explanatory level. Since this flies in
 the face of 3+ centuries of scientific progress (based on reductionism,
 which assumes there *is* a fundamental explanatory level)


 It's just that I noted that fundamental physics has become almost entirely
 abstract and mathematical, so that people like Tegmark and Wheeler started
 to speculate that the mathematics *is* the physics.  Lists like this that
 subscribe to everythingism Bruno's comp and Tegmark's MUH completely
 erase the boundary between math and physics.  The 3+ centuries of
 reductionist physics are also 3+ centuries of explaining things through
 synthesis of simpler (and presumably better understood) things.  At the
 same time I think mathematics is a human invention, a certain way of
 looking at the world made precise in language.  Humans and their inventions
 are explicable by evolution, biology, physics,...and mathematics.  So maybe
 the circle closes.  The usual objection of a circular explanation is it
 leaves stuff out, especially if it leaves out all the stuff you understand
 and just explains mystery X in terms of enigma Y.  But if the circle is big
 enough, if it encompasses everything, then either there's some part you
 understand and that allows you to reach all the rest; or you don't
 understand anything and there's no hope for you.


  , not to mention what most people would regard as logic (or at least
 common sense), this looks like a fairly radical revision of our theories of
 knowledge.

  So I'd be interested to know more, if you're prepared to continue
 explaining.


 As I said, I don't have my own TOE.  I just put forward the virtuous
 circle of explanation based on a suggestion of Bruno (which he's disavowed)


Because I think he never saw it as a circle, it is IMHO this:

maths = physics = consciousness = human maths

There is not circularity here... human maths is only a part of the total
mathematical reality, what we discover about it... but that doesn't circle
back ISTM.

Quentin


 as a counter example to the idea that reductionism must either bottom out
 or be like infinite Russian dolls.

 Brent



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-- 
All those moments will be lost in time, like tears in rain. (Roy
Batty/Rutger Hauer)

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Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-12 Thread John Mikes
Quentin, I appreciate your sequencing:
 *maths = physics = consciousness = human maths*
except for the obvious question that arose in my (agnostic) mind:
what OTHER maths can we, humans think of with our (human) minds that
would not qualify as human maths? Even - as I believe - Bruno leaves the
question open and assigns such to his unidentified (universal?) machines
WITHOUT atempting to verify, 'understand' or 'explain' those marvels. The
most is:  'which MAY BE true (or not).


On Sat, Jul 12, 2014 at 3:45 PM, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com wrote:




 2014-07-12 21:17 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

  On 7/12/2014 1:23 AM, LizR wrote:

  Brent,

  You left me hanging a week or so ago, and never got back to me about
 something I'm interested in finding out more about.

  On 2 July 2014 23:14, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

   On 2 July 2014 17:06, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

   On 7/1/2014 9:42 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 2 July 2014 15:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

OK, so how does that work? Like I said, I don't understand it.
 Intuitively, saying that A causes B and B causes A doesn't appear to make
 sense,

  It's not a causal relationship, it's an explanatory -.


  Sorry I should have said explains although I thought it was obvious
 I was using causal in an explanatory sense, not a physical one. Anyway,
 please continue the explanation.

  You don't understand what is meant by physics - biology or
 biology - evolution - mathematics or mathematics - physics?

   Yes I do.

   And there you stopped. I'm still waiting for you to continue the
 explanation.

  To refresh your memory, you said:

  OK, except I think the chain is:
 arithmetic - information - matter - consciousness - arithmetic


  To which I objected that I couldn't see how this makes sense globally,
 even if each local step makes sense. You appear to be claiming that there
 is no such thing as a fundamental explanatory level. Since this flies in
 the face of 3+ centuries of scientific progress (based on reductionism,
 which assumes there *is* a fundamental explanatory level)


 It's just that I noted that fundamental physics has become almost
 entirely abstract and mathematical, so that people like Tegmark and Wheeler
 started to speculate that the mathematics *is* the physics.  Lists like
 this that subscribe to everythingism Bruno's comp and Tegmark's MUH
 completely erase the boundary between math and physics.  The 3+ centuries
 of reductionist physics are also 3+ centuries of explaining things through
 synthesis of simpler (and presumably better understood) things.  At the
 same time I think mathematics is a human invention, a certain way of
 looking at the world made precise in language.  Humans and their inventions
 are explicable by evolution, biology, physics,...and mathematics.  So maybe
 the circle closes.  The usual objection of a circular explanation is it
 leaves stuff out, especially if it leaves out all the stuff you understand
 and just explains mystery X in terms of enigma Y.  But if the circle is big
 enough, if it encompasses everything, then either there's some part you
 understand and that allows you to reach all the rest; or you don't
 understand anything and there's no hope for you.


  , not to mention what most people would regard as logic (or at least
 common sense), this looks like a fairly radical revision of our theories of
 knowledge.

  So I'd be interested to know more, if you're prepared to continue
 explaining.


 As I said, I don't have my own TOE.  I just put forward the virtuous
 circle of explanation based on a suggestion of Bruno (which he's disavowed)


 Because I think he never saw it as a circle, it is IMHO this:

 maths = physics = consciousness = human maths

 There is not circularity here... human maths is only a part of the total
 mathematical reality, what we discover about it... but that doesn't circle
 back ISTM.

 Quentin


 as a counter example to the idea that reductionism must either bottom out
 or be like infinite Russian dolls.

 Brent



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 --
 All those moments will be lost in time, 

Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-12 Thread Quentin Anciaux
2014-07-12 22:01 GMT+02:00 John Mikes jami...@gmail.com:

 Quentin, I appreciate your sequencing:
  *maths = physics = consciousness = human maths*
 except for the obvious question that arose in my (agnostic) mind:
 what OTHER maths can we, humans think of with our (human) minds that
 would not qualify as human maths?


When I said human maths, I wanted to say Maths human discovered so far...
(and maths we can discover)


 Even - as I believe - Bruno leaves the question open and assigns such to
 his unidentified (universal?) machines WITHOUT atempting to verify,
 'understand' or 'explain' those marvels. The most is:  'which MAY BE true
 (or not).


 On Sat, Jul 12, 2014 at 3:45 PM, Quentin Anciaux allco...@gmail.com
 wrote:




 2014-07-12 21:17 GMT+02:00 meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net:

  On 7/12/2014 1:23 AM, LizR wrote:

  Brent,

  You left me hanging a week or so ago, and never got back to me about
 something I'm interested in finding out more about.

  On 2 July 2014 23:14, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

   On 2 July 2014 17:06, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

   On 7/1/2014 9:42 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 2 July 2014 15:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

OK, so how does that work? Like I said, I don't understand it.
 Intuitively, saying that A causes B and B causes A doesn't appear to make
 sense,

  It's not a causal relationship, it's an explanatory -.


  Sorry I should have said explains although I thought it was
 obvious I was using causal in an explanatory sense, not a physical one.
 Anyway, please continue the explanation.

  You don't understand what is meant by physics - biology or
 biology - evolution - mathematics or mathematics - physics?

   Yes I do.

   And there you stopped. I'm still waiting for you to continue the
 explanation.

  To refresh your memory, you said:

  OK, except I think the chain is:
 arithmetic - information - matter - consciousness - arithmetic


  To which I objected that I couldn't see how this makes sense globally,
 even if each local step makes sense. You appear to be claiming that there
 is no such thing as a fundamental explanatory level. Since this flies in
 the face of 3+ centuries of scientific progress (based on reductionism,
 which assumes there *is* a fundamental explanatory level)


 It's just that I noted that fundamental physics has become almost
 entirely abstract and mathematical, so that people like Tegmark and Wheeler
 started to speculate that the mathematics *is* the physics.  Lists like
 this that subscribe to everythingism Bruno's comp and Tegmark's MUH
 completely erase the boundary between math and physics.  The 3+ centuries
 of reductionist physics are also 3+ centuries of explaining things through
 synthesis of simpler (and presumably better understood) things.  At the
 same time I think mathematics is a human invention, a certain way of
 looking at the world made precise in language.  Humans and their inventions
 are explicable by evolution, biology, physics,...and mathematics.  So maybe
 the circle closes.  The usual objection of a circular explanation is it
 leaves stuff out, especially if it leaves out all the stuff you understand
 and just explains mystery X in terms of enigma Y.  But if the circle is big
 enough, if it encompasses everything, then either there's some part you
 understand and that allows you to reach all the rest; or you don't
 understand anything and there's no hope for you.


  , not to mention what most people would regard as logic (or at least
 common sense), this looks like a fairly radical revision of our theories of
 knowledge.

  So I'd be interested to know more, if you're prepared to continue
 explaining.


 As I said, I don't have my own TOE.  I just put forward the virtuous
 circle of explanation based on a suggestion of Bruno (which he's disavowed)


 Because I think he never saw it as a circle, it is IMHO this:

 maths = physics = consciousness = human maths

  There is not circularity here... human maths is only a part of the total
 mathematical reality, what we discover about it... but that doesn't circle
 back ISTM.

 Quentin


 as a counter example to the idea that reductionism must either bottom
 out or be like infinite Russian dolls.

 Brent



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 Groups Everything List group.
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RE: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-12 Thread 'Chris de Morsella' via Everything List
 

 

From: everything-list@googlegroups.com 
[mailto:everything-list@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of meekerdb
Sent: Saturday, July 12, 2014 12:18 PM
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

 

On 7/12/2014 1:23 AM, LizR wrote:

Brent, 

 

You left me hanging a week or so ago, and never got back to me about something 
I'm interested in finding out more about.

 

On 2 July 2014 23:14, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

On 2 July 2014 17:06, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 7/1/2014 9:42 PM, LizR wrote:

On 2 July 2014 15:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

OK, so how does that work? Like I said, I don't understand it. Intuitively, 
saying that A causes B and B causes A doesn't appear to make sense, 

It's not a causal relationship, it's an explanatory -.

 

Sorry I should have said explains although I thought it was obvious I was 
using causal in an explanatory sense, not a physical one. Anyway, please 
continue the explanation.

You don't understand what is meant by physics - biology or biology - 
evolution - mathematics or mathematics - physics?

 

Yes I do. 

 

And there you stopped. I'm still waiting for you to continue the explanation.

 

To refresh your memory, you said:

 

OK, except I think the chain is:
arithmetic - information - matter - consciousness - arithmetic

 

To which I objected that I couldn't see how this makes sense globally, even if 
each local step makes sense. You appear to be claiming that there is no such 
thing as a fundamental explanatory level. Since this flies in the face of 3+ 
centuries of scientific progress (based on reductionism, which assumes there is 
a fundamental explanatory level)


It's just that I noted that fundamental physics has become almost entirely 
abstract and mathematical, so that people like Tegmark and Wheeler started to 
speculate that the mathematics *is* the physics.  Lists like this that 
subscribe to everythingism Bruno's comp and Tegmark's MUH completely erase 
the boundary between math and physics.  The 3+ centuries of reductionist 
physics are also 3+ centuries of explaining things through synthesis of simpler 
(and presumably better understood) things.  At the same time I think 
mathematics is a human invention, a certain way of looking at the world made 
precise in language.  Humans and their inventions are explicable by evolution, 
biology, physics,...and mathematics.  So maybe the circle closes.  The usual 
objection of a circular explanation is it leaves stuff out, especially if it 
leaves out all the stuff you understand and just explains mystery X in terms of 
enigma Y.  But if the circle is big enough, if it encompasses everything, then 
either there's some part you understand and that allows you to reach all the 
rest; or you don't understand anything and there's no hope for you.

 

Brent ~ I like how you bring in biology (and our biological being) into this 
grand cycle. 

It seems natural to me that we are emergent vast-network phenomena dancing upon 
a self-replicating organic chemistry base, itself emerging from physical 
reality that, speculatively perhaps, can be hypothesized to emerge itself from 
an even more fundamental abstract mathematical reality. It would seem natural 
then to me that our brain functioning and the mind -self-aware consciousness 
that emerges out of this underlying massively parallel network would itself be 
predisposed towards stumbling upon the actions and objects of math and 
eventually developing a theory of a mathematical universe.

If we *are* math then aren’t our minds, emergent from within also math and 
would naturally *think* in mathematical ways, developing a theory that *fit* 
the underlying biological-physical-fundamental-reality nature of our being.

 

Pardon my tangential excursion… for, one question leads to others.

What about question such as these: what was the first mover; the first root 
fundamental action (or elementary entity)? Or if there is no first mover; no 
beginning; no foundational root… then what? Even if all you need is a single 
bit and one, two or (?) basic operations to trigger a math emergence… from 
whence does that come?

 

Is the possibility that we will someday figure things out to this level or is 
an attempt to do so pure theoretical unobtanium? This is the “god” boundary 
where many invoke some kind of inexplicable principal and leave it as 
unexplored terra-incognita. 





, not to mention what most people would regard as logic (or at least common 
sense), this looks like a fairly radical revision of our theories of knowledge.

 

So I'd be interested to know more, if you're prepared to continue explaining.


As I said, I don't have my own TOE.  I just put forward the virtuous circle of 
explanation based on a suggestion of Bruno (which he's disavowed) as a counter 
example to the idea that reductionism must either bottom out or be like 
infinite Russian dolls

Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-12 Thread LizR
On 13 July 2014 07:17, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 7/12/2014 1:23 AM, LizR wrote:

  Brent,

  You left me hanging a week or so ago, and never got back to me about
 something I'm interested in finding out more about.

  On 2 July 2014 23:14, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

   On 2 July 2014 17:06, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

   On 7/1/2014 9:42 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 2 July 2014 15:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

OK, so how does that work? Like I said, I don't understand it.
 Intuitively, saying that A causes B and B causes A doesn't appear to make
 sense,

  It's not a causal relationship, it's an explanatory -.


  Sorry I should have said explains although I thought it was obvious
 I was using causal in an explanatory sense, not a physical one. Anyway,
 please continue the explanation.

  You don't understand what is meant by physics - biology or biology
 - evolution - mathematics or mathematics - physics?

   Yes I do.

   And there you stopped. I'm still waiting for you to continue the
 explanation.

  To refresh your memory, you said:

  OK, except I think the chain is:
 arithmetic - information - matter - consciousness - arithmetic


  To which I objected that I couldn't see how this makes sense globally,
 even if each local step makes sense. You appear to be claiming that there
 is no such thing as a fundamental explanatory level. Since this flies in
 the face of 3+ centuries of scientific progress (based on reductionism,
 which assumes there *is* a fundamental explanatory level)

 It's just that I noted that fundamental physics has become almost entirely
 abstract and mathematical, so that people like Tegmark and Wheeler started
 to speculate that the mathematics *is* the physics.  Lists like this that
 subscribe to everythingism Bruno's comp and Tegmark's MUH completely
 erase the boundary between math and physics.  The 3+ centuries of
 reductionist physics are also 3+ centuries of explaining things through
 synthesis of simpler (and presumably better understood) things.  At the
 same time I think mathematics is a human invention, a certain way of
 looking at the world made precise in language.  Humans and their inventions
 are explicable by evolution, biology, physics,...and mathematics.  So maybe
 the circle closes.  The usual objection of a circular explanation is it
 leaves stuff out, especially if it leaves out all the stuff you understand
 and just explains mystery X in terms of enigma Y.  But if the circle is big
 enough, if it encompasses everything, then either there's some part you
 understand and that allows you to reach all the rest; or you don't
 understand anything and there's no hope for you.


OK, thanks, I get all that, and I can see where you're coming from, up to
the point where maybe the circle closes. However at that point you appear
to have veered off into fantasy (or at least you want to have you cake and
eat it too).

It may well be that the MUH and comp will turn out to be castles in the
air, or whatever is the appropriate metaphor. But I don't think a good way
to show this is using something that appears at least equally
ridiculous (to me at least, but I suspect others will have the same
reaction). It's quite possible that physics is too abstract, but it's
certainly less abstract than an explanatory circle in which *nothing* is
considered axiomatic. That is equivalent to postmodernist arguments that
since everything is part of a linguistic web, we can't actually know or
even surmise *anything* about reality. I rejected that viewpoint a few
decades ago (I was briefly an ardent postmodernist, at least until I
managed to engage my brain) and before I embrace it again I will need some
VERY convincing evidence.

This gives me, at least, the same problem I would have with a time travel
story in which a time traveller takes something back in time to the person
who was supposed to have originated it and lets them crib it. Hence no one
created whatever it is (Doctor Who did this with Shakespeare, with the
Doctor quoting odd Shakespearisms and Will saying Mind if I use that?
It's fine as a humorous device in fantasy, but less so when proposed as a
serious basis for everything we know, or can know).

 , not to mention what most people would regard as logic (or at least
 common sense), this looks like a fairly radical revision of our theories of
 knowledge.

  So I'd be interested to know more, if you're prepared to continue
 explaining.

 As I said, I don't have my own TOE.


I didn't suggest you did. That isn't what I'm asking for.


 I just put forward the virtuous circle of explanation based on a
 suggestion of Bruno (which he's disavowed) as a counter example to the idea
 that reductionism must either bottom out or be like infinite Russian dolls.


Sorry, as yet I don't see how it can work. It isn't a virtuous circle
(which is generally taken to mean something like compound interest working
on something which was generated, originally, by 

Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-12 Thread LizR
On 13 July 2014 08:27, 'Chris de Morsella' via Everything List 
everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:



 Or… perhaps it could it be like the mythical snake eating its tail.

 By, invoking retro-causality


Brent isn't invoking retro-causality, but circular explanation. As he was
at pains to point out to me, the arrows are explanatory, NOT causal.

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RE: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-12 Thread 'Chris de Morsella' via Everything List
 

 

From: everything-list@googlegroups.com 
[mailto:everything-list@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of LizR
Sent: Saturday, July 12, 2014 7:53 PM
To: everything-list@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

 

 

 

On 13 July 2014 08:27, 'Chris de Morsella' via Everything List 
everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:

 

Or… perhaps it could it be like the mythical snake eating its tail.

By, invoking retro-causality

 

Brent isn't invoking retro-causality, but circular explanation. As he was at 
pains to point out to me, the arrows are explanatory, NOT causal.

 

I wasn’t suggesting he was, and apologize if you mistook, pure conjecture – on 
my part -- for being a misunderstanding of what he said. In truth I am agnostic 
on reality, realizing clearly that I operate in some relative degree of 
ignorance. I also however like conjecture… and airships too J (the steam punk 
esthetic)

A question for you… 

At some point doesn’t the search for a base level of fundamental reality lead 
you into an endless recursion or an arbitrary assignment of some, non-reducible 
fundamental  quality to some entity, whether this be particle or pure math. 

 

 

 

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Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-12 Thread meekerdb

On 7/12/2014 7:51 PM, LizR wrote:
Sorry, as yet I don't see how it can work. It isn't a virtuous circle (which is 
generally taken to mean something like compound interest working on something which was 
generated, originally, by some other process) - it's a vicious circle, i.e. one that 
 pretends to explain something but in fact doesn't have any foundation. And it is, in 
fact, like infinite Russian dolls, in that the explanatory chain doesn't begin or end 
anywhere.


The point is that explanation must always begin from something you understand.  The sense 
in which this circle is 'virtuous' is that if you understand anything at all then it is 
somewhere on the circle and so explanation can begin from there.


Brent

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Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-12 Thread meekerdb

On 7/12/2014 7:51 PM, LizR wrote:

On 13 July 2014 07:17, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 7/12/2014 1:23 AM, LizR wrote:

Brent,

You left me hanging a week or so ago, and never got back to me about 
something I'm
interested in finding out more about.

On 2 July 2014 23:14, LizR lizj...@gmail.com mailto:lizj...@gmail.com 
wrote:

On 2 July 2014 17:06, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 7/1/2014 9:42 PM, LizR wrote:

On 2 July 2014 15:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


OK, so how does that work? Like I said, I don't understand it.
Intuitively, saying that A causes B and B causes A doesn't 
appear to
make sense,

It's not a causal relationship, it's an explanatory -.


Sorry I should have said explains although I thought it was 
obvious I
was using causal in an explanatory sense, not a physical one. 
Anyway,
please continue the explanation.

You don't understand what is meant by physics - biology or biology 
-
evolution - mathematics or mathematics - physics?

Yes I do.

And there you stopped. I'm still waiting for you to continue the 
explanation.

To refresh your memory, you said:

OK, except I think the chain is:
arithmetic - information - matter - consciousness - arithmetic


To which I objected that I couldn't see how this makes sense globally, even 
if each
local step makes sense. You appear to be claiming that there is no such 
thing as a
fundamental explanatory level. Since this flies in the face of 3+ centuries 
of
scientific progress (based on reductionism, which assumes there /is/ a 
fundamental
explanatory level)

It's just that I noted that fundamental physics has become almost entirely 
abstract
and mathematical, so that people like Tegmark and Wheeler started to 
speculate that
the mathematics *is* the physics.  Lists like this that subscribe to 
everythingism
Bruno's comp and Tegmark's MUH completely erase the boundary between math 
and
physics.  The 3+ centuries of reductionist physics are also 3+ centuries of
explaining things through synthesis of simpler (and presumably better 
understood)
things.  At the same time I think mathematics is a human invention, a 
certain way of
looking at the world made precise in language.  Humans and their inventions 
are
explicable by evolution, biology, physics,...and mathematics.  So maybe the 
circle
closes.  The usual objection of a circular explanation is it leaves stuff 
out,
especially if it leaves out all the stuff you understand and just explains 
mystery X
in terms of enigma Y.  But if the circle is big enough, if it encompasses
everything, then either there's some part you understand and that allows 
you to
reach all the rest; or you don't understand anything and there's no hope 
for you.


OK, thanks, I get all that, and I can see where you're coming from, up to the point 
where maybe the circle closes. However at that point you appear to have veered off 
into fantasy (or at least you want to have you cake and eat it too).


It may well be that the MUH and comp will turn out to be castles in the air, or whatever 
is the appropriate metaphor. But I don't think a good way to show this is using 
something that appears at least equally ridiculous (to me at least, but I suspect others 
will have the same reaction). It's quite possible that physics is too abstract, but it's 
certainly less abstract than an explanatory circle in which /nothing/ is considered 
axiomatic.


If you can explain what axiomatic means, I think you'll find it on the circle.  For 
example, it might mean whatever seems necessarily true to human beings, which could be 
explained in terms of physics, biology, and evolution (c.f. William S. Coopers The Origin 
of Reason).


That is equivalent to postmodernist arguments that since everything is part of a 
linguistic web, we can't actually know or even surmise /anything/ about reality.


No it's not, because it's not just words.  For example, the explanation of biology in 
terms of physics depends on scientific propositions which are hypothesized and test in 
laboratories.


I rejected that viewpoint a few decades ago (I was briefly an ardent postmodernist, at 
least until I managed to engage my brain) and before I embrace it again I will need some 
VERY convincing evidence.


This gives me, at least, the same problem I would have with a time travel story in which 
a time traveller takes something back in time to the person who was supposed to have 
originated it and lets them crib it. Hence no one created whatever it is (Doctor Who 
did this with Shakespeare, with the Doctor quoting odd Shakespearisms and Will saying 
Mind if 

Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-12 Thread LizR
On 13 July 2014 15:53, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  If you can explain what axiomatic means, I think you'll find it on the
 circle.  For example, it might mean whatever seems necessarily true to
 human beings, which could be explained in terms of physics, biology, and
 evolution (c.f. William S. Coopers The Origin of Reason).


Well you appear to have defined it as necessarily true, which seems OK to
me. But you can't find it on the circle, because each part of the circle
relies on the previous one. So by your own definition there is nothing
there that can seem necessarily true.

   That is equivalent to postmodernist arguments that since everything is
 part of a linguistic web, we can't actually know or even surmise
 *anything* about reality.

 No it's not, because it's not just words.  For example, the explanation of
 biology in terms of physics depends on scientific propositions which are
 hypothesized and test in laboratories.


I'm afraid it is, because it is free floating in exactly the same way that
Pomo suggests all our explanations are. Each step relies on the previous
one. There is no point at which you can claim the circle is anchored in
reality.

 then for me at least it threatens to undermine everything else you've
 said, some of which I thought at the time was quite sensible.

 Apparently it can't undermine your confidence in judging what is sensible.

 No. Or my ability to spot snide remarks.

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Re: Brent's circular ontology [was: Is Consciousness Computable?]

2014-07-12 Thread meekerdb

On 7/12/2014 9:18 PM, LizR wrote:

On 13 July 2014 15:53, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

If you can explain what axiomatic means, I think you'll find it on the circle. 
For example, it might mean whatever seems necessarily true to human beings, which

could be explained in terms of physics, biology, and evolution (c.f. 
William S.
Coopers The Origin of Reason).


Well you appear to have defined it as necessarily true, which seems OK to me. But you 
can't find it on the circle, because each part of the circle relies on the previous one. 
So by your own definition there is nothing there that can seem necessarily true.


Only as *seems* necessarily true to human beings.


That is equivalent to postmodernist arguments that since everything is part 
of a
linguistic web, we can't actually know or even surmise /anything/ about 
reality.




Interestingly I am also engaged today in editing and essay by Vic Stenger, James Lindsay, 
and Peter Boghossian which is intended to clarify the relation between philosophy and 
physics.  Something that was stirred up by Larry Kruass denigrating philosophy, at least 
as applied to physics.  In it, Stenger, who is as reductionist materialist as they come, 
says we can't know anything about reality; we only know our models.  I tried to get him to 
change it.



No it's not, because it's not just words.  For example, the explanation of 
biology
in terms of physics depends on scientific propositions which are 
hypothesized and
test in laboratories.


I'm afraid it is, because it is free floating in exactly the same way that Pomo suggests 
all our explanations are. Each step relies on the previous one. There is no point at 
which you can claim the circle is anchored in reality.


Do you thing strings are suitable to anchor reality?  Or set theory? I think they are 
anchored in experience and reason.  That's how you'd explain string theory to someone; 
you'd tell them about the particle data and mathematics.  But the truth of string theory 
is much shakier than the existence of what it purports to explain. I think parts of the 
circle, where science is well developed, are anchored in correspondence with facts.


Post Modernism is more than Coherentism 
(http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/justep-coherence/).  Pomos hold that reality is a 
social construct which varies with society.



then for me at least it threatens to undermine everything else you've said, 
some of
which I thought at the time was quite sensible.

Apparently it can't undermine your confidence in judging what is sensible.

No. Or my ability to spot snide remarks.


Too bad.

Brent

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-07-02 Thread LizR
On 2 July 2014 17:03, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 7/1/2014 9:40 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 2 July 2014 15:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 7/1/2014 6:52 PM, LizR wrote:

Interesting. How is the energy required to erase a single bit
 reducible to statistical mechanics?

   Erasing a bit means putting it in a known state, which is a decrease
 in entropy.

   I don't get why a known state is important here. I certainly don't
 see why it's a decrease in entropy. (I assume you mean known to someone?)


 If you just left it in some unknown state you wouldn't be erasing it.
 Entropy decreases because before the bit was in one of two possible states;
 after it's in only one.


So it was in an unknown state before - what does that mean? To whom or what
was it unknown?

Sorry to be obtuse but I can't see how someone's knowledge of a bit's state
can affect its entropy.



 http://www.nature.com/news/the-unavoidable-cost-of-computation-revealed-1.10186

 Brent

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-07-02 Thread LizR
On 2 July 2014 17:06, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 7/1/2014 9:42 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 2 July 2014 15:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

OK, so how does that work? Like I said, I don't understand it.
 Intuitively, saying that A causes B and B causes A doesn't appear to make
 sense,

  It's not a causal relationship, it's an explanatory -.


  Sorry I should have said explains although I thought it was obvious I
 was using causal in an explanatory sense, not a physical one. Anyway,
 please continue the explanation.


 You don't understand what is meant by physics - biology or biology -
 evolution - mathematics or mathematics - physics?

 Yes I do.

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-07-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Jul 2014, at 22:10, meekerdb wrote:


On 7/1/2014 12:04 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


In a way, all of fundamental physics posits information theoretic  
entities.  Particles are nothing more than what satisfies  
particle equations.  Bruno complains about Aristotle and  
primitive matter, but I don't know any physicists who go around  
saying,I've discovered primitive matter.


That's is exactly why I have no complains on physicists. Most are  
neutral on this. Some are christians.


I complain only about physicalist. And I don't complain, I just  
show them epistemologically inconsistent if they assumes comp  
together with physicalism.


I certainly complain when they eliminate person and consciousness.






or Let's work on finding primitive matter.  They just want a  
theory that is a little more comprehensive, a little more  
accurate, a little more predictive than the one they have now.   
And they couldn't care less what stuff is needed in their theory -  
only that it works.



That is your right, but that is not an argument to defend this or  
that theory when the goal is the search of the truth.


I'm all for searching for what is true.  I'm suspicious of searches  
for THE truth.


I am suspicious only for those who claims to know the truth.

Bruno








Brent
Is that the truth?
No, but it's a lot simpler.
  --- Walt Kelly in Pogo

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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-07-01 Thread meekerdb

On 6/30/2014 9:35 PM, LizR wrote:

ISTM...

In primitive materialism, what exists are space / time and matter / energy. Information 
is an emergent property of the arrangements of those things, like entropy. Neither of 
these exist at the level of fundamental particles, or Planck cells, or strings, or 
whatever else may be the primitive mass-energy/space-time) involved.


There are problems with this view if information has primitive status, which would 
indicate that the real picture is something like it from bit or what might be called 
primitive informationism. Evidence for PI come from the entropy of black holes, the 
black hole information paradox, the Landauer limit, the Beckenstein bound, the 
holographic principle, and (unless I already covered that) the requirement that erasing 
a bit of information requires some irreducible amount of energy. (And maybe some other 
things I don't know about ... perish the thought).


That's the Landauer limit, which isn't really relevant at a fundamental level.  It's a 
thermodynamic law which is reducible to statistical mechanics.




PI isn't equivalent to comp, but from what you said above PI might be a necessary 
consequence of comp, which would give the ontological chain arithmetic - 
consciousness - information - matter (I think ... this is all ISTM of course).


OK, except I think the chain is:

arithmetic - information - matter - consciousness - arithmetic

and I'm not so inclined to take it as more than another possible model of the world.  I 
think of it as a way to describe and predict and think about the world; but without 
supposing that it's possible to prove or to know with certainty the world must be that way.




As for A Garrett Lisi, I was under the impression that his particles were something like 
a point in a weight diagram - or something - which sounds to me at least like some 
form of information theoretic entity. But I have to admit my understanding of how birds 
and flowers could emerge from the E8 group or whatever it's called is, well, about like 
this...


In a way, all of fundamental physics posits information theoretic entities.  Particles 
are nothing more than what satisfies particle equations.  Bruno complains about 
Aristotle and primitive matter, but I don't know any physicists who go around 
saying,I've discovered primitive matter.  or Let's work on finding primitive matter.  
They just want a theory that is a little more comprehensive, a little more accurate, a 
little more predictive than the one they have now.  And they couldn't care less what stuff 
is needed in their theory - only that it works.


Brent





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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-07-01 Thread LizR
On 1 July 2014 17:59, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 6/30/2014 9:35 PM, LizR wrote:

   ISTM...

  In primitive materialism, what exists are space / time and matter /
 energy. Information is an emergent property of the arrangements of those
 things, like entropy. Neither of these exist at the level of fundamental
 particles, or Planck cells, or strings, or whatever else may be the
 primitive mass-energy/space-time) involved.

 There are problems with this view if information has primitive status,
 which would indicate that the real picture is something like it from bit
 or what might be called primitive informationism. Evidence for PI come
 from the entropy of black holes, the black hole information paradox, the
 Landauer limit, the Beckenstein bound, the holographic principle, and
 (unless I already covered that) the requirement that erasing a bit of
 information requires some irreducible amount of energy. (And maybe some
 other things I don't know about ... perish the thought).

 That's the Landauer limit, which isn't really relevant at a fundamental
 level.  It's a thermodynamic law which is reducible to statistical
 mechanics.

 Interesting. How is the energy required to erase a single bit reducible to
statistical mechanics?

 PI isn't equivalent to comp, but from what you said above PI might be a
 necessary consequence of comp, which would give the ontological chain
 arithmetic - consciousness - information - matter (I think ... this is
 all ISTM of course).

 OK, except I think the chain is:

 arithmetic - information - matter - consciousness - arithmetic


That doesn't make sense to me. I mean everything except the last term is
OK, but you're apparently claiming that arithmetic is fundamental AND an
invention of the human mind. Which at first glance looks suspiciously like
fence sitting and having and eating your cake...

Unless you have a theory of circular ontology, of course, in which case
please fill in a few more details.


 and I'm not so inclined to take it as more than another possible model of
 the world.


We aren't in a position to do more than build models of the world. If you
think it's a possible model then that's *all* you can ever claim for it,
well, unless some evidence comes along that disproves it, when you can't
even do that.


   I think of it as a way to describe and predict and think about the
 world; but without supposing that it's possible to prove or to know with
 certainty the world must be that way.


Of course, we can't know for certain what the world is like.

 As for A Garrett Lisi, I was under the impression that his particles were
 something like a point in a weight diagram - or something - which sounds
 to me at least like some form of information theoretic entity. But I have
 to admit my understanding of how birds and flowers could emerge from the E8
 group or whatever it's called is, well, about like this...

 In a way, all of fundamental physics posits information theoretic
 entities.  Particles are nothing more than what satisfies particle
 equations.  Bruno complains about Aristotle and primitive matter, but I
 don't know any physicists who go around saying,I've discovered primitive
 matter.  or Let's work on finding primitive matter.


Well, I think Bruno thinks it's more an unconscious assumption for most
physicists, rather than something explicitly stated. For example your
statement about your mother implicitly assumes her mind is nothing but
what her brain does. That's a primitive materialist assumption (and one
that may be right, of course) but my point is that no one stops to make it
explicit, because nowadays it's deeply ingrained in the thought processes
of anyone who isn't strongly religious, and goes without saying.


 They just want a theory that is a little more comprehensive, a little more
 accurate, a little more predictive than the one they have now.  And they
 couldn't care less what stuff is needed in their theory - only that it
 works.


So why the century-long kerfuffle about the correct interpretation of
quantum mechanics? :-)

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-07-01 Thread meekerdb

On 7/1/2014 1:01 AM, LizR wrote:

On 1 July 2014 17:59, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 6/30/2014 9:35 PM, LizR wrote:

ISTM...

In primitive materialism, what exists are space / time and matter / energy.
Information is an emergent property of the arrangements of those things, 
like
entropy. Neither of these exist at the level of fundamental particles, or 
Planck
cells, or strings, or whatever else may be the primitive 
mass-energy/space-time)
involved.

There are problems with this view if information has primitive status, 
which would
indicate that the real picture is something like it from bit or what 
might be
called primitive informationism. Evidence for PI come from the entropy of 
black
holes, the black hole information paradox, the Landauer limit, the 
Beckenstein
bound, the holographic principle, and (unless I already covered that) the
requirement that erasing a bit of information requires some irreducible 
amount of
energy. (And maybe some other things I don't know about ... perish the 
thought).

That's the Landauer limit, which isn't really relevant at a fundamental 
level.  It's
a thermodynamic law which is reducible to statistical mechanics.

Interesting. How is the energy required to erase a single bit reducible to statistical 
mechanics?



PI isn't equivalent to comp, but from what you said above PI might be a 
necessary
consequence of comp, which would give the ontological chain arithmetic -
consciousness - information - matter (I think ... this is all ISTM of 
course).

OK, except I think the chain is:

arithmetic - information - matter - consciousness - arithmetic


That doesn't make sense to me. I mean everything except the last term is OK, but you're 
apparently claiming that arithmetic is fundamental AND an invention of the human mind. 
Which at first glance looks suspiciously like fence sitting and having and eating your 
cake...


Unless you have a theory of circular ontology, of course, in which case please fill in a 
few more details.


Why?  The details are no different than in the linear case.  In the details you look at 
each - separately.  What's different about the circular case is that you don't suppose 
that one of the levels is fundamental or primitive.  But I generally consider ontolgy 
to be derivative.  You gather data, create a model, test it.  If it passes every test, 
makes good predictions, fits with other theories, then you think it's a pretty good model 
and may be telling you what the world is like.  THEN you look at and ask what are the 
essential parts of it, what does it require to exist.  But that's more of a philosophical 
than a scientific enterprise, because, as in QM, there maybe radically different ways to 
ascribe an ontology to the same mathematical system.  Even Bruno's very abstract theory is 
ambiguous about whether the ur-stuff is arithmetic or threads of computation. You can 
probably show they are empirically equivalent - just like Hilbert space and Feynman paths 
give the same answers but are ontologically quite different.




and I'm not so inclined to take it as more than another possible model of 
the world.


We aren't in a position to do more than build models of the world. If you think it's a 
possible model then that's /all/ you can ever claim for it, well, unless some evidence 
comes along that disproves it, when you can't even do that.


  I think of it as a way to describe and predict and think about the world; 
but
without supposing that it's possible to prove or to know with certainty the 
world
must be that way.


Of course, we can't know for certain what the world is like.


As for A Garrett Lisi, I was under the impression that his particles were 
something
like a point in a weight diagram - or something - which sounds to me at 
least
like some form of information theoretic entity. But I have to admit my
understanding of how birds and flowers could emerge from the E8 group or 
whatever
it's called is, well, about like this...
In a way, all of fundamental physics posits information theoretic entities. 
Particles are nothing more than what satisfies particle equations.  Bruno

complains about Aristotle and primitive matter, but I don't know any 
physicists
who go around saying,I've discovered primitive matter.  or Let's work on 
finding
primitive matter.


Well, I think Bruno thinks it's more an unconscious assumption for most physicists, 
rather than something explicitly stated. For example your statement about your mother 
implicitly assumes her mind is nothing but what her brain does. That's a primitive 
materialist assumption


But it's not an assumption.  There's lots of evidence for it and practically none against 
it.  I don't think Bruno contests that.  He just supposes that this mind/body relation can 
be explained from a level he considers more 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-07-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Jul 2014, at 06:35, LizR wrote:


ISTM...

In primitive materialism, what exists are space / time and matter /  
energy. Information is an emergent property of the arrangements of  
those things, like entropy. Neither of these exist at the level of  
fundamental particles, or Planck cells, or strings, or whatever else  
may be the primitive mass-energy/space-time) involved.


There are problems with this view if information has primitive  
status, which would indicate that the real picture is something like  
it from bit or what might be called primitive informationism.  
Evidence for PI come from the entropy of black holes, the black hole  
information paradox, the Landauer limit, the Beckenstein bound, the  
holographic principle, and (unless I already covered that) the  
requirement that erasing a bit of information requires some  
irreducible amount of energy. (And maybe some other things I don't  
know about ... perish the thought).



Shannon's notion of information, and Kolmogorov-Chaitin-Solovay  
notions of information are purely mathematical (and usually definable  
in arithmetic, but non computable). But quantum information, despite a  
rather precise mathematical formulation,  will be considered as much  
physical as the quantum reality can be, and might be more primitive in  
some attempt to unify the physical laws.







PI isn't equivalent to comp, but from what you said above PI might  
be a necessary consequence of comp, which would give the  
ontological chain arithmetic - consciousness - information -  
matter (I think ... this is all ISTM of course).


The question is to interpret that correctly. usually I just prefer to  
ignore the word information as it is a tricky word, having many  
sense, from the 3p Shannon notion to the 1p human content-full beliefs  
informed with the news, called in french information, like in TV  
information.


I would see a lot of intermediate 3p information coming logically  
before consciousness. The UD, and thus the sigma_1 sentences can be  
said to handle a lot of information in the 3p sense, but  
consciousness, or just the 1p creates the information when it  
differentiates, like looking at an alternate possibilities of the type  
W v M, in self-multiplication (on all relevant sigma_1 sentences).


Roughly, the difference between classical and quantum information is  
that the classical information is entirely determined above your  
substitution level, and the quantum information is entirely determined  
by the infinities of computations below your substitution level. QM  
becomes an empirical evidences that there is a very stable first  
person plural reality, of the type we have to justify by the person  
points of view modalities.







As for A Garrett Lisi, I was under the impression that his particles  
were something like a point in a weight diagram - or something -  
which sounds to me at least like some form of information theoretic  
entity. But I have to admit my understanding of how birds and  
flowers could emerge from the E8 group or whatever it's called is,  
well, about like this...






Beautiful mathematics, and I tend to believe in this and E8, and the  
Monster group, Moonshine, ...


Normally the arithmetical quantization should justify those groups.

The advantage of comp is that it unifies not just all what we see, but  
also all a large part of what we don't see.


(By the Solovay G/G* difference and its intensional variants).

Bruno











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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-07-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Jul 2014, at 07:59, meekerdb wrote:


On 6/30/2014 9:35 PM, LizR wrote:

ISTM...

In primitive materialism, what exists are space / time and matter /  
energy. Information is an emergent property of the arrangements of  
those things, like entropy. Neither of these exist at the level of  
fundamental particles, or Planck cells, or strings, or whatever  
else may be the primitive mass-energy/space-time) involved.


There are problems with this view if information has primitive  
status, which would indicate that the real picture is something  
like it from bit or what might be called primitive  
informationism. Evidence for PI come  from the entropy  
of black holes, the black hole information paradox, the Landauer  
limit, the Beckenstein bound, the holographic principle, and  
(unless I already covered that) the requirement that erasing a bit  
of information requires some irreducible amount of energy. (And  
maybe some other things I don't know about ... perish the thought).


That's the Landauer limit, which isn't really relevant at a  
fundamental level.  It's a thermodynamic law which is reducible to  
statistical mechanics.




PI isn't equivalent to comp, but from what you said above PI might  
be a necessary consequence of comp, which would give the  
ontological chain arithmetic - consciousness - information -  
matter (I think ... this is all ISTM of course).


OK, except I think the chain is:

arithmetic - information - matter - consciousness - arithmetic



Arithmetic, even one diophantine equation can supports loop of that  
kind.


There is a paradoxal combinator which provides solution to such loop  
Yx = x(Yx). Y provides semantical fixed point, and you can get the  
second recursion theorem too.


Like in general relativity Gödel show the existence of circular time  
loop.


Any way the - are not temporal, but logical, or epistemological.





and I'm not so inclined to take it as more than another possible  
model of the world.  I think of it as a way to describe and predict  
and think about the world; but without supposing that it's possible  
to prove or to know with certainty the world must be that way.


The criteria remains the same. That's why I insist that comp + some  
definition of knowledge can be tested.









As for A Garrett Lisi, I was under the impression that his  
particles were something like a point in a weight diagram - or  
something - which sounds to me at least like some form of  
information theoretic entity. But I have to admit my understanding  
of how birds and flowers could emerge from the E8 group or whatever  
it's called is, well, about like this...


In a way, all of fundamental physics posits information theoretic  
entities.  Particles are nothing more than what satisfies  
particle equations.  Bruno complains about Aristotle and primitive  
matter, but I don't know any physicists who go around saying,I've  
discovered primitive matter.


That's is exactly why I have no complains on physicists. Most are  
neutral on this. Some are christians.


I complain only about physicalist. And I don't complain, I just show  
them epistemologically inconsistent if they assumes comp together with  
physicalism.


I certainly complain when they eliminate person and consciousness.






or Let's work on finding primitive matter.  They just want a  
theory that is a little more comprehensive, a little more accurate,  
a little more predictive than the one they have now.  And they  
couldn't care less what stuff is needed in their theory - only that  
it works.



That is your right, but that is not an argument to defend this or that  
theory when the goal is the search of the truth.


Bruno







Brent





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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-07-01 Thread meekerdb

On 7/1/2014 12:04 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


In a way, all of fundamental physics posits information theoretic entities.  
Particles are nothing more than what satisfies particle equations.  Bruno complains 
about Aristotle and primitive matter, but I don't know any physicists who go around 
saying,I've discovered primitive matter.


That's is exactly why I have no complains on physicists. Most are neutral on this. Some 
are christians.


I complain only about physicalist. And I don't complain, I just show them 
epistemologically inconsistent if they assumes comp together with physicalism.


I certainly complain when they eliminate person and consciousness.






or Let's work on finding primitive matter.  They just want a theory that is a little 
more comprehensive, a little more accurate, a little more predictive than the one they 
have now.  And they couldn't care less what stuff is needed in their theory - only that 
it works.



That is your right, but that is not an argument to defend this or that theory when the 
goal is the search of the truth.


I'm all for searching for what is true.  I'm suspicious of searches for THE 
truth.

Brent
Is that the truth?
No, but it's a lot simpler.
  --- Walt Kelly in Pogo

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-07-01 Thread LizR
On 2 July 2014 05:33, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 7/1/2014 1:01 AM, LizR wrote:

  On 1 July 2014 17:59, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 6/30/2014 9:35 PM, LizR wrote:

   ISTM...

  In primitive materialism, what exists are space / time and matter /
 energy. Information is an emergent property of the arrangements of those
 things, like entropy. Neither of these exist at the level of fundamental
 particles, or Planck cells, or strings, or whatever else may be the
 primitive mass-energy/space-time) involved.

 There are problems with this view if information has primitive status,
 which would indicate that the real picture is something like it from bit
 or what might be called primitive informationism. Evidence for PI come
 from the entropy of black holes, the black hole information paradox, the
 Landauer limit, the Beckenstein bound, the holographic principle, and
 (unless I already covered that) the requirement that erasing a bit of
 information requires some irreducible amount of energy. (And maybe some
 other things I don't know about ... perish the thought).

  That's the Landauer limit, which isn't really relevant at a fundamental
 level.  It's a thermodynamic law which is reducible to statistical
 mechanics.

   Interesting. How is the energy required to erase a single bit
 reducible to statistical mechanics?

 I'd appreciate an answer to this question, if you have one. I can't see
the connection and am genuinely interested, I wasn't being rhetorical.

PI isn't equivalent to comp, but from what you said above PI might be
 a necessary consequence of comp, which would give the ontological chain
 arithmetic - consciousness - information - matter (I think ... this is
 all ISTM of course).

  OK, except I think the chain is:

 arithmetic - information - matter - consciousness - arithmetic


  That doesn't make sense to me. I mean everything except the last term is
 OK, but you're apparently claiming that arithmetic is fundamental AND an
 invention of the human mind. Which at first glance looks suspiciously like
 fence sitting and having and eating your cake...

  Unless you have a theory of circular ontology, of course, in which case
 please fill in a few more details.

  Why?  The details are no different than in the linear case.  In the
 details you look at each - separately.  What's different about the
 circular case is that you don't suppose that one of the levels is
 fundamental or primitive.


OK, so how does that work? Like I said, I don't understand it. Intuitively,
saying that A causes B and B causes A doesn't appear to make sense, it's a
bit of a chicken and egg situation (though luckily evolution can answer
that one). Some more information would be appreciated.


 But I generally consider ontolgy to be derivative.  You gather data,
 create a model, test it.  If it passes every test, makes good predictions,
 fits with other theories, then you think it's a pretty good model and may
 be telling you what the world is like.  THEN you look at and ask what are
 the essential parts of it, what does it require to exist.  But that's more
 of a philosophical than a scientific enterprise, because, as in QM, there
 maybe radically different ways to ascribe an ontology to the same
 mathematical system.  Even Bruno's very abstract theory is ambiguous about
 whether the ur-stuff is arithmetic or threads of computation.  You can
 probably show they are empirically equivalent - just like Hilbert space and
 Feynman paths give the same answers but are ontologically quite different.


OK. How you get to it is, of course, via empiricism (how else?). But so far
most physicists (that I've come across) have considered that a reductionist
ontology is most likely to be correct. Of course the majority doesn't rule
in physics, and it's fine that you prefer a circular ontology, I'd just
like to know how it's actually supposed to work, (preferably sans waffle,
if you can manage it).

   and I'm not so inclined to take it as more than another possible model
 of the world.


 We aren't in a position to do more than build models of the world. If you
think it's a possible model then that's *all* you can ever claim for it,
well, unless some evidence comes along that disproves it, when you can't
even do that.


   I think of it as a way to describe and predict and think about the
 world; but without supposing that it's possible to prove or to know with
 certainty the world must be that way.


 Of course, we can't know for certain what the world is like.

   As for A Garrett Lisi, I was under the impression that his particles
 were something like a point in a weight diagram - or something - which
 sounds to me at least like some form of information theoretic entity. But I
 have to admit my understanding of how birds and flowers could emerge from
 the E8 group or whatever it's called is, well, about like this...

  In a way, all of fundamental physics posits information theoretic
 entities.  Particles 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-07-01 Thread meekerdb

On 7/1/2014 6:52 PM, LizR wrote:

On 2 July 2014 05:33, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 7/1/2014 1:01 AM, LizR wrote:

On 1 July 2014 17:59, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net
wrote:

On 6/30/2014 9:35 PM, LizR wrote:

ISTM...

In primitive materialism, what exists are space / time and matter / 
energy.
Information is an emergent property of the arrangements of those 
things, like
entropy. Neither of these exist at the level of fundamental particles, 
or
Planck cells, or strings, or whatever else may be the primitive
mass-energy/space-time) involved.

There are problems with this view if information has primitive status, 
which
would indicate that the real picture is something like it from bit or 
what
might be called primitive informationism. Evidence for PI come from 
the
entropy of black holes, the black hole information paradox, the Landauer
limit, the Beckenstein bound, the holographic principle, and (unless I 
already
covered that) the requirement that erasing a bit of information 
requires some
irreducible amount of energy. (And maybe some other things I don't know 
about
... perish the thought).

That's the Landauer limit, which isn't really relevant at a fundamental 
level.
It's a thermodynamic law which is reducible to statistical mechanics.

Interesting. How is the energy required to erase a single bit reducible to
statistical mechanics?


I'd appreciate an answer to this question, if you have one. I can't see the connection 
and am genuinely interested, I wasn't being rhetorical.


Erasing a bit means putting it in a known state, which is a decrease in entropy. Since 
overall entropy cannot decrease this must be transferred to the environment. If the 
environment is at temperature T the work required to do this is ST, or for one bit 
kTln(2).  This is a very small number because Boltzmann's constant k is very small.  So 
real computers use many orders of magnitude more energy per bit.  Feynman noted that it 
can be avoided by using reversible computing.




PI isn't equivalent to comp, but from what you said above PI might be a
necessary consequence of comp, which would give the ontological chain
arithmetic - consciousness - information - matter (I think ... this 
is all
ISTM of course).

OK, except I think the chain is:

arithmetic - information - matter - consciousness - arithmetic


That doesn't make sense to me. I mean everything except the last term is 
OK, but
you're apparently claiming that arithmetic is fundamental AND an invention 
of the
human mind. Which at first glance looks suspiciously like fence sitting and 
having
and eating your cake...

Unless you have a theory of circular ontology, of course, in which case 
please fill
in a few more details.

Why?  The details are no different than in the linear case.  In the details 
you look
at each - separately.  What's different about the circular case is that 
you don't
suppose that one of the levels is fundamental or primitive.


OK, so how does that work? Like I said, I don't understand it. Intuitively, saying that 
A causes B and B causes A doesn't appear to make sense,


It's not a causal relationship, it's an explanatory -.

it's a bit of a chicken and egg situation (though luckily evolution can answer that 
one). Some more information would be appreciated.


But I generally consider ontolgy to be derivative.  You gather data, create 
a model,
test it.  If it passes every test, makes good predictions, fits with other 
theories,
then you think it's a pretty good model and may be telling you what the 
world is
like.  THEN you look at and ask what are the essential parts of it, what 
does it
require to exist.  But that's more of a philosophical than a scientific 
enterprise,
because, as in QM, there maybe radically different ways to ascribe an 
ontology to
the same mathematical system.  Even Bruno's very abstract theory is 
ambiguous about
whether the ur-stuff is arithmetic or threads of computation.  You can 
probably show
they are empirically equivalent - just like Hilbert space and Feynman paths 
give the
same answers but are ontologically quite different.


OK. How you get to it is, of course, via empiricism (how else?). But so far most 
physicists (that I've come across) have considered that a reductionist ontology is most 
likely to be correct.


What would a non-reductionist ontology look like?  Some kind of Holism. Plotinus talks 
about The One, but what good is that. If you stop taking this stuff so seriously 
(searching for THE TRUTH) and think of these theories as different models for an 
unknowable reality, then you see that a model with ONE part isn't very useful. You 
immediately then 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-07-01 Thread LizR
On 2 July 2014 15:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 7/1/2014 6:52 PM, LizR wrote:

Interesting. How is the energy required to erase a single bit
 reducible to statistical mechanics?

  Erasing a bit means putting it in a known state, which is a decrease in
 entropy.

 I don't get why a known state is important here. I certainly don't see
why it's a decrease in entropy. (I assume you mean known to someone?)

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-07-01 Thread LizR
On 2 July 2014 15:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 OK, so how does that work? Like I said, I don't understand it.
 Intuitively, saying that A causes B and B causes A doesn't appear to make
 sense,

  It's not a causal relationship, it's an explanatory -.


Sorry I should have said explains although I thought it was obvious I was
using causal in an explanatory sense, not a physical one. Anyway, please
continue the explanation.

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-07-01 Thread LizR
On 2 July 2014 15:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 What would a non-reductionist ontology look like?


The explanatory chain you gave earlier would look like one if I could make
sense of it.


 Some kind of Holism. Plotinus talks about The One, but what good is
 that. If you stop taking this stuff so seriously (searching for THE TRUTH)
 and think of these theories as different models for an unknowable reality,
 then you see that a model with ONE part isn't very useful. You immediately
 then have to start explaining why it seems to have parts in spite of
 being The One.


Any chance of you explaining what you meant without all the waffle? I'm
actually interested to know. Please could you start with that diagram which
goes from arithmetic to arithmetic and explain how it makes sense, or is
reductionist, or SOMETHING. I am starting to get a tronnies feel as I keep
asking for clarification and none appears... Anyway I hve to go now kids to
feed etc hope to hear somethijng sensible next time!

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-07-01 Thread meekerdb

On 7/1/2014 9:40 PM, LizR wrote:

On 2 July 2014 15:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 7/1/2014 6:52 PM, LizR wrote:



Interesting. How is the energy required to erase a single bit reducible 
to
statistical mechanics?


Erasing a bit means putting it in a known state, which is a decrease in 
entropy.


I don't get why a known state is important here. I certainly don't see why it's a 
decrease in entropy. (I assume you mean known to someone?)


If you just left it in some unknown state you wouldn't be erasing it. Entropy decreases 
because before the bit was in one of two possible states; after it's in only one.


http://www.nature.com/news/the-unavoidable-cost-of-computation-revealed-1.10186

Brent

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-07-01 Thread meekerdb

On 7/1/2014 9:42 PM, LizR wrote:

On 2 July 2014 15:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


OK, so how does that work? Like I said, I don't understand it. Intuitively, 
saying
that A causes B and B causes A doesn't appear to make sense,

It's not a causal relationship, it's an explanatory -.


Sorry I should have said explains although I thought it was obvious I was using causal 
in an explanatory sense, not a physical one. Anyway, please continue the explanation.


You don't understand what is meant by physics - biology or biology - evolution - 
mathematics or mathematics - physics?


Brent

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-07-01 Thread meekerdb

On 7/1/2014 9:47 PM, LizR wrote:

On 2 July 2014 15:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

What would a non-reductionist ontology look like?


The explanatory chain you gave earlier would look like one if I could make 
sense of it.

Some kind of Holism. Plotinus talks about The One, but what good is that. 
If you
stop taking this stuff so seriously (searching for THE TRUTH) and think of 
these
theories as different models for an unknowable reality, then you see that a 
model
with ONE part isn't very useful. You immediately then have to start 
explaining why
it seems to have parts in spite of being The One.


Any chance of you explaining what you meant without all the waffle? I'm actually 
interested to know. Please could you start with that diagram which goes from arithmetic 
to arithmetic and explain how it makes sense, or is reductionist, or SOMETHING. I am 
starting to get a tronnies feel as I keep asking for clarification and none appears... 
Anyway I hve to go now kids to feed etc hope to hear somethijng sensible next time!


Each step - is whole field of science and you want me to explain it?  It's not a worked 
out, unified causal theory.  It's just a way of seeing that there isn't necessarily some 
ur-stuff that explains everything else.


Brent

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 Jun 2014, at 21:20, LizR wrote:


On 29 June 2014 20:04, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:
With comp, what i showed is that we have indeed to extract the law  
of the qubits (quantum logic) from the laws of the bits (the laws  
of Boole, + Boolos). IMO, Everett + decoherence already shows the  
road qubits to bits. But comp provides a double (by G/G*) reverse of  
that road, which separates quanta and qualia (normally, although  
quanta must be a first person plural).


It sounds to me as though you are saying that information is real  
if arithmetic is real...?


What do you mean by real here?

The question is not so much about what is real, but about what is  
primitively real.


With computationalism, and the TOE chosen, 0, s(0), ... and + and *  
are primitively real, as we assume the RA axioms.  Information is  
derived from it, both the classical one, and the quantum one.


But a physicist like Landauer(*) would say that information is  
real because it is an essentially physical things:



(*) 
http://www.uni-leipzig.de/~biophy09/Biophysik-Vorlesung_2009-2010_DATA/QUELLEN/LIT/A/B/3/Landauer_1996_physical_nature_information.pdf



(If so, deriving the entropy of a black hole would be support for  
comp :-)


I don't see why. It would be consistent with Landauer's notion of  
physical information, ISTM.


Maybe I jumped the gun here, or something.


I should have written: It would be consistent with Landauer's notion  
of *primitive* physical information, ISTM.






Deriving the entropy of a black hole seems to me - upon reflection -  
to show that information is physically real,


That's not clear to me. deriving the number of items in my fridge  
might makes those items real, but not necessarily the number itself  
real. I mean that a physicalist can argue in that sense.







so it makes it as real as the physical world.


Not for a primitive materialist, who will say that the information are  
only in your mind.




According to comp the physical world is not primitively real, so  
information would be not primitively real either.


No. Although you get shannon information quasi directly with the self- 
duplication, and get some trace of the quantum information in the  
first person plural. OK.






However, it WOULD be physically real,


The quantum one, yes.



which is a step away from just something convenient for humans to  
use (like temperature, as mentioned elsewhere).


I agree.





This seems to accord with fundamental particles appearing to be  
little bundles of information, which I think is roughly A Garrett  
Lisi's view, amongst others (JA Wheeler?)


JA Wheeler, sure. Garret Lisi? If you can give a quote. I don't see  
him even addressing the question of the nature of his particles. He  
proposed a very cute and quasi-convincing theory (except it does not  
work), very mathematical. But he does not address the reality  
question. May be I am wrong on this, but then I would be happy with a  
reference.


The fact that only erasing information needs energy is fascinating,  
and still a bit weird in the comp perspective. It might be a very  
fundamental fact, and the shadow of it in arithmetic might be the  
symmetry of the logic of observable on the atomic (sigma_1)  
proposition, and the antisymmetry just above. But I don't want get too  
much technical.


Bruno






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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-30 Thread LizR
ISTM...

In primitive materialism, what exists are space / time and matter / energy.
Information is an emergent property of the arrangements of those things,
like entropy. Neither of these exist at the level of fundamental particles,
or Planck cells, or strings, or whatever else may be the primitive
mass-energy/space-time) involved.

There are problems with this view if information has primitive status,
which would indicate that the real picture is something like it from bit
or what might be called primitive informationism. Evidence for PI come
from the entropy of black holes, the black hole information paradox, the
Landauer limit, the Beckenstein bound, the holographic principle, and
(unless I already covered that) the requirement that erasing a bit of
information requires some irreducible amount of energy. (And maybe some
other things I don't know about ... perish the thought).

PI isn't equivalent to comp, but from what you said above PI might be a
necessary consequence of comp, which would give the ontological chain
arithmetic - consciousness - information - matter (I think ... this is
all ISTM of course).

As for A Garrett Lisi, I was under the impression that his particles were
something like a point in a weight diagram - or something - which sounds
to me at least like some form of information theoretic entity. But I have
to admit my understanding of how birds and flowers could emerge from the E8
group or whatever it's called is, well, about like this...

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-29 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 26 Jun 2014, at 03:55, LizR wrote:


On 26 June 2014 03:49, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 29 May 2014, at 00:17, LizR wrote:

On 28 May 2014 19:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
On 5/28/2014 12:35 AM, LizR wrote:

On 28 May 2014 16:20, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
I think the more crucial step is arguing that computation (and  
therefore consciousness) can exist without physics.  That physical  
instantiation is dispensable.


Yes indeed. I would say that for comp to be meaningful, it's  
necessary to show that information is a real (and fundamental)  
thing, rather than something that only has relevance / meaning to  
us - I suppose deriving the entropy of a black hole, the  
Beckenstein bound and the holographic principle all hint that this  
is the case. (Maybe QM unitarity and the black hole information  
paradox too?)


I'm not sure how secure a footing any of these items put the  
reification of information it on, though.
As Bruno has noted, we live on border between order and chaos -  
neither maximum nor minimum information/entropy but something like  
complexity.  Here's recent survey of ways to quantify it by Scott  
Aaronso, Sean Carroll and Lauren Ouellette. http://www.scottaaronson.com/blog/?p=1818


As usual I don't have time to read that paper, at least not  
immediately. However I see that defining complexity appear to  
require coarse graining. If so, I would take this to mean that  
there isn't anything fundamental being defined - or at least that  
we're in a grey area where nothing is known to be fundamental. On  
the other hand, entropy used to require coarse graining but as I  
mentioned above has now been defined for black holes, so assuming  
BHs really exist (and the things we think are BHs aren't some other  
type of massive object of an undefined nature) that would at least  
suggest that fundamental physics involves entropy, and hence  
information.


Is there any complexity measure that doesn;t involve CG and hence  
isn't just (imho) in the eye of the beholder ?


Computer science provides a lot of definition for complexity, below  
the computable, like SPACE or TIME needed, related to tractability  
issues and above the computable, like the degree of unsolvability  
shown to exists by using machine + oracles (for example).


Those notion are typically not in the eye of the beholder, as they  
are the same for all universal numbers. Computer scientist says that  
they are machine-independent notion. They remain invariant for the  
change of the base of the phi_i.


With comp, what i showed is that we have indeed to extract the law  
of the qubits (quantum logic) from the laws of the bits (the laws  
of Boole, + Boolos). IMO, Everett + decoherence already shows the  
road qubits to bits. But comp provides a double (by G/G*) reverse of  
that road, which separates quanta and qualia (normally, although  
quanta must be a first person plural).


It sounds to me as though you are saying that information is real if  
arithmetic is real...?


What do you mean by real here?

The question is not so much about what is real, but about what is  
primitively real.


With computationalism, and the TOE chosen, 0, s(0), ... and + and *  
are primitively real, as we assume the RA axioms.  Information is  
derived from it, both the classical one, and the quantum one.


But a physicist like Landauer(*) would say that information is real  
because it is an essentially physical things:



(*) 
http://www.uni-leipzig.de/~biophy09/Biophysik-Vorlesung_2009-2010_DATA/QUELLEN/LIT/A/B/3/Landauer_1996_physical_nature_information.pdf



(If so, deriving the entropy of a black hole would be support for  
comp :-)


I don't see why. It would be consistent with Landauer's notion of  
physical information, ISTM.


Bruno






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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-29 Thread LizR
On 29 June 2014 20:04, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 With comp, what i showed is that we have indeed to extract the law of the
 qubits (quantum logic) from the laws of the bits (the laws of Boole, +
 Boolos). IMO, Everett + decoherence already shows the road qubits to bits.
 But comp provides a double (by G/G*) reverse of that road, which separates
 quanta and qualia (normally, although quanta must be a first person plural).


 It sounds to me as though you are saying that information is real if
 arithmetic is real...?

 What do you mean by real here?

 The question is not so much about what is real, but about what is
 primitively real.

 With computationalism, and the TOE chosen, 0, s(0), ... and + and * are
 primitively real, as we assume the RA axioms.  Information is derived from
 it, both the classical one, and the quantum one.

 But a physicist like Landauer(*) would say that information is real
 because it is an essentially physical things:


 (*)
 http://www.uni-leipzig.de/~biophy09/Biophysik-Vorlesung_2009-2010_DATA/QUELLEN/LIT/A/B/3/Landauer_1996_physical_nature_information.pdf


 (If so, deriving the entropy of a black hole would be support for comp :-)


 I don't see why. It would be consistent with Landauer's notion of physical
 information, ISTM.


Maybe I jumped the gun here, or something. Deriving the entropy of a black
hole seems to me - upon reflection - to show that information is physically
real, so it makes it as real as the physical world. According to comp the
physical world is not primitively real, so information would be not
primitively real either. However, it WOULD be physically real, which is a
step away from just something convenient for humans to use (like
temperature, as mentioned elsewhere).

This seems to accord with fundamental particles appearing to be little
bundles of information, which I think is roughly A Garrett Lisi's view,
amongst others (JA Wheeler?)

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 May 2014, at 04:36, LizR wrote:


On 28 May 2014 14:12, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:
On Wednesday, May 28, 2014 2:24:39 AM UTC+1, Liz R wrote:
As far as I can see Bruno has a logical argument which happens to  
segue into a theory of physics. To disprove it, one merely needs to  
show that either his premises or his argument is wrong...


I don't agree with you about that, but for point of order, I haven't  
gone down that road anyway. He's wrong about falsification. I did  
try to drop it. I shall probably try again.


Bruno may well be wrong about falsification. I haven't tried to  
follow the arguments you and he have had on the subject, or not very  
much. I know Bruno has said he does have a theory of everything,  
which is subject to falsification... which it seems to me is an  
awful lot to derive from the idea that consciousness arises from  
computation ...



Just to make this more precise, the starting idea is not really that  
consciousness arises from a computation, but more that consciousness  
is invariant for the change of universal machines below its local  
machine substitution level.






but I guess some relatively simple idea can sometimes lead to a huge  
theory ...


Yes.




maybe when (or if) I get to grips with the MGA and the logic  
involved in deriving some features of physics from comp, I might  
have something more sensible to say on the matter,


Do you understand that the reversal occurs at step seven, if you  
accept the protocol?


In step seven, we have already the basic shape of the physical laws:  
they have to be a statistic (a mean of quantifying uncertainty) on all  
computations going through your state (defined indexically with  
Gödel's/Kleene's method, cf Dx =: 'xx' = DD =: 'DD').


Of course, a physicalist can still save the identity mind-brain link  
by making the physical universe small (= without concrete UD running  
in it forever).


But already at this stage, the move seems to be motivated only by  
avoiding looking at a possible (and testable) explanation of the  
origin of the physical laws, and such a move does not solve neither  
the problem of consciousness, nor the problem of matter. So step 8,  
despite its intrinsic interest, is used in the UDA only for the  
nitpicking mind who believe such move can make sense rationally;  
Step 8 shows that it endows the primitive matter with magical  
properties, whose role in both matter and consciousness has to be made  
magical on purpose. It makes primitive matter isomorphic to a god-of- 
the-gap, and here it is made to avoid a problem whose testable  
solution would solve the mind-body problem, or refute comp (assuming  
we are not dreaming or in an emulation).


Bruno







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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 29 May 2014, at 00:17, LizR wrote:


On 28 May 2014 19:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
On 5/28/2014 12:35 AM, LizR wrote:

On 28 May 2014 16:20, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
I think the more crucial step is arguing that computation (and  
therefore consciousness) can exist without physics.  That physical  
instantiation is dispensable.


Yes indeed. I would say that for comp to be meaningful, it's  
necessary to show that information is a real (and fundamental)  
thing, rather than something that only has relevance / meaning to  
us - I suppose deriving the entropy of a black hole, the  
Beckenstein bound and the holographic principle all hint that this  
is the case. (Maybe QM unitarity and the black hole information  
paradox too?)


I'm not sure how secure a footing any of these items put the  
reification of information it on, though.
As Bruno has noted, we live on border between order and chaos -  
neither maximum nor minimum information/entropy but something like  
complexity.  Here's recent survey of ways to quantify it by Scott  
Aaronso, Sean Carroll and Lauren Ouellette. http://www.scottaaronson.com/blog/?p=1818


As usual I don't have time to read that paper, at least not  
immediately. However I see that defining complexity appear to  
require coarse graining. If so, I would take this to mean that there  
isn't anything fundamental being defined - or at least that we're in  
a grey area where nothing is known to be fundamental. On the other  
hand, entropy used to require coarse graining but as I mentioned  
above has now been defined for black holes, so assuming BHs really  
exist (and the things we think are BHs aren't some other type of  
massive object of an undefined nature) that would at least suggest  
that fundamental physics involves entropy, and hence information.


Is there any complexity measure that doesn;t involve CG and hence  
isn't just (imho) in the eye of the beholder ?


Computer science provides a lot of definition for complexity, below  
the computable, like SPACE or TIME needed, related to tractability  
issues and above the computable, like the degree of unsolvability  
shown to exists by using machine + oracles (for example).


Those notion are typically not in the eye of the beholder, as they are  
the same for all universal numbers. Computer scientist says that they  
are machine-independent notion. They remain invariant for the change  
of the base of the phi_i.


With comp, what i showed is that we have indeed to extract the law of  
the qubits (quantum logic) from the laws of the bits (the laws of  
Boole, + Boolos). IMO, Everett + decoherence already shows the road  
qubits to bits. But comp provides a double (by G/G*) reverse of that  
road, which separates quanta and qualia (normally, although quanta  
must be a first person plural).


Bruno









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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-25 Thread LizR
On 26 June 2014 03:49, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 29 May 2014, at 00:17, LizR wrote:

 On 28 May 2014 19:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 5/28/2014 12:35 AM, LizR wrote:

  On 28 May 2014 16:20, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 I think the more crucial step is arguing that computation (and therefore
 consciousness) can exist without physics.  That physical instantiation is
 dispensable.


  Yes indeed. I would say that for comp to be meaningful, it's necessary
 to show that information is a real (and fundamental) thing, rather than
 something that only has relevance / meaning to us - I suppose deriving the
 entropy of a black hole, the Beckenstein bound and the holographic
 principle all hint that this is the case. (Maybe QM unitarity and the black
 hole information paradox too?)

 I'm not sure how secure a footing any of these items put the reification
 of information it on, though.

 As Bruno has noted, we live on border between order and chaos - neither
 maximum nor minimum information/entropy but something like complexity.
 Here's recent survey of ways to quantify it by Scott Aaronso, Sean Carroll
 and Lauren Ouellette. http://www.scottaaronson.com/blog/?p=1818


 As usual I don't have time to read that paper, at least not immediately.
 However I see that defining complexity appear to require coarse graining.
 If so, I would take this to mean that there isn't anything fundamental
 being defined - or at least that we're in a grey area where nothing is
 known to be fundamental. On the other hand, entropy used to require coarse
 graining but as I mentioned above has now been defined for black holes, so
 assuming BHs really exist (and the things we think are BHs aren't some
 other type of massive object of an undefined nature) that would at least
 suggest that fundamental physics involves entropy, and hence information.

 Is there any complexity measure that doesn;t involve CG and hence isn't
 just (imho) in the eye of the beholder ?


 Computer science provides a lot of definition for complexity, below the
 computable, like SPACE or TIME needed, related to tractability issues and
 above the computable, like the degree of unsolvability shown to exists by
 using machine + oracles (for example).

 Those notion are typically not in the eye of the beholder, as they are the
 same for all universal numbers. Computer scientist says that they are
 machine-independent notion. They remain invariant for the change of the
 base of the phi_i.

 With comp, what i showed is that we have indeed to extract the law of the
 qubits (quantum logic) from the laws of the bits (the laws of Boole, +
 Boolos). IMO, Everett + decoherence already shows the road qubits to bits.
 But comp provides a double (by G/G*) reverse of that road, which separates
 quanta and qualia (normally, although quanta must be a first person plural).

 It sounds to me as though you are saying that information is real if
arithmetic is real...?

(If so, deriving the entropy of a black hole would be support for comp :-)

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-09 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 08 Jun 2014, at 23:42, LizR wrote:


On 9 June 2014 09:16, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

On 08 Jun 2014, at 05:41, LizR wrote:

Yes comp strikes me as highly controversial, which is why have been  
trying to get to grips with it, to decide where I stand. But I have  
got stuck at the MGA and (I think) some Kripkean logic.


If you get step 3 I am already glad. Step 7 needs the understanding  
of the notion of universal number when written in some (Turing  
universal) base.


I recall the number u is universal (in the base phi_i), if  
phi_u(x,y)= phi_x(y). Such u is sigma_1 complete, and becomes  
Löbian when he proves p - []p for all p sigma_1.


What you miss, and many miss, is the mathematical, actually  
arithmetical definition of beweisbar, the []p hypostase which is  
the one which explains the presence of all its rivals, the []p   
p, notably.


The creative bomb is Gödel's theorem, and the discovery of the  
universal machine (hated and loved by different mathematicians, and  
which does bring some amount of mess in Platonia.


Well I believe I understand Godel's theorem - in its word-based  
form, at least. Understanding it arithmetically (i.e. properly) is  
more of a challenge.


OK.






I can't get even an infinity of computations to grok some of that  
stuff.


Nobodies does.

Thank you for those kind words. (Also I feel nobodies is an  
interesting word and should be a crossword solution, because it  
contains quite a few other words ... no/bo/dies ... I will add it to  
my collection.)


I will ask copyrights for my typo errors! I will get rich!






More precisely. No sigma_1 complete and pi_1 incomplete (machines)  
entities does.
Pi_1 complete set (which are still arithmetical, but no more  
computable) can solve much more, but are still incomplete with  
respect to the arithmetical truth.


But come on! All you need is a good diary, patience, and well, you  
might have good manuals with you like the Mendelson, Boolos,  
Smorynski, and you might need to see by your own eyes the  
equivalence between a bunch of universal numbers/languages/machines/ 
systems.


I haven't given up! But things keep happening ... distractions ...  
work, housework, children, husband ...


Take it easy.




I ask myself if the confusion between p-q and q-p should not be  
punished by laws, as propaganda.


Probably, if stated a little more wordily. I encounter that often  
enough.


I think the confusion of p-q and q-p might be an example of  
something which can have an advantage in Darwinian selection, yet a  
disadvantage in the long run. That's why evolution eventually  
invented the brain.






Legalized drugs, make propaganda, and lies in advertising,  
punishable perhaps ...


Yeah! (Swinging sixties here I come!)


 Well hippies were against war. Here I suggest a war against those  
who lies systematically and I want they to pay for all the stress, the  
pain and the death they are responsible for.  But the sixties were not  
bad :)


Bruno




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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-09 Thread ghibbsa


On Sunday, June 8, 2014 4:41:51 AM UTC+1, Liz R wrote:

 Oops. I meant to say more but hit a wrong key and somehow sent that above 
 one-liner. And there's no way to edit your posts...oh well, to continue...
  

 On 8 June 2014 10:08, ghi...@gmail.com javascript: wrote:

 But...the truth is no one minded too much PGC's attacks on me. Not 
 responding to my responses. In the most recent response, I even invited him 
 to choose one of Bruno's objections that I hadn't responded to, and I would 
 demonstrate the reason I'd stopped responding was that Bruno presented 'no 
 case to answer'. Silence from PGC.


 I'm afraid I missed this. I don't have time to read everything and 
 especially tend to skip those incredibly long posts with stuff interpolated 
 (is that the word?) into the text and nested 15 levels deep. And I am quite 
 interested in this argument, too! That is, I believe I can see both sides, 
 so I am interested in evidence for either. As I jokingly say, on days with 
 an R in them I feel Bruno has the answer to life, the universe and 
 everything, on the other days I feel the force of the materialist 
 objections (amongst others) and feel that they refute it THUS!

  
 PGC said a fair bit worse about me than simple liar. What is it...the 
 guy's flamboyant use of language gets him a free pass in here? When has he 
 ever described anything he believes in, in plain English?


 I'm sure I've seen some plain English posts from PGC, and some that seem 
 to me to make good points. But I can't quote chapter and verse on that. But 
 flowery language abounds here, methinks, so I try to parse it and either it 
 looks like a camel to me, my lord, or a cloud.

  
 Why am I the guy that has to put up writing dozens of efforts at 
 explaining what I mean, put down's from people like PGC who value their 
 dizzy comp experiences, my arguments ignored by Brunoand all of this 
 despite it being me to be mentioning a take on falsification that the vast 
 majority of science, historically and now would agree with?


 You should see me on the Tronnies thread, or trying to explain why time 
 symmetry in physics may be important for understanding quantum theory. 
 YANA.You are not alone. 

  
 And now this new issue, with PGC and Bruno making constructive arguments 
 about scientists accepting certain arguments, and so by some sort of logic 
 accepting Bruno's theory. Which happens to involve things like eternal life 
 for us, consciousness not being generated by our brains...direct links to 
 MWI. That latest argument, I simply rejected by pointing out that not 
 everyone does accept MWI, who accept QM.


 No, indeed not. Although sometimes the reasons aren't very convincing (Jim 
 Al Khalili just really likes Bohm's take, or so he told me). But anyway 
 consensus views get short  thrift on this forum


You touch on something plausibly near the root and heart of the 
'worldsense'  ever more predominant at the frontiers of knowledge. 

That *is* a consensus, and short shrift is what the dissenters get much 
more I should say. That's the consensus that matters sweet fruit. I 
perceive te consensus as profoundly rigid...as like a foreign country 
with its own language, translation services fully serviced 24 hours Arthur 
dents disused filing cabinet cellar stairs missing. Self 
contained/referencing, explanation good, nice body boat race can't 
understand a bloody word, one avoids translation so dull. 
an

It isn't necessarily a virtue dismissing long standing time tested 
scientific knowledgedismissing method as 'philosophical overlay' is 
deeply flawed.  The component of consensus due short shrift is the hear 
today gone tomorrow notions what it's all about. But I was talking about 
something that has been there since the beginning. I don't think it'll be 
falsification gone tomorrow of what's laid across this stall. 

What else? Oh yesI still fancy you nuts all the same...intellectually 
speaking of course.fleeting memoryI was in Sydney in 1976 just a 
little kid, some babysitter showed up like I'd never met before, stuck 
'Barbarella' on the telly for me and disappeared upstairs with some 
chick. A deal I could buy for a dollar. Aussie's are just so fabulous. 

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-09 Thread ghibbsa


On Sunday, June 8, 2014 4:41:51 AM UTC+1, Liz R wrote:

 Oops. I meant to say more but hit a wrong key and somehow sent that above 
 one-liner. And there's no way to edit your posts...oh well, to continue...
  

 On 8 June 2014 10:08, ghi...@gmail.com javascript: wrote:

 But...the truth is no one minded too much PGC's attacks on me. Not 
 responding to my responses. In the most recent response, I even invited him 
 to choose one of Bruno's objections that I hadn't responded to, and I would 
 demonstrate the reason I'd stopped responding was that Bruno presented 'no 
 case to answer'. Silence from PGC.


 I'm afraid I missed this. I don't have time to read everything and 
 especially tend to skip those incredibly long posts with stuff interpolated 
 (is that the word?) into the text and nested 15 levels deep. And I am quite 
 interested in this argument, too! That is, I believe I can see both sides, 
 so I am interested in evidence for either. As I jokingly say, on days with 
 an R in them I feel Bruno has the answer to life, the universe and 
 everything, on the other days I feel the force of the materialist 
 objections (amongst others) and feel that they refute it THUS!

  
 PGC said a fair bit worse about me than simple liar. What is it...the 
 guy's flamboyant use of language gets him a free pass in here? When has he 
 ever described anything he believes in, in plain English?


 I'm sure I've seen some plain English posts from PGC, and some that seem 
 to me to make good points. But I can't quote chapter and verse on that. But 
 flowery language abounds here, methinks, so I try to parse it and either it 
 looks like a camel to me, my lord, or a cloud.


He speaks from behind a veneer. Average to writers block.  

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-09 Thread ghibbsa


On Sunday, June 8, 2014 9:13:28 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 08 Jun 2014, at 00:08, ghi...@gmail.com javascript: wrote:



 On Wednesday, June 4, 2014 8:49:30 PM UTC+1, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Wednesday, June 4, 2014 8:33:28 AM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 04 Jun 2014, at 02:33, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Tuesday, June 3, 2014 5:48:10 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 My theory is comp. I just make it precise, by 1) Church thesis (en the 
 amount of logic and arithmetic to expose and argue for it), and 2) yes 
 doctor (and the amount of turing universality in the neighborhood for 
 giving sense to artificial brain and doctor.
 By accepting that this is true only at some level, I make the hypothesis 
 much weaker than all the formulation in the literature. This does not 
 prevent me to show that if the hypothesis is weak with respect to what we 
 know from biology, it is still a *theologically* extremely strong 
 hypothesis, with consequence as radical as reminding us that Plato was 
 Aristotle teacher, and that his theory was not Aristotelian (at least in 
 the sense of most Aristotle followers, as Aristotle himself can be argued 
 to still be a platonist, like some scholars defends).

 So, let us say that I have not a theory, but a theorem, in the comp theory 
 (which is arguably a very old idea).

 Usually, the people who are unaware of the mind-body problem can even take 
 offense that we can imagine not following comp.


 Because they might not. This is a  problem, because the other thing you do 
 is tell people they assume not-comp if they don't accept you r theory. So 
 you are dominating people. 


 Of course. I *prove* (or submit a proof to you and you are free to show a 
 flaw if you think there is one).

 I show comp - something. Of course, after 1500 years of Aristotelianism, 
 I don't expect people agreeing quickly with the reasoning, as it is 
 admittedly counter-intuitive. 




 Do you think the majority of scientists think consciousness goes on in 
 extre dimensional reality? 


 First, I don't express myself in that way.  

 For a platonist, or for someone believing in comp, and underatdning its 
 logical consequence, it looks like it is the physicists which think that 
 matter goes on in extradimensional reality.

 With comp, it is just absolutely undecidable by *any* universal machine if 
 its reality is enumerable (like N, the set of the natural numbers) or has a 
 very large cardinal.

 Conceptual occam suggests we don't add any axioms to elementary arithmetic 
 (like Robinson arithmetic). 

 I then explain notions like god, consciousness (99% of it), matter, and 
 the relation with Plato and (neo)platonist theology.



 Do theybelieve in MWI 


 This is ambiguous.

 In a sense you can say that comp leads to a form of super-atheism, as a 
 (consistent) computationalist believer will stop to believe (or become 
 skeptical) on both a creator and a creation.

 So, at the basic ontological level, it is a 0 World theory.

 What happens, is that the additive-multiplicative structure determine the 
 set of all emulations, indeed with an important redundancy. They exist in 
 the sense that you can prove their existence in elementary arithmetic. That 
 is not mine, that is standard material.

 You manage one or the other to avoid my argument, pretty much since the 
 beginning.  


 Not on purpose. I don't get your argument. Not sure anyone get it.


  You're a liar. You didn't even read my definition of falsification. 
 Russell Standish read it...he understood. 

 So you're fucking liar and you've wasted my fucking time for months. 


 I obviously shouldn't have said this, so am sorry for doing so. 


 It is not the first time you explode.


It's not even the first time you read the falsification description that 
you had demanded. Are you connected enough to reality to actually see how 
disrespectful and insulting this is? You are one set of traits for when its 
about coddling people through your steps and selling your theory. But you 
sat there and let me sweat trying to repeat myself endlessly. I think you 
think, a lot different than you've managed to sell to people. Don't bother 
denying and pretending you did read...do it for non-judgemental rapture of 
the others. I know you didn't, because I know you never changed your line 
one bit...never acknowledged the position, never explained why it wrong, or 
right. Never even tried...even superficiously to walk me or anyone through 
your claims, and my theory in parallel, demonstrating the connectors. 

There's a bit more, or less, to you than the 
angelic self-depracting front. Something of the Night 





 But...the truth is no one minded too much PGC's attacks on me. Not 
 responding to my responses. In the most recent response, I even invited him 
 to choose one of Bruno's objections that I hadn't responded to, and I would 
 demonstrate the reason I'd stopped responding was that Bruno presented 'no 
 case to 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-08 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 08 Jun 2014, at 00:08, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:




On Wednesday, June 4, 2014 8:49:30 PM UTC+1, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


On Wednesday, June 4, 2014 8:33:28 AM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 04 Jun 2014, at 02:33, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:



On Tuesday, June 3, 2014 5:48:10 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:
My theory is comp. I just make it precise, by 1) Church thesis (en  
the amount of logic and arithmetic to expose and argue for it), and  
2) yes doctor (and the amount of turing universality in the  
neighborhood for giving sense to artificial brain and doctor.
By accepting that this is true only at some level, I make the  
hypothesis much weaker than all the formulation in the literature.  
This does not prevent me to show that if the hypothesis is weak with  
respect to what we know from biology, it is still a *theologically*  
extremely strong hypothesis, with consequence as radical as  
reminding us that Plato was Aristotle teacher, and that his theory  
was not Aristotelian (at least in the sense of most Aristotle  
followers, as Aristotle himself can be argued to still be a  
platonist, like some scholars defends).


So, let us say that I have not a theory, but a theorem, in the comp  
theory (which is arguably a very old idea).


Usually, the people who are unaware of the mind-body problem can  
even take offense that we can imagine not following comp.



Because they might not. This is a  problem, because the other thing  
you do is tell people they assume not-comp if they don't accept you  
r theory. So you are dominating people.


Of course. I *prove* (or submit a proof to you and you are free to  
show a flaw if you think there is one).


I show comp - something. Of course, after 1500 years of  
Aristotelianism, I don't expect people agreeing quickly with the  
reasoning, as it is admittedly counter-intuitive.





Do you think the majority of scientists think consciousness goes on  
in extre dimensional reality?


First, I don't express myself in that way.

For a platonist, or for someone believing in comp, and underatdning  
its logical consequence, it looks like it is the physicists which  
think that matter goes on in extradimensional reality.


With comp, it is just absolutely undecidable by *any* universal  
machine if its reality is enumerable (like N, the set of the natural  
numbers) or has a very large cardinal.


Conceptual occam suggests we don't add any axioms to elementary  
arithmetic (like Robinson arithmetic).


I then explain notions like god, consciousness (99% of it), matter,  
and the relation with Plato and (neo)platonist theology.




Do theybelieve in MWI

This is ambiguous.

In a sense you can say that comp leads to a form of super-atheism,  
as a (consistent) computationalist believer will stop to believe (or  
become skeptical) on both a creator and a creation.


So, at the basic ontological level, it is a 0 World theory.

What happens, is that the additive-multiplicative structure  
determine the set of all emulations, indeed with an important  
redundancy. They exist in the sense that you can prove their  
existence in elementary arithmetic. That is not mine, that is  
standard material.


You manage one or the other to avoid my argument, pretty much since  
the beginning.


Not on purpose. I don't get your argument. Not sure anyone get it.

 You're a liar. You didn't even read my definition of falsification.  
Russell Standish read it...he understood.


So you're fucking liar and you've wasted my fucking time for months.

I obviously shouldn't have said this, so am sorry for doing so.


It is not the first time you explode.





But...the truth is no one minded too much PGC's attacks on me. Not  
responding to my responses. In the most recent response, I even  
invited him to choose one of Bruno's objections that I hadn't  
responded to, and I would demonstrate the reason I'd stopped  
responding was that Bruno presented 'no case to answer'. Silence  
from PGC.


PGC said a fair bit worse about me than simple liar. What is  
it...the guy's flamboyant use of language gets him a free pass in  
here? When has he ever described anything he believes in, in plain  
English?


Why am I the guy that has to put up writing dozens of efforts at  
explaining what I mean, put down's from people like PGC who value  
their dizzy comp experiences, my arguments ignored by Brunoand  
all of this despite it being me to be mentioning a take on  
falsification that the vast majority of science, historically and  
now would agree with?


But you have not succeeded that comp + the arithmetical theaetetus  
is not experimentally testable in that very sense.
Unless you introduce wordplay-difficulties just to prevent the  
admittedly naive but precise interview of the löbian number to take on.


I really would not like being patronizing but let me give you an  
advise: never complains when people says I don't understand you.  
Just reply by making the point clearer. You did not 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-08 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 08 Jun 2014, at 05:41, LizR wrote:

Oops. I meant to say more but hit a wrong key and somehow sent that  
above one-liner. And there's no way to edit your posts...oh well, to  
continue...


On 8 June 2014 10:08, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:
But...the truth is no one minded too much PGC's attacks on me. Not  
responding to my responses. In the most recent response, I even  
invited him to choose one of Bruno's objections that I hadn't  
responded to, and I would demonstrate the reason I'd stopped  
responding was that Bruno presented 'no case to answer'. Silence  
from PGC.


I'm afraid I missed this. I don't have time to read everything and  
especially tend to skip those incredibly long posts with stuff  
interpolated (is that the word?) into the text and nested 15 levels  
deep. And I am quite interested in this argument, too!



Nice.



That is, I believe I can see both sides, so I am interested in  
evidence for either.


Exactly like me.

And later things aggravate: exactly like all löbian number in some  
consciousness state.




As I jokingly say, on days with an R in them I feel Bruno has the  
answer to life, the universe and everything, on the other days I  
feel the force of the materialist objections (amongst others) and  
feel that they refute it THUS!


THUS!. Yes. You see the problem.







PGC said a fair bit worse about me than simple liar. What is  
it...the guy's flamboyant use of language gets him a free pass in  
here? When has he ever described anything he believes in, in plain  
English?


I'm sure I've seen some plain English posts from PGC, and some that  
seem to me to make good points. But I can't quote chapter and verse  
on that. But flowery language abounds here, methinks, so I try to  
parse it and either it looks like a camel to me, my lord, or a cloud.


Why am I the guy that has to put up writing dozens of efforts at  
explaining what I mean, put down's from people like PGC who value  
their dizzy comp experiences, my arguments ignored by Brunoand  
all of this despite it being me to be mentioning a take on  
falsification that the vast majority of science, historically and  
now would agree with?


You should see me on the Tronnies thread, or trying to explain why  
time symmetry in physics may be important for understanding quantum  
theory. YANA.You are not alone.


And now this new issue, with PGC and Bruno making constructive  
arguments about scientists accepting certain arguments, and so by  
some sort of logic accepting Bruno's theory. Which happens to  
involve things like eternal life for us, consciousness not being  
generated by our brains...direct links to MWI. That latest argument,  
I simply rejected by pointing out that not everyone does accept MWI,  
who accept QM.


No, indeed not. Although sometimes the reasons aren't very  
convincing (Jim Al Khalili just really likes Bohm's take, or so he  
told me). But anyway consensus views get short thrift on this forum.


These are really really controversial claims, and there's no way  
it's reasonable to think that if someone accepts comp as some high  
level proposal, that if they were forced to choose between that and  
all of the above, they can be relied on to stick with comp.


And if they can't be relied on...if there's a reasonable prospect  
scientists will rather reject comp than accept infinities of dreams,  
and eternal life, and consciousness outside the body...if there's a  
reasonable chance they'll rather reject comp than accept that, then  
the thing to do WITH INTEGRITY is acknowledge that, and not be going  
around saying they accept something.


Yes comp strikes me as highly contraversial, which is why have been  
trying to get to grips with it, to decide where I stand. But I have  
got stuck at the MGA and (I think) some Kripkean logic.


If you get step 3 I am already glad. Step 7 needs the understanding of  
the notion of universal number when written in some (Turing universal)  
base.


I recall the number u is universal (in the base phi_i), if  
phi_u(x,y)= phi_x(y). Such u is sigma_1 complete, and becomes Löbian  
when he proves p - []p for all p sigma_1.


What you miss, and many miss, is the mathematical, actually  
arithmetical definition of beweisbar, the []p hypostase which is  
the one which explains the presence of all its rivals, the []p   
p, notably.


The creative bomb is Gödel's theorem, and the discovery of the  
universal machine (hated and loved by different mathematicians, and  
which does bring some amount of mess in Platonia.




I can't get even an infinity of computations to grok some of that  
stuff.


Nobodies does.

More precisely. No sigma_1 complete and pi_1 incomplete (machines)  
entities does.
Pi_1 complete set (which are still arithmetical, but no more  
computable) can solve much more, but are still incomplete with respect  
to the arithmetical truth.


But come on! All you need is a good diary, patience, and well, you  
might have good manuals 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-08 Thread LizR
On 9 June 2014 09:16, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 08 Jun 2014, at 05:41, LizR wrote:



 Yes comp strikes me as highly controversial, which is why have been trying
 to get to grips with it, to decide where I stand. But I have got stuck at
 the MGA and (I think) some Kripkean logic.


 If you get step 3 I am already glad. Step 7 needs the understanding of the
 notion of universal number when written in some (Turing universal) base.

 I recall the number u is universal (in the base phi_i), if phi_u(x,y)=
 phi_x(y). Such u is sigma_1 complete, and becomes Löbian when he proves p
 - []p for all p sigma_1.

 What you miss, and many miss, is the mathematical, actually arithmetical
 definition of beweisbar, the []p hypostase which is the one which
 explains the presence of all its rivals, the []p  p, notably.

 The creative bomb is Gödel's theorem, and the discovery of the universal
 machine (hated and loved by different mathematicians, and which does bring
 some amount of mess in Platonia.


Well I believe I understand Godel's theorem - in its word-based form, at
least. Understanding it arithmetically (i.e. properly) is more of a
challenge.

 I can't get even an infinity of computations to grok some of that stuff.

 Nobodies does.


Thank you for those kind words. (Also I feel nobodies is an interesting
word and should be a crossword solution, because it contains quite a few
other words ... no/bo/dies ... I will add it to my collection.)


 More precisely. No sigma_1 complete and pi_1 incomplete (machines)
 entities does.
 Pi_1 complete set (which are still arithmetical, but no more computable)
 can solve much more, but are still incomplete with respect to the
 arithmetical truth.

 But come on! All you need is a good diary, patience, and well, you might
 have good manuals with you like the Mendelson, Boolos, Smorynski, and you
 might need to see by your own eyes the equivalence between a bunch of
 universal numbers/languages/machines/systems.


I haven't given up! But things keep happening ... distractions ... work,
housework, children, husband ...

I ask myself if the confusion between p-q and q-p should not be punished
 by laws, as propaganda.


Probably, if stated a little more wordily. I encounter that often enough.


 Legalized drugs, make propaganda, and lies in advertising, punishable
 perhaps ...

 Yeah! (Swinging sixties here I come!)

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-07 Thread ghibbsa


On Wednesday, June 4, 2014 8:49:30 PM UTC+1, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Wednesday, June 4, 2014 8:33:28 AM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 04 Jun 2014, at 02:33, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Tuesday, June 3, 2014 5:48:10 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 My theory is comp. I just make it precise, by 1) Church thesis (en the 
 amount of logic and arithmetic to expose and argue for it), and 2) yes 
 doctor (and the amount of turing universality in the neighborhood for 
 giving sense to artificial brain and doctor.
 By accepting that this is true only at some level, I make the hypothesis 
 much weaker than all the formulation in the literature. This does not 
 prevent me to show that if the hypothesis is weak with respect to what we 
 know from biology, it is still a *theologically* extremely strong 
 hypothesis, with consequence as radical as reminding us that Plato was 
 Aristotle teacher, and that his theory was not Aristotelian (at least in 
 the sense of most Aristotle followers, as Aristotle himself can be argued 
 to still be a platonist, like some scholars defends).

 So, let us say that I have not a theory, but a theorem, in the comp theory 
 (which is arguably a very old idea).

 Usually, the people who are unaware of the mind-body problem can even take 
 offense that we can imagine not following comp.


 Because they might not. This is a  problem, because the other thing you do 
 is tell people they assume not-comp if they don't accept you r theory. So 
 you are dominating people. 


 Of course. I *prove* (or submit a proof to you and you are free to show a 
 flaw if you think there is one).

 I show comp - something. Of course, after 1500 years of Aristotelianism, 
 I don't expect people agreeing quickly with the reasoning, as it is 
 admittedly counter-intuitive. 




 Do you think the majority of scientists think consciousness goes on in 
 extre dimensional reality? 


 First, I don't express myself in that way.  

 For a platonist, or for someone believing in comp, and underatdning its 
 logical consequence, it looks like it is the physicists which think that 
 matter goes on in extradimensional reality.

 With comp, it is just absolutely undecidable by *any* universal machine if 
 its reality is enumerable (like N, the set of the natural numbers) or has a 
 very large cardinal.

 Conceptual occam suggests we don't add any axioms to elementary arithmetic 
 (like Robinson arithmetic). 

 I then explain notions like god, consciousness (99% of it), matter, and 
 the relation with Plato and (neo)platonist theology.



 Do theybelieve in MWI 


 This is ambiguous.

 In a sense you can say that comp leads to a form of super-atheism, as a 
 (consistent) computationalist believer will stop to believe (or become 
 skeptical) on both a creator and a creation.

 So, at the basic ontological level, it is a 0 World theory.

 What happens, is that the additive-multiplicative structure determine the 
 set of all emulations, indeed with an important redundancy. They exist in 
 the sense that you can prove their existence in elementary arithmetic. That 
 is not mine, that is standard material.

 You manage one or the other to avoid my argument, pretty much since the 
 beginning.  


 Not on purpose. I don't get your argument. Not sure anyone get it.


  You're a liar. You didn't even read my definition of falsification. 
 Russell Standish read it...he understood. 

 So you're fucking liar and you've wasted my fucking time for months. 


I obviously shouldn't have said this, so am sorry for doing so. 

But...the truth is no one minded too much PGC's attacks on me. Not 
responding to my responses. In the most recent response, I even invited him 
to choose one of Bruno's objections that I hadn't responded to, and I would 
demonstrate the reason I'd stopped responding was that Bruno presented 'no 
case to answer'. Silence from PGC. 

PGC said a fair bit worse about me than simple liar. What is it...the guy's 
flamboyant use of language gets him a free pass in here? When has he ever 
described anything he believes in, in plain English? 

Why am I the guy that has to put up writing dozens of efforts at explaining 
what I mean, put down's from people like PGC who value their dizzy comp 
experiences, my arguments ignored by Brunoand all of this despite it 
being me to be mentioning a take on falsification that the vast majority of 
science, historically and now would agree with? 

And now this new issue, with PGC and Bruno making constructive arguments 
about scientists accepting certain arguments, and so by some sort of logic 
accepting Bruno's theory. Which happens to involve things like eternal life 
for us, consciousness not being generated by our brains...direct links to 
MWI. That latest argument, I simply rejected by pointing out that not 
everyone does accept MWI, who accept QM. 

These are really really controversial claims, and there's no way it's 
reasonable to think that if someone accepts 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-07 Thread LizR
On 8 June 2014 10:08, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Wednesday, June 4, 2014 8:49:30 PM UTC+1, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Wednesday, June 4, 2014 8:33:28 AM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 On 04 Jun 2014, at 02:33, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Tuesday, June 3, 2014 5:48:10 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 My theory is comp. I just make it precise, by 1) Church thesis (en the
 amount of logic and arithmetic to expose and argue for it), and 2) yes
 doctor (and the amount of turing universality in the neighborhood for
 giving sense to artificial brain and doctor.
 By accepting that this is true only at some level, I make the hypothesis
 much weaker than all the formulation in the literature. This does not
 prevent me to show that if the hypothesis is weak with respect to what we
 know from biology, it is still a *theologically* extremely strong
 hypothesis, with consequence as radical as reminding us that Plato was
 Aristotle teacher, and that his theory was not Aristotelian (at least in
 the sense of most Aristotle followers, as Aristotle himself can be argued
 to still be a platonist, like some scholars defends).

 So, let us say that I have not a theory, but a theorem, in the comp
 theory (which is arguably a very old idea).

 Usually, the people who are unaware of the mind-body problem can even
 take offense that we can imagine not following comp.


 Because they might not. This is a  problem, because the other thing you
 do is tell people they assume not-comp if they don't accept you r theory.
 So you are dominating people.


 Of course. I *prove* (or submit a proof to you and you are free to show a
 flaw if you think there is one).

 I show comp - something. Of course, after 1500 years of Aristotelianism,
 I don't expect people agreeing quickly with the reasoning, as it is
 admittedly counter-intuitive.




 Do you think the majority of scientists think consciousness goes on in
 extre dimensional reality?


 First, I don't express myself in that way.

 For a platonist, or for someone believing in comp, and underatdning its
 logical consequence, it looks like it is the physicists which think that
 matter goes on in extradimensional reality.

 With comp, it is just absolutely undecidable by *any* universal machine
 if its reality is enumerable (like N, the set of the natural numbers) or
 has a very large cardinal.

 Conceptual occam suggests we don't add any axioms to elementary
 arithmetic (like Robinson arithmetic).

 I then explain notions like god, consciousness (99% of it), matter, and
 the relation with Plato and (neo)platonist theology.



 Do theybelieve in MWI


 This is ambiguous.

 In a sense you can say that comp leads to a form of super-atheism, as a
 (consistent) computationalist believer will stop to believe (or become
 skeptical) on both a creator and a creation.

 So, at the basic ontological level, it is a 0 World theory.

 What happens, is that the additive-multiplicative structure determine the
 set of all emulations, indeed with an important redundancy. They exist in
 the sense that you can prove their existence in elementary arithmetic. That
 is not mine, that is standard material.

 You manage one or the other to avoid my argument, pretty much since the
 beginning.


 Not on purpose. I don't get your argument. Not sure anyone get it.


  You're a liar. You didn't even read my definition of falsification.
 Russell Standish read it...he understood.

 So you're fucking liar and you've wasted my fucking time for months.


 I obviously shouldn't have said this, so am sorry for doing so.


That's OK. We all get a bit carried away at times.


 But...the truth is no one minded too much PGC's attacks on me. Not
 responding to my responses. In the most recent response, I even invited him
 to choose one of Bruno's objections that I hadn't responded to, and I would
 demonstrate the reason I'd stopped responding was that Bruno presented 'no
 case to answer'. Silence from PGC.





 PGC said a fair bit worse about me than simple liar. What is it...the
 guy's flamboyant use of language gets him a free pass in here? When has he
 ever described anything he believes in, in plain English?

 Why am I the guy that has to put up writing dozens of efforts at
 explaining what I mean, put down's from people like PGC who value their
 dizzy comp experiences, my arguments ignored by Brunoand all of this
 despite it being me to be mentioning a take on falsification that the vast
 majority of science, historically and now would agree with?

 And now this new issue, with PGC and Bruno making constructive arguments
 about scientists accepting certain arguments, and so by some sort of logic
 accepting Bruno's theory. Which happens to involve things like eternal life
 for us, consciousness not being generated by our brains...direct links to
 MWI. That latest argument, I simply rejected by pointing out that not
 everyone does accept MWI, who accept QM.

 These are really really controversial claims, and there's 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-07 Thread LizR
Oops. I meant to say more but hit a wrong key and somehow sent that above
one-liner. And there's no way to edit your posts...oh well, to continue...


 On 8 June 2014 10:08, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:

 But...the truth is no one minded too much PGC's attacks on me. Not
 responding to my responses. In the most recent response, I even invited him
 to choose one of Bruno's objections that I hadn't responded to, and I would
 demonstrate the reason I'd stopped responding was that Bruno presented 'no
 case to answer'. Silence from PGC.


 I'm afraid I missed this. I don't have time to read everything and
especially tend to skip those incredibly long posts with stuff interpolated
(is that the word?) into the text and nested 15 levels deep. And I am quite
interested in this argument, too! That is, I believe I can see both sides,
so I am interested in evidence for either. As I jokingly say, on days with
an R in them I feel Bruno has the answer to life, the universe and
everything, on the other days I feel the force of the materialist
objections (amongst others) and feel that they refute it THUS!


 PGC said a fair bit worse about me than simple liar. What is it...the
 guy's flamboyant use of language gets him a free pass in here? When has he
 ever described anything he believes in, in plain English?


I'm sure I've seen some plain English posts from PGC, and some that seem to
me to make good points. But I can't quote chapter and verse on that. But
flowery language abounds here, methinks, so I try to parse it and either it
looks like a camel to me, my lord, or a cloud.


 Why am I the guy that has to put up writing dozens of efforts at
 explaining what I mean, put down's from people like PGC who value their
 dizzy comp experiences, my arguments ignored by Brunoand all of this
 despite it being me to be mentioning a take on falsification that the vast
 majority of science, historically and now would agree with?


You should see me on the Tronnies thread, or trying to explain why time
symmetry in physics may be important for understanding quantum theory.
YANA.You are not alone.


 And now this new issue, with PGC and Bruno making constructive arguments
 about scientists accepting certain arguments, and so by some sort of logic
 accepting Bruno's theory. Which happens to involve things like eternal life
 for us, consciousness not being generated by our brains...direct links to
 MWI. That latest argument, I simply rejected by pointing out that not
 everyone does accept MWI, who accept QM.


No, indeed not. Although sometimes the reasons aren't very convincing (Jim
Al Khalili just really likes Bohm's take, or so he told me). But anyway
consensus views get short thrift on this forum.


 These are really really controversial claims, and there's no way it's
 reasonable to think that if someone accepts comp as some high level
 proposal, that if they were forced to choose between that and all of the
 above, they can be relied on to stick with comp.

 And if they can't be relied on...if there's a reasonable prospect
 scientists will rather reject comp than accept infinities of dreams, and
 eternal life, and consciousness outside the body...if there's a reasonable
 chance they'll rather reject comp than accept that, then the thing to do
 WITH INTEGRITY is acknowledge that, and not be going around saying they
 accept something.

 Yes comp strikes me as highly contraversial, which is why have been
trying to get to grips with it, to decide where I stand. But I have got
stuck at the MGA and (I think) some Kripkean logic. I can't get even an
infinity of computations to grok some of that stuff.


 I'm dropping this now. I'm technically saying sorry for calling someone a
 liar, but for everything else I think the integrity issues are somewhere
 else. And it really doesn't matter if you all want to gang up and not see
 any of these issues. Collective blindspots are hardly anything new in the
 world.

 I think gang up is probably the last thing the members of this forum
will do!

(Die, my dear Doctor? Why, that's the last thing I shall do!)

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-05 Thread Kim Jones



 On 5 Jun 2014, at 8:13 am, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:
 
 On 5 June 2014 07:49, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:
 
 You manage one or the other to avoid my argument, pretty much since the 
 beginning.  
 
 Not on purpose. I don't get your argument. Not sure anyone get it.
 
  You're a liar. You didn't even read my definition of falsification. Russell 
 Standish read it...he understood.
 
 So you're fucking liar and you've wasted my fucking time for months.
 I don't believe Bruno is a liar.
 
 Can't you restart the discussion, politely, from first principles, and see 
 where you differ?
 
 I haven't read the entire exchange - it's been huge - but it seems you claim 
 comp makes no testable predictions, while Bruno says it does.
 
 As I understand it, comp makes more testable predictions than string theory! 
 Not sure that puts it into the refutable club, though. I've claimed that comp 
 isn't a theory but a logical argument, but apparently I was wrong about that. 
 As a theory it needs to be testable, which means it can be falsified... So a 
 definition of falsification would seem like a good place to start, certainly. 
 And I remember you gave a rather comprehensive one.
 
 So I guess I should ask Bruno, did you read it? If so, did you agree with it?
 
I strongly doubt that Bruno will respond to this. I wouldn't if I were him; not 
because there is nothing to respond to but because the manner of the 
communication appears to have reached the nadir at least from Al. Al, take your 
meds or whatever you need to destress and maybe seriously consider doing the 
following:

Instead of blathering on a-treat, summarise in no more than four or five 
concise bullet points your notion of falsifiability. Could you do that, mate? I 
for one would welcome this. It has been an enormous thread and I think in such 
cases a revisitation of the main points in as simple a format as humanly 
possible makes sense and would help many, including yours truly. Perhaps the 
plot has been lost. Nobody would seriously doubt the seriousness and the 
passion of your approach - that leaps off the screen. You are however, given to 
raving on in a rhapsodic manner about stuff. I simply want to see how simply 
and clearly you can put it all down. Perhaps Bruno might welcome that too. 

Following that, if you both don't see eye to eye then that will be apparent and 
the nature of the disagreement will be clearly revealed. There is no law which 
requires people to see eye to eye about things. Your differences of opinion 
about falsifiability are indeed very interesting and instructive. Stop living 
in a world of I am right; you are wrong - that merely reveals your deep 
emotional need for others to agree with you on what you consider core issues. 
Perhaps Bruno means what he says: he doesn't get you. If you do what I ask, you 
can give him his last chance. If he fails it in your eyes - well, maybe just 
get over it, man. Move on. Just move on.

Kim





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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-05 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
On Thu, Jun 5, 2014 at 11:49 AM, Kim Jones kimjo...@ozemail.com.au wrote:




 On 5 Jun 2014, at 8:13 am, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 5 June 2014 07:49, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:


 You manage one or the other to avoid my argument, pretty much since the
 beginning.


 Not on purpose. I don't get your argument. Not sure anyone get it.


  You're a liar. You didn't even read my definition of falsification.
 Russell Standish read it...he understood.

 So you're fucking liar and you've wasted my fucking time for months.

 I don't believe Bruno is a liar.

 Can't you restart the discussion, politely, from first principles, and see
 where you differ?

 I haven't read the entire exchange - it's been huge - but it seems you
 claim comp makes no testable predictions, while Bruno says it does.

 As I understand it, comp makes more testable predictions than string
 theory! Not sure that puts it into the refutable club, though. I've claimed
 that comp isn't a theory but a logical argument, but apparently I was wrong
 about that. As a theory it needs to be testable, which means it can be
 falsified... So a definition of falsification would seem like a good place
 to start, certainly. And I remember you gave a rather comprehensive one.

 So I guess I should ask Bruno, did you read it? If so, did you agree with
 it?

  I strongly doubt that Bruno will respond to this. I wouldn't if I were
 him; not because there is nothing to respond to but because the manner of
 the communication appears to have reached the nadir at least from Al. Al,
 take your meds or whatever you need to destress and maybe seriously
 consider doing the following:

 Instead of blathering on a-treat, summarise in no more than four or five
 concise bullet points your notion of falsifiability. Could you do that,
 mate? I for one would welcome this. It has been an enormous thread and I
 think in such cases a revisitation of the main points in as simple a format
 as humanly possible makes sense and would help many, including yours truly.
 Perhaps the plot has been lost. Nobody would seriously doubt the
 seriousness and the passion of your approach - that leaps off the screen.
 You are however, given to raving on in a rhapsodic manner about stuff. I
 simply want to see how simply and clearly you can put it all down. Perhaps
 Bruno might welcome that too.

 Following that, if you both don't see eye to eye then that will be
 apparent and the nature of the disagreement will be clearly revealed. There
 is no law which requires people to see eye to eye about things. Your
 differences of opinion about falsifiability are indeed very interesting and
 instructive. Stop living in a world of I am right; you are wrong - that
 merely reveals your deep emotional need for others to agree with you on
 what you consider core issues. Perhaps Bruno means what he says: he doesn't
 get you. If you do what I ask, you can give him his last chance. If he
 fails it in your eyes - well, maybe just get over it, man. Move on. Just
 move on.


Well, my impatient reaction might have something to do with it. If so,
apologies. It's simply hard for me to see a notion of falsification eroding
the notions made precise for Church Thesis, Turing Universality,
incompleteness, QM and QL, Löb, the link to Plotinus, by extension UDA etc;
just as it's hard to see space time curvature supplanted by p-time or the
statement that two peoples' watches will stay the same traveling at
different speed.

There is a lot of great work and a lot of logic to fit any taste as
precedence for standards of falsification.

Why the QL question is avoided, I cannot understand. Why/how Ghibbsa
perceives falsification without referencing the appropriate math under
attack is also beyond me.

You'd have to show where these gentlemen who's work is referenced here,
went wrong regarding falsification, or where Bruno, who has been nothing
but a gentleman in this thread, catering to every attack with care/respect
as a sincere scientific question, did the same.

My patience ran out a while ago, like when somebody says something serious,
but then starts bantering and moving to meta-and seemingly unrelated
psychological levels and attacks, which is why the thread may have turned
sour; but I can always flip a switch and give it another shot, as I can
always be wrong, quite simply.

I can understand Kim's why would he answer at all? After this much time
spent replying to Ghibbsa's posts and dealing with all the claims and
personal attacks without reference, at some point a person will just leave
the room; which is not to imply that this is such a point, nor that Bruno
is such a person. But at some point this is understandable. PGC



 Kim





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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-05 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 05 Jun 2014, at 11:49, Kim Jones wrote:





On 5 Jun 2014, at 8:13 am, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:


On 5 June 2014 07:49, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:

You manage one or the other to avoid my argument, pretty much since  
the beginning.


Not on purpose. I don't get your argument. Not sure anyone get it.

 You're a liar. You didn't even read my definition of  
falsification. Russell Standish read it...he understood.


So you're fucking liar and you've wasted my fucking time for months.

I don't believe Bruno is a liar.

Can't you restart the discussion, politely, from first principles,  
and see where you differ?


I haven't read the entire exchange - it's been huge - but it seems  
you claim comp makes no testable predictions, while Bruno says it  
does.


As I understand it, comp makes more testable predictions than  
string theory! Not sure that puts it into the refutable club,  
though. I've claimed that comp isn't a theory but a logical  
argument, but apparently I was wrong about that. As a theory it  
needs to be testable, which means it can be falsified... So a  
definition of falsification would seem like a good place to start,  
certainly. And I remember you gave a rather comprehensive one.


So I guess I should ask Bruno, did you read it? If so, did you  
agree with it?



I strongly doubt that Bruno will respond to this. I wouldn't if I  
were him; not because there is nothing to respond to but because the  
manner of the communication appears to have reached the nadir at  
least from Al. Al, take your meds or whatever you need to destress  
and maybe seriously consider doing the following:


Instead of blathering on a-treat, summarise in no more than four or  
five concise bullet points your notion of falsifiability. Could you  
do that, mate? I for one would welcome this. It has been an enormous  
thread and I think in such cases a revisitation of the main points  
in as simple a format as humanly possible makes sense and would help  
many, including yours truly. Perhaps the plot has been lost. Nobody  
would seriously doubt the seriousness and the passion of your  
approach - that leaps off the screen. You are however, given to  
raving on in a rhapsodic manner about stuff. I simply want to see  
how simply and clearly you can put it all down. Perhaps Bruno might  
welcome that too.


Sure.




Following that, if you both don't see eye to eye then that will be  
apparent and the nature of the disagreement will be clearly  
revealed. There is no law which requires people to see eye to eye  
about things. Your differences of opinion about falsifiability are  
indeed very interesting and instructive. Stop living in a world of  
I am right; you are wrong - that merely reveals your deep  
emotional need for others to agree with you on what you consider  
core issues. Perhaps Bruno means what he says: he doesn't get you.  
If you do what I ask, you can give him his last chance. If he fails  
it in your eyes - well, maybe just get over it, man. Move on. Just  
move on.


Yes, I asked him to explain again its falsification notion, and why he  
thinks comp+the classical theory of knowledge is not testable, given  
that it provides the logic of uncertainty, and that it can be compared  
to quantum logic.


For me it is already a miracle that the two material logics (Z1*,  
X1*) and even the soul logic (S4Grz1) get an arithmetical quantization  
when the logic is restricted to the sigma_1  sentences.


But you are right, when people insult, answering is very difficult and  
probably unnecessary.


Bruno



Kim






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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-05 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 05 Jun 2014, at 15:02, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:





On Thu, Jun 5, 2014 at 11:49 AM, Kim Jones kimjo...@ozemail.com.au  
wrote:




On 5 Jun 2014, at 8:13 am, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:


On 5 June 2014 07:49, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:

You manage one or the other to avoid my argument, pretty much since  
the beginning.


Not on purpose. I don't get your argument. Not sure anyone get it.

 You're a liar. You didn't even read my definition of  
falsification. Russell Standish read it...he understood.


So you're fucking liar and you've wasted my fucking time for months.

I don't believe Bruno is a liar.

Can't you restart the discussion, politely, from first principles,  
and see where you differ?


I haven't read the entire exchange - it's been huge - but it seems  
you claim comp makes no testable predictions, while Bruno says it  
does.


As I understand it, comp makes more testable predictions than  
string theory! Not sure that puts it into the refutable club,  
though. I've claimed that comp isn't a theory but a logical  
argument, but apparently I was wrong about that. As a theory it  
needs to be testable, which means it can be falsified... So a  
definition of falsification would seem like a good place to start,  
certainly. And I remember you gave a rather comprehensive one.


So I guess I should ask Bruno, did you read it? If so, did you  
agree with it?





I strongly doubt that Bruno will respond to this. I wouldn't if I  
were him; not because there is nothing to respond to but because the  
manner of the communication appears to have reached the nadir at  
least from Al. Al, take your meds or whatever you need to destress  
and maybe seriously consider doing the following:


Instead of blathering on a-treat, summarise in no more than four or  
five concise bullet points your notion of falsifiability. Could you  
do that, mate? I for one would welcome this. It has been an enormous  
thread and I think in such cases a revisitation of the main points  
in as simple a format as humanly possible makes sense and would help  
many, including yours truly. Perhaps the plot has been lost. Nobody  
would seriously doubt the seriousness and the passion of your  
approach - that leaps off the screen. You are however, given to  
raving on in a rhapsodic manner about stuff. I simply want to see  
how simply and clearly you can put it all down. Perhaps Bruno might  
welcome that too.


Following that, if you both don't see eye to eye then that will be  
apparent and the nature of the disagreement will be clearly  
revealed. There is no law which requires people to see eye to eye  
about things. Your differences of opinion about falsifiability are  
indeed very interesting and instructive. Stop living in a world of  
I am right; you are wrong - that merely reveals your deep  
emotional need for others to agree with you on what you consider  
core issues. Perhaps Bruno means what he says: he doesn't get you.  
If you do what I ask, you can give him his last chance. If he fails  
it in your eyes - well, maybe just get over it, man. Move on. Just  
move on.


Well, my impatient reaction might have something to do with it. If  
so, apologies. It's simply hard for me to see a notion of  
falsification eroding the notions made precise for Church Thesis,  
Turing Universality, incompleteness, QM and QL, Löb, the link to  
Plotinus, by extension UDA etc; just as it's hard to see space time  
curvature supplanted by p-time or the statement that two peoples'  
watches will stay the same traveling at different speed.


There is a lot of great work and a lot of logic to fit any taste as  
precedence for standards of falsification.


Why the QL question is avoided, I cannot understand. Why/how Ghibbsa  
perceives falsification without referencing the appropriate math  
under attack is also beyond me.


You'd have to show where these gentlemen who's work is referenced  
here, went wrong regarding falsification, or where Bruno, who has  
been nothing but a gentleman in this thread, catering to every  
attack with care/respect as a sincere scientific question, did the  
same.


My patience ran out a while ago, like when somebody says something  
serious, but then starts bantering and moving to meta-and seemingly  
unrelated psychological levels and attacks, which is why the thread  
may have turned sour; but I can always flip a switch and give it  
another shot, as I can always be wrong, quite simply.


I can understand Kim's why would he answer at all? After this much  
time spent replying to Ghibbsa's posts and dealing with all the  
claims and personal attacks without reference, at some point a  
person will just leave the room; which is not to imply that this is  
such a point, nor that Bruno is such a person. But at some point  
this is understandable. PGC


Good analysis. I should not reply to insults, simply. It is slef- 
deafeating. But ghibbsa was usually polite. That burst astonsihed me.  
That is 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-04 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 04 Jun 2014, at 02:33, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:




On Tuesday, June 3, 2014 5:48:10 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:
My theory is comp. I just make it precise, by 1) Church thesis (en  
the amount of logic and arithmetic to expose and argue for it), and  
2) yes doctor (and the amount of turing universality in the  
neighborhood for giving sense to artificial brain and doctor.
By accepting that this is true only at some level, I make the  
hypothesis much weaker than all the formulation in the literature.  
This does not prevent me to show that if the hypothesis is weak with  
respect to what we know from biology, it is still a *theologically*  
extremely strong hypothesis, with consequence as radical as  
reminding us that Plato was Aristotle teacher, and that his theory  
was not Aristotelian (at least in the sense of most Aristotle  
followers, as Aristotle himself can be argued to still be a  
platonist, like some scholars defends).


So, let us say that I have not a theory, but a theorem, in the comp  
theory (which is arguably a very old idea).


Usually, the people who are unaware of the mind-body problem can  
even take offense that we can imagine not following comp.



Because they might not. This is a  problem, because the other thing  
you do is tell people they assume not-comp if they don't accept you  
r theory. So you are dominating people.


Of course. I *prove* (or submit a proof to you and you are free to  
show a flaw if you think there is one).


I show comp - something. Of course, after 1500 years of  
Aristotelianism, I don't expect people agreeing quickly with the  
reasoning, as it is admittedly counter-intuitive.





Do you think the majority of scientists think consciousness goes on  
in extre dimensional reality?


First, I don't express myself in that way.

For a platonist, or for someone believing in comp, and underatdning  
its logical consequence, it looks like it is the physicists which  
think that matter goes on in extradimensional reality.


With comp, it is just absolutely undecidable by *any* universal  
machine if its reality is enumerable (like N, the set of the natural  
numbers) or has a very large cardinal.


Conceptual occam suggests we don't add any axioms to elementary  
arithmetic (like Robinson arithmetic).


I then explain notions like god, consciousness (99% of it), matter,  
and the relation with Plato and (neo)platonist theology.




Do theybelieve in MWI

This is ambiguous.

In a sense you can say that comp leads to a form of super-atheism,  
as a (consistent) computationalist believer will stop to believe (or  
become skeptical) on both a creator and a creation.


So, at the basic ontological level, it is a 0 World theory.

What happens, is that the additive-multiplicative structure  
determine the set of all emulations, indeed with an important  
redundancy. They exist in the sense that you can prove their  
existence in elementary arithmetic. That is not mine, that is  
standard material.


You manage one or the other to avoid my argument, pretty much since  
the beginning.


Not on purpose. I don't get your argument. Not sure anyone get it.








the infinite multiverse of dreams?

If you agree that the natural numbers obeys to the axioms (with s(x)  
intended for the successor of x, that is x+1):


0 ≠ s(x)
s(x) = s(y) - x = y
x = 0 v Ey(x = s(y))
x+0 = x
x+s(y) = s(x+y)
x*0=0
x*s(y)=(x*y)+x

Then you get the multiverse of dreams by comp.

Keep in mind the most fundamental theorem of computer science (with  
Church Thesis): Universal machines exist. And that theorem is  
provable in Robinson arithmetic (in a weak sense), and in Peano  
Arithmetic (with a stringer sense).




What are the other consequences of the theory. Run me through them.

If it helps you to doubt a little bit of physicalism and  
Aristotelianism, I am happy enough.


The consequence is more a state of mind, an awe in front of  
something bigger that we thought (the internal view of arithmetic on  
itself).  An awe in front of our ignorance, but also the discovery  
that such ignorance is structured, productive, inexhaustible.










So here I would say that PGC was just saying the normal thing. Most  
rationalists believe in comp, and what follows has been peer  
reviewed enough. (Then humans are humans, and the notoriety of some  
people makes ideas having to wait they died before people talk and  
think, and special interests and all that, so I admit the results  
are still rather ignored, though some people seems to be inspired by  
them also, hard to say).


No that's not right. There are huge chains of unrefuted logic out  
there. People don't sign up to those chains, they sign up to what  
they accept. Scientists might reject comp if they hear what you've  
got to say. A large number would not find that you sought to  
dominate their options in comp very scientific.


The problem here Bruno, is you act like they have responsibility to  
automatelly go into that 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-04 Thread ghibbsa


On Wednesday, June 4, 2014 8:33:28 AM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 04 Jun 2014, at 02:33, ghi...@gmail.com javascript: wrote:



 On Tuesday, June 3, 2014 5:48:10 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 My theory is comp. I just make it precise, by 1) Church thesis (en the 
 amount of logic and arithmetic to expose and argue for it), and 2) yes 
 doctor (and the amount of turing universality in the neighborhood for 
 giving sense to artificial brain and doctor.
 By accepting that this is true only at some level, I make the hypothesis 
 much weaker than all the formulation in the literature. This does not 
 prevent me to show that if the hypothesis is weak with respect to what we 
 know from biology, it is still a *theologically* extremely strong 
 hypothesis, with consequence as radical as reminding us that Plato was 
 Aristotle teacher, and that his theory was not Aristotelian (at least in 
 the sense of most Aristotle followers, as Aristotle himself can be argued 
 to still be a platonist, like some scholars defends).

 So, let us say that I have not a theory, but a theorem, in the comp 
 theory (which is arguably a very old idea).

 Usually, the people who are unaware of the mind-body problem can even 
 take offense that we can imagine not following comp.


 Because they might not. This is a  problem, because the other thing you 
 do is tell people they assume not-comp if they don't accept you r theory. 
 So you are dominating people. 


 Of course. I *prove* (or submit a proof to you and you are free to show a 
 flaw if you think there is one).

 I show comp - something. Of course, after 1500 years of Aristotelianism, 
 I don't expect people agreeing quickly with the reasoning, as it is 
 admittedly counter-intuitive. 




 Do you think the majority of scientists think consciousness goes on in 
 extre dimensional reality? 


 First, I don't express myself in that way.  

 For a platonist, or for someone believing in comp, and underatdning its 
 logical consequence, it looks like it is the physicists which think that 
 matter goes on in extradimensional reality.

 With comp, it is just absolutely undecidable by *any* universal machine 
 if its reality is enumerable (like N, the set of the natural numbers) or 
 has a very large cardinal.

 Conceptual occam suggests we don't add any axioms to elementary 
 arithmetic (like Robinson arithmetic). 

 I then explain notions like god, consciousness (99% of it), matter, and 
 the relation with Plato and (neo)platonist theology.



 Do theybelieve in MWI 


 This is ambiguous.

 In a sense you can say that comp leads to a form of super-atheism, as a 
 (consistent) computationalist believer will stop to believe (or become 
 skeptical) on both a creator and a creation.

 So, at the basic ontological level, it is a 0 World theory.

 What happens, is that the additive-multiplicative structure determine the 
 set of all emulations, indeed with an important redundancy. They exist in 
 the sense that you can prove their existence in elementary arithmetic. That 
 is not mine, that is standard material.

 You manage one or the other to avoid my argument, pretty much since the 
 beginning.  


 Not on purpose. I don't get your argument. Not sure anyone get it.


 You're a liar. You didn't even read my definition of falsification. 
Russell Standish read it...he understood. 

So you're fucking liar and you've wasted my fucking time for months. 









 the infinite multiverse of dreams? 


 If you agree that the natural numbers obeys to the axioms (with s(x) 
 intended for the successor of x, that is x+1):

 0 ≠ s(x)
 s(x) = s(y) - x = y
 x = 0 v Ey(x = s(y))
 x+0 = x
 x+s(y) = s(x+y)
 x*0=0
 x*s(y)=(x*y)+x

 Then you get the multiverse of dreams by comp. 

 Keep in mind the most fundamental theorem of computer science (with 
 Church Thesis): Universal machines exist. And that theorem is provable in 
 Robinson arithmetic (in a weak sense), and in Peano Arithmetic (with a 
 stringer sense).



 What are the other consequences of the theory. Run me through them.


 If it helps you to doubt a little bit of physicalism and Aristotelianism, 
 I am happy enough.

 The consequence is more a state of mind, an awe in front of something 
 bigger that we thought (the internal view of arithmetic on itself).  An awe 
 in front of our ignorance, but also the discovery that such ignorance is 
 structured, productive, inexhaustible.









 So here I would say that PGC was just saying the normal thing. Most 
 rationalists believe in comp, and what follows has been peer reviewed 
 enough. (Then humans are humans, and the notoriety of some people makes 
 ideas having to wait they died before people talk and think, and special 
 interests and all that, so I admit the results are still rather ignored, 
 though some people seems to be inspired by them also, hard to say).


 No that's not right. There are huge chains of unrefuted logic out 
 there. People don't sign up to those chains, they 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-04 Thread LizR
On 5 June 2014 07:49, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:


 You manage one or the other to avoid my argument, pretty much since the
 beginning.


 Not on purpose. I don't get your argument. Not sure anyone get it.


  You're a liar. You didn't even read my definition of falsification.
 Russell Standish read it...he understood.

 So you're fucking liar and you've wasted my fucking time for months.

 I don't believe Bruno is a liar.

Can't you restart the discussion, politely, from first principles, and see
where you differ?

I haven't read the entire exchange - it's been huge - but it seems you
claim comp makes no testable predictions, while Bruno says it does.

As I understand it, comp makes more testable predictions than string
theory! Not sure that puts it into the refutable club, though. I've claimed
that comp isn't a theory but a logical argument, but apparently I was wrong
about that. As a theory it needs to be testable, which means it can be
falsified... So a definition of falsification would seem like a good place
to start, certainly. And I remember you gave a rather comprehensive one.

So I guess I should ask Bruno, did you read it? If so, did you agree with
it?

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-03 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
On Tue, Jun 3, 2014 at 5:14 AM, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:



 It looks like I was counter-bitching something he threw at me. It's a
 problem being custard pied. I notice you don't step in...so you seem
 to tacitly support this behaviour toward me.



All tempest in a tea pot. Who cares that I don't find your arguments
convincing at this point, concerning the issue of falsification/prediction
you raised?

This cycle of apologizing, attacking on personal level, playing everybody's
shrink, and then talking in friendly mate register and constantly
switching the way somebody flicks through radio stations; it gets tedious
and even when/if I do see you raising some interesting question, which you
often do, I'd have to deal with a mountain of personal attacks, psychology
etc. to converse with you in polite manner on said question.

I'd have rather spent my few minutes of free time today following the chess
championship in Norway or reading up on what Russell could have meant with
cardinality of virtual and baseline environments, but won't trouble him or
anybody else in the forum to spoon feed, because it might be off topic and
everybody is busy enough.

Also, I appreciate deeply whenever anyone puts a thoughtful post out there
that enriches the content of the list, yours included, especially when they
are concise and polite with readers' time. But do I mention it every time?
No, because as musicians we get sensitive to when one of us overplays, as
this tends to diminish the value of the entire group's/band's effort, no
matter how hard everybody else works, contributes, and tries. Just trying
not to clog/overplay with limited success.

I have no axe to grind with you on a personal level, but I will disagree
when I do and refuse to entertain posts that have authoritative,
interrogative quality, as I see it as a waste of people's precious time.
Sorry. PGC



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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-03 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 02 Jun 2014, at 17:58, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:

so I offered a test event tailored to a specific and probably fairly  
central to most others, charge relating to my positioning with Bruno  
in not responding to all or most counter arguments and objections or  
criticisms of something I have actually or effectively done.


I constructed a basic test event, obviously it had to be tied to a  
very specific argument, involving a specific charge or suspicion, in  
a situation featuring possible two of us. It isn't a problem to  
construct a falsifiable prediction that is in keeping with the  
criteria of step one of the definition.


So he chooses one of the Bruno counter points  I did not answer, and  
goes for the knock down hardest one he thinks I'll find. And I will  
say why that point did not make a case to answer. And why I have dug  
my heels and stopped showing him the courtesy of answering anyway.  
This is because I don't he has even now read my definition  
seriously, because his own objections are clearly illegitimate or  
misconceived, and his own offers of events of testing or whatever  
clearly do not meet the critieria of definition.


In fact his positions have not changed at all. I cannot reconcile  
this with a serious reading. And there's actually no point in  
continuing unless and until Bruno does make the decision to read my  
definition, which he requested and I supplied for. And absorb it,  
and be able to distinguish where any position he has does or does  
meet a criteria.


He doesn't have to agree with any of it. But he had to know where  
the argument is, if he's serious.


Because one way that his theory NOW ACTUALLY IS, falsifiable is in  
terms of the status he claimed for it, of falsifiability. The reason  
that isn't actually falsifiability is because every theory at a  
falsifiable status has spent a long time in a pre-falsifiable stage.  
And may well still be that phase, because to falsifiable the process  
itself has to not only start but finish, and there are a lot of  
constraints what a delay has to meet in criteria to be legitimate.  
Most delays quickly correspond to falsification events, but of the  
status only. Which never falsifies the theory and can never. Because  
IT'S DECOUPLED and never knows much what the fuck the theory is !! 
Anyway, here was example,.


So for example, Bruno has argued that I failed address an he has  
said saw what he regards as a successful test., He then infers from  
my silence that I have effectively rejected it, and he concludes I  
must therefore be in contradiction with myself because I said I  
didn't have the skills to be doing things like that. 


So everything connects and is logical in what he says and his  
conclusion. But once again he's still on the inside of his theory,  
and still being driven along by the influence of the same  
misconception that the dichotomy which seems to regard the  
interaction between the falsification structure as an end to  
process  - and in this setting the interaction is via me obviously,  
in that the action I took in not responding amounts to a rejection  
of some element in his theory. Which on its own its perfectly  
correct. not responding is a response.


But the same problematic misconception remains in his thinking here,  
which best illustrated here, amounts to believing decoupling between  
anything to do with the process of falsification, and anything to do  
with anything in his theory theory is a dichotomy of correct  
interaction with the interior of his theory, in this case that if I  
am going to effectively reject something by not addressing it, I am  
immediately contradicting myh own position thatI do not have skills  
to be making judgement calls about elements of his theory. So it's  
clearly perfectly sound reasoning he's got in play there.


But falsification doesn't care what is reasoned correct or not,  
within a theory. It doesn't care and will never care. Because it can  
never care about one particular theory, when it is process that runs  
across the entirety of science through the entirety of the history  
of science. How can anything like that have any dependence on a  
particular logical reasoning that on its own terms demands a reason  
why it can't be heard?


It's all good though, because the logical that is correct can be  
clearly stated as the consequence of the definition and my response  
to Bruno, which proxies for the interaction of the falsification  
structure to the theory. Bruno is right in act that silence is not  
an adequate response to the issues that he raising. Because the part  
of the falsification, if it is to deaf to all theories is also to  
deliver explicit and simple criteria to that theory. This is only  
connection possible. It is one way to the interface, the outer  
surface of the theory, from the structure to the theory. That must  
be a very simple request for, initially a condition that meets the  
criteria of the 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-03 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 03 Jun 2014, at 04:23, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:




On Monday, June 2, 2014 4:20:16 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 01 Jun 2014, at 18:22, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:



On Saturday, May 31, 2014 2:09:57 PM UTC+1, Platonist Guitar Cowboy  
wrote:





There was nothing devious about the Salvia posting. I actually  
pasted the key lines to the top of the post, and added comments.  
Clearly indicating that for me, the salient point about the article  
was that the distinguishing features of Salvia have now been  
identified, and that they closely correspond with much of what Bruno  
says and vocabularly around 3D/1D distinctions, talking to the  
machine, and so on and so forth


Nice.

Nice what way Bruno? Nice like yummy  or .nice like yeah mother  
fucker I'm with them that say you tried to fuck me up on the salvia  
thread!


Not the latter I hope because it's bolliocks and I totally reject it.


?
Nice like yummy, I would say. Or I misunderstand you even when we  
agree?





What about the issue itself though?
It isn't reasonable to attack me this way when it happens also to be  
the case the overwhelming majority of scientists would agree with my  
position. When Bruno and YOU make claims that scientists accept comp


Yes. Explicitely or implicitly. Of course if you search long enough  
you will find counter-example. For example I found a cmputer  
scientist Jacques Arsac who said As I am a catholic, I cannot  
believe in STRONG AI. He wrote an anti-strong-ai (and thus anti- 
comp)  book on this. But even among the catholic that has been seen  
as an exceptional view.


Comp is not much. A version is that there is no human internal organ  
which cannot be replaced by an artificial one having the right  
functions at the right level.


Which I ould say is true too, but it's going to be something like  
'comp is can replace  organA with  majorRevolutioninFieldA +  
majorRevoltion in field B+..+...major revolution in field N


In practice? Perhaps. But the reasoning is theoretical. It has to be,  
to be genuinely testable.
The only major scientific discovery that you need is the discovery of  
the universal (Turing) machine, and some idea how it works.







One of those revolutions will be to have a scientific revolution  
that differentiate why, say the heart of liver, in which an immense  
amount of computation takes place,


?  (that is ambiguous).




never becomes conscious.


If there are universal computation, we cannot exclude that some  
consciousness can be associated to it, but is it playing a role in our  
consciousness? Well, if yes, it means that we have to lower the  
substitution level, and ask to the doctor to copy also the liver and  
the heart, at the right level (which exist by the comp assumption).  
Keep in mind that the reasoning does not put any bound on the level.  
You might need to copy the moon too, if not the entire physical  
universe. This does not change the reversal consequence of  
computationalism. This follows from the step 7 in the UD Argument. If  
your mind state is a computational state (and thus belongs to  
infinitely many computations), the UD will go through that states  
infinitely often.





Why do I experience consciousness in my head, why not my liver?


That is cultural. The early greeks thought consciousness is  
experienced in the liver-stomach-belly. Some yoga technic makes it  
feels like that. I don't think I experience consciousness where I  
might feel to experience it (even John Clark seems to agree on this).


Actually, you will find many reports of different type in which people  
describes a feeling that their consciousness is attached to object out  
of the body, or even to nothing. The idea that we are in our body is  
also a mental construct.











Comp is believed also by all creationists who indeed use together  
with the premise that a machine needs a designer to argue for the  
existence of a designer God. Of course the second premise is easily  
refuted by the fact that all (digital) machines probably exist, with  
their execution, in the solution of the diophantine equations.



So you are saying you think they effectively believe in something,  
because there's a logic in comp that parallels some relation they  
must think at some point involving god and something else?


Not at all. I am saying that they believe in comp, when they argue  
that biological organism are machines. They use that assumption to  
prove the existence of god, because they believe also (wrongly) that a  
machine needs a designer.






This doesn't look right to me. You've got a definition in comp, thus  
composed of comp-objects.


The expression composed on comp-object does not make sense to me.



You say they believe comp, when most of them would probably totally  
reject that god is anything to do with that.


When I succeed to connect on the net, I can give you many videos on  
youtube where creationist shows something biological looking 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-03 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 03 Jun 2014, at 05:14, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:




On Tuesday, June 3, 2014 3:23:25 AM UTC+1, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


On Monday, June 2, 2014 4:20:16 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 01 Jun 2014, at 18:22, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:



On Saturday, May 31, 2014 2:09:57 PM UTC+1, Platonist Guitar Cowboy  
wrote:





There was nothing devious about the Salvia posting. I actually  
pasted the key lines to the top of the post, and added comments.  
Clearly indicating that for me, the salient point about the article  
was that the distinguishing features of Salvia have now been  
identified, and that they closely correspond with much of what Bruno  
says and vocabularly around 3D/1D distinctions, talking to the  
machine, and so on and so forth


Nice.

Nice what way Bruno? Nice like yummy  or .nice like yeah mother  
fucker I'm with them that say you tried to fuck me up on the salvia  
thread!


Not the latter I hope because it's bolliocks and I totally reject it.

What about the issue itself though?
It isn't reasonable to attack me this way when it happens also to be  
the case the overwhelming majority of scientists would agree with my  
position. When Bruno and YOU make claims that scientists accept comp


Yes. Explicitely or implicitly. Of course if you search long enough  
you will find counter-example. For example I found a cmputer  
scientist Jacques Arsac who said As I am a catholic, I cannot  
believe in STRONG AI. He wrote an anti-strong-ai (and thus anti- 
comp)  book on this. But even among the catholic that has been seen  
as an exceptional view.


Comp is not much. A version is that there is no human internal organ  
which cannot be replaced by an artificial one having the right  
functions at the right level.


Which I ould say is true too, but it's going to be something like  
'comp is can replace  organA with  majorRevolutioninFieldA +  
majorRevoltion in field B+..+...major revolution in field N


One of those revolutions will be to have a scientific revolution  
that differentiate why, say the heart of liver, in which an immense  
amount of computation takes place, never becomes conscious. Why do I  
experience consciousness in my head, why not my liver?




Comp is believed also by all creationists who indeed use together  
with the premise that a machine needs a designer to argue for the  
existence of a designer God. Of course the second premise is easily  
refuted by the fact that all (digital) machines probably exist, with  
their execution, in the solution of the diophantine equations.



So you are saying you think they effectively believe in something,  
because there's a logic in comp that parallels some relation they  
must think at some point involving god and something else?


This doesn't look right to me. You've got a definition in comp, thus  
composed of comp-objects. You say they believe comp, when most of  
them would probably totally reject that god is anything to do with  
that.


Can we really make these sort of inferences without making clear, we  
don't mean the sort of belief that creationists will have for that  
word, and at no point or level do we have any reason to think they  
think they think in terms of comp at all.


What you are saying is that you think what they are doing in their  
minds, has a parallel with something that can happen in comp. This  
is a long way now from they believe in comp.


I mean...and please answer this. Let's say someone is riding a  
donkey. And the motion of that person and way they hold the donkey  
exactly parallels someone else riding a zebra. Does this infer the  
first person is riding a zebra?


Or do I miss the point?






and clearly infer that they will also accept Bruno's workthroughs on  
comp,
What are you insinuating? Could you find one scientist having ention  
a problem (except J.P. Delahaye)?



Are you aware that 'insinuating' suggests an underhand way of ding  
things? Where do you stand on what PGC has said to me?


What I'm not insinuating old boy, but saying explicitly and  
directly, is that I'm not clear it's appropriate to say what people  
believe, unless they've said they believe it. Are you assuming  
things like this:


Scientist believes comp= -- Bruno's criteria is assuming-com --  
brunos's UDA follows -- Stuff about consciousness outside the head  
follows


-- 
 MWI follows


-- 
 Infinite dreams follows


* So where does it end? Do scientists all believe MWI?


Even the jury in Brussels acknowledge not one error. One did,  
actually, but changed his mind since (he was stopping at step three  
and acknowledged that he was counting the 3-views instead of the 1- 
views (like John Clark). In brussels, they have 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-03 Thread Russell Standish
On Mon, Jun 02, 2014 at 05:46:32PM -0700, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:
 
 
 On Monday, June 2, 2014 5:06:07 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 
  On 02 Jun 2014, at 01:50, Russell Standish wrote: 
 
   
   Just the same is if we ever found the Anthropic Principle to be 
   violated (and didn't immediately wake up and realise it to be a 
   dream), then we'd have to declare the AP falsified, because it no 
   longer has any epistemological value. We could alternatively conclude 
   that we're living in a Sim (DD's argument), but that would be simply a 
   statement of faith, making the AP unfalsifiable. 
 
 
 
 Yo Russell, I was just wondering...what do you include when you reference 
 Anthropic Principle. Like above. I mean...I can see that if we're talking 
 about AP as the explanation for our universe and us here within it, then 
 just for that, there the inference of large number of other universes. Is 
 this roughly as far as things go, or are there further inferences directly 
 from these first two? 
 

FWIW, by the AP, I simply mean the principle that observed reality is
consistent with our existence in that reality.

We can conceive of realities (virtual or otherwise) in which the AP is
violated eg Deutsch's chess reality example from FoR, or some of the
dreaming argument examples Bruno gives. I'm not sure whether the AP
has ever really been violated in a dream (Bruno has studied dreams
more than me, so perhaps he could comment, moreso even from his Salvia
experiences), and VR technology is still too primitive to do the
experiment (and may, in any case, be unethical to perform).

The link between the AP and many universes has to do with the strong
AP, which states that the universe has to be compatible conscious
life, and the rather unlikely probability of that happening by
chance. You either have to accept a divine creator, that the laws of
physics are just so (for inexplicable reasons), or many
universes. People of an atheistic bent will tend to prefer many
universes, I suppose, and theistic people will plug for the
creator. Some people have attacked the idea that the AP is unlikely by
chance - Victor Stenger wrote a book on that topic, for instance. I'm
not exactly convinced, but at least he tried.

But in any case, there are many other arguments in favour of many
universes, which I outline in my book.


-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

 Latest project: The Amoeba's Secret 
 (http://www.hpcoders.com.au/AmoebasSecret.html)


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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-03 Thread meekerdb

On 6/2/2014 7:00 PM, Russell Standish wrote:

On Mon, Jun 02, 2014 at 05:46:32PM -0700, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:


On Monday, June 2, 2014 5:06:07 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 02 Jun 2014, at 01:50, Russell Standish wrote:


Just the same is if we ever found the Anthropic Principle to be
violated (and didn't immediately wake up and realise it to be a
dream), then we'd have to declare the AP falsified, because it no
longer has any epistemological value. We could alternatively conclude
that we're living in a Sim (DD's argument), but that would be simply a
statement of faith, making the AP unfalsifiable.


Yo Russell, I was just wondering...what do you include when you reference
Anthropic Principle. Like above. I mean...I can see that if we're talking
about AP as the explanation for our universe and us here within it, then
just for that, there the inference of large number of other universes. Is
this roughly as far as things go, or are there further inferences directly
from these first two?


FWIW, by the AP, I simply mean the principle that observed reality is
consistent with our existence in that reality.

We can conceive of realities (virtual or otherwise) in which the AP is
violated eg Deutsch's chess reality example from FoR, or some of the
dreaming argument examples Bruno gives. I'm not sure whether the AP
has ever really been violated in a dream (Bruno has studied dreams
more than me, so perhaps he could comment, moreso even from his Salvia
experiences), and VR technology is still too primitive to do the
experiment (and may, in any case, be unethical to perform).

The link between the AP and many universes has to do with the strong
AP, which states that the universe has to be compatible conscious
life, and the rather unlikely probability of that happening by
chance. You either have to accept a divine creator, that the laws of
physics are just so (for inexplicable reasons),


But that only works if the creator is constrained to create using a physics consistent 
with conscious life.  As Ikeda and Jefferys point out a supernatural creator could create 
conscious life in a universe physically incompatible with conscious life (that's what 
*super*natural means).  So then observing that your universe is physically compatible with 
your existence cannot count as evidence for a supernatural creator.


Brent


or many
universes. People of an atheistic bent will tend to prefer many
universes, I suppose, and theistic people will plug for the
creator. Some people have attacked the idea that the AP is unlikely by
chance - Victor Stenger wrote a book on that topic, for instance. I'm
not exactly convinced, but at least he tried.

But in any case, there are many other arguments in favour of many
universes, which I outline in my book.




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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-03 Thread ghibbsa


On Tuesday, June 3, 2014 5:48:10 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 03 Jun 2014, at 05:14, ghi...@gmail.com javascript: wrote:



 On Tuesday, June 3, 2014 3:23:25 AM UTC+1, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Monday, June 2, 2014 4:20:16 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 01 Jun 2014, at 18:22, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Saturday, May 31, 2014 2:09:57 PM UTC+1, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:





 There was nothing devious about the Salvia posting. I actually pasted the 
 key lines to the top of the post, and added comments. Clearly indicating 
 that for me, the salient point about the article was that the 
 distinguishing features of Salvia have now been identified, and that they 
 closely correspond with much of what Bruno says and vocabularly around 
 3D/1D distinctions, talking to the machine, and so on and so forth 


 Nice.


 Nice what way Bruno? Nice like yummy  or .nice like yeah mother fucker 
 I'm with them that say you tried to fuck me up on the salvia thread! 

 Not the latter I hope because it's bolliocks and I totally reject it. 

 What about the issue itself though?

 It isn't reasonable to attack me this way when it happens also to be the 
 case the overwhelming majority of scientists would agree with my position. 
 When Bruno and YOU make claims that scientists accept comp 


 Yes. Explicitely or implicitly. Of course if you search long enough you 
 will find counter-example. For example I found a cmputer scientist Jacques 
 Arsac who said As I am a catholic, I cannot believe in STRONG AI. He 
 wrote an anti-strong-ai (and thus anti-comp)  book on this. But even among 
 the catholic that has been seen as an exceptional view. 

 Comp is not much. A version is that there is no human internal organ which 
 cannot be replaced by an artificial one having the right functions at the 
 right level. 


 Which I ould say is true too, but it's going to be something like 'comp is 
 can replace  organA with  majorRevolutioninFieldA + majorRevoltion in 
 field B+..+...major revolution in field N 

 One of those revolutions will be to have a scientific revolution that 
 differentiate why, say the heart of liver, in which an immense amount of 
 computation takes place, never becomes conscious. Why do I experience 
 consciousness in my head, why not my liver? 


   
 Comp is believed also by all creationists who indeed use together with the 
 premise that a machine needs a designer to argue for the existence of a 
 designer God. Of course the second premise is easily refuted by the fact 
 that all (digital) machines probably exist, with their execution, in the 
 solution of the diophantine equations.



 So you are saying you think they effectively believe in something, because 
 there's a logic in comp that parallels some relation they must think at 
 some point involving god and something else? 

 This doesn't look right to me. You've got a definition in comp, thus 
 composed of comp-objects. You say they believe comp, when most of them 
 would probably totally reject that god is anything to do with that. 

 Can we really make these sort of inferences without making clear, we don't 
 mean the sort of belief that creationists will have for that word, and at 
 no point or level do we have any reason to think they think they think in 
 terms of comp at all. 

 What you are saying is that you think what they are doing in their minds, 
 has a parallel with something that can happen in comp. This is a long way 
 now from they believe in comp. 

 I mean...and please answer this. Let's say someone is riding a donkey. And 
 the motion of that person and way they hold the donkey exactly parallels 
 someone else riding a zebra. Does this infer the first person is riding a 
 zebra? 

 Or do I miss the point? 






 and clearly infer that they will also accept Bruno's workthroughs on comp, 

 What are you insinuating? Could you find one scientist having ention a 
 problem (except J.P. Delahaye)?


  
 Are you aware that 'insinuating' suggests an underhand way of ding things? 
 Where do you stand on what PGC has said to me? 

 What I'm not insinuating old boy, but saying explicitly and directly, is 
 that I'm not clear it's appropriate to say what people believe, unless 
 they've said they believe it. Are you assuming things like this: 

 Scientist believes comp= -- Bruno's criteria is assuming-com -- brunos's 
 UDA follows -- Stuff about consciousness outside the head follows 

   
   
 -- MWI follows 

   
   
 -- Infinite dreams follows 

 * So where does it end? Do scientists all believe MWI? 


 Even the jury in Brussels acknowledge not one error. One did, actually, 
 but changed his mind since (he was stopping at step three and 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Jun 2014, at 18:22, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:




On Saturday, May 31, 2014 2:09:57 PM UTC+1, Platonist Guitar Cowboy  
wrote:





There was nothing devious about the Salvia posting. I actually  
pasted the key lines to the top of the post, and added comments.  
Clearly indicating that for me, the salient point about the article  
was that the distinguishing features of Salvia have now been  
identified, and that they closely correspond with much of what Bruno  
says and vocabularly around 3D/1D distinctions, talking to the  
machine, and so on and so forth.


Nice.




It isn't reasonable to attack me this way when it happens also to be  
the case the overwhelming majority of scientists would agree with my  
position. When Bruno and YOU make claims that scientists accept comp


Yes. Explicitely or implicitly. Of course if you search long enough  
you will find counter-example. For example I found a cmputer scientist  
Jacques Arsac who said As I am a catholic, I cannot believe in  
STRONG AI. He wrote an anti-strong-ai (and thus anti-comp)  book on  
this. But even among the catholic that has been seen as an exceptional  
view.


Comp is not much. A version is that there is no human internal organ  
which cannot be replaced by an artificial one having the right  
functions at the right level.


Comp is believed also by all creationists who indeed use together with  
the premise that a machine needs a designer to argue for the existence  
of a designer God. Of course the second premise is easily refuted by  
the fact that all (digital) machines probably exist, with their  
execution, in the solution of the diophantine equations.





and clearly infer that they will also accept Bruno's workthroughs on  
comp,


What are you insinuating? Could you find one scientist having mention  
a problem (except J.P. Delahaye)?


Even the jury in Brussels acknowledge not one error. One did,  
actually, but changed his mind since (he was stopping at step three  
and acknowledged that he was counting the 3-views instead of the 1- 
views (like John Clark). In brussels, they have invoked a philosopher  
who judged the thesis not receivable (which means not even a private  
defense: they have never heard me, even in private) from his personal  
conviction (and later invoke the free-exam principle for that, like  
if the free-exam is the right for professor to give bad note to  
student without questioning them).


So here I would say that PGC was just saying the normal thing. Most  
rationalists believe in comp, and what follows has been peer reviewed  
enough. (Then humans are humans, and the notoriety of some people  
makes ideas having to wait they died before people talk and think, and  
special interests and all that, so I admit the results are still  
rather ignored, though some people seems to be inspired by them also,  
hard to say).


The so-called radicality of what I say is in the mind of those who  
thought that science has solved all problem, and that it has notably  
decided between Plato and Aristotle (almost the genuine difference  
believer/non-believer),  and that comp explains the mind and its  
relation with matter.


I show that this is not true, and that if we can accept that comp and  
computer science does indeed explain a large part of the mind,  
including knowledge and perhaps consciousness, it can only succeed on  
this if it explains the observable by a complex sum on all  
computations seen from the possible machine's points of view.  (and  
that can be handled mathematically if we accept some definitions).






you are the one's being less than honest, intellectually. Not me.


I disagree, because you insinuate that there is a problem without  
showing one, besides the fact that you may dislike comp, bet it is  
false, etc.


At least Richard has the honesty to recognize his use of a god of the  
gap.


And please don't take my word for comp and its consequences, just try  
to understand. It is not easy, due to our quasi-instinctual  
aristotelianism, but it is neither that much difficult (probably  
easier for those who remember their dreams, and dig on the spiritual  
side).


Sometimes, I think you got the main point, but have a critics at some  
metalevel. That might be right, but up to now, you did not succeed in  
making it clear for me, nor others, I think. You acknowledge that, so  
good luck for being more understandable.


Bruno






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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-02 Thread ghibbsa
so I offered a test event tailored to a specific and probably fairly 
central to most others, charge relating to my positioning with Bruno in not 
responding to all or most counter arguments and objections or criticisms of 
something I have actually or effectively done. 

I constructed a basic test event, obviously it had to be tied to a very 
specific argument, involving a specific charge or suspicion, in a situation 
featuring possible two of us. It isn't a problem to construct a falsifiable 
prediction that is in keeping with the criteria of step one of the 
definition. 

So he chooses one of the Bruno counter points  I did not answer, and goes 
for the knock down hardest one he thinks I'll find. And I will say why that 
point did not make a case to answer. And why I have dug my heels and 
stopped showing him the courtesy of answering anyway. This is because I 
don't he has even now read my definition seriously, because his own 
objections are clearly illegitimate or misconceived, and his own offers of 
events of testing or whatever clearly do not meet the critieria of 
definition.

In fact his positions have not changed at all. I cannot reconcile this with 
a serious reading. And there's actually no point in continuing unless and 
until Bruno does make the decision to read my definition, which he 
requested and I supplied for. And absorb it, and be able to distinguish 
where any position he has does or does meet a criteria. 

He doesn't have to agree with any of it. But he had to know where the 
argument is, if he's serious. 

Because one way that his theory NOW ACTUALLY IS, falsifiable is in terms of 
the status he claimed for it, of falsifiability. The reason that isn't 
actually falsifiability is because every theory at a falsifiable status has 
spent a long time in a pre-falsifiable stage. And may well still be that 
phase, because to falsifiable the process itself has to not only start but 
finish, and there are a lot of constraints what a delay has to meet in 
criteria to be legitimate. Most delays quickly correspond to falsification 
events, but of the status only. Which never falsifies the theory and can 
never. Because IT'S DECOUPLED and never knows much what the fuck the theory 
is !!Anyway, here was example,. 

So for example, Bruno has argued that I failed address an he has said saw 
what he regards as a successful test., He then infers from my silence that 
I have effectively rejected it, and he concludes I must therefore be in 
contradiction with myself because I said I didn't have the skills to be 
doing things like that.  

So everything connects and is logical in what he says and his conclusion. 
But once again he's still on the inside of his theory, and still being 
driven along by the influence of the same misconception that the 
dichotomy which seems to regard the interaction between the falsification 
structure as an end to process  - and in this setting the interaction is 
via me obviously, in that the action I took in not responding amounts to a 
rejection of some element in his theory. Which on its own its perfectly 
correct. not responding is a response. 

But the same problematic misconception remains in his thinking here, which 
best illustrated here, amounts to believing decoupling between anything to 
do with the process of falsification, and anything to do with anything in 
his theory theory is a dichotomy of correct interaction with the interior 
of his theory, in this case that if I am going to effectively reject 
something by not addressing it, I am immediately contradicting myh own 
position thatI do not have skills to be making judgement calls about 
elements of his theory. So it's clearly perfectly sound reasoning he's got 
in play there. 

But falsification doesn't care what is reasoned correct or not, within a 
theory. It doesn't care and will never care. Because it can never care 
about one particular theory, when it is process that runs across the 
entirety of science through the entirety of the history of science. How can 
anything like that have any dependence on a particular logical reasoning 
that on its own terms demands a reason why it can't be heard? 

It's all good though, because the logical that is correct can be clearly 
stated as the consequence of the definition and my response to Bruno, which 
proxies for the interaction of the falsification structure to the theory. 
Bruno is right in act that silence is not an adequate response to the 
issues that he raising. Because the part of the falsification, if it is to 
deaf to all theories is also to deliver explicit and simple criteria to 
that theory. This is only connection possible. It is one way to the 
interface, the outer surface of the theory, from the structure to the 
theory. That must be a very simple request for, initially a condition that 
meets the criteria of the first step of falsification. Now I have 
asked Bruno for this a few times, and I have explained each time why this 
is all I ever 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-02 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 02 Jun 2014, at 01:50, Russell Standish wrote:


On Sun, Jun 01, 2014 at 09:19:54PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 01 Jun 2014, at 01:53, Russell Standish wrote:


On Sat, May 31, 2014 at 01:40:58PM -0700, meekerdb wrote:

On 5/30/2014 11:45 PM, Russell Standish wrote:


Yet it seems to me that CantGoTu environments and other non- 
virtual

reality environments have measure one in the space of environments
hosted by the UD, as UD* has the cardinality of the continuum,
whereas
virtual reality environments are strictly aleph_0.


But aren't we as physically instantiated beings, also of the
cardinality of the continuum?



Yes, we are, but not the virtual reality environments, which must be
countable by virtue of there only being a countable number of
programs.

With COMP, and via the UDA, the number of real environments
experienced must be the cardinality of the continuum, and would
include all the CantGoTu environments.

We could therefore conclude (contra Bostrom), that we are most  
likely

not in a simulation, but that we can never prove it by any finite
observation (Deutsch's CantGoTu argument).

I agree that sometimes we can know we're in a virtual reality -
Deutsch's chess VR example, for instance - but only by it being
logically incompatible with our existence as an observer.

The question remains - suppose someone finds a physical phenomenon
that contradicts the laws of physics derived from COMP. Does that
falsify COMP, or does it imply we're in a virtual reality? How can  
you

possibly distinguish those two situations?


We can't.

But this is similar to the fact that, for accepting that we can at
least refute a theory, we still need to bet that we are not dreaming
or that we are not in some emulation (made normal by being physical,
that is built on the top of the sum on all computations).

So, to answer the question more precisely, we will need to describe
more precisely how much the physical phenomenon depart from the comp
physics, like for the case with the natural physics. If the
emulation is gross (too big pixel) we can see quickly we are
dreaming or emulated, or branched to a virtual (programmed)
environment/video-game.

By default, when I say that comp is falsifiable, I suppose we are at
the base level, and that QL and QM does describe the base levels.

Comp (and QL) saves us (normally) from the diabolical white rabbits,
but it does not save us from the human and indeed universal Löbian
consistent deception.

Bruno




I would say that COMP predicts we must be at the base level, and not
in a virtual reality, by virtue of the cardinality difference between
the set of all environments and the set of virtual ones.


Hmmm I see what you mean, and in that sense we are at the base  
level.


yet, we can still belong to an emulation build on the top of that base  
level, so that it inherits of the measure on all computations.


If that was not possible, we would not been able to survive with an  
artificial brain. If we can, we can survive with the right relative  
measure in virtual environment, like the emulation of Washington and  
Moscow in step six.


But this is also what makes it possible for us to discover that we are  
in virtual environment, or that we are dreaming.









Therefore if
we do discover ourselves in such a virtual variety (eg Deutsch's chess
world) violating the laws of physics derived from COMP, then COMP must
be falsified.


Not necessarily. I might have given you a pill, and then put you in a  
very well done emulation, without you noticing any difference (before  
comparing the comp physics and the physics of your environment).






Whilst COMP could be rescued by stating that it's just bad luck that  
we are

in one of these virtual worlds, there is no epistemological benefit in
doing so, because then COMP would not provide a description of our
phenomenological physics.

Just the same is if we ever found the Anthropic Principle to be
violated (and didn't immediately wake up and realise it to be a
dream), then we'd have to declare the AP falsified, because it no
longer has any epistemological value. We could alternatively conclude
that we're living in a Sim (DD's argument), but that would be simply a
statement of faith, making the AP unfalsifiable.


I am not sure we can make something falsifiable into something non  
falsifiable by an act of faith, ... except indeed by invoking a dream,  
or a Daemon, but this is of course is a very weak refutation. I  
would say that it is better to bet we are not in a second order dream/ 
emulation by default. If the comp-QL differ from the empiric-QL, it  
will be time to hesitate between the truth of comp, or of the the  
classical theory of knowledge, or if we are in a simulation (that  
might depends on the way the comp-QL is violated).


The fact in dispute with ghibbsa is that I am giving a precise way to  
test comp (with nuance due to the vague character of test applied to  
reality) when translated in 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-02 Thread ghibbsa


On Monday, June 2, 2014 5:06:07 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 02 Jun 2014, at 01:50, Russell Standish wrote: 

  On Sun, Jun 01, 2014 at 09:19:54PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote: 
  
  On 01 Jun 2014, at 01:53, Russell Standish wrote: 
  
  On Sat, May 31, 2014 at 01:40:58PM -0700, meekerdb wrote: 
  On 5/30/2014 11:45 PM, Russell Standish wrote: 
  
  Yet it seems to me that CantGoTu environments and other non- 
  virtual 
  reality environments have measure one in the space of environments 
  hosted by the UD, as UD* has the cardinality of the continuum, 
  whereas 
  virtual reality environments are strictly aleph_0. 
  
  But aren't we as physically instantiated beings, also of the 
  cardinality of the continuum? 
  
  
  Yes, we are, but not the virtual reality environments, which must be 
  countable by virtue of there only being a countable number of 
  programs. 
  
  With COMP, and via the UDA, the number of real environments 
  experienced must be the cardinality of the continuum, and would 
  include all the CantGoTu environments. 
  
  We could therefore conclude (contra Bostrom), that we are most   
  likely 
  not in a simulation, but that we can never prove it by any finite 
  observation (Deutsch's CantGoTu argument). 
  
  I agree that sometimes we can know we're in a virtual reality - 
  Deutsch's chess VR example, for instance - but only by it being 
  logically incompatible with our existence as an observer. 
  
  The question remains - suppose someone finds a physical phenomenon 
  that contradicts the laws of physics derived from COMP. Does that 
  falsify COMP, or does it imply we're in a virtual reality? How can   
  you 
  possibly distinguish those two situations? 
  
  We can't. 
  
  But this is similar to the fact that, for accepting that we can at 
  least refute a theory, we still need to bet that we are not dreaming 
  or that we are not in some emulation (made normal by being physical, 
  that is built on the top of the sum on all computations). 
  
  So, to answer the question more precisely, we will need to describe 
  more precisely how much the physical phenomenon depart from the comp 
  physics, like for the case with the natural physics. If the 
  emulation is gross (too big pixel) we can see quickly we are 
  dreaming or emulated, or branched to a virtual (programmed) 
  environment/video-game. 
  
  By default, when I say that comp is falsifiable, I suppose we are at 
  the base level, and that QL and QM does describe the base levels. 
  
  Comp (and QL) saves us (normally) from the diabolical white rabbits, 
  but it does not save us from the human and indeed universal Löbian 
  consistent deception. 
  
  Bruno 
  
  
  
  I would say that COMP predicts we must be at the base level, and not 
  in a virtual reality, by virtue of the cardinality difference between 
  the set of all environments and the set of virtual ones. 

 Hmmm I see what you mean, and in that sense we are at the base   
 level. 

 yet, we can still belong to an emulation build on the top of that base   
 level, so that it inherits of the measure on all computations. 

 If that was not possible, we would not been able to survive with an   
 artificial brain. If we can, we can survive with the right relative   
 measure in virtual environment, like the emulation of Washington and   
 Moscow in step six. 

 But this is also what makes it possible for us to discover that we are   
 in virtual environment, or that we are dreaming. 







  Therefore if 
  we do discover ourselves in such a virtual variety (eg Deutsch's chess 
  world) violating the laws of physics derived from COMP, then COMP must 
  be falsified. 

 Not necessarily. I might have given you a pill, and then put you in a   
 very well done emulation, without you noticing any difference (before   
 comparing the comp physics and the physics of your environment). 



  
  Whilst COMP could be rescued by stating that it's just bad luck that   
  we are 
  in one of these virtual worlds, there is no epistemological benefit in 
  doing so, because then COMP would not provide a description of our 
  phenomenological physics. 
  
  Just the same is if we ever found the Anthropic Principle to be 
  violated (and didn't immediately wake up and realise it to be a 
  dream), then we'd have to declare the AP falsified, because it no 
  longer has any epistemological value. We could alternatively conclude 
  that we're living in a Sim (DD's argument), but that would be simply a 
  statement of faith, making the AP unfalsifiable. 



Yo Russell, I was just wondering...what do you include when you reference 
Anthropic Principle. Like above. I mean...I can see that if we're talking 
about AP as the explanation for our universe and us here within it, then 
just for that, there the inference of large number of other universes. Is 
this roughly as far as things go, or are there further inferences directly 
from these first two? 

What I'm 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-02 Thread ghibbsa


On Monday, June 2, 2014 4:20:16 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 01 Jun 2014, at 18:22, ghi...@gmail.com javascript: wrote:



 On Saturday, May 31, 2014 2:09:57 PM UTC+1, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:





 There was nothing devious about the Salvia posting. I actually pasted the 
 key lines to the top of the post, and added comments. Clearly indicating 
 that for me, the salient point about the article was that the 
 distinguishing features of Salvia have now been identified, and that they 
 closely correspond with much of what Bruno says and vocabularly around 
 3D/1D distinctions, talking to the machine, and so on and so forth 


 Nice.


Nice what way Bruno? Nice like yummy  or .nice like yeah mother fucker I'm 
with them that say you tried to fuck me up on the salvia thread! 

Not the latter I hope because it's bolliocks and I totally reject it. 

What about the issue itself though?

 It isn't reasonable to attack me this way when it happens also to be the 
 case the overwhelming majority of scientists would agree with my position. 
 When Bruno and YOU make claims that scientists accept comp 


 Yes. Explicitely or implicitly. Of course if you search long enough you 
 will find counter-example. For example I found a cmputer scientist Jacques 
 Arsac who said As I am a catholic, I cannot believe in STRONG AI. He 
 wrote an anti-strong-ai (and thus anti-comp)  book on this. But even among 
 the catholic that has been seen as an exceptional view. 

 Comp is not much. A version is that there is no human internal organ which 
 cannot be replaced by an artificial one having the right functions at the 
 right level. 


Which I ould say is true too, but it's going to be something like 'comp is 
can replace  organA with  majorRevolutioninFieldA + majorRevoltion in 
field B+..+...major revolution in field N 

One of those revolutions will be to have a scientific revolution that 
differentiate why, say the heart of liver, in which an immense amount of 
computation takes place, never becomes conscious. Why do I experience 
consciousness in my head, why not my liver? 


  
 Comp is believed also by all creationists who indeed use together with the 
 premise that a machine needs a designer to argue for the existence of a 
 designer God. Of course the second premise is easily refuted by the fact 
 that all (digital) machines probably exist, with their execution, in the 
 solution of the diophantine equations.



So you are saying you think they effectively believe in something, because 
there's a logic in comp that parallels some relation they must think at 
some point involving god and something else? 

This doesn't look right to me. You've got a definition in comp, thus 
composed of comp-objects. You say they believe comp, when most of them 
would probably totally reject that god is anything to do with that. 

Can we really make these sort of inferences without making clear, we don't 
mean the sort of belief that creationists will have for that word, and at 
no point or level do we have any reason to think they think they think in 
terms of comp at all. 

What you are saying is that you think what they are doing in their minds, 
has a parallel with something that can happen in comp. This is a long way 
now from they believe in comp. 

I mean...and please answer this. Let's say someone is riding a donkey. And 
the motion of that person and way they hold the donkey exactly parallels 
someone else riding a zebra. Does this infer the first person is riding a 
zebra? 

Or do I miss the point? 






 and clearly infer that they will also accept Bruno's workthroughs on comp, 

 What are you insinuating? Could you find one scientist having ention a 
 problem (except J.P. Delahaye)?


 
Are you aware that 'insinuating' suggests an underhand way of ding things? 
Where do you stand on what PGC has said to me? 

What I'm not insinuating old boy, but saying explicitly and directly, is 
that I'm not clear it's appropriate to say what people believe, unless 
they've said they believe it. Are you assuming things like this: 

Scientist believes comp= -- Bruno's criteria is assuming-com -- brunos's 
UDA follows -- Stuff about consciousness outside the head follows 



-- MWI follows 



-- Infinite dreams follows 

* So where does it end? Do scientists all believe MWI? 


 Even the jury in Brussels acknowledge not one error. One did, actually, 
 but changed his mind since (he was stopping at step three and acknowledged 
 that he was counting the 3-views instead of the 1-views (like John Clark). 
 In brussels, they have invoked a philosopher who judged the thesis not 
 receivable (which means not even a private defense: they have never heard 
 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-02 Thread ghibbsa


On Tuesday, June 3, 2014 3:23:25 AM UTC+1, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Monday, June 2, 2014 4:20:16 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 01 Jun 2014, at 18:22, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Saturday, May 31, 2014 2:09:57 PM UTC+1, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:





 There was nothing devious about the Salvia posting. I actually pasted the 
 key lines to the top of the post, and added comments. Clearly indicating 
 that for me, the salient point about the article was that the 
 distinguishing features of Salvia have now been identified, and that they 
 closely correspond with much of what Bruno says and vocabularly around 
 3D/1D distinctions, talking to the machine, and so on and so forth 


 Nice.


 Nice what way Bruno? Nice like yummy  or .nice like yeah mother fucker 
 I'm with them that say you tried to fuck me up on the salvia thread! 

 Not the latter I hope because it's bolliocks and I totally reject it. 

 What about the issue itself though?

 It isn't reasonable to attack me this way when it happens also to be the 
 case the overwhelming majority of scientists would agree with my position. 
 When Bruno and YOU make claims that scientists accept comp 


 Yes. Explicitely or implicitly. Of course if you search long enough you 
 will find counter-example. For example I found a cmputer scientist Jacques 
 Arsac who said As I am a catholic, I cannot believe in STRONG AI. He 
 wrote an anti-strong-ai (and thus anti-comp)  book on this. But even among 
 the catholic that has been seen as an exceptional view. 

 Comp is not much. A version is that there is no human internal organ 
 which cannot be replaced by an artificial one having the right functions at 
 the right level. 


 Which I ould say is true too, but it's going to be something like 'comp is 
 can replace  organA with  majorRevolutioninFieldA + majorRevoltion in 
 field B+..+...major revolution in field N 

 One of those revolutions will be to have a scientific revolution that 
 differentiate why, say the heart of liver, in which an immense amount of 
 computation takes place, never becomes conscious. Why do I experience 
 consciousness in my head, why not my liver? 


   
 Comp is believed also by all creationists who indeed use together with 
 the premise that a machine needs a designer to argue for the existence of a 
 designer God. Of course the second premise is easily refuted by the fact 
 that all (digital) machines probably exist, with their execution, in the 
 solution of the diophantine equations.



 So you are saying you think they effectively believe in something, because 
 there's a logic in comp that parallels some relation they must think at 
 some point involving god and something else? 

 This doesn't look right to me. You've got a definition in comp, thus 
 composed of comp-objects. You say they believe comp, when most of them 
 would probably totally reject that god is anything to do with that. 

 Can we really make these sort of inferences without making clear, we don't 
 mean the sort of belief that creationists will have for that word, and at 
 no point or level do we have any reason to think they think they think in 
 terms of comp at all. 

 What you are saying is that you think what they are doing in their minds, 
 has a parallel with something that can happen in comp. This is a long way 
 now from they believe in comp. 

 I mean...and please answer this. Let's say someone is riding a donkey. And 
 the motion of that person and way they hold the donkey exactly parallels 
 someone else riding a zebra. Does this infer the first person is riding a 
 zebra? 

 Or do I miss the point? 






 and clearly infer that they will also accept Bruno's workthroughs on 
 comp, 

 What are you insinuating? Could you find one scientist having ention a 
 problem (except J.P. Delahaye)?


  
 Are you aware that 'insinuating' suggests an underhand way of ding things? 
 Where do you stand on what PGC has said to me? 

 What I'm not insinuating old boy, but saying explicitly and directly, is 
 that I'm not clear it's appropriate to say what people believe, unless 
 they've said they believe it. Are you assuming things like this: 

 Scientist believes comp= -- Bruno's criteria is assuming-com -- brunos's 
 UDA follows -- Stuff about consciousness outside the head follows 

   
   
 -- MWI follows 

   
   
 -- Infinite dreams follows 

 * So where does it end? Do scientists all believe MWI? 


 Even the jury in Brussels acknowledge not one error. One did, actually, 
 but changed his mind since (he was stopping at step three and acknowledged 
 that he was counting the 3-views instead of the 1-views (like John Clark). 
 In brussels, they have invoked a 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 31 May 2014, at 22:40, meekerdb wrote:


On 5/30/2014 11:45 PM, Russell Standish wrote:

On Fri, May 30, 2014 at 06:17:40PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 30 May 2014, at 02:53, Russell Standish wrote:


On Wed, May 28, 2014 at 08:15:30PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 28 May 2014, at 03:24, LizR wrote:


As far as I can see Bruno has a logical argument which happens to
segue into a theory of physics. To disprove it, one merely needs
to show that either his premises or his argument is wrong...


Not exactly. The premise can be wrong, true, or indeterminate,
without making the reasoning invalid. In fact, in the classical
frame, a refutation of the premise would make the reasoning
vacuously valid. Now that reasoning shows a means to refute the
premise: basically: compare the physics found in the head of all
universal Turing machine, and if it is contradicted by nature then
the premise are false (or I, or we, are dreaming or live in a
second-order reality)

This last qualification is disturbing, as it would appear remove  
the

possibility of falsification of COMP.

I see you did not follow my thread with Quentin (or Brett Hall a
much longer time ago). No problem. It is a delicate point.

But it is also a relatively trivial (conceptually simple) point,
embedded already in the Dream argument and that lucidity is a
relative notion, even a graded one, like in Inception (a less nice
movie by the author of the prestige (in my opinion and taste)).



But before we go that far, why would COMP predict a different  
sort of

physics for dreaming or second order reality?

If only to account of dreams and video games. If comp is true, and
the level enough high, I can emulate you in a computer together with
an environment disobeying the physical laws.

Suppose now that you want to test if you are in my video game,
(second order dream) or in the physical reality (first order
dream, the one emerging from *all* computations going through your
state. Well, if the laws of physics that you can observe in the
virtual environment differs from the one you extract from comp, you
can know that you belong to a second order simulation (like a dream
of video game), or you can also abandon comp. Those do not obey
physics, but you keep existing (with the normal probability) in
them, because they inherit the normality of first order physical
reality which comes from *all* worlds/computations (which obey
S4Grz1, or Z1*, or X1*).

If not, we would not been able to play with a video game, the
consistency selection would eliminate *all* white rabbits, even the
one in Alice in Wonderland!

So if QL differs from comp-QL, which is testable, we know that we
are in a Bostrom-like simulation or that comp is false, or that the
classical theory/definition of knowledge is false (which I am not
sure makes sense).

But this is true for all physical tests. We can only say that the
LARC has confirmed the existence of the boson, or we are dreaming or
in an emulation of the standard theory in some unknown real
theory. So it is not a so big weakening of the falsification of
comp, as it is implicit in all experimental science. It is related
to the fact that with respect to the normal computations, the
universal beings emerging from that can still lie to each others.

The way QL differs from the comp-QL(s) might provide some
information on how to proceed to decide if comp is false, or if we
belong to a virtual machine made by our descendents, à-la Boström.

Bruno



I gather you think it might be possible to distinguish between being
in a virtual reality, and being in the real reality.

David Deutsch introduced the concept of a CantGoTu environment. It is
basically an environment formed by diagonalising on the list of all
possible virtual realities. Consider the discussion between pages 127
and 130 of Fabric of Reality. He goes on to prove that it is not
possible to prove within a finite amount of time that one is in a
CantGoTu environment.

Yet it seems to me that CantGoTu environments and other non-virtual
reality environments have measure one in the space of environments
hosted by the UD, as UD* has the cardinality of the continuum,  
whereas

virtual reality environments are strictly aleph_0.


But aren't we as physically instantiated beings, also of the  
cardinality of the continuum?


Assuming comp, yes. At least in some sense. We can defend that idea.

But it is hard to say if that is confirmed by the observation of the  
physical reality, in the sense that we have not yet marry gravitation  
and the quantum, and so have not yet a coherent empiric theory of  
space-time.


I think.

Bruno






Brent


But we can never
know that we're in one.

DD does later in the chapter speculate about VR environments that one
can know one is trapped in a VR, such as being inside a game of
chess. This is because the rules of physics of such an environment
are inconsistent, especially with the presence of an observer. But
provided the rules of physics are 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-01 Thread ghibbsa


On Saturday, May 31, 2014 2:09:57 PM UTC+1, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:




 On Fri, May 30, 2014 at 2:53 AM, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au 
 javascript: wrote:

 On Wed, May 28, 2014 at 08:15:30PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
  On 28 May 2014, at 03:24, LizR wrote:
 
  As far as I can see Bruno has a logical argument which happens to
  segue into a theory of physics. To disprove it, one merely needs
  to show that either his premises or his argument is wrong...
 
 
  Not exactly. The premise can be wrong, true, or indeterminate,
  without making the reasoning invalid. In fact, in the classical
  frame, a refutation of the premise would make the reasoning
  vacuously valid. Now that reasoning shows a means to refute the
  premise: basically: compare the physics found in the head of all
  universal Turing machine, and if it is contradicted by nature then
  the premise are false (or I, or we, are dreaming or live in a
  second-order reality)
 

 This last qualification is disturbing, as it would appear remove the
 possibility of falsification of COMP.


 Is this not, as you have stated before on this list if I remember 
 correctly, a standard consequence of Turing Machines (I'm referring to 
 dreaming, second-order reality)?ma


It doesn't matter that it is a standard consequence of somethingnot in 
the narrow issue of falsifiability. 


 I'm still not convinced by the falsification attacks of late; they seem 
 to me just reductionism in disguise of pursuit of clarity. We are doubting 
 now falsification as laid out by our advances in computability in the last 
 century? I don't see the alternatives many posts of late here apparently 
 are assuming, while most seem to ignore the elephant follow-up do you take 
 Quantum Logic then to be empirical; how do you manage then?  As if this 
 standard were leveraged against other TOEs seriously on all levels (which 
 ones satisfy such things completely btw?), and therefore comp should abide 
 concerning personal ultimate answers, falsification, prediction, and all 
 this stuff that appeals to my insecurity and bad sci-fi writing. 

 Smells like prohibition/authoritative argument. Like the academic prancing 
 around of labels, qualification histories, the Salvia post appearing 
 designed to get people to lower their defenses, so they can be attacked 
 for speaking not literally/correctly, apologies for not biting btw; and the 
 related posturing of meta-arguments and psychology across different threads 
 lately, ending in insults and useless I know what you're thinking via 
 label- stuff. This I consider unscientific and ties in with the 
 theological discussion in the other thread: posing as if these things were 
 decided, set, and going on personal crusade for fancy projections instead 
 of sticking to the relevant points in discussion. That's what distinguishes 
 crusading from sciethance and makes it problematic. PGC


Well, first of all, it's meaningless to leave my addy out when you are 
clearly speaking about me. It's also important to be clear that you are 
continuing your argument by other means in what you are saying, and that 
when an individual attempts to discredit another individual on 
bad-motivation grounds, and addresses other individuals which he has 
interacted with for longer, that is a serious escalation and extremely 
personal. 

There was nothing devious about the Salvia posting. I actually pasted the 
key lines to the top of the post, and added comments. Clearly indicating 
that for me, the salient point about the article was that the 
distinguishing features of Salvia have now been identified, and that they 
closely correspond with much of what Bruno says and vocabularly around 
3D/1D distinctions, talking to the machine, and so on and so forth. 

It isn't reasonable to attack me this way when it happens also to be the 
case the overwhelming majority of scientists would agree with my position. 
When Bruno and YOU make claims that scientists accept comp and clearly 
infer that they will also accept Bruno's workthroughs on comp, you are the 
one's being less than honest, intellectually. Not me. 


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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-01 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
On Sun, Jun 1, 2014 at 6:22 PM, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Saturday, May 31, 2014 2:09:57 PM UTC+1, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:




 On Fri, May 30, 2014 at 2:53 AM, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au
 wrote:

 On Wed, May 28, 2014 at 08:15:30PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
  On 28 May 2014, at 03:24, LizR wrote:
 
  As far as I can see Bruno has a logical argument which happens to
  segue into a theory of physics. To disprove it, one merely needs
  to show that either his premises or his argument is wrong...
 
 
  Not exactly. The premise can be wrong, true, or indeterminate,
  without making the reasoning invalid. In fact, in the classical
  frame, a refutation of the premise would make the reasoning
  vacuously valid. Now that reasoning shows a means to refute the
  premise: basically: compare the physics found in the head of all
  universal Turing machine, and if it is contradicted by nature then
  the premise are false (or I, or we, are dreaming or live in a
  second-order reality)
 

 This last qualification is disturbing, as it would appear remove the
 possibility of falsification of COMP.


 Is this not, as you have stated before on this list if I remember
 correctly, a standard consequence of Turing Machines (I'm referring to
 dreaming, second-order reality)?ma


 It doesn't matter that it is a standard consequence of somethingnot in
 the narrow issue of falsifiability.


In what context? I have not seen you clarify.


 I'm still not convinced by the falsification attacks of late; they seem
 to me just reductionism in disguise of pursuit of clarity. We are doubting
 now falsification as laid out by our advances in computability in the last
 century? I don't see the alternatives many posts of late here apparently
 are assuming, while most seem to ignore the elephant follow-up do you take
 Quantum Logic then to be empirical; how do you manage then?  As if this
 standard were leveraged against other TOEs seriously on all levels (which
 ones satisfy such things completely btw?), and therefore comp should abide
 concerning personal ultimate answers, falsification, prediction, and all
 this stuff that appeals to my insecurity and bad sci-fi writing.

 Smells like prohibition/authoritative argument. Like the academic
 prancing around of labels, qualification histories, the Salvia post
 appearing designed to get people to lower their defenses, so they can be
 attacked for speaking not literally/correctly, apologies for not biting
 btw; and the related posturing of meta-arguments and psychology across
 different threads lately, ending in insults and useless I know what you're
 thinking via label- stuff. This I consider unscientific and ties in with
 the theological discussion in the other thread: posing as if these things
 were decided, set, and going on personal crusade for fancy projections
 instead of sticking to the relevant points in discussion. That's what
 distinguishes crusading from sciethance and makes it problematic. PGC


 Well, first of all, it's meaningless to leave my addy out when you are
 clearly speaking about me.

It's also important to be clear that you are continuing your argument by
 other means


Nope. Still asking the same question. Not even defending comp or Bruno's
work at this point and merely asking: where is yours? Where do you stand
concerning falsification? I am genuinely curious and willing to listen if
you have found a flaw with Bruno's work. I'm ready to listen if you have
even something vaguely interesting to say about falsification.

Apologies, but a claim to a problem with falsification, without reference
to clear assumptions and precise target within the constraints of the work
in question, even with your great skill in rhetoric, does not convince me.
I don't believe comp is true either, as you seem to assume.


  in what you are saying, and that when an individual attempts to discredit
 another individual on bad-motivation grounds,

 and addresses other individuals which he has interacted with for longer,
 that is a serious escalation and extremely personal.


Sure, carrot soup is harder to bite than chicken soup. Most posts with you
lately are, to detriment of clarity, extremely personal, when there is
disagreement (what is science proper about this?).

I already stated you contradict the opening statement of FoR in which DD
shoots down falsification/prediction fetish from his end, after which you
switched to linguistic pal register, and laughed it off, after unloading
all manner of psychological personal arguments (which still surprises me,
because all I did was disagree with the absolute status you attached to
your falsification argument, given that you never presented it fully or
even sketch it out; this in line with your salvia thread humility
statement to Richard today btw) or some projection of comp you are
entertaining, but not even clarifying.

I can only shrug and repeat: So what? Does quantum logic satisfy your
falsification notion or not? 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-01 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 01 Jun 2014, at 01:53, Russell Standish wrote:


On Sat, May 31, 2014 at 01:40:58PM -0700, meekerdb wrote:

On 5/30/2014 11:45 PM, Russell Standish wrote:


Yet it seems to me that CantGoTu environments and other non-virtual
reality environments have measure one in the space of environments
hosted by the UD, as UD* has the cardinality of the continuum,  
whereas

virtual reality environments are strictly aleph_0.


But aren't we as physically instantiated beings, also of the  
cardinality of the continuum?




Yes, we are, but not the virtual reality environments, which must be
countable by virtue of there only being a countable number of  
programs.


With COMP, and via the UDA, the number of real environments
experienced must be the cardinality of the continuum, and would
include all the CantGoTu environments.

We could therefore conclude (contra Bostrom), that we are most likely
not in a simulation, but that we can never prove it by any finite
observation (Deutsch's CantGoTu argument).

I agree that sometimes we can know we're in a virtual reality -
Deutsch's chess VR example, for instance - but only by it being
logically incompatible with our existence as an observer.

The question remains - suppose someone finds a physical phenomenon
that contradicts the laws of physics derived from COMP. Does that
falsify COMP, or does it imply we're in a virtual reality? How can you
possibly distinguish those two situations?


We can't.

But this is similar to the fact that, for accepting that we can at  
least refute a theory, we still need to bet that we are not dreaming  
or that we are not in some emulation (made normal by being physical,  
that is built on the top of the sum on all computations).


So, to answer the question more precisely, we will need to describe  
more precisely how much the physical phenomenon depart from the comp  
physics, like for the case with the natural physics. If the emulation  
is gross (too big pixel) we can see quickly we are dreaming or  
emulated, or branched to a virtual (programmed) environment/video-game.


By default, when I say that comp is falsifiable, I suppose we are at  
the base level, and that QL and QM does describe the base levels.


Comp (and QL) saves us (normally) from the diabolical white rabbits,  
but it does not save us from the human and indeed universal Löbian  
consistent deception.


Bruno





Cheers

--


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

Latest project: The Amoeba's Secret
(http://www.hpcoders.com.au/AmoebasSecret.html)


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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-01 Thread Russell Standish
On Sun, Jun 01, 2014 at 09:19:54PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 On 01 Jun 2014, at 01:53, Russell Standish wrote:
 
 On Sat, May 31, 2014 at 01:40:58PM -0700, meekerdb wrote:
 On 5/30/2014 11:45 PM, Russell Standish wrote:
 
 Yet it seems to me that CantGoTu environments and other non-virtual
 reality environments have measure one in the space of environments
 hosted by the UD, as UD* has the cardinality of the continuum,
 whereas
 virtual reality environments are strictly aleph_0.
 
 But aren't we as physically instantiated beings, also of the
 cardinality of the continuum?
 
 
 Yes, we are, but not the virtual reality environments, which must be
 countable by virtue of there only being a countable number of
 programs.
 
 With COMP, and via the UDA, the number of real environments
 experienced must be the cardinality of the continuum, and would
 include all the CantGoTu environments.
 
 We could therefore conclude (contra Bostrom), that we are most likely
 not in a simulation, but that we can never prove it by any finite
 observation (Deutsch's CantGoTu argument).
 
 I agree that sometimes we can know we're in a virtual reality -
 Deutsch's chess VR example, for instance - but only by it being
 logically incompatible with our existence as an observer.
 
 The question remains - suppose someone finds a physical phenomenon
 that contradicts the laws of physics derived from COMP. Does that
 falsify COMP, or does it imply we're in a virtual reality? How can you
 possibly distinguish those two situations?
 
 We can't.
 
 But this is similar to the fact that, for accepting that we can at
 least refute a theory, we still need to bet that we are not dreaming
 or that we are not in some emulation (made normal by being physical,
 that is built on the top of the sum on all computations).
 
 So, to answer the question more precisely, we will need to describe
 more precisely how much the physical phenomenon depart from the comp
 physics, like for the case with the natural physics. If the
 emulation is gross (too big pixel) we can see quickly we are
 dreaming or emulated, or branched to a virtual (programmed)
 environment/video-game.
 
 By default, when I say that comp is falsifiable, I suppose we are at
 the base level, and that QL and QM does describe the base levels.
 
 Comp (and QL) saves us (normally) from the diabolical white rabbits,
 but it does not save us from the human and indeed universal Löbian
 consistent deception.
 
 Bruno
 
 

I would say that COMP predicts we must be at the base level, and not
in a virtual reality, by virtue of the cardinality difference between
the set of all environments and the set of virtual ones. Therefore if
we do discover ourselves in such a virtual variety (eg Deutsch's chess
world) violating the laws of physics derived from COMP, then COMP must
be falsified.

Whilst COMP could be rescued by stating that it's just bad luck that we are
in one of these virtual worlds, there is no epistemological benefit in
doing so, because then COMP would not provide a description of our
phenomenological physics.

Just the same is if we ever found the Anthropic Principle to be
violated (and didn't immediately wake up and realise it to be a
dream), then we'd have to declare the AP falsified, because it no
longer has any epistemological value. We could alternatively conclude
that we're living in a Sim (DD's argument), but that would be simply a
statement of faith, making the AP unfalsifiable.

-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

 Latest project: The Amoeba's Secret 
 (http://www.hpcoders.com.au/AmoebasSecret.html)


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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-01 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
On Mon, Jun 2, 2014 at 1:50 AM, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au
wrote:



 I would say that COMP predicts we must be at the base level, and not
 in a virtual reality, by virtue of the cardinality difference between
 the set of all environments and the set of virtual ones.


What kind of set theory are you referring to here, when you specify all
environments and virtual ones? PGC


 Therefore if
 we do discover ourselves in such a virtual variety (eg Deutsch's chess
 world) violating the laws of physics derived from COMP, then COMP must
 be falsified.

 Whilst COMP could be rescued by stating that it's just bad luck that we are
 in one of these virtual worlds, there is no epistemological benefit in
 doing so, because then COMP would not provide a description of our
 phenomenological physics.

 Just the same is if we ever found the Anthropic Principle to be
 violated (and didn't immediately wake up and realise it to be a
 dream), then we'd have to declare the AP falsified, because it no
 longer has any epistemological value. We could alternatively conclude
 that we're living in a Sim (DD's argument), but that would be simply a
 statement of faith, making the AP unfalsifiable.

 --


 
 Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
 Principal, High Performance Coders
 Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
 University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

  Latest project: The Amoeba's Secret
  (http://www.hpcoders.com.au/AmoebasSecret.html)

 

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-06-01 Thread Russell Standish
On Mon, Jun 02, 2014 at 02:19:49AM +0200, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:
 On Mon, Jun 2, 2014 at 1:50 AM, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au
 wrote:
 
 
 
  I would say that COMP predicts we must be at the base level, and not
  in a virtual reality, by virtue of the cardinality difference between
  the set of all environments and the set of virtual ones.
 
 
 What kind of set theory are you referring to here, when you specify all
 environments and virtual ones? PGC
 

The usual one. The axiom of choice is not relevant here.


-- 


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Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

 Latest project: The Amoeba's Secret 
 (http://www.hpcoders.com.au/AmoebasSecret.html)


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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-05-31 Thread Russell Standish
On Fri, May 30, 2014 at 06:17:40PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 On 30 May 2014, at 02:53, Russell Standish wrote:
 
 On Wed, May 28, 2014 at 08:15:30PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 On 28 May 2014, at 03:24, LizR wrote:
 
 As far as I can see Bruno has a logical argument which happens to
 segue into a theory of physics. To disprove it, one merely needs
 to show that either his premises or his argument is wrong...
 
 
 Not exactly. The premise can be wrong, true, or indeterminate,
 without making the reasoning invalid. In fact, in the classical
 frame, a refutation of the premise would make the reasoning
 vacuously valid. Now that reasoning shows a means to refute the
 premise: basically: compare the physics found in the head of all
 universal Turing machine, and if it is contradicted by nature then
 the premise are false (or I, or we, are dreaming or live in a
 second-order reality)
 
 
 This last qualification is disturbing, as it would appear remove the
 possibility of falsification of COMP.
 
 I see you did not follow my thread with Quentin (or Brett Hall a
 much longer time ago). No problem. It is a delicate point.
 
 But it is also a relatively trivial (conceptually simple) point,
 embedded already in the Dream argument and that lucidity is a
 relative notion, even a graded one, like in Inception (a less nice
 movie by the author of the prestige (in my opinion and taste)).
 
 
 
 
 But before we go that far, why would COMP predict a different sort of
 physics for dreaming or second order reality?
 
 If only to account of dreams and video games. If comp is true, and
 the level enough high, I can emulate you in a computer together with
 an environment disobeying the physical laws.
 
 Suppose now that you want to test if you are in my video game,
 (second order dream) or in the physical reality (first order
 dream, the one emerging from *all* computations going through your
 state. Well, if the laws of physics that you can observe in the
 virtual environment differs from the one you extract from comp, you
 can know that you belong to a second order simulation (like a dream
 of video game), or you can also abandon comp. Those do not obey
 physics, but you keep existing (with the normal probability) in
 them, because they inherit the normality of first order physical
 reality which comes from *all* worlds/computations (which obey
 S4Grz1, or Z1*, or X1*).
 
 If not, we would not been able to play with a video game, the
 consistency selection would eliminate *all* white rabbits, even the
 one in Alice in Wonderland!
 
 So if QL differs from comp-QL, which is testable, we know that we
 are in a Bostrom-like simulation or that comp is false, or that the
 classical theory/definition of knowledge is false (which I am not
 sure makes sense).
 
 But this is true for all physical tests. We can only say that the
 LARC has confirmed the existence of the boson, or we are dreaming or
 in an emulation of the standard theory in some unknown real
 theory. So it is not a so big weakening of the falsification of
 comp, as it is implicit in all experimental science. It is related
 to the fact that with respect to the normal computations, the
 universal beings emerging from that can still lie to each others.
 
 The way QL differs from the comp-QL(s) might provide some
 information on how to proceed to decide if comp is false, or if we
 belong to a virtual machine made by our descendents, à-la Boström.
 
 Bruno
 
 

I gather you think it might be possible to distinguish between being
in a virtual reality, and being in the real reality.

David Deutsch introduced the concept of a CantGoTu environment. It is
basically an environment formed by diagonalising on the list of all
possible virtual realities. Consider the discussion between pages 127
and 130 of Fabric of Reality. He goes on to prove that it is not
possible to prove within a finite amount of time that one is in a
CantGoTu environment.

Yet it seems to me that CantGoTu environments and other non-virtual
reality environments have measure one in the space of environments
hosted by the UD, as UD* has the cardinality of the continuum, whereas
virtual reality environments are strictly aleph_0. But we can never
know that we're in one.

DD does later in the chapter speculate about VR environments that one
can know one is trapped in a VR, such as being inside a game of
chess. This is because the rules of physics of such an environment
are inconsistent, especially with the presence of an observer. But
provided the rules of physics are consistent with yourself as an
observer, then there doesn't appear to be any way of knowing whether
you're in a simulation of not, as per the CantGoTu argument above.

The rules of physics (whether under COMP or not) must be those that
allow the presence of observers, and of observation. All else _has_ to
be geography.

The only way we can prove we're actually in a simulation is if the
Anthropic Principle were to suddenly fail.

Cheers

-- 


Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-05-31 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 31 May 2014, at 08:45, Russell Standish wrote:


On Fri, May 30, 2014 at 06:17:40PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 30 May 2014, at 02:53, Russell Standish wrote:


On Wed, May 28, 2014 at 08:15:30PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 28 May 2014, at 03:24, LizR wrote:


As far as I can see Bruno has a logical argument which happens to
segue into a theory of physics. To disprove it, one merely needs
to show that either his premises or his argument is wrong...



Not exactly. The premise can be wrong, true, or indeterminate,
without making the reasoning invalid. In fact, in the classical
frame, a refutation of the premise would make the reasoning
vacuously valid. Now that reasoning shows a means to refute the
premise: basically: compare the physics found in the head of all
universal Turing machine, and if it is contradicted by nature then
the premise are false (or I, or we, are dreaming or live in a
second-order reality)



This last qualification is disturbing, as it would appear remove the
possibility of falsification of COMP.


I see you did not follow my thread with Quentin (or Brett Hall a
much longer time ago). No problem. It is a delicate point.

But it is also a relatively trivial (conceptually simple) point,
embedded already in the Dream argument and that lucidity is a
relative notion, even a graded one, like in Inception (a less nice
movie by the author of the prestige (in my opinion and taste)).





But before we go that far, why would COMP predict a different sort  
of

physics for dreaming or second order reality?


If only to account of dreams and video games. If comp is true, and
the level enough high, I can emulate you in a computer together with
an environment disobeying the physical laws.

Suppose now that you want to test if you are in my video game,
(second order dream) or in the physical reality (first order
dream, the one emerging from *all* computations going through your
state. Well, if the laws of physics that you can observe in the
virtual environment differs from the one you extract from comp, you
can know that you belong to a second order simulation (like a dream
of video game), or you can also abandon comp. Those do not obey
physics, but you keep existing (with the normal probability) in
them, because they inherit the normality of first order physical
reality which comes from *all* worlds/computations (which obey
S4Grz1, or Z1*, or X1*).

If not, we would not been able to play with a video game, the
consistency selection would eliminate *all* white rabbits, even the
one in Alice in Wonderland!

So if QL differs from comp-QL, which is testable, we know that we
are in a Bostrom-like simulation or that comp is false, or that the
classical theory/definition of knowledge is false (which I am not
sure makes sense).

But this is true for all physical tests. We can only say that the
LARC has confirmed the existence of the boson, or we are dreaming or
in an emulation of the standard theory in some unknown real
theory. So it is not a so big weakening of the falsification of
comp, as it is implicit in all experimental science. It is related
to the fact that with respect to the normal computations, the
universal beings emerging from that can still lie to each others.

The way QL differs from the comp-QL(s) might provide some
information on how to proceed to decide if comp is false, or if we
belong to a virtual machine made by our descendents, à-la Boström.

Bruno




I gather you think it might be possible to distinguish between being
in a virtual reality, and being in the real reality.

David Deutsch introduced the concept of a CantGoTu environment.


It is unclear if this contains only total functions or partial one.




It is
basically an environment formed by diagonalising on the list of all
possible virtual realities.


With that ambiguity.




Consider the discussion between pages 127
and 130 of Fabric of Reality. He goes on to prove that it is not
possible to prove within a finite amount of time that one is in a
CantGoTu environment.


If the CantGoTu contains all partial function, then UDA proves in a  
finite amount of time that we are in there.
If the cant'Goto contains only total function, then we can't be there  
with comp.
We can be in a special programs, but that is indeed impossible to  
prove, even with an infinite amount of time.






Yet it seems to me that CantGoTu environments and other non-virtual
reality environments have measure one in the space of environments
hosted by the UD, as UD* has the cardinality of the continuum, whereas
virtual reality environments are strictly aleph_0. But we can never
know that we're in one.


What is a non-virtual reality environments in the UD*?
UD* is not a set, so cardinality notion does not apply. But with the  
rule Y = II, we can associate a set of computations which has the  
cardinality of the continuum to UD*, but this can make the virtual  
reality environments into a continuum (and I think it should, to get  
rid of the 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-05-31 Thread Russell Standish
On Sat, May 31, 2014 at 10:07:00AM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 On 31 May 2014, at 08:45, Russell Standish wrote:
 I gather you think it might be possible to distinguish between being
 in a virtual reality, and being in the real reality.
 
 David Deutsch introduced the concept of a CantGoTu environment.
 
 It is unclear if this contains only total functions or partial one.

Neither. A CantGoTu environment by construction is not the result of
any program.

...

 
 
 Yet it seems to me that CantGoTu environments and other non-virtual
 reality environments have measure one in the space of environments
 hosted by the UD, as UD* has the cardinality of the continuum, whereas
 virtual reality environments are strictly aleph_0. But we can never
 know that we're in one.
 
 What is a non-virtual reality environments in the UD*?
 UD* is not a set, so cardinality notion does not apply. But with the
 rule Y = II, we can associate a set of computations which has the
 cardinality of the continuum to UD*, but this can make the virtual
 reality environments into a continuum (and I think it should, to get
 rid of the white rabbits).
 

I think the way virtual reality is defined in FoR, there can only ever
be a countable number of them. It is the environment that is
simulated, not the observer.

By contrast with the UD, it is the observer that is simulated,
leading to a continuum of environments by FPI.

 
 
 
 DD does later in the chapter speculate about VR environments that one
 can know one is trapped in a VR, such as being inside a game of
 chess. This is because the rules of physics of such an environment
 are inconsistent, especially with the presence of an observer. But
 provided the rules of physics are consistent with yourself as an
 observer, then there doesn't appear to be any way of knowing whether
 you're in a simulation of not, as per the CantGoTu argument above.
 
 But DD ignores the FPI.
 

Sure - but I'm not sure of the relevance...

 
 
 
 The rules of physics (whether under COMP or not) must be those that
 allow the presence of observers, and of observation. All else _has_ to
 be geography.
 
 The only way we can prove we're actually in a simulation is if the
 Anthropic Principle were to suddenly fail.
 
 You need to take into account the comp RSSA, based on the FPI. All
 computations emulating an observer, even if contradicting the
 physical laws, have to be taken into account, and that is why
 physics is a sum on all computation (going through your states), 

OK - but how does the following follow?

 so
 you can (in principle) find out if you are in a simulation (assuming
 comp all along).
 

-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

 Latest project: The Amoeba's Secret 
 (http://www.hpcoders.com.au/AmoebasSecret.html)


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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-05-31 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
On Fri, May 30, 2014 at 2:53 AM, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au
wrote:

 On Wed, May 28, 2014 at 08:15:30PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
  On 28 May 2014, at 03:24, LizR wrote:
 
  As far as I can see Bruno has a logical argument which happens to
  segue into a theory of physics. To disprove it, one merely needs
  to show that either his premises or his argument is wrong...
 
 
  Not exactly. The premise can be wrong, true, or indeterminate,
  without making the reasoning invalid. In fact, in the classical
  frame, a refutation of the premise would make the reasoning
  vacuously valid. Now that reasoning shows a means to refute the
  premise: basically: compare the physics found in the head of all
  universal Turing machine, and if it is contradicted by nature then
  the premise are false (or I, or we, are dreaming or live in a
  second-order reality)
 

 This last qualification is disturbing, as it would appear remove the
 possibility of falsification of COMP.


Is this not, as you have stated before on this list if I remember
correctly, a standard consequence of Turing Machines (I'm referring to
dreaming, second-order reality)?

I'm still not convinced by the falsification attacks of late; they seem
to me just reductionism in disguise of pursuit of clarity. We are doubting
now falsification as laid out by our advances in computability in the last
century? I don't see the alternatives many posts of late here apparently
are assuming, while most seem to ignore the elephant follow-up do you take
Quantum Logic then to be empirical; how do you manage then?  As if this
standard were leveraged against other TOEs seriously on all levels (which
ones satisfy such things completely btw?), and therefore comp should abide
concerning personal ultimate answers, falsification, prediction, and all
this stuff that appeals to my insecurity and bad sci-fi writing.

Smells like prohibition/authoritative argument. Like the academic prancing
around of labels, qualification histories, the Salvia post appearing
designed to get people to lower their defenses, so they can be attacked
for speaking not literally/correctly, apologies for not biting btw; and the
related posturing of meta-arguments and psychology across different threads
lately, ending in insults and useless I know what you're thinking via
label- stuff. This I consider unscientific and ties in with the
theological discussion in the other thread: posing as if these things were
decided, set, and going on personal crusade for fancy projections instead
of sticking to the relevant points in discussion. That's what distinguishes
crusading from science and makes it problematic. PGC



 But before we go that far, why would COMP predict a different sort of
 physics for dreaming or second order reality?

 Cheers

 --


 
 Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
 Principal, High Performance Coders
 Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
 University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

  Latest project: The Amoeba's Secret
  (http://www.hpcoders.com.au/AmoebasSecret.html)

 

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-05-31 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 31 May 2014, at 13:21, Russell Standish wrote:


On Sat, May 31, 2014 at 10:07:00AM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 31 May 2014, at 08:45, Russell Standish wrote:

I gather you think it might be possible to distinguish between being
in a virtual reality, and being in the real reality.

David Deutsch introduced the concept of a CantGoTu environment.


It is unclear if this contains only total functions or partial one.


Neither. A CantGoTu environment by construction is not the result of
any program.


I reread DD on this, but it is unclear. But a part of this is made non  
relevant by the FPI. As the DU dovetails on the oracles (the real)  
too. We can come back on this. On the partial functions, we have the  
closure for the diagonalization. The way the CantgTu are defined, it  
is unclear what complexity it can have in the arithmetical hierarchy.  
I can stretch in different way to get different correct sense, but it  
is unclear which one is meant.






...





Yet it seems to me that CantGoTu environments and other non-virtual
reality environments have measure one in the space of environments
hosted by the UD, as UD* has the cardinality of the continuum,  
whereas

virtual reality environments are strictly aleph_0. But we can never
know that we're in one.


What is a non-virtual reality environments in the UD*?
UD* is not a set, so cardinality notion does not apply. But with the
rule Y = II, we can associate a set of computations which has the
cardinality of the continuum to UD*, but this can make the virtual
reality environments into a continuum (and I think it should, to get
rid of the white rabbits).



I think the way virtual reality is defined in FoR, there can only ever
be a countable number of them. It is the environment that is
simulated, not the observer.


In his glossary, he propose a more general definition, but in some  
paragraph it looks it is like you say.


He is not at ease with logic/computability theory.





By contrast with the UD, it is the observer that is simulated,
leading to a continuum of environments by FPI.


The UD emulates all the 3p observers, in all environment (computable  
or not a priori). This leads to a continuum of environment by FPI  
(being enough naive, and open for equivalence classes of computations  
and states, notably structured by the use of the Theaetetus definitions.














DD does later in the chapter speculate about VR environments that  
one

can know one is trapped in a VR, such as being inside a game of
chess. This is because the rules of physics of such an environment
are inconsistent, especially with the presence of an observer. But
provided the rules of physics are consistent with yourself as an
observer, then there doesn't appear to be any way of knowing whether
you're in a simulation of not, as per the CantGoTu argument above.


But DD ignores the FPI.



Sure - but I'm not sure of the relevance...


An environment is defined by the probability on the computations, or  
the sigma_1 sentences, as believe, ([]p), known ([]p  p), observe  
([]p  p), felt ([]p  p  p).


Physics is given by the laws governing our consistent extensions,  
which is describable in terms of elementary machine's beliefs (like  
the belief in Robinson arithmetic and the induction axioms).










The rules of physics (whether under COMP or not) must be those that
allow the presence of observers, and of observation. All else  
_has_ to

be geography.

The only way we can prove we're actually in a simulation is if the
Anthropic Principle were to suddenly fail.


You need to take into account the comp RSSA, based on the FPI. All
computations emulating an observer, even if contradicting the
physical laws, have to be taken into account, and that is why
physics is a sum on all computation (going through your states),


OK - but how does the following follow?


so
you can (in principle) find out if you are in a simulation (assuming
comp all along).



It is like in the lucid dream. You believe that the physical laws  
prevent you to fly by will, then you observe yourself flying at will,  
and conclude that you are dreaming (i.e. you are in a second order  
simulation, sustained by the physical reality).



But now, imagine I want fake you more subtly, by making an emulation  
of the known physics. Well in that sense we will have the []p  p  
together and you are not failed. Indeed, from the 3-1 view, you are in  
all computations, and no more in that second order than in the first  
order (relatively to the UD*).


Now, I have to fail you at some level in that simulation, because I  
can't emulate all the computations done in UD* to get all the decimal  
correct in the FPI on the whole Sigma_1 truth, so, in principle, if  
you have all the time, and if I don't make change to the system  
(except adding the needed memories for your exploration, you (from my  
1-view of your 3p being in the computer) will at some point get the  
decimal wrong from the 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-05-31 Thread meekerdb

On 5/30/2014 11:45 PM, Russell Standish wrote:

On Fri, May 30, 2014 at 06:17:40PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 30 May 2014, at 02:53, Russell Standish wrote:


On Wed, May 28, 2014 at 08:15:30PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 28 May 2014, at 03:24, LizR wrote:


As far as I can see Bruno has a logical argument which happens to
segue into a theory of physics. To disprove it, one merely needs
to show that either his premises or his argument is wrong...


Not exactly. The premise can be wrong, true, or indeterminate,
without making the reasoning invalid. In fact, in the classical
frame, a refutation of the premise would make the reasoning
vacuously valid. Now that reasoning shows a means to refute the
premise: basically: compare the physics found in the head of all
universal Turing machine, and if it is contradicted by nature then
the premise are false (or I, or we, are dreaming or live in a
second-order reality)


This last qualification is disturbing, as it would appear remove the
possibility of falsification of COMP.

I see you did not follow my thread with Quentin (or Brett Hall a
much longer time ago). No problem. It is a delicate point.

But it is also a relatively trivial (conceptually simple) point,
embedded already in the Dream argument and that lucidity is a
relative notion, even a graded one, like in Inception (a less nice
movie by the author of the prestige (in my opinion and taste)).




But before we go that far, why would COMP predict a different sort of
physics for dreaming or second order reality?

If only to account of dreams and video games. If comp is true, and
the level enough high, I can emulate you in a computer together with
an environment disobeying the physical laws.

Suppose now that you want to test if you are in my video game,
(second order dream) or in the physical reality (first order
dream, the one emerging from *all* computations going through your
state. Well, if the laws of physics that you can observe in the
virtual environment differs from the one you extract from comp, you
can know that you belong to a second order simulation (like a dream
of video game), or you can also abandon comp. Those do not obey
physics, but you keep existing (with the normal probability) in
them, because they inherit the normality of first order physical
reality which comes from *all* worlds/computations (which obey
S4Grz1, or Z1*, or X1*).

If not, we would not been able to play with a video game, the
consistency selection would eliminate *all* white rabbits, even the
one in Alice in Wonderland!

So if QL differs from comp-QL, which is testable, we know that we
are in a Bostrom-like simulation or that comp is false, or that the
classical theory/definition of knowledge is false (which I am not
sure makes sense).

But this is true for all physical tests. We can only say that the
LARC has confirmed the existence of the boson, or we are dreaming or
in an emulation of the standard theory in some unknown real
theory. So it is not a so big weakening of the falsification of
comp, as it is implicit in all experimental science. It is related
to the fact that with respect to the normal computations, the
universal beings emerging from that can still lie to each others.

The way QL differs from the comp-QL(s) might provide some
information on how to proceed to decide if comp is false, or if we
belong to a virtual machine made by our descendents, à-la Boström.

Bruno



I gather you think it might be possible to distinguish between being
in a virtual reality, and being in the real reality.

David Deutsch introduced the concept of a CantGoTu environment. It is
basically an environment formed by diagonalising on the list of all
possible virtual realities. Consider the discussion between pages 127
and 130 of Fabric of Reality. He goes on to prove that it is not
possible to prove within a finite amount of time that one is in a
CantGoTu environment.

Yet it seems to me that CantGoTu environments and other non-virtual
reality environments have measure one in the space of environments
hosted by the UD, as UD* has the cardinality of the continuum, whereas
virtual reality environments are strictly aleph_0.


But aren't we as physically instantiated beings, also of the cardinality of 
the continuum?

Brent


But we can never
know that we're in one.

DD does later in the chapter speculate about VR environments that one
can know one is trapped in a VR, such as being inside a game of
chess. This is because the rules of physics of such an environment
are inconsistent, especially with the presence of an observer. But
provided the rules of physics are consistent with yourself as an
observer, then there doesn't appear to be any way of knowing whether
you're in a simulation of not, as per the CantGoTu argument above.

The rules of physics (whether under COMP or not) must be those that
allow the presence of observers, and of observation. All else _has_ to
be geography.

The only way we can prove we're actually in a 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-05-31 Thread Russell Standish
On Sat, May 31, 2014 at 01:40:58PM -0700, meekerdb wrote:
 On 5/30/2014 11:45 PM, Russell Standish wrote:
 
 Yet it seems to me that CantGoTu environments and other non-virtual
 reality environments have measure one in the space of environments
 hosted by the UD, as UD* has the cardinality of the continuum, whereas
 virtual reality environments are strictly aleph_0.
 
 But aren't we as physically instantiated beings, also of the cardinality of 
 the continuum?
 

Yes, we are, but not the virtual reality environments, which must be
countable by virtue of there only being a countable number of programs.

With COMP, and via the UDA, the number of real environments
experienced must be the cardinality of the continuum, and would
include all the CantGoTu environments.

We could therefore conclude (contra Bostrom), that we are most likely
not in a simulation, but that we can never prove it by any finite
observation (Deutsch's CantGoTu argument).

I agree that sometimes we can know we're in a virtual reality -
Deutsch's chess VR example, for instance - but only by it being
logically incompatible with our existence as an observer.

The question remains - suppose someone finds a physical phenomenon
that contradicts the laws of physics derived from COMP. Does that
falsify COMP, or does it imply we're in a virtual reality? How can you
possibly distinguish those two situations?

Cheers

-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

 Latest project: The Amoeba's Secret 
 (http://www.hpcoders.com.au/AmoebasSecret.html)


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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-05-30 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 30 May 2014, at 02:53, Russell Standish wrote:


On Wed, May 28, 2014 at 08:15:30PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 28 May 2014, at 03:24, LizR wrote:


As far as I can see Bruno has a logical argument which happens to
segue into a theory of physics. To disprove it, one merely needs
to show that either his premises or his argument is wrong...



Not exactly. The premise can be wrong, true, or indeterminate,
without making the reasoning invalid. In fact, in the classical
frame, a refutation of the premise would make the reasoning
vacuously valid. Now that reasoning shows a means to refute the
premise: basically: compare the physics found in the head of all
universal Turing machine, and if it is contradicted by nature then
the premise are false (or I, or we, are dreaming or live in a
second-order reality)



This last qualification is disturbing, as it would appear remove the
possibility of falsification of COMP.


I see you did not follow my thread with Quentin (or Brett Hall a much  
longer time ago). No problem. It is a delicate point.


But it is also a relatively trivial (conceptually simple) point,  
embedded already in the Dream argument and that lucidity is a  
relative notion, even a graded one, like in Inception (a less nice  
movie by the author of the prestige (in my opinion and taste)).






But before we go that far, why would COMP predict a different sort of
physics for dreaming or second order reality?


If only to account of dreams and video games. If comp is true, and the  
level enough high, I can emulate you in a computer together with an  
environment disobeying the physical laws.


Suppose now that you want to test if you are in my video game, (second  
order dream) or in the physical reality (first order dream, the one  
emerging from *all* computations going through your state. Well, if  
the laws of physics that you can observe in the virtual environment  
differs from the one you extract from comp, you can know that you  
belong to a second order simulation (like a dream of video game), or  
you can also abandon comp. Those do not obey physics, but you keep  
existing (with the normal probability) in them, because they inherit  
the normality of first order physical reality which comes from *all*  
worlds/computations (which obey S4Grz1, or Z1*, or X1*).


If not, we would not been able to play with a video game, the  
consistency selection would eliminate *all* white rabbits, even the  
one in Alice in Wonderland!


So if QL differs from comp-QL, which is testable, we know that we are  
in a Bostrom-like simulation or that comp is false, or that the  
classical theory/definition of knowledge is false (which I am not sure  
makes sense).


But this is true for all physical tests. We can only say that the LARC  
has confirmed the existence of the boson, or we are dreaming or in an  
emulation of the standard theory in some unknown real theory. So it  
is not a so big weakening of the falsification of comp, as it is  
implicit in all experimental science. It is related to the fact that  
with respect to the normal computations, the universal beings emerging  
from that can still lie to each others.


The way QL differs from the comp-QL(s) might provide some information  
on how to proceed to decide if comp is false, or if we belong to a  
virtual machine made by our descendents, à-la Boström.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-05-30 Thread Alberto G. Corona
No.

2014-05-18 18:47 GMT+02:00, Telmo Menezes te...@telmomenezes.com:
 On Fri, May 16, 2014 at 9:12 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 16 May 2014, at 16:52, Telmo Menezes wrote:




 On Thu, May 15, 2014 at 8:05 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 15 May 2014, at 14:12, Telmo Menezes wrote:




 On Wed, May 14, 2014 at 8:31 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be
 wrote:


 On 14 May 2014, at 09:36, Telmo Menezes wrote:




 On Tue, May 13, 2014 at 10:29 AM, Bruno Marchal
 marc...@ulb.ac.bewrote:


 On 12 May 2014, at 16:12, Telmo Menezes wrote:




 On Sun, May 11, 2014 at 9:46 AM, Bruno Marchal
 marc...@ulb.ac.bewrote:


 On 10 May 2014, at 12:12, Telmo Menezes wrote:




 On Sat, May 10, 2014 at 8:30 AM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 10 May 2014 17:30, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com
 wrote:



 On Saturday, May 10, 2014, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

  I guess one could start from is physics computable? (As Max
 Tegmark discusses in his book, but I haven't yet read what his
 conclusions
 are, if any). If physics is computable and consciousness arises
 somehow in
 a materialist-type way from the operation of the brain, then
 consciousness will be computable by definition.


 Is that trivially obvious to you? The anti-comp crowd claim that
 even if brain behaviour is computable that does not mean that a
 computer
 could be conscious, since it may require the actual brain matter,
 and not
 just a simulation, to generate the consciousness.

 If physics is computable, and consciousness arises from physics
 with
 nothing extra (supernatural or whatever) then yes. Am I missing
 something
 obvious?


 Yeah, I always feel the same about this sort of argument. It seems so
 trivial to disprove:

 even if brain behaviour is computable that does not mean that a
 computer could be conscious, since it may require the actual brain
 matter,
 and not just a simulation, to generate the consciousness.

 1. If brain behaviour is computable and (let's say comp)
 2. brain generates consciousness but
 3. it requires actual brain matter to do so then
 4. brain behaviour is not computable (~comp)

 so comp = ~comp

 I also wonder if I'm missing something, since I hear this one a lot.


 I guess other might have answer this, but as it is important I am not
 afraid of repetition. O lost again the connection yesterday so apology
 for
 participating to the discussion with a shift.

 What you miss is, I think, Peter Jones (1Z) argument. He is OK with
 comp (say yes to the doctor), but only because he attributes
 consciousness to a computer implemented in a primitive physical
 reality.
 Physics might be computable, in the sense that we can predict the
 physical
 behavior, but IF primitive matter is necessary for consciousness,
 then,
 although a virtual emulation would do (with different matter), an
 abstract
 or arithmetical computation would not do, by the lack of the
 primitive
 matter.
 I agree that such an argument is weak, as it does not explain what is
 the role of primitive matter, except as a criteria of existence,
 which
 seems here to have a magical role. (Then the movie-graph argument, or
 Maudlin's argument, give an idea that how much a primitive matter use
 here
 becomes magical: almost like saying that a computation is conscious
 if
 there is primitive matter and if God is willing to make it so. We can
 always reify some mystery to block an application of a theory to
 reality.


 Ok, I tried to think about this for a while. It appears that it also
 connects with the issue can there be computation without a
 substrate?.

 Please see what you think of my thoughts, sorry if they are a bit
 rough
 and confusing:

 In a purely mathematical sense, it seems to me that computation is
 simply a mapping from one value to another.



 Well, it is a special sort of mapping. There are 2^aleph_0 mapping in
 general, but only aleph_0 computational mapping. So it is a bit more
 than a
 mapping.





 Any computer program p can be represented as a value under some
 syntax.


 Any program + some data,


 Why + some data? Any additional data can be made part of the program,
 no?


 Sure. But it helps to think in both ways.


 Yes, especially if one actually has to write computer programs :)
 I am not trying to be pedantic, I am just trying to remove the
 incidental
 to examine the matter is fundamental claim. I'm aware that you're kind
 of
 playing devil's advocate here, which is part of the serious scientific
 stance, of course.


 And then what is matter? What obeys this or that equations? Known one
 are
 Turing emulable, and it is like saying it is this universal numbers and
 no
 other one, where comp asks OK, shows it wins the computation of the
 infinitely many computations of basically all universal machine to get
 your
 here and now computational states.

 It is a problem for comp. It has to justify the laws of stable
 observation from the invariance for the universal machine.

 With UDA, at 

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-05-29 Thread Russell Standish
On Wed, May 28, 2014 at 08:15:30PM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote:
 
 On 28 May 2014, at 03:24, LizR wrote:
 
 As far as I can see Bruno has a logical argument which happens to
 segue into a theory of physics. To disprove it, one merely needs
 to show that either his premises or his argument is wrong...
 
 
 Not exactly. The premise can be wrong, true, or indeterminate,
 without making the reasoning invalid. In fact, in the classical
 frame, a refutation of the premise would make the reasoning
 vacuously valid. Now that reasoning shows a means to refute the
 premise: basically: compare the physics found in the head of all
 universal Turing machine, and if it is contradicted by nature then
 the premise are false (or I, or we, are dreaming or live in a
 second-order reality)
 

This last qualification is disturbing, as it would appear remove the
possibility of falsification of COMP.

But before we go that far, why would COMP predict a different sort of
physics for dreaming or second order reality?

Cheers

-- 


Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
Principal, High Performance Coders
Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au

 Latest project: The Amoeba's Secret 
 (http://www.hpcoders.com.au/AmoebasSecret.html)


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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-05-28 Thread LizR
On 28 May 2014 16:20, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 5/27/2014 7:36 PM, LizR wrote:

  On 28 May 2014 14:12, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:

  On Wednesday, May 28, 2014 2:24:39 AM UTC+1, Liz R wrote:

 As far as I can see Bruno has a logical argument which happens to segue
 into a theory of physics. To disprove it, one merely needs to show that
 either his premises or his argument is wrong...


  I don't agree with you about that, but for point of order, I haven't
 gone down that road anyway. He's wrong about falsification. I did try to
 drop it. I shall probably try again.


 Bruno may well be wrong about falsification. I haven't tried to follow the
 arguments you and he have had on the subject, or not very much. I know
 Bruno has said he does have a theory of everything, which is subject to
 falsification... which it seems to me is an awful lot to derive from the
 idea that consciousness arises from computation

  I think the more crucial step is arguing that computation (and therefore
 consciousness) can exist without physics.  That physical instantiation is
 dispensable.


Yes indeed. I would say that for comp to be meaningful, it's necessary to
show that information is a real (and fundamental) thing, rather than
something that only has relevance / meaning to us - I suppose deriving the
entropy of a black hole, the Beckenstein bound and the holographic
principle all hint that this is the case. (Maybe QM unitarity and the black
hole information paradox too?)

I'm not sure how secure a footing any of these items put the reification
of information it on, though.

If that *is* established, then I guess comp becomes one potential route to
derive it from bit.

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-05-28 Thread meekerdb

On 5/28/2014 12:35 AM, LizR wrote:

On 28 May 2014 16:20, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 5/27/2014 7:36 PM, LizR wrote:

On 28 May 2014 14:12, ghib...@gmail.com mailto:ghib...@gmail.com wrote:

On Wednesday, May 28, 2014 2:24:39 AM UTC+1, Liz R wrote:

As far as I can see Bruno has a logical argument which happens to 
segue
into a theory of physics. To disprove it, one merely needs to show 
that
either his premises or his argument is wrong...


I don't agree with you about that, but for point of order, I haven't 
gone down
that road anyway. He's wrong about falsification. I did try to drop it. 
I shall
probably try again.

Bruno may well be wrong about falsification. I haven't tried to follow the
arguments you and he have had on the subject, or not very much. I know 
Bruno has
said he does have a theory of everything, which is subject to 
falsification...
which it seems to me is an awful lot to derive from the idea that 
consciousness
arises from computation

I think the more crucial step is arguing that computation (and therefore
consciousness) can exist without physics.  That physical instantiation is 
dispensable.


Yes indeed. I would say that for comp to be meaningful, it's necessary to show that 
information is a real (and fundamental) thing, rather than something that only has 
relevance / meaning to us - I suppose deriving the entropy of a black hole, the 
Beckenstein bound and the holographic principle all hint that this is the case. (Maybe 
QM unitarity and the black hole information paradox too?)


I'm not sure how secure a footing any of these items put the reification of 
information it on, though.


As Bruno has noted, we live on border between order and chaos - neither maximum nor 
minimum information/entropy but something like complexity.  Here's recent survey of ways 
to quantify it by Scott Aaronso, Sean Carroll and Lauren Ouellette. 
http://www.scottaaronson.com/blog/?p=1818


Brent



If that /is/ established, then I guess comp becomes one potential route to derive it 
from bit.


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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-05-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 May 2014, at 02:59, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:




On Wednesday, May 28, 2014 1:13:38 AM UTC+1, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:

On Monday, May 26, 2014 8:19:01 AM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 25 May 2014, at 19:02, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


On Friday, May 23, 2014 6:46:47 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 23 May 2014, at 15:52, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


On Thursday, May 22, 2014 8:12:59 AM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 21 May 2014, at 22:02, spudboy100 via Everything List wrote:



 -Original Message-
 From: LizR liz...@gmail.com
 To: everything-list everyth...@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Sun, May 18, 2014 9:26 pm
 Subject: Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

 On 19 May 2014 05:12, spudboy100 via Everything List  
lt;everyt...@googlegroups.com

 gt; wrote:
  So you do not have a testable, falsifiable, theory Bruno. Not in
 the scientific sense.


Could you tell me why? I have answered this to hibbsa since. What is
wrong with the equation which provides the propositional physics (its
logic of the observable) and its actual testing?

Because you don't have one.


But this is factually false. I do provide the complete propositional  
physics extracted from the classical computationalist thesis.


So all physical experience which confirms QL, and refute Boolean  
logic, like Bell's equality, is actually testing computationalism.


And that can also be used to provide counter-example for people  
using the quantum facts to argue against mechanism.


The set of those testable comp-physical tautologies is decidable,  
and infinite. At the first order logical level, things are more  
complex.


If you agree that quantum logic is empirical, like most people in  
the field, you should understand that comp explains that the laws of  
the possible empirical are equal to the laws which govern the  
structure of the computations going through our states  
(computational states), and so that logic is determined by the  
mental ability of the universal machine. Mathematically, we can  
limit ourselves to machine having simple (true) beliefs, like 0+x =  
x, etc.







Is anyone independent working on a prediction unique to your work?


Everyone trying to guess a law empirically, automatically test the  
physics of the machines.


Have you follow the thread with Quentin Anciaux? He made a critics  
that I do understand. There was a possibility that the comp physics  
collapse into boolean logic. In that case, either comp would have  
been refuted, or show trivial, and QM would have been refuted  
altogether, at least as a physical laws. The real physics would be  
boolean, and QM would only describe a subpart of it.


Well, but this did not happen. Comp (well classical comp) predicts  
or retrodicts that the observable
have to be non boolean and indeed obeys quantum or quantum-like  
logic. It predicts or retrodicts also a part of the hamiltonian  
under a symmetry conditions.


It misses important things like the linearity. It is easy to add it,  
but that would be treachery, and so there are tuns of problems to  
solve to progress.  You just need to understand the technics. It is  
had, and I have done the best I could. A student and friend of mine,  
the late Eric Vandebusche did solve the first mathematical problems.


And there is no ambition of comp to substitute itself with physics,  
which's use of the empiry accelerates the learning process.  My  
interest is in theology, in what is the destiny of souls and soul.







If they aren't, you don't have one. Doesn't mean you won't have one.  
But does mean you don't currently have a falsifiable theory.



They are, some explicitly. But if QM is correct, and if by luck  (or  
bad luck), the comp QL (one of them, as we got three of them) is  
exactly the quantum QL, then we will not need to test no more that.
And it will remain open if that is a correct explanation of the  
origin of the quantum principle. It might be just a coincidence that  
where UDA and machines told us where the logic of physics can be, we  
find quantum logic.


If, as it is probable, such comp QL differ crucially from quantum  
QL, well, we have to test to evaluate if it is fatal or not for comp.


Oh, but I forget to mention one more things. The comp QL has more  
axioms, and if it is not defeated by empiry, it does provide new  
theorems and new physical predictions, like the comp knower S4Grz is  
not just the classical knower S4, the comp QL (S4Grz1, Z1*, X1*)  
have axioms inherited from the Löb formula, from which we get  
information not available. In their first order arithmetical  
extensions, there is an infinities of such information.


Hi Bruno - you can definitely rest easy about the 'rumours'.I've  
no access to such things and don't seek them out. So far as I'm  
concerned a 'list' - even a public one like this - is sacrosanct and  
private. Like fight club geezer...that silly film: what happens on  
everything list, stays on everything list. My blood my pledge

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-05-28 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 28 May 2014, at 03:24, LizR wrote:

As far as I can see Bruno has a logical argument which happens to  
segue into a theory of physics. To disprove it, one merely needs to  
show that either his premises or his argument is wrong...



Not exactly. The premise can be wrong, true, or indeterminate, without  
making the reasoning invalid. In fact, in the classical frame, a  
refutation of the premise would make the reasoning vacuously valid.  
Now that reasoning shows a means to refute the premise: basically:  
compare the physics found in the head of all universal Turing machine,  
and if it is contradicted by nature then the premise are false (or I,  
or we, are dreaming or live in a second-order reality)






On 28 May 2014 14:12, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:
On Wednesday, May 28, 2014 2:24:39 AM UTC+1, Liz R wrote:
As far as I can see Bruno has a logical argument which happens to  
segue into a theory of physics. To disprove it, one merely needs to  
show that either his premises or his argument is wrong...


I don't agree with you about that, but for point of order, I haven't  
gone down that road anyway. He's wrong about falsification. I did  
try to drop it. I shall probably try again.


Bruno may well be wrong about falsification. I haven't tried to  
follow the arguments you and he have had on the subject, or not very  
much. I know Bruno has said he does have a theory of everything,  
which is subject to falsification... which it seems to me is an  
awful lot to derive from the idea that consciousness arises from  
computation ... but I guess some relatively simple idea can  
sometimes lead to a huge theory ... maybe when (or if) I get to  
grips with the MGA and the logic involved in deriving some features  
of physics from comp, I might have something more sensible to say on  
the matter,



It is always a relief to see that some people can stay rational on the  
fundamental matter.


It is not always easy to distinguish genuine non understanding from  
the nitpicking some philosophers seemed to be trained for.


Then ghibbsa seems to believe that computationalism is false, so he  
wants it not even refutable, as it gives sense that it might be true.  
I don't know.


John Clark is clearer in his refutation of step three, where  
everyone can see that no matter he get his conclusion, at some point  
he has to confuse the first person discourse with the third person  
discourse (when seeing this, Clark usually said don't come back on 1p  
and 3p again (mixed with some vulgar word).


I can understand the comp shock for people unaware of Everett, but  
in this list people are aware of Everett, or of QM without collapse.  
Without the Everett embedding of the subject in the physical reality  
is prolonged into a embedding of the subject in the arithmetical  
reality.



Bruno





http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-05-28 Thread LizR
On 28 May 2014 19:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 5/28/2014 12:35 AM, LizR wrote:

  On 28 May 2014 16:20, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 I think the more crucial step is arguing that computation (and therefore
 consciousness) can exist without physics.  That physical instantiation is
 dispensable.


  Yes indeed. I would say that for comp to be meaningful, it's necessary
 to show that information is a real (and fundamental) thing, rather than
 something that only has relevance / meaning to us - I suppose deriving the
 entropy of a black hole, the Beckenstein bound and the holographic
 principle all hint that this is the case. (Maybe QM unitarity and the black
 hole information paradox too?)

 I'm not sure how secure a footing any of these items put the reification
 of information it on, though.

 As Bruno has noted, we live on border between order and chaos - neither
 maximum nor minimum information/entropy but something like complexity.
 Here's recent survey of ways to quantify it by Scott Aaronso, Sean Carroll
 and Lauren Ouellette. http://www.scottaaronson.com/blog/?p=1818


As usual I don't have time to read that paper, at least not immediately.
However I see that defining complexity appear to require coarse graining.
If so, I would take this to mean that there isn't anything fundamental
being defined - or at least that we're in a grey area where nothing is
known to be fundamental. On the other hand, entropy used to require coarse
graining but as I mentioned above has now been defined for black holes, so
assuming BHs really exist (and the things we think are BHs aren't some
other type of massive object of an undefined nature) that would at least
suggest that fundamental physics involves entropy, and hence information.

Is there any complexity measure that doesn;t involve CG and hence isn't
just (imho) in the eye of the beholder ?

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-05-27 Thread ghibbsa

On Monday, May 26, 2014 12:45:50 AM UTC+1, Russell Standish wrote: 

 On Sun, May 25, 2014 at 10:02:37AM -0700, ghi...@gmail.com 
 javascript:wrote: 
  qualify for forgiving :O). I mean.I don't know about you but I agree 
  with Russel Standish's moderation philosophy on this list...or how it 
  looks.which speaking of killing people.you'd have to kill 
 someone 
  here to get a ban from Russell, so it looks. 

 For a start, the everything list is not my list - Wei Dai is the 
 official owner, but I haven't seen him posting in a while! 

 As for FOAR, you don't need to kill someone. Posting obvious spam is 
 enough. Several spammers have been banned from FOAR already. 

 But so long as it's vaguely on topic to the eclectic tastes of the 
 lists, and so long as people exercise a little bit of courtesy and 
 moderation in their language, I'm fine with what is posted. There's 
 always a handy delete button for that stuff I don't want to read :). 

 Cheers

 
You're still the boss Russell...ownership is for wimps 



 -- 

  

 Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile) 
 Principal, High Performance Coders 
 Visiting Pr...

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Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-05-27 Thread ghibbsa

On Monday, May 26, 2014 8:19:01 AM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote: 


  On 25 May 2014, at 19:02, ghi...@gmail.com javascript: wrote:

  
 On Friday, May 23, 2014 6:46:47 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote: 


  On 23 May 2014, at 15:52, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:

  
 On Thursday, May 22, 2014 8:12:59 AM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote: 


 On 21 May 2014, at 22:02, spudboy100 via Everything List wrote: 

  
  
  -Original Message- 
  From: LizR liz...@gmail.com 
  To: everything-list everyth...@googlegroups.com 
  Sent: Sun, May 18, 2014 9:26 pm 
  Subject: Re: Is Consciousness Computable? 
  
  On 19 May 2014 05:12, spudboy100 via Everything List 
 lt;everyt...@googlegroups.com 
  gt; wrote: 
   So you do not have a testable, falsifiable, theory Bruno. Not in   
  the scientific sense. 


 Could you tell me why? I have answered this to hibbsa since. What is   
 wrong with the equation which provides the propositional physics (its   
 logic of the observable) and its actual testing? 

  
 Because you don't have one. 



 But this is factually false. I do provide the complete propositional 
 physics extracted from the classical computationalist thesis.

 So all physical experience which confirms QL, and refute Boolean logic, 
 like Bell's equality, is actually testing computationalism.

 And that can also be used to provide counter-example for people using the 
 quantum facts to argue against mechanism.

 The set of those testable comp-physical tautologies is decidable, and 
 infinite. At the first order logical level, things are more complex.

 If you agree that quantum logic is empirical, like most people in the 
 field, you should understand that comp explains that the laws of the 
 possible empirical are equal to the laws which govern the structure of the 
 computations going through our states (computational states), and so that 
 logic is determined by the mental ability of the universal machine. 
 Mathematically, we can limit ourselves to machine having simple (true) 
 beliefs, like 0+x = x, etc. 






  Is anyone independent working on a prediction unique to your work? 



 Everyone trying to guess a law empirically, automatically test the 
 physics of the machines.

 Have you follow the thread with Quentin Anciaux? He made a critics that I 
 do understand. There was a possibility that the comp physics collapse into 
 boolean logic. In that case, either comp would have been refuted, or show 
 trivial, and QM would have been refuted altogether, at least as a physical 
 laws. The real physics would be boolean, and QM would only describe a 
 subpart of it. 

 Well, but this did not happen. Comp (well classical comp) predicts or 
 retrodicts that the observable
 have to be non boolean and indeed obeys quantum or quantum-like logic. It 
 predicts or retrodicts also a part of the hamiltonian under a symmetry 
 conditions.

 It misses important things like the linearity. It is easy to add it, but 
 that would be treachery, and so there are tuns of problems to solve to 
 progress.  You just need to understand the technics. It is had, and I have 
 done the best I could. A student and friend of mine, the late Eric 
 Vandebusche did solve the first mathematical problems.

 And there is no ambition of comp to substitute itself with physics, 
 which's use of the empiry accelerates the learning process.  My interest is 
 in theology, in what is the destiny of souls and soul.






  If they aren't, you don't have one. Doesn't mean you won't have one. 
 But does mean you don't currently have a falsifiable theory. 



 They are, some explicitly. But if QM is correct, and if by luck  (or bad 
 luck), the comp QL (one of them, as we got three of them) is exactly the 
 quantum QL, then we will not need to test no more that. 
 And it will remain open if that is a correct explanation of the origin of 
 the quantum principle. It might be just a coincidence that where UDA and 
 machines told us where the logic of physics can be, we find quantum logic. 

 If, as it is probable, such comp QL differ crucially from quantum QL, 
 well, we have to test to evaluate if it is fatal or not for comp.

 Oh, but I forget to mention one more things. The comp QL has more axioms, 
 and if it is not defeated by empiry, it does provide new theorems and new 
 physical predictions, like the comp knower S4Grz is not just the classical 
 knower S4, the comp QL (S4Grz1, Z1*, X1*) have axioms inherited from the 
 Löb formula, from which we get information not available. In their first 
 order arithmetical extensions, there is an infinities of such information.

  
 Hi Bruno - you can definitely rest easy about the 'rumours'.I've no 
 access to such things and don't seek them out. So far as I'm concerned a 
 'list' - even a public one like this - is sacrosanct and private. Like 
 fight club geezer...that silly film: what happens on everything list, stays 
 on everything list. My blood my pledge! SeriouslyI'm always aware 
 arguing with you

Re: Is Consciousness Computable?

2014-05-27 Thread ghibbsa


On Wednesday, May 28, 2014 1:13:38 AM UTC+1, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Monday, May 26, 2014 8:19:01 AM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote: 


  On 25 May 2014, at 19:02, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:

  
 On Friday, May 23, 2014 6:46:47 PM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote: 


  On 23 May 2014, at 15:52, ghi...@gmail.com wrote:

  
 On Thursday, May 22, 2014 8:12:59 AM UTC+1, Bruno Marchal wrote: 


 On 21 May 2014, at 22:02, spudboy100 via Everything List wrote: 

  
  
  -Original Message- 
  From: LizR liz...@gmail.com 
  To: everything-list everyth...@googlegroups.com 
  Sent: Sun, May 18, 2014 9:26 pm 
  Subject: Re: Is Consciousness Computable? 
  
  On 19 May 2014 05:12, spudboy100 via Everything List 
 lt;everyt...@googlegroups.com 
  gt; wrote: 
   So you do not have a testable, falsifiable, theory Bruno. Not in   
  the scientific sense. 


 Could you tell me why? I have answered this to hibbsa since. What is   
 wrong with the equation which provides the propositional physics (its   
 logic of the observable) and its actual testing? 

  
 Because you don't have one. 



 But this is factually false. I do provide the complete propositional 
 physics extracted from the classical computationalist thesis.

 So all physical experience which confirms QL, and refute Boolean logic, 
 like Bell's equality, is actually testing computationalism.

 And that can also be used to provide counter-example for people using the 
 quantum facts to argue against mechanism.

 The set of those testable comp-physical tautologies is decidable, and 
 infinite. At the first order logical level, things are more complex.

 If you agree that quantum logic is empirical, like most people in the 
 field, you should understand that comp explains that the laws of the 
 possible empirical are equal to the laws which govern the structure of the 
 computations going through our states (computational states), and so that 
 logic is determined by the mental ability of the universal machine. 
 Mathematically, we can limit ourselves to machine having simple (true) 
 beliefs, like 0+x = x, etc. 






  Is anyone independent working on a prediction unique to your work? 



 Everyone trying to guess a law empirically, automatically test the physics 
 of the machines.

 Have you follow the thread with Quentin Anciaux? He made a critics that I 
 do understand. There was a possibility that the comp physics collapse into 
 boolean logic. In that case, either comp would have been refuted, or show 
 trivial, and QM would have been refuted altogether, at least as a physical 
 laws. The real physics would be boolean, and QM would only describe a 
 subpart of it. 

 Well, but this did not happen. Comp (well classical comp) predicts or 
 retrodicts that the observable
 have to be non boolean and indeed obeys quantum or quantum-like logic. It 
 predicts or retrodicts also a part of the hamiltonian under a symmetry 
 conditions.

 It misses important things like the linearity. It is easy to add it, but 
 that would be treachery, and so there are tuns of problems to solve to 
 progress.  You just need to understand the technics. It is had, and I have 
 done the best I could. A student and friend of mine, the late Eric 
 Vandebusche did solve the first mathematical problems.

 And there is no ambition of comp to substitute itself with physics, 
 which's use of the empiry accelerates the learning process.  My interest is 
 in theology, in what is the destiny of souls and soul.






  If they aren't, you don't have one. Doesn't mean you won't have one. But 
 does mean you don't currently have a falsifiable theory. 



 They are, some explicitly. But if QM is correct, and if by luck  (or bad 
 luck), the comp QL (one of them, as we got three of them) is exactly the 
 quantum QL, then we will not need to test no more that. 
 And it will remain open if that is a correct explanation of the origin of 
 the quantum principle. It might be just a coincidence that where UDA and 
 machines told us where the logic of physics can be, we find quantum logic. 

 If, as it is probable, such comp QL differ crucially from quantum QL, 
 well, we have to test to evaluate if it is fatal or not for comp.

 Oh, but I forget to mention one more things. The comp QL has more axioms, 
 and if it is not defeated by empiry, it does provide new theorems and new 
 physical predictions, like the comp knower S4Grz is not just the classical 
 knower S4, the comp QL (S4Grz1, Z1*, X1*) have axioms inherited from the 
 Löb formula, from which we get information not available. In their first 
 order arithmetical extensions, there is an infinities of such information.

  
 Hi Bruno - you can definitely rest easy about the 'rumours'.I've no 
 access to such things and don't seek them out. So far as I'm concerned a 
 'list' - even a public one like this - is sacrosanct and private. Like 
 fight club geezer...that silly film: what happens on everything list, stays 
 on everything list. My blood

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