Re: Are We Really Conscious? (NYT Article today)

2014-10-25 Thread David Nyman
On 21 October 2014 17:58, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 20 Oct 2014, at 00:56, David Nyman wrote:

 On 19 October 2014 17:48, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 19 Oct 2014, at 15:26, David Nyman wrote:

 On 19 October 2014 02:10, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:

 Whether I find it satisfactory or not is a different question. The point
 I was making is that people who find it satisfactory express this belief
 idea by claiming that consciousness does not exist.


 Assuming that you don't, in fact, find it satisfactory, I'd be interested
 in your reasons. Given the assumption of the exhaustive adequacy of
 physical reduction, Graziano would appear to be quite correct in his
 assessment that the idea of any left over phenomenon, after correlation
 of conscious states with the relevant physical processes, is physically
 incoherent. On the same assumptions, we clearly cannot cite any
 *judgement* to the contrary as evidence of any such supernumerary
 phenomenon, as any such judgement must likewise be nomologically entailed
 by physical law. If so, what reason can you cite for believing that there
 is any such thing?

 Very good question, of course: the hard question.

 Note that up to some point, we can eliminate consciousness to, in
 appearance.


 Yes, because what is empirically available is restricted (by definition)
 to the physics of appearance.


 (I need to be technical on this, but I might try to translate latter, or
 to simplify, or to criticize)

 Actually I was thinking about something else, like reducing the mind body
 problem to the body problem, like in the UDA, and then extracting physics
 from that problem (by finding the right statistic on the relative personal
 diaries).

 This might have made sense, if the quantum logics were appearing in the
 S4Grz1, Z 1or X1 logics, and forgetting all about the S4Grz1*, Z1*, and X1*
 star. (I can argue this would have lead to solipsism (no first person
 plural discourse)  and to a Quantum mechanics with collapse, in fact
 superposition would not be contagious to the *conscious* observer. This
 would have led to a QM with a consciousness reducing the wave packet, but
 only in the diaries, and that could be taken as an illusion in some
 coherent way.
 It is avery funny theory: it is a non-collapse QM, where consciousness
 describe itself as the collapser of the wave. There is no collapse, only
 because that consciousness does not exist!
 (Not sure it makes sense for a non zombie tough!)
 If QM appears only at S4Grz1the idea above would make some more sense, but
 still hard to swallow for any non-zombie entity). The reason here is that
 S4Grz1 = S4Grz1*

 But now the qualia and quanta appear at the star pov (Z1*, X1*, S4Grz1*),
 and all the differences between S4Grz, Z, and X (and the comp one S4Grz1,
 X1, Z1) come from the G/G* splitting, so the true non justifiable invites
 itself in the picture, keeping the many nuances brought by those different
 logics).

 In fact I revive some of your old critics of comp, like it can be
 considered as eliminating consciousness too, because it might make logical
 sense, in case physics did not appear exclusively in the star logic. A good
 thing, because it makes Everett-QM confirming the sharing of the histories
 by many people. This is better than Albert-Loewer theory, which get
 multi-solipsist.


 The default assumption, as Graziano succinctly notes, is that the details
 of this apparent physical mechanism (at least in some ideal form) exhaust
 both the ontological and the epistemological catalogues.


 Only with actual infinite magic in the details. I guess you saw this, then
 formally it is even clearer, but a bit of this could have been the case, if
 physics appear in the non star logics. Not sure the computation can
 interfere in that setting. We get all isolated in such setting, from each
 others.




 Consequently, in this sense, appeals to the putative existence of anything
 over and above such an exhaustive account must be physically incoherent.
 If one takes a sufficiently hard line (and I do!) it becomes apparent that
 this mode of explanation gobbles up competitors like some inexorable
 flesh-eating microbe. Anything meta-physical (such as computation,
 under these assumptions) merely degenerates, under observation, into one or
 another physical approximation.


 Yes, and even physics is no more clear, because the theories use
 explicitly arithmetical relations. Indeed in string theory you need to
 believe that some infinite sum of all natural numbers is equal to -1/12,
 independently of you, to get the right mass of the photon!

 Then computation is a notion which exists even more as it does not need
 any axiom of infinity, and the existent computations are provably existent,
 even already in RA. No need of induction axiom.

 In fact, for a logician, to believe in the physical laws, together with
 the belief that they apply here and now, is equivalent with a *very

Re: Are We Really Conscious? (NYT Article today)

2014-10-19 Thread David Nyman
On 18 October 2014 14:22, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:

Weak emergence of consciousness. The emergent phenomenon is
 distinguishable from the physical processes constituting it in the way
 any system is distinguishable from its parts, while still being
 fundamentally nothing more than its parts.


A system can be distinguished from its parts, in the sense you seem to
intend, only in terms of some point of view that makes such distinctions
relevant. The trouble is that if we attempt to apply this analysis to
consciousness, what we get is a point of view that emerges from its
constituent parts only retroactively, in terms of itself. Doesn't this seem
rather circular?

David

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Re: Are We Really Conscious? (NYT Article today)

2014-10-19 Thread David Nyman
On 19 October 2014 02:10, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:

Whether I find it satisfactory or not is a different question. The point I
 was making is that people who find it satisfactory express this belief
 idea by claiming that consciousness does not exist.


Assuming that you don't, in fact, find it satisfactory, I'd be interested
in your reasons. Given the assumption of the exhaustive adequacy of
physical reduction, Graziano would appear to be quite correct in his
assessment that the idea of any left over phenomenon, after correlation
of conscious states with the relevant physical processes, is physically
incoherent. On the same assumptions, we clearly cannot cite any
*judgement* to the contrary as evidence of any such supernumerary
phenomenon, as any such judgement must likewise be nomologically entailed
by physical law. If so, what reason can you cite for believing that there
is any such thing?

David

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Re: Are We Really Conscious? (NYT Article today)

2014-10-19 Thread David Nyman
On 19 October 2014 17:48, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 19 Oct 2014, at 15:26, David Nyman wrote:

 On 19 October 2014 02:10, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:

 Whether I find it satisfactory or not is a different question. The point I
 was making is that people who find it satisfactory express this belief
 idea by claiming that consciousness does not exist.


 Assuming that you don't, in fact, find it satisfactory, I'd be interested
 in your reasons. Given the assumption of the exhaustive adequacy of
 physical reduction, Graziano would appear to be quite correct in his
 assessment that the idea of any left over phenomenon, after correlation
 of conscious states with the relevant physical processes, is physically
 incoherent. On the same assumptions, we clearly cannot cite any
 *judgement* to the contrary as evidence of any such supernumerary
 phenomenon, as any such judgement must likewise be nomologically entailed
 by physical law. If so, what reason can you cite for believing that there
 is any such thing?

 Very good question, of course: the hard question.

 Note that up to some point, we can eliminate consciousness to, in
 appearance.


Yes, because what is empirically available is restricted (by definition) to
the physics of appearance. The default assumption, as Graziano succinctly
notes, is that the details of this apparent physical mechanism (at least in
some ideal form) exhaust both the ontological and the epistemological
catalogues. Consequently, in this sense, appeals to the putative existence
of anything over and above such an exhaustive account must be physically
incoherent. If one takes a sufficiently hard line (and I do!) it becomes
apparent that this mode of explanation gobbles up competitors like some
inexorable flesh-eating microbe. Anything meta-physical (such as
computation, under these assumptions) merely degenerates, under
observation, into one or another physical approximation.


 Take the UDA: the first person, there (unlike AUDA) admit a pure third
 person description: the content of the diary that the person takes with her
 in the multiplication (in arithmetic or in the QM universal matrix,
 whatever).

 The magic is described in the diaries, the person get information (in
 shannon sense) from apparently nowhere (they don't feel the split).

 To share that information with other, we need the first person plural, and
 the hope that the computations which makes us interact are among the
 winning one. That might already suggest universal group like the unitary
 group.

 But up to now, this picture does not yet address the hard question,
 despite it explains the content of the personal diaries.

 What will specifically address that question is the Theatetus idea. By
 definition, the owner of the diary has the content of the diary as
 experience, making them true at that self-observation level:


So there is, as it were, a primary level of truth - that of
self-observation itself - that is given *by definition*? I mean a level
that is, in itself, distinct from whatever relative truths may be implied
by the content, or what-is-observed.


 it guatantie the link between provability and truth,


Guarantee in what sense?


 but by incompleteness, you have to make explicit in the definition of the
 knowability even for the correct prover/believer (which is an amazing
 consequence of Gödel Löb theorems). This entails the splitting between the
 truth accessible to the machine from its perspective, and its ability to
 see that too,


Do you mean: to see that the accessible truth is restricted to its (the
machine's) particular perspective?


 which is the case for machines believing in some induction axioms.


What axioms in particular?


 That splitting entails also the very existence of all the nuances between
 the (8) points of view.  The ideally correct universal machine is born in
 arithmetic with already psychological and theological internal conflicts.


Can you make a distinction here between what you consider psychological,
and what theological?


 But the more it introspects, the more it get the picture of the
 abyssalness of its ignorance, making it naturally humble in front of the
 possible truth, and humble in front of the bridges between truth, belief,
 observation,  sensations, and knowledge.


Its ignorance can hardly be more abysmal than my own!


 UDA pers se address only the hard matter appearance problem, I think from
 some of your post you understood that AUDA does address the hard question,
 and gives perhaps the most we can hope for when assuming computation: the
 theory of consciousness and person is similar as the theory of god: it is a
 negative theory: you are not this, nor that, etc.


Yes, I have some sense of how the something over and above can be
intelligibly situated in terms of AUDA, although I am painfully aware of
the limitations in my grasp of the detail. Paradoxically (or perhaps not so
much) what has helped me is sticking

Re: Are We Really Conscious? (NYT Article today)

2014-10-16 Thread David Nyman
On 15 October 2014 14:38, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:

I guess he would say, as Dennett does, that zombies are impossible.


But how is the statement there is no subjective impression consistent
with the view that zombies are impossible? Surely the very definition of a
zombie is something that possesses all the physical correlates of
subjectivity but lacks a subjective impression? That's precisely what
he's arguing for.

David

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Re: Are We Really Conscious? (NYT Article today)

2014-10-16 Thread David Nyman
On 15 October 2014 19:32, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

If Churchland logic is applied in the case of comp, it leads to the the
 idea that not only the first person is eliminated, but also all references
 to the gluons, quarks, electron, bosons, fermions, waves, probability,
 taxes, etc. All we have is elementary arithmetic.


Interesting. In an earlier conversation, I suggested to you that realism
about composite entities such as those you list above (and I guess even
quarks would be composite with respect to elementary arithmetic) could
ultimately be justified only by including the logic of the knower. You
seemed to disagree, but perhaps your point is that such realism is
epistemological rather than ontological?

David

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Re: Are We Really Conscious? (NYT Article today)

2014-10-16 Thread David Nyman
On 16 October 2014 13:31, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:

If consciousness is merely a side-effect of conscious-like behaviour then
 zombies are impossible.


What do you mean by a side effect? Do you mean something that would
necessarily be physically incoherent (according to Graziano, and
correctly so, given his assumptions)? IOW, something-or-other that is over
and above an exhaustive analysis of physically-defined entities or
processes? He clearly states that believing in such things is unnecessary
and wrong.

I still maintain that the consciousness-deniers can't really think that
 they're unconscious since that would be absurd.


As to what consciousness-deniers can or cannot think, in this case why not
take him at his word? He clearly states that in his view and that of his
colleagues *there is no subjective impression*. What exists, in his view,
are computations (or more correctly their physical instantiations) and
these are fully sufficient to account for all the internal and external
manifestations (including those labelled as perceptions, thoughts and
feelings) we naively take to be subjective impressions. Consequently,
he concludes, there is no need whatsoever, on this basis, to believe in any
such impressions. I agree that this conclusion amounts to a reductio ad
absurdum, but he clearly believes it and at least he's done us the favour
of making this abundantly clear.

David

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Re: Are We Really Conscious? (NYT Article today)

2014-10-16 Thread David Nyman
On 16 October 2014 19:54, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:

I think it's a matter of semantics. I'm sure Graziano experiences what I
 experience, given my use of the word experience, but due to his
 understanding of what underpins this experience he chooses to say it
 doesn't really exist. It's as if someone chose to say life does not really
 exist on the grounds that it's all just chemistry.


That doesn't strike me as a good example. I presume both you and he would
agree that there's simply no need to posit something (elan vital?) over
and above its physical basis in order to have a satisfactory intuition
about what is meant by life. There's nothing obviously counter-intuitive
about the idea that life demands no explanation beyond the particular
physical processes that constitute living systems. On the other hand I
presume you don't find the parallel intuition - that consciousness demands
no explanation beyond its correlation with specific physical processes -
similarly satisfactory. Am I wrong?

David

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Re: Are We Really Conscious? (NYT Article today)

2014-10-16 Thread David Nyman
On 16 October 2014 19:54, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:

A necessary side-effect roughly equates to the idea of weak emergence.


Weak emergence of what, precisely? And in what way could this emergent
something be distinguishable from the physical processes constituting it?

David

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Re: Are We Really Conscious? (NYT Article today)

2014-10-16 Thread David Nyman
On 16 October 2014 18:05, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


 On 10/16/2014 5:59 AM, David Nyman wrote:

  On 16 October 2014 13:31, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:

If consciousness is merely a side-effect of conscious-like behaviour
 then zombies are impossible.


  What do you mean by a side effect? Do you mean something that would
 necessarily be physically incoherent (according to Graziano, and
 correctly so, given his assumptions)? IOW, something-or-other that is over
 and above an exhaustive analysis of physically-defined entities or
 processes? He clearly states that believing in such things is unnecessary
 and wrong.


 For example, increase in entropy?


I presume Graziano would say that what we mean by entropy is, in the final
analysis, indistinguishable from the processes constituting what is so
characterised, just as he claims that conscious states of the brain are
indistinguishable from the processes constituting what is so characterised.
To be consistent, his view would have to be that it is unnecessary and
wrong to believe that either entropy or consciousness are anything over and
above their exhaustively analysed physical bases.





I still maintain that the consciousness-deniers can't really think
 that they're unconscious since that would be absurd.


  As to what consciousness-deniers can or cannot think, in this case why
 not take him at his word? He clearly states that in his view and that of
 his colleagues *there is no subjective impression*. What exists, in his
 view, are computations (or more correctly their physical instantiations)
 and these are fully sufficient to account for all the internal and external
 manifestations (including those labelled as perceptions, thoughts and
 feelings) we naively take to be subjective impressions. Consequently,
 he concludes, there is no need whatsoever, on this basis, to believe in any
 such impressions.


 How does that last follow?  Isn't our naively taking them to be
 subjective  and believing in them also nomologically entailed by the
 physical processes?


Yes, obviously. He's saying that this is *sufficient* (as opposed to merely
necessary) to account for everything about consciousness that requires
explanation, including all claims to the possession of subjective
impressions. Consequently, in his view, we shouldn't take our belief in
our own subjectivity to be evidence of anything over and above the
nomological entailment of certain physical processes.


 Seems to me it's a kind of empty theory; like saying It's all
 computation but without saying why some computations seem to instantiate
 me and some don't.


Well, since he believes that we aren't conscious in the first place,
perhaps he also thinks that some states of the brain are even more
unconscious than others!

David


 Brent

I agree that this conclusion amounts to a reductio ad absurdum, but he
 clearly believes it and at least he's done us the favour of making this
 abundantly clear.

  David

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Re: Are We Really Conscious? (NYT Article today)

2014-10-14 Thread David Nyman
On 14 October 2014 11:49, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

It is not uncommon for believer to accept a contradiction to save their
 faith, which appears to be of the type *blind*.


Yes indeed. It also puts me in mind of Sherlock Holmes's famous dictum:

When you have eliminated the impossible, whatever remains, however
improbable, must be the truth.

Though it may not be quite what the eminent detective had in mind, it
strikes me that many people are driven to espouse highly improbable
positions purely in reaction to something they consider impossible.

David

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Re: Are We Really Conscious? (NYT Article today)

2014-10-14 Thread David Nyman
On 13 October 2014 15:43, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

Well, some people might say just information processing, and that is like
 using some god to *explain* everything, instead of trying to formulate the
 problem.
 This is doubly so in the use of the term information, which is a word
 which almost automatically leads to a confusion between the first person
 notion (like in: I listen to the information on the radio and was
 shocked) and the third person notion (like in Shannon theory, or Quantum
 information theory, etc.


I agree. He says at one point When we introspect and seem to find that
ghostly thing — awareness, consciousness, the way green looks or pain feels
— our cognitive machinery is accessing internal models and those models are
providing information that is wrong. Note that he can't avoid saying when
WE introspect and OUR cognitive machinery. What is taken for granted
here is *particularity*. He can't help resorting to a tacit god's-eye
perspective that is used, without justification, to pick out whatever is
under discussion and ascribe it to we and our.

He might, I suppose, wish to protest that this is just folk language and
that there is, in the ultimate analysis, no picking out of the
first-person we and our. This is perhaps what is behind the attempt to
deploy illusion as a term-of-art. Unfortunately it is merely a
term-of-obfuscation, as it unable to conceal the frank contradiction
inherent in ascribing a perceptual position to something you claim does not
exist.

David

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Re: Are We Really Conscious? (NYT Article today)

2014-10-14 Thread David Nyman
On 13 October 2014 16:05, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

That is the difference between []p and []p  p. The difference is null,
 extensionally, from the point of view or the arithmetical truth. But the
 difference is huge from both the body and soul points of view. Neither []p
 nor []p  p will ever justify or know that  []p and []p  p define the same
 set of beliefs or knowledge. True, but unjustifiable.


Graziano writes:

But the argument here is that there is no subjective impression; there is
only information in a data-processing device. When we look at a red apple,
the brain computes information about color. It also computes information
about the self and about a (physically incoherent) property of subjective
experience. The brain’s cognitive machinery accesses that interlinked
information and derives several conclusions: There is a self, a me; there
is a red thing nearby; there is such a thing as subjective experience; and
I have an experience of that red thing. Cognition is captive to those
internal models. Such a brain would inescapably conclude it has subjective
experience.

If I understand you correctly, what he is describing above is []p. What is
missing from his account is []p  p, presumably because he has concluded
that a belief in p is sufficient in the absence of p! Note that he states
(correctly) that p is physically incoherent, which gives a clue to his
prior ontological commitments. Of course []p is a necessary component of
the account, but it is not sufficient. Indeed the fact that it is necessary
is often incompletely grasped (e.g. in Craig's theory) but it's
insufficiency can also be elusive, especially for those in the grip of a
dogma. If it were indeed sufficient, then neither matter nor arithmetic
could entail more than a wilderness of zombies.

What bamboozles this kind of reductionism is that p cannot be
propositionally justified. It is not another proposition but rather the
truth of the propositions that correctly refer to it. Hence its absence
would force rejection of the veracity of all claims to its possession. It
would force not only the conclusion that the propositionally-correct claims
of others are false, but that our own are equally in error. In other words,
that both they and we are zombies. This is, in effect, what Graziano is
claiming, however absurdly, in the above passage. I don't agree with
Stathis that he is really making a claim of epiphenomenalism; he is clear
enough that the argument here is that there is no subjective impression.
He really is claiming that there are only zombies despite all propositional
claims to the contrary.

One might think that, stated as baldly as this, such a conclusion would be
as effective a reductio as one could wish. After all, When one has
eliminated the impossible..etc. However, when one has a prior
commitment to third-person absolutism (to cite Professor Dennett's personal
epithet) it may only be acceptable to believe that whatever remains,
however improbable, must be the truth. Such a position might seem to be
unsustainable in practice without resorting to what one might call
metaphysical and conceptual grand larceny. In other words, it's pretty much
impossible for discussion of such a schema to proceed without constant
reference to first-personal phenomena and concepts (beginning with we and
our) that can have no ultimate validity in its own terms.

I've been re-reading Patricia Churchland recently in a sincere attempt to
understand this kind of position in a more nuanced way, and her view is
that, in terms of some ultimate neuroscience, all such first-person
concepts will be completely eliminable. That is, she believes that a future
neuroscience will be capable of fully characterising a mechanism that
computes the existence of first-person phenomena when in reality they
are entirely fictitious. The theory of such a mechanism, in her view, will
simply eliminate our current folk theory of the first-person much as the
modern theory of combustion has replaced that of phlogiston. This seems
pretty close to what Graziano is saying in this piece. It's at least a
mercy that Churchland thinks that such a goal lies beyond any current
conceptual horizon and hence a long way in the future, so we may get to
linger here a little longer before the grin disappears with the rest of the
cat.

Frankly, I conclude that there's no arguing with some people.

David

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Re: Are We Really Conscious? (NYT Article today)

2014-10-14 Thread David Nyman
On 14 October 2014 11:49, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

They eliminate consciousness because they grasp that it is the only way to
 keep the aristotelian belief in a creation intact.


I seem to be motivated to comment at some length on this topic! It must be
because of what I've been reading and thinking about recently. Graziano
writes, in an attempt to justify, in evolutionary terms, how the brain
might come to believe (incorrectly) that it is subjectively aware:

...my colleagues and I have been developing the “attention schema” theory
of consciousness, which may explain why that computation is useful and
would evolve in any complex brain. Here’s the gist of it: Take again the
case of color and wavelength. Wavelength is a real, physical phenomenon;
color is the brain’s approximate, slightly incorrect model of it. In the
attention schema theory, attention is the physical phenomenon and awareness
is the brain’s approximate, slightly incorrect model of it. In
neuroscience, attention is a process of enhancing some signals at the
expense of others. It’s a way of focusing resources. Attention: a real,
mechanistic phenomenon that can be programmed into a computer chip.
Awareness: a cartoonish reconstruction of attention that is as physically
inaccurate as the brain’s internal model of color.

He's quite explicit here about the primacy of physical brain-based
explanation. But he also appeals to computation within this brain-first
explanatory schema, as in his distinction between wavelength as a real,
physical phenomenon and color as an approximate model of it. The problem
for this style of explanation is that, in terms of his explicit schema, any
software model is entirely reducible to primary brain hardware. The
real, physical phenomena of the brain are fundamental and hence only
physical phenomena are accessible as objects of selection in any
evolutionary account, assuming physical primacy.

This distinction vitiates any attempt to justify the differential selection
of any particular software organisation since any such selection must
already be fully accounted for on the basis of real, physical phenomena.
IOW, it actually provides no non-question-begging explanation of why there
would be any selective advantage for either attention or awareness per
se in this schema, as both would be equally subsumed in their real
physical implementation. Neither account could be more than an a posteriori
re-description of what had already been selected in the real, physical
regime, on the basis of purely hardware criteria. Properly understood,
such soft concepts must be seen as explanatorily redundant - as you imply
- if material explanation is accepted as primary.

In short: If Aristotle were right, there would be no need of dreams to
explain why there were machines. But if Plato is right, then we need
machines to explain why we are dreaming.

David

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Re: MGA redux (again!)

2014-08-24 Thread David Nyman
On 23 August 2014 23:50, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

*You're saying it may be incoherent to reduce consciousness to computation,
if computation is reducible to physics?  Why would that be incoherent?
 Must 'reduction' necessarily be reduction to the bottom to be coherent?
 Or are you assuming consciousness can't be reducible to physics therefore
it can't be reducible to some intermediate (computation) that risks be
reducible to physics?*


No, I'm definitely not saying, in principle, that consciousness couldn't be
reduced to physics. Indeed my whole point has been that if computation is,
in the end, nothing over and above physical action, any theory that links
consciousness to computation is tacitly a claim that consciousness is
itself nothing over and above physical action. That claim may be true, but
it can't be a claim about computation, only one about physics. Indeed, your
own engineering-level analogies exploit precisely this ambiguity.

You have yourself expressed the view (re Tegmark's ideas, as I recall) that
mathematics is a human invention: i.e. a collection of abstractions from
physical reality. On that basis, the very notion of computation *could only
be* a meta-mathematical metaphor approximated by certain classes of
physical action. I'm grateful to Bruno for pointing out that CTM, taken
seriously, rather than being merely a psychological theory riding on the
coat-tails of physics, must entail a profound reversal of explanatory
priority. I have no idea whether this insight will lead, in the end, to a
correct TOE, but it seems clear that it does require computation to take
explanatory priority over physics.

David

On 8/23/2014 9:09 AM, David Nyman wrote:

  On 23 August 2014 05:02, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 *What we observe in practice are physical devices of various kinds
 (indeed, in principle, indefinitely many kinds) that we accept FAPP as
 adequately instantiating particular classes of computation within certain
 fairly stringent limits.*


*What we observe, aside from observing our own thoughts and maybe even
 then, is always theory laden.  Partly we see the world through a theory of
 objects that evolution has provided us, sort of naive physics, but a theory
 nonetheless as optical illusions demonstrate.*


  And the relevance of this remark to my point is what, precisely?


 Just a cautionary remark that observing a physical device already involves
 assumptions that it is an experience that can in principle be shared and
 agreed on by other observers - i.e. that it assumes some physics.



 *To put it another way, we are prepared to interpret the normal
 physical behaviour of such devices *as if* it instantiated the mathematical
 notion of computation.*


 *Right, because it usually (modulo a dropped bit or so) does.*


  Obviously. And your point is...?

 *These considerations should make it clear that any description of
 the normal behaviour of a physical device as computation can only be in a
 sense that is, ultimately, metaphorical.*


 *I think you are too hung up on ontology.  You denigrate everything
 that's not in terms of the ur-stuff of (some unknown) true ontology as
 metaphor or fiction.  Why not accept that knowledge, including knowledge of
 ontology, is always provisional and uncertain and it's best to think of it
 as a model summarizing our best idea - but not necessarily the one TRUE
 idea.*


  Maybe you are getting a little too hung up on what you imagine me to be
 hung up on. If that is the case, it might make you somewhat unreceptive at
 the outset to what you assume to be my line of argument. I'm not trying to
 grind any axe in particular but only to articulate what I suspect are
 sometimes unrecognised assumptions as clearly as I can and then examine the
 consequences. Of course I may well be wrong on any point and so my aim is
 to encourage discussion from which I might learn.

  In this particular case what I'm driving at isn't that either matter or
 computation need be considered as some kind of mystical ur-stuff
 (whatever that would be). What I'm questioning is whether it is really
 coherent to attribute *first-person* consciousness to computation against
 the background of any theory that is committed to a physically primitive
 level of explanation.


 You're saying it may be incoherent to reduce consciousness to computation,
 if computation is reducible to physics?  Why would that be incoherent?
 Must 'reduction' necessarily be reduction to the bottom to be coherent?  Or
 are you assuming consciousness can't be reducible to physics therefore it
 can't be reducible to some intermediate (computation) that risks be
 reducible to physics?


I know you cross swords with Bruno over the meaning of primitive in
 this context, but I don't see why this has to be problematic. Primitive
 simply means the level of explanation to which it is *assumed* every other
 level can be reduced.


 I think we only cross swords

Re: MGA redux (again!)

2014-08-23 Thread David Nyman
On 23 August 2014 05:02, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

*What we observe in practice are physical devices of various kinds (indeed,
in principle, indefinitely many kinds) that we accept FAPP as adequately
instantiating particular classes of computation within certain fairly
stringent limits.*


 *What we observe, aside from observing our own thoughts and maybe even
then, is always theory laden.  Partly we see the world through a theory of
objects that evolution has provided us, sort of naive physics, but a theory
nonetheless as optical illusions demonstrate.*


And the relevance of this remark to my point is what, precisely?

*To put it another way, we are prepared to interpret the normal physical
behaviour of such devices *as if* it instantiated the mathematical notion
of computation.*


 *Right, because it usually (modulo a dropped bit or so) does.*


Obviously. And your point is...?

*These considerations should make it clear that any description of the
normal behaviour of a physical device as computation can only be in a sense
that is, ultimately, metaphorical.*


 *I think you are too hung up on ontology.  You denigrate everything that's
not in terms of the ur-stuff of (some unknown) true ontology as metaphor or
fiction.  Why not accept that knowledge, including knowledge of ontology,
is always provisional and uncertain and it's best to think of it as a model
summarizing our best idea - but not necessarily the one TRUE idea.*


Maybe you are getting a little too hung up on what you imagine me to be
hung up on. If that is the case, it might make you somewhat unreceptive at
the outset to what you assume to be my line of argument. I'm not trying to
grind any axe in particular but only to articulate what I suspect are
sometimes unrecognised assumptions as clearly as I can and then examine the
consequences. Of course I may well be wrong on any point and so my aim is
to encourage discussion from which I might learn.

In this particular case what I'm driving at isn't that either matter or
computation need be considered as some kind of mystical ur-stuff
(whatever that would be). What I'm questioning is whether it is really
coherent to attribute *first-person* consciousness to computation against
the background of any theory that is committed to a physically primitive
level of explanation. I know you cross swords with Bruno over the meaning
of primitive in this context, but I don't see why this has to be
problematic. Primitive simply means the level of explanation to which it is
*assumed* every other level can be reduced. The point is not that we can
know any particular theory of this sort to be TRUE, but only that we should
rigorously pursue its consequences *as if it were*.

My point then is that we should start by treating a theory of physical
primitivism as if true. If so, it is only consistent to suppose that any
phenomenon under consideration in terms of that theory must be assumed to
be adequately and fully accountable (at least in principle) at its lowest
level of physical reduction. You persistently demur from this line of
argument, but I think you miss my point, which is entirely harmless in
every case except (I contend) that of the 1p part of consciousness. It is
entirely possible to understand a physically-instantiated computation (and
hence, on CTM, an associated state of consciousness) to be the same
physical process regardless of the level of reduction at which it is
considered. After all, any such level is, in the end, merely a term of
art associated with the theory in question. But what I'm questioning is
whether it is coherent to (tacitly) treat the 1p part as merely such a term
of art.

My sense is that you equivocate on this, because if we only consider the 3p
part (as in your analogy of the Mars Rover) the point (i.e.
3p-reducibility) is indeed harmless. But the 1p part resists 1p-reduction.
It stubbornly is what it is. Hence my question essentially is about the
kind of theory required to make sense of associating an irreducible 1p part
with a reducible 3p part. AFAICS such a question cannot even be posed
coherently in terms of physical primitivism. Indeed you have suggested that
it is unreasonable to ask for this. What inclines me to Bruno's ideas
(assuming CTM of course) is that this particular question may be better
posed in terms of a theory that takes computation, not physics, as its
primitive.

I think the remainder of your remarks equivocate on precisely this 3p-1p
distinction, so I won't comment on them specifically. If I've read you
wrongly on this I'd be grateful for clarification.

David


 On 8/22/2014 6:46 PM, David Nyman wrote:

 I must confess that I've been reading the MGA revisited thread with a
 certain sense of frustration (notwithstanding that Russell has made a
 pretty good fist of clarifying some key points). My frustration is that I
 have never been able to see why we need an elaborate reductio like the MGA
 to dispose decisively of a *computational* theory

MGA redux (again!)

2014-08-22 Thread David Nyman
I must confess that I've been reading the MGA revisited thread with a
certain sense of frustration (notwithstanding that Russell has made a
pretty good fist of clarifying some key points). My frustration is that I
have never been able to see why we need an elaborate reductio like the MGA
to dispose decisively of a *computational* theory of mind on the basis of a
primitive materiality. The crux of the argument is whether the
computational part of the theory can be reduced without ambiguity to the
action of a physical device (e.g. a computer or a brain). If not, what
we're left with looks like a crypto-materialist theory in computationalist
disguise. In point of fact I agree with Stathis that multiple realisability
is already sufficient to establish this point. But let me elaborate a
little further. When we consider the matter, we don't actually observed
computation (in any rigorous mathematical sense) in physical reality.
What we observe in practice are physical devices of various kinds (indeed,
in principle, indefinitely many kinds) that we accept FAPP as adequately
instantiating particular classes of computation within certain fairly
stringent limits. To put it another way, we are prepared to interpret the
normal physical behaviour of such devices *as if* it instantiated the
mathematical notion of computation. But at all times it is sufficient to
assume that such behaviour, be it of computers or brains, is constrained
exclusively and exhaustively by physical law. It's their net action, as
physical devices, that is at all times assumed to be essential, whatever
computational (or other) interpretation may be ascribed to them
externally. Unfortunately, these otherwise rather obvious facts tend to be
obscured in ordinary, and even in technical, discourse by the free
intermixing of software and hardware paradigms.

These considerations should make it clear that any description of the
normal behaviour of a physical device as computation can only be in a sense
that is, ultimately, metaphorical. This extends to any software
re-description of physical action, as for example Brent's Mars Rover
analogy, or Dennett's third-person absolutist take on perception and
cognition. On the assumption of a primitive physical reality, such
descriptions can (and indeed must) be understood as metaphorical and
approximate, not literal and absolute. They are grounded in the
assumption of their ultimate reducibility, and approximate equivalence, to
some kind of net physical action. In this light, physical devices don't
literally compute; the most we need to say is that their physical
behaviour adequately *approximates* computation, under suitable
interpretation and within certain limits. Under such constraints, it would
seem that a so-called computational theory of mind could in fact amount
to nothing other than the claim that consciousness is a *state of matter*.
This particular state of matter, it would be claimed, must obtain whenever
physical action happens to be approximately re-describable (at some
arbitrary level) in terms of a certain class of computation. But given that
the theory is grounded, and is at all times expressible, in terms of an
explicitly physical, as distinct from mathematical, ontology, it is hard to
discern how such a computational stipulation could contribute anything
intelligible to the claim.

ISTM that the foregoing considerations are sufficient, on their own merits,
to establish the necessity of the reversal at Step 8, if a *computational*
(as distinct from some sort of tacitly crypto-material) theory of
consciousness, is to be salvaged. If so, it is indeed clear that the task
becomes at least twice as hard as before, as the observed correlations
between matter and consciousness now have to be justified on the basis of
an ontology that is (mathematically) adequate for a general and rigorous
(as distinct from local and approximate) emulation of computation.

David

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Re: MGA revisited paper

2014-08-19 Thread David Nyman
On 19 August 2014 01:53, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

So the idea is that comp necessarily entails epistemological logics (the
dreams of the machines)


Except that it seems to be an epistemology very different from ones we
usually practice.  What's the last time you learned a fact about the world
by proving it from Peano's axioms?


Well, you frequently counsel me against arguing on the basis of personal
incredulity. So I could respond by asking you when was the last time you
learned a fact about the world by deducing it from the molecular structure
of your brain. Given that we are committed to explaining the complex in
terms of something simpler, then some sort of structure, defined
molecularly or otherwise, must surely be implicated in what it means to
learn a fact, even though we can't yet say precisely what it is.

I guess I take the logics that Bruno investigates in AUDA to be at
something analogous to the molecular level vis-a-vis any explanation of
cognition or perception that would strike us as intuitively familiar. So
just as an understanding of the dynamics of molecular bonding has turned
out to be crucial to an appreciation of the possibilities of large-scale
structure, the hope (or project) is that we can derive something of
analogous relevance, to the structure of human-like cognition and
perception, from a rigorous study of particular classes of more basic
logical relations.

that are *prior* to physics in the sense that only certain sub-classes will
be characterised by the statistical dominance of physically-lawlike
relations over their range of reference.


It's pretty much like Bertrand Russell's neutral monism.  There are events
or states that classified one way constitute experiences or thoughts of
individuals, and classified another way, some of them constitute objective
physical events.


That's not a bad way of putting it as a general position. My point though
was that if we want to start from a very general notion of computation that
doesn't presuppose physics, we must seek to justify the differentiation of
a sub-class of lawlike physical realities from a much larger totality.
According to comp, this differentiation is rooted in the statistical
dominance of certain classes of internal belief or reference that are
deducible from a quasi-ubiquitous form of self-referential machine
psychology. I guess it is only to be expected that a fundamental concept
of this sort would strike us as being at some remove from any putative
elaboration at the human scale. The devil, as ever, will be found in the
detail.

David



 On 8/18/2014 4:23 PM, David Nyman wrote:

  On 18 August 2014 23:27, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:

  I'm not entirely clear on Bruno's argument on this last point. The way
 I see it, if a brain is simulated by a computer program, what is being
 simulated is the physics; and if comp is true, that means that
 simulating the physics will also reproduce the brain's consciousness.
 I'm not sure about computations instantiating consciousness without
 instantiating physics, and I'm not sure how instantiating the
 appearance of physics is different to instantiating (virtual) physics.


  I've always understood him to be saying, in the first place, that the
 dovetailer necessarily generates certain classes of self-referential
 computations. Very generally, such computations are then regarded as
 emulating self-referred (i.e. first-personal or indexical) logics that in
 turn are amenable to treatment as beliefs in realities or appearances. So
 the idea is that comp necessarily entails epistemological logics (the
 dreams of the machines)


 Except that it seems to be an epistemology very different from ones we
 usually practice.  What's the last time you learned a fact about the world
 by proving it from Peano's axioms?


   that are *prior* to physics in the sense that only certain sub-classes
 will be characterised by the statistical dominance of physically-lawlike
 relations over their range of reference.


 It's pretty much like Bertrand Russell's neutral monism.  There are events
 or states that classified one way constitute experiences or thoughts of
 individuals, and classified another way, some of them constitute objective
 physical events.

 Brent

   I've always assumed that it's this logical priority of machine
 psychology over the subsequent appearance of lawlike physical relations
 that constitutes the postulated reversal.

  David
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Re: MGA revisited paper

2014-08-19 Thread David Nyman
On 19 August 2014 07:10, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:

What we know is that the brain can generate consciousness. The brain is not
 a digital computer running a program, but if it can be simulated by one,
 and if the simulation is conscious, and if the program can be run in
 Platonia rather than on a physical computer, then every possible brain's
 consciousness will necessarily be instantiated. I'm not sure whether
 self-referential computations on their own are conscious - that would seem
 a further assumption on top of the three mentioned in the previous sentence
 - even though it does seem more elegant than simulating klunky brains.


Well, what I was responding to was ..I'm not sure how instantiating the
appearance of physics is different to instantiating (virtual) physics.
Virtual or digital physics, presumably taking specifically physical
computations as its primitives, would characterise the brain as a
physical composite object hierarchically reducible to such primitives.
Comp, by contrast, seeks to justify the observed dominance of lawlike
physical appearances against the background of the fractal computational
explosion implied by the dovetailer. So in comp terms, the brain must
ultimately correspond to a fungible class of self-referential computations
that is able (somehow) to predominate statistically over a cosmic snowstorm
of competing machine psychologies. All that said, as Bruno is wont to
say, digital or virtual physics as a primitive appears to be
self-defeating. On the assumption of CTM it will inevitably be trumped by
the Vastly more extensive machine psychology extractable from the
dovetailer and hence become explanatorily irrelevant.

As to computations instantiating consciousness without (or as I would
prefer to say, logically prior to) instantiating physics, I guess we would
need more distinctions about consciousness as a general theoretical or
logical concept to make sense of this. ISTM that this is just what Bruno is
attempting to do with AUDA. As I remarked to Brent, it might be expected
that any analysis of very basic logical relations at this level would be at
quite some remove from our usual intuitions about consciousness.
Nonetheless, the project, if successful, must ultimately prove capable of
justifying their relevance to normal human experience.

David

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Re: Comp and logical supervenience

2014-08-19 Thread David Nyman
On 19 August 2014 21:35, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

I can agree. But it is not entirely, as I suspect you might prefer, a
 reversal between 3p reality and 1p reality, as we continue to have a big 3p
 reality: the  arithmetical reality which contains computer science and the
 machine's dream-support (the relevant computations). So the reversal is
 made possible and sensical, because it is supported by the arithmetical
 relations driving the consciousness fluxes in the relatively most
 probable continuations.


Yes, I understand. I hope I've shaken off my former 1p absolutism in the
course of familiarising myself with your ideas. That said, I suspect that
there is often an illegitimate sleight of the imagination in play in
discussions of the 3p reality. ISTM that there is often (though not in your
case, I hasten to add) the implicit assumption of a kind of default or
meta- knower that goes on interpreting what's really there in the absence
of any other observer. So in that light it just seems obvious, for
example, that the moon exists primarily as a brute 3p fact and any
subsequent observation of it is merely some contingent secondary relation.
It's almost as if we're overcompensating for the infantile belief that
objects disappear when they can't be seen. In comp terms, however, it is
clear that the moon can be no such brute fact, but rather the resultant of
a complex potential for the lawlike appearance of a moon under suitable
observational constraints.

In this vein I offer the well-known limerick of Ronald Knox:

There was a young man who said God
Must find it exceedingly odd
To think that the tree
Should continue to be
When there's no one about in the quad.

Reply:
Dear Sir: Your astonishment's odd;
I am always about in the quad.
And that's why the tree
Will continue to be
Since observed by, Yours faithfully, God.”

David

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Re: Comp and logical supervenience

2014-08-18 Thread David Nyman
On 18 August 2014 12:19, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

Then the arithmetical realism suggests the existence of approximation of
 physical realities, without observers. The falling leaf will make a sound
 (a 3p wave), but of course, without observers, there will be no perception
 or qualia actualized there.


Isn't it perhaps more the case that without observers there is no there
there (as Gertrude Stein might have put it)? The indexical reality
attributable to observation is a bit like one of the rare intelligible
books adrift in the ocean of dross that constitutes the Library of Babel.
But unlike Borges's alphabetic Library, the structure of the programmatic
Library generated by the dovetailer entails the presence of books that
are self-interpreting and self-locating. It's only in the context of such
self-actualisation that one could truly say that there is a physical
there there, if you see what I mean. The pre-observational
approximation you mention above strikes me more as the prerequisite
potential for the actualisation of intelligible physical realities,
somewhat in the sense that the Library of Babel might represent an
analogous potential for the actualisation of intelligible books.

Perhaps this is a quibble, but personally I find the notion of physical
reality as something that exists independent of us to be a slippery, not
to say equivocal, concept. Obviously some kind of *potential* for such
reality must exist independently of observation, and comp indeed is a
thesis about precisely what might constitute that potential. If comp is
correct, physical realities are like flecks of gold filtered from the
Vastly redundant dross spewed from the dovetailer. The filtration is in
turn a consequence of the self-referential statistics encountered by a
plurality of natural knowers directly entailed by the theory. So in point
of fact, if comp is correct, there isn't a physical reality that can truly
be seen as entirely independent of us; indeed this is what prevents the
mind from being swept under the rug of physics. According to comp, physics
is nothing other than the summation of lawlike constraints on the
possibilities of observation; it's this that constitutes the reversal of
physics and machine psychology.

David

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Re: Comp and logical supervenience

2014-08-18 Thread David Nyman
On 18 August 2014 14:15, Pierz pier...@gmail.com wrote:

OK that may be true, but without an observer, nothing will exist to select
 out that computation from the chaotic infinities. I don't know how you can
 say that the leaf meaningfully exists, because other computational threads
 will destroy the leaf instantly, do every conceivable thing to it, and then
 who can say there's a leaf? Without an observer's measure it has no
 stability and can only be projected artificially into the computations by
 some observer who already has the concept of a leaf. Frankly I'm surprised
 to hear you argue this.


I agree. I've said before that it requires a truly heroic effort of the
imagination to rid oneself of the implicit notion of a default
interpreter (God?) that continues to see what's there even in the
absence of any other possibility of knowledge.

David

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Re: MGA revisited paper

2014-08-18 Thread David Nyman
On 18 August 2014 23:27, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com wrote:

I'm not entirely clear on Bruno's argument on this last point. The way
 I see it, if a brain is simulated by a computer program, what is being
 simulated is the physics; and if comp is true, that means that
 simulating the physics will also reproduce the brain's consciousness.
 I'm not sure about computations instantiating consciousness without
 instantiating physics, and I'm not sure how instantiating the
 appearance of physics is different to instantiating (virtual) physics.


I've always understood him to be saying, in the first place, that the
dovetailer necessarily generates certain classes of self-referential
computations. Very generally, such computations are then regarded as
emulating self-referred (i.e. first-personal or indexical) logics that in
turn are amenable to treatment as beliefs in realities or appearances. So
the idea is that comp necessarily entails epistemological logics (the
dreams of the machines) that are *prior* to physics in the sense that
only certain sub-classes will be characterised by the statistical dominance
of physically-lawlike relations over their range of reference. I've always
assumed that it's this logical priority of machine psychology over the
subsequent appearance of lawlike physical relations that constitutes the
postulated reversal.

David

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Re: John Searle on consciousness

2014-07-30 Thread David Nyman
On 30 July 2014 09:03, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

I think (maybe pace David) that materialism explains well consciousness, by
 using comp. The problem is that such explanation makes *matter*
 incomprehensible.


Well I must confess I'm not entirely pacified yet. Surely the whole point
is that if the second sentence is true it contradicts the first! If the
assumption that materialism can use comp to explain consciousness in fact
leads to the absurd conclusion you describe, then materialism *cannot* use
comp to explain consciousness, well or otherwise.

The trouble is, there are a lot of nuances that tend to obscure the logical
steps of the argument, particularly in assumptions about the scope of
reasonable explanation. Brent and others point to parallel accounts of
neural activity and conscious self-reporting and ask what more could be
required in the way of explanation?. AUDA may indeed give a clue to the
direction in which explanation could be extended, beyond ostensive
parallelism of this kind, particularly with respect to the central logical
puzzles of mutual reference between 1p and 3p regimes. But this would
require us to relinquish any prior commitment to primitive materialist
assumptions.

My recent forays into thought experiment have been an attempt to articulate
my own (still persisting) intuitions about the intrinsic limitations of
reductionist explanation under strictly materialist assumptions (i.e.
without either tacit or explicit reliance on supernumerary posits). ISTM
that one of the problems in reaching any kind of stable agreement (or even
disagreement) on these issues is equivocation over the terms of reference.
Consequently I've tried to make my own view of the reductionist assumption
clear: i.e. that explanation of phenomena at any level whatsoever can in
principle be reduced without loss to accounts of the action of a finite
class of primitive physical entities and relations. Of course, this tends
to lead to disputation over the sense of without loss, but I'll come to
that in due course.

Stated thus baldy and strictly eschewing equivocation, reductionism entails
that it is misleading to consider any derivative phenomenon, above the
level of the chosen explanatory basement, as having independent
existence. Strictly speaking (and strictness is essential for the succes
of the argument) such phenomena are both explanatorily and ontologically
dispensable. It's just that in extenso the proofs are a little longer! I've
offered analogies in terms of such things as societies and football teams
(you can easily supplement these with your own) in terms of which this
consequence of reductionism is rather obvious.

But for some reason it stops being obvious in the matter of matter
itself. On reflection, the reason is not so elusive: i.e. we directly
experience such higher-level phenomena in an unreduced form. Hence none of
us (and that includes Professor Dennett) can avoid the fact of
encountering, and discoursing in terms of, a reality in unreduced
high-level terms, even though our best explanations actually rule out the
other-than-metaphorically-independent significance of any such levels. If
you doubt the degree of cognitive dissonance this engenders, consider the
general tenor of disputes over free will.

This is the point at which the parallel with any other reductionist analogy
breaks down. Nobody would seriously claim, beyond a manner of speaking,
that football teams amount to anything other than the aggregate action of
the persons that constitute them. But on the other hand almost everyone
(pace Daniel Dennett) would claim direct access to a reality that is
something (even if we can't agree exactly what) that is, at least,
categorically distinct from any description of the aggregate action of the
material processes of the brain. The same distinction, however, can't be
claimed for computation, on the assumption of material reduction. Just as
in the case of the football team no instance of computation can escape
reduction to material tokens that have been contrived, under suitable
interpretation, to embody the necessary physical action.

There isn't even the saving grace that we directly perceive computation in
unreduced form. What we actually perceive are macroscopic physical devices
that, by assumption, produce all their effects entirely in terms of basic
material processes that are fully subject to reductive explanation. Every
explanation we give in terms of computation can in principle be replaced
without loss by a description of a physical process. This is the underlying
reason that Alice's net behaviour can persist unaltered even after
disruption of any putatively computational organisation of her brain.
Under physicalist assumptions, Alice is first, last and always a physical
device. Indeed, were that not the case, it would be difficult to see how
any physical computer could ever be manufactured! On this analysis then,
it can hardly be coherent to claim that any 

Re: One in the eye for Hoyle?

2014-07-30 Thread David Nyman
On 30 July 2014 00:26, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

And there I was worrying about CERN destroying the world


Yeah, I was careful to take this shot on a long lens!

David

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Re: CTM and the UDA (again!)

2014-07-30 Thread David Nyman
On 29 July 2014 18:41, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

It is thought as a reductio ad absurdum. If consciousness supervenes on the
 physical activity, then it supervenes on the movie, But there is no
 computation in the movie, only a description of a computation, so
 consciousness does not supervene on the physical activity of the brain, it
 supervenes directly on the abstract self-referential number relation
 with themselves and with respect to their most probable universal
 neighbors, from your laptop to gravitation and many others.


Yes, that is the only possible move to salvage CTM. But one isn't forced to
take this second step. One could claim that, since there is no computation
in the movie, CTM is thereby falsified. But, since Alice's overt behaviour
and hence her relation to her environment are by assumption unchanged, it
might not be unreasonable to suppose that her consciousness continued to
supervene on the physical activity. Of course a claim of that sort could no
longer be qua computatio, but in some sense qua materia. It's unclear
how such a position could be distinguished from eliminativism about
consciousness (at least, pace Brent, elimination of the possibility of
*explanation* beyond physical parallelism), but it isn't prima facie
incoherent.

That apart, at this point in the argument, assuming one accepts the
reversal and salvages CTM, some things are still not quite clear (at least
to me). For example let's now assume that Alice remains conscious at the
conclusion of the thought experiment, qua computatio. What is the nature of
the relation between her observable brain processes and the computations
that are supposed to be associated with her consciousness? And what is the
relation between what is observable in general and any deeper level we may
suppose to be reponsible for it? I tried to develop some intuition about
this latter point with an analogy based on the distinction between an LCD
screen and the movies that could be presented on it (though unfortunately
it seems as if this may have got mixed up in your response with the movie
in the MGA).

In any case, in my analogy, all the characters and action at the level of
the movie are of course generated at the deeper level of a rendering engine
(which I rather inaccurately called the level of the screen). Now let's
assume that this movie is some futuristic, fully-immersive,
self-interpreting presentation. For the analogy to hold, the physical
constitution of the embedded characters and environments must be fully
consistent both with the action at the level of the movie and the
self-interpretation of the characters. Nonetheless all these internal
observations and observables are a consequence of a deeper level of
rendering, which itself has no necessity of isomorphism with anything at
the level of observation. Does the idea of such a level (which must of
course be noumenal or unobservable in principle with respect to the
level of internal observation) still make any sense in comp terms?

David

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Re: It Knows That It Knows

2014-07-28 Thread David Nyman
On 27 July 2014 16:15, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

This tacit supernumerary assumption is what may
make it seem plausible that there is no need of a knower for such a
distinction to be relevant (i.e. that realism about Deep Blue is
justified in the absence of any possible knower).

I can make sense of this. Yet, in the TOE extracted from comp, we can
forget such a knower, as we don't really need to know if P or ~P is true,
just that it is true independently of us (little ego). But any epistemic
view on such a P requires a knower. It is an open question to me if it
makes sense to say that the ultimate truth (arithmetical truth) is really a
knower or not.

I realise that I'm pushing rather hard on my intuition here, so I don't
insist, but I think whenever one talks about true independently of the
little ego one is tacitly relying on a default knower to take up the
strain. Consequently we cannot escape the epistemic view, even if that
view is (tacitly) that of God who sees and inteprets everything on our
behalf. Would it still mean anything to say that P is true or not true
independent of God's view on the matter? Perhaps it is only in some sense
like this that the ultimate or (assuming comp) arithmetical truth is a
knower.


I think I see it well now. I intuit something similar, and even something
stronger (coming from salvia), which I can feel as making comp wrong, ...
but I think that is still only in some 1p view. This is going in the
direction that the real knower *is* arithmetical 1p-truth, the p in []p 
p, and that the body or representation, or belief, []p is filtering
consciousness.
If this is true, there should be account of people saying that they felt
being more conscious when some part of the brain is destroyed, or made
non-functional, and that seems to be the case, both with dissociative
drugs, but also with people lacking the hypo-campus: they definitely feel
something more in the form of a perpetual presence. Brains do not produce
consciousness, it would reduce consciousness, by filtering it through the
differentiation of histories. Dying (with amnesia) would become a platonist
remembering of our universal consciousness. The two way road between Earth
and Heaven would be amnesia, in both direction, like salvia suggests.

Interesting. Have you read My Stroke of Insight, by Jill Bolte Taylor? She
is a neuro-scientist who suffered a massive stroke due to the bursting of
an aneurysm in her left hemisphere (from which she fortunately ultimately
recovered). In her memoir she describes the changes in consciousness that
occurred in the immediate aftermath of the almost complete shut-down of her
left hemisphere. Of course there were major losses to specific functions
(especially language) but what was fascinating was that there was also what
one could only describe as a concomitant expansion in her degree of
consciousness. It was indeed as if her left hemispherical function had been
a filter through which her stream of consciousness had been narrowed.

Of course it's a very long way from this to any idea that a brain is not
required for consciousness and indeed her own view, as a neuroscientist,
was that her altered experience was a result of the relative disinhibition
of her right hemisphere. After all, her experience tended to re-normalise
as her left hemisphere recovered its function, although some aspects of the
altered state have subsequently remained with her. Perhaps one could take
the view that even if no *particular* brain is required to manifest a
person in a reality, such manifestation will always be in terms of *some*
brain or other. This would be a bit like Hoyle's universal person, whose
multifarious personas and memories are partitioned by the mutually amnesic
relation between its different brains. For such a person, dying is merely
a particular case of the general phenomenon of forgetting one reality the
better to recollect another. Could one identify such a universal person
with the p of arithmetical truth? And why do you think that such an
identification might imply that comp was wrong?

But you may be right, as God changed his mind, and sent a cop at my home at
3 o'clock in the morning, with my bag, and everything in it (including also
some cannabis and salvia!). Quite efficacious the police here, very gentle
too.

Yes, that's cool :)

Wow.

David






 On 25 Jul 2014, at 17:37, David Nyman wrote:

  On 24 July 2014 22:18, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

  To put it another way, there is nobody present for whom it could

 represent a difference.


 It still exist, or the difference 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, ... will need

 itself a knower to make sense. But with comp, we don't need more
 than the elementary arithmetic truth, to eventually make a  
 knower by filtering the truth by a body or a representational set of
 beliefs.

 Well I think, in a curious way, it may indeed need a knower to make
 sense. I'm trying to explain one of my early morning intuitions

Re: It Knows That It Knows

2014-07-28 Thread David Nyman
On 28 July 2014 11:25, Kim Jones kimjo...@ozemail.com.au wrote:

Actually, comp is terrifying.


Rest assured, it terrifies me too. I think the terror stems, in a sense,
from the persistent (and I guess, at the terrestrial level, essential)
illusion of control. The idea that I could be precipitated into any
experience whatsoever with no say-so on my part is what seems terrifying.
Interestingly, I've sometimes experienced a mild version of this fear
immediately before falling asleep. It's the fear of losing control to the
dreaming state; a kind of existential claustro (or agora) phobia. I've
tried to rationalise the terror induced by comp in various ways. For
starters, it's not a fear of something in prospect, because if comp is true
*it's true right now*.

My preferred intuition here, which (despite having been unsuccessful in
persuading Bruno) I still feel is not inconsistent with comp, is Hoyle's
universal person. It's perfectly possible to think of experience in terms
of an endless logical sequence of self-relating observer moments (or
experiential monads). Recall that Bruno sometimes says that comp is a
theory of reincarnation. If so, then Hoyle's analogy serves as a kind of
heuristic in terms of which we are reincarnated afresh into personhood in
each and every moment. To put it another way, at the universal perspectival
limit, each and every moment is itself an experience of death and rebirth.

Now there's a thought.

David

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Re: CTM and the UDA (again!)

2014-07-28 Thread David Nyman
On 27 July 2014 19:38, Jesse Mazer laserma...@gmail.com wrote:

Again I am asking about the logic that explains *why* we should abandon the
 notion of a primitive universal computation given that we agree with
 steps 1-6. I thought when you said the UD would dominate, you were trying
 to give an argument for why any notion of a primitive universal
 computation would somehow become irrelevant to determining measure as long
 as we assume it contains an eternally-running UD (which if true would
 certainly be a good argument for abandoning the primitive universal
 computation as an irrelevant hypothesis, like the argument for abandoning
 an absolute reference frame in relativity because even if it existed it
 would have no measurable consequences). Maybe I misunderstood you, though.


I'm sure that Bruno can give you a much better and more comprehensive
answer than I can on this. However I would reiterate that it is Step 7 and
Step 8 which (ISTM) are essential to understanding the dominant role of the
UD. Steps 1-6 establish the indeterminacy of localisation after copying and
the insensitivity of such localisation to delays in (re-)constitution.
These steps are all based on the initial assumption (Step 0) that
consciousness is correlated with some classically (and finitely)
describable level of brain function that can consequently be copied (at
least in principle).

But up to (and including) Step 7 it is assumed that all such computation is
nevertheless always instantiated by some kind of primitively-physical
computer. There's been lot of quibbling about what primitive is supposed to
mean here, but AFAICS it just means anything we agree as basic (i.e.
underlying everything else) and irreducible. So primitively-physical means
that certain (i.e. physical) computations, and these alone, are assumed to
comprise the primitive base for everything else.

The original point of this thread, as I've said, was to reiterate the
implications of Steps 7 and 8 in terms of the reversal of physics and
computation. I won't recapitulate the arguments here, since they're already
given earlier in the thread. In summary, the conclusion is that, to salvage
comp or CTM, we must abandon the notion of primitive physics (at least as
being relevant in explanation) in favour of primitive computation. But
primitive computation mustn't in the first instance be understood as
*some computation in particular* taking this basic and irreducible
explanatory role. We are looking rather for something that will stand for a
definition of *computation itself*.

To establish this notion we need to posit an ontology sufficient to emulate
computation itself. In the UDA, arithmetical relations are accepted as
sufficing for this purpose (consult the expert for details) and, in terms
of such relations, a sigma_1 complete theory is accepted as defining the
necessary scope of computation. The establishment of such a basis for
computation itself, free of any purportedly more-primitive restriction on
its scope, is what lets, so to speak, the central notion of the UD off the
leash. In terms of such a theory, an infinitely fractal structure,
consequent on the recursive dovetailing implicit in any such theory, will
come to dominate statistically the residual measure of any computation in
particular. This seems (admittedly with some hand-waving on my part) to be
rather obvious in general, if not specific, terms.

David

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Re: John Searle on consciousness

2014-07-27 Thread David Nyman
Hilarious! I've always had a soft spot for Searle. He writes very
well, he's much more entertaining than most philosophers and his
riveting 1984 series of Reith Lectures on the BBC re-ignited my
fascination with the topic. But his would-be-simple solution of the
mind-body problem holds up only so long as you fail to notice how
often he contradicts himself. For example, in this very video, he
ridicules behaviourism (i.e. reductionism writ large) and
computationalism and then assures us that consciousness is simply a
system feature of neurology (i.e. the behaviour of the brain). As
ever, his elucidation of the problem is more helpful than any proposed
solution he offers, but I guess that just puts him in the same camp as
(most of) the rest of us.

David

On 27 July 2014 09:40, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:
 https://www.ted.com/talks/john_searle_our_shared_condition_consciousness

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Re: CTM and the UDA (again!)

2014-07-27 Thread David Nyman
 with this stipulation, the
MGA seems still to imply that the brain as observed embodies neither
consciousness, nor the specific computations that underlie it. Rather,
*that* brain is a means by which such consciousness is manifested in
relation to a reality (as you are wont to say). In terms of my LCD
analogy, the brain that we observe is a computation at the level of
the movie, but the deeper computations that are responsible, both for
that observation and our observing of it, are at the level of the
screen.

 The problem is only for the higher order *first person* relation
 with the physical activity of the device, ISTM (It seems to me).

Then we would seem to agree here.

 If this analogy holds, at least in general outline, what
 justification, under CTM, could remain for any assumption that our own
 observations and references might accidentally allude to some
 LCD-physics postulated, mutatis mutandis, as underlying the COR? Would it
 not seem extraordinary that any such underlying physics could contrive to
 refer to itself through the medium of its merely computational
 derivatives?

 Not sure. If arithmetic can do that, why not physics?

Because with a schema based on arithmetic it becomes possible to
differentiate the level of the movie from the level of the screen. In
arithmetic, it is accepted that all physical references are confined
to the COR (i.e. are at the level of the movie). The screen is a
deeper level that need not (indeed, in arithmetic, cannot) be strictly
isomorphic with what is manifested at the level of the movie. So the
immediate problem with the conjunction of a primitive physics and CTM
is that phenomena at the level of the movie get conflated with those
at the level of the screen (i.e. the brain as observed gets
conflated with the brain responsible for observation). These are
hardly original insights as Plato and Kant (to name but two) have long
since pointed them out. The assumption of CTM immediately implies a
COR (or more colloquially that observed reality is a kind of
full-participation movie). From this point forward any notion, that
the level of the representational device can simply be assumed to be
isomorphic with what is represented by means of it, is unwarranted and
unjustified. Indeed, it is incoherent.

 THAT physics would necessarily be entirely
 inscrutable and inaccessible for reference at the level of the COR (think of
 the LCD analogy). And hence we simply would have no a priori justification
 for assuming the observational physics of the COR to be isomorphic with some
 notional underlying LCD-physics. In fact, once having assumed CTM, we
 would have no further basis for assigning THAT physics any role whatsoever
 in our explanatory strategy.

 At first sight I agree here.

Nice. Well it seems that, pace vocabulary differences, that I trust
are a little clearer now, we agree. In fact, the more I think about
it, the more ISTM that the reference problem is the hidden Hard
Problem at the heart of physics. It is as if we maintain a sort of
primary cognitive dissonance to avoid confronting it. Since what I've
called the COR (or some kind of virtual reality account of
consciousness) is the default assumption in science, it must surely be
obvious that the logic of observation can only refer at its own
level. Hence anything we conjecture as being responsible for that
level must automatically be considered noumenal with respect to
observed phenomena. Yet much of physics seems tacitly to assume that
observed phenomena *refer in fact* to a noumenon that is essentially
isomorphic with what is observed (albeit many orders of magnitude
removed). I've rarely seen any explicit justification of why we would
suppose that to be the case, but typically if you ask for one, you get
a circular answer (e.g. in terms of evolutionary utility). But to be
satisfied with any such answer is to be blind to the fact that it must
in fact be couched entirely in terms of the COR. I guess it's hardly
surprising that any serious attempt to defend such a notion in detail
quickly runs into the buffers.

David

 David,

 As I try to see if we disagree, or if it is just a problem of vocabulary, I
 will make comment which might, or not be like I am nitpicking, and that
 *might* be the case, and then I apologize.


 On 23 Jul 2014, at 15:38, David Nyman wrote:

 Recent discussions, mainly with Brent and Bruno, have really got me thinking
 again about the issues raised by CTM and the UDA. I'll try to summarise some
 of my thoughts in this post. The first thing to say, I think, is that the
 assumption of CTM is equivalent to accepting the existence of an effectively
 self-contained computationally-observable regime (COR).



 My problem here is that COR is ambiguous. I don't know what you mean by
 sef-contained computationally-observable regime.
 It seems to me that UD* *is* such a self-contained computable/computational
 structure, and the existence of both the UD and UD* are *theorem* of
 arithmetic, which means

Re: CTM and the UDA (again!)

2014-07-27 Thread David Nyman
On 23 July 2014 17:49, Jesse Mazer laserma...@gmail.com wrote:

 So, why not adopt a Tegmark-like view where a physical universe is
 *nothing more* than a particular abstract computation, and that can give us
 a well-defined notion of which sub-computations are performed within it by
 various physical processes?

Essentially because of the argument of Step 7 of the UDA. The
assumption here is that consciousness (i.e. the logic of the
first-person) is derived from computation. It then follows that we
cannot ignore the possibility in principle of building a computer
that not only implements a UD but also runs it for long enough to
generate its infinite trace, UD* (incorporating, by the way, a
fractal-like infinity of such dovetailing). If denying such a
possibility on grounds of a lack of primitively-physical resources
is evasive, to deny it on grounds of a lack of mathematical
resources is surely merely incoherent.

But if we do not deny it, but rather embrace it, we can see that such
a structure would inevitably dominate any observational reality. We
would then see physical processes in the first place as the logic of
what is *manifested* in observation, as distinct from a more
fundamental logic of observation itself. IOW the logic of physical
manifestation is (assumed to be) a consequence of a radical asymmetry
of measure inherent in the computational infinity of the UD*, as
filtered through a deeper logic of observation implemented in its
universally self-referential sub-class. Here the natural analogy is
with The Library of Babel, with the crucial difference of the
self-filtering characteristic of universal self-reference. This is the
first step in filtering out the Vast regions of gibberish that make
the alphabetical version of the library so unusable. We must also
assume that canonical physical law emerges as a consequence of
intrinsic statistical asymmetries, in order to justify the observed
probabilistic distribution (i.e. the prevalence of normal over
white rabbit experiences).

David

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Re: CTM and the UDA (again!)

2014-07-27 Thread David Nyman
On 27 July 2014 17:27, Jesse Mazer laserma...@gmail.com wrote:

 I don't see why that should follow at all, as long as there are multiple
 infinite computations running rather than the UDA being the only one,

I may be missing some other point you're making, but I think this is
already dealt with after Step 8 of the UDA (universal dovetailer
argument). By this point in the argument, we have abandoned the notion
of a primitively-physical universe. Given that we are assuming CTM,
we need some ontology to fix the notion of computation, and
arithmetical relations suffice for this purpose. At this point, we're
not interested in quibbling over the meaning of words like
existence, but rather in seeing what we can derive from a given
assumption. Anyhow, if arithmetic is taken as the ontology, then given
its sufficiency to fix the notion of computation, the existence of a
Programmatic Library of Babel is already entailed.

Such a  Library must in particular contain universal dovetailers
that themselves generate every possible program and execute each of
them in sequence by means of dovetailing. This must include
recursively regenerating themselves in an infinitely fractal manner.
This characteristic implies a quite extraordinarily explosive
regenerative redundancy. Hence it seems plausible a priori, even
without a detailed calculus, that the resulting computational
structure (i.e. the infinite trace of the UD, or UD*) must completely
dominate any measure competition within the computational landscape
defined by arithmetical truth (or the small part of it needed for the
assumption).

David

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Re: CTM and the UDA (again!)

2014-07-27 Thread David Nyman
On 27 July 2014 18:46, Jesse Mazer laserma...@gmail.com wrote:

 But when you say by this point in the argument, do you mean there was  
 some
 earlier step that established some good *reasons* for why we should abandon
 the notion of a primitively-physical universe (or primitive universal
 computation), or is it just something that was posited at some point for the
 purposes of exploring the consequences, without any claim that this posit
 was implied by earlier steps in the argument?

No, it is the strong implication of Step 7 on the basis of Steps 0-6,
and the only option available after Step 8, short of abandoning CTM
(i.e. the computational theory of mind, which is Step 0 of the UDA).
My intention in starting this thread was (hopefully) to clarify Steps
7 and 8. Anyway, the short-hand version of CTM is that you are willing
to accept (yes, doctor) that there is a classical level of
description of your brain at which your consciousness will be
invariant for a correct substitution at that level. Since clearly we
have no idea in practice what that level may be, yes doctor is
considered to be an act of faith.

 That seems very handwavey to me,

In my hands it most certainly is hand-wavey! I suggest you consult
Bruno for a version that relies less on manual dexterity.

 and while it might seem plausible initially
 I think it becomes less so when you think more carefully about how measure
 might actually be assigned. Do you disagree that if we use the particular
 definition of measure I suggest, in the example I gave with U and U' (both
 containing a universal dovetailer alongside a bunch of other computers
 churning out endless copies of me in Washington or me in Moscow) the UD   
 will
 *not* dominate the measure competition, in that U and U' will give very
 different answers to the relative likelihood that I find myself in
 Washington vs. Moscow in Bruno's thought-experiment?

Well, a bunch of other computers still seems to assume something
more primitive than the simple assumption of arithmetic for the
ontology. In terms of the UDA, all bunches of computers are already
subsumed within the infinite redundancy of UD*.

David




 On Sun, Jul 27, 2014 at 1:13 PM, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:

 On 27 July 2014 17:27, Jesse Mazer laserma...@gmail.com wrote:

  I don't see why that should follow at all, as long as there are multiple
  infinite computations running rather than the UDA being the only one,

 I may be missing some other point you're making, but I think this is
 already dealt with after Step 8 of the UDA (universal dovetailer
 argument). By this point in the argument, we have abandoned the notion
 of a primitively-physical universe.


 But when you say by this point in the argument, do you mean there was some
 earlier step that established some good *reasons* for why we should abandon
 the notion of a primitively-physical universe (or primitive universal
 computation), or is it just something that was posited at some point for the
 purposes of exploring the consequences, without any claim that this posit
 was implied by earlier steps in the argument? As I said, it seems that
 someone could accept everything in steps 1-6 of Bruno's argument but still
 posit that the measure of each observer-moment would be determined by its
 limit frequency in some unique universe-computation U.



 Given that we are assuming CTM,
 we need some ontology to fix the notion of computation, and
 arithmetical relations suffice for this purpose.



 Sorry, what does CTM stand for? It doesn't appear anywhere in Bruno's
 Comp (2013) paper which I'm using for reference.

 BTW, I suggested an ontology in the earlier comment to Bruno at
 http://www.mail-archive.com/everything-list@googlegroups.com/msg16244.html
 -- basically using an axiomatic system which allows you to deduce the
 truth-value of various propositions about a computation, propositions
 equivalent to statements like after N time steps, the read/write head of
 the Turing machine moves to space 1185 on the Turing tape, finds a 0 there,
 changes its internal state from #5 to #8 and changes the digit there to 1.
 Then, a given computation can be defined in terms of the logical relations
 between a set of propositions, so one computation A can contain an
 instance of another computation B if some subset of propositions about A
 have an isomorphic structure of logical relations to the logical relations
 between propositions about B.

 Since the structure of arithmetic can also be defined in terms of a set of
 propositions with logical relations between them, and any statement about a
 particular computation can be decided by determining the truth-value of a
 corresponding statement about arithmetic, it may be that defining
 computations in terms of arithmetical relations would lead to all the same
 conclusions as the definition I suggest above, though I'm not sure.




 Such a  Library must in particular contain universal dovetailers
 that themselves

Re: It Knows That It Knows

2014-07-25 Thread David Nyman
. But it is equally essential that this 3p
reality is complemented, one might even say redeemed, as a TOE, by
the further entailment of the explicitly 1p logical modalities of the
conscious knower. So it is only with comp's 1p apotheosis, in the form
of those modalities and that knower, that we can see the sense in
which fire can finally be breathed into the equations.

  What might prevent us from seeing this is that we can't help
imagining the proposed scenario   from a God's-eye perspective. God
then takes the role of the knower and sees that Deep   Blue is
still there. Thus we have unwittingly justified our ascription of
Deep Blue to some   aspect of the generalised ontology by
divine retrospection.
 
  That makes sense. The outer God gave rise to the inner God which
contemplate the outer   God, and eventually they can join, and
separate again, in the course of many lives, inside and   in between
people.

Exactly. I think that seeing this may help to clarify my meaning. I hope.

 I am rereading the Quran and the Bhagavad Gita, it might help for this.

Cool :-)

David



 On 23 Jul 2014, at 21:59, David Nyman wrote:

 On 23 July 2014 18:25, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 You miss, and perhaps David's too (?), the fact that above a threshold of 
 relative complexity, the lower level is not relevant for the description of 
 the higher level. It would be like asking why Obama has been elected?, and 
 getting back the answer: everything followed the SWE.


 Hmm...Well, I originally suggested that the knower *couldn't* simply be 
 reduced to computation or numbers, unlike the case of physical reducibility. 
 In my view, the presence of a 1p knower is what retrospectively justifies 
 realism about higher-level 3p structures with which the knower is to be 
 associated. To see what I mean, let's assume that there is some putative 
 ontology that can't in principle be used to justify the presence of such a 
 knower. Any higher-level scenario conceived in terms of such an ontology is 
 then vulnerable to a particularly pernicious species of zombie 
 reductionism. It isn't merely that the radical absence of first person-hood 
 leaves in its wake nothing but zombies with 3p functional bodies but no 
 consciousness. It's much more radical than that. The zombie body is now 
 radically lacking in existence-for-itself. Consequently, the distinction 
 between any such putative body and its ontological reduction is a 
 differentiation without a difference. To put it another way, there is nobody 
 present for whom it could represent a difference.


 It still exist, or the difference 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, ... will need itself a 
 knower to make sense. But with comp, we don't need more than the elementary 
 arithmetic truth, to eventually make a knower by filtering the truth by a 
 body or a representational set of beliefs.

 Rough artificial cops on the road, made in woods are zombies, but their 
 existence still makes senses in the 3p, for a putative observer present of 
 not.

 We the computational histories existe logically before the consciousness 
 flux differentiate into knower interpreting themselves, if we want use the 
 computation as defined in the usual 3p theoretical computer science.




 I realise this may be difficult to accept, for example in the case of Deep 
 Blue that you posed to me. However, imagine re-posing this case with respect 
 to an ontology with which (let us assume) a knower could not *in principle* 
 be associated.


 That might not be as easy as you think, but let us see.




 In that case there could be no effective distinction between Deep Blue and 
 its physical reduction,


 Why? That's not true. In UD* Deep blue has the time to play basically all 
 chess games, perhaps even with all humans, much before the UD get the 
 simulation of our good real blue at the level of the atoms of its late real 
 incarnation.

 Even in the 3p, Deep blue is already more in its code, goal, strategies, 
 examples, and high level skills, like his elementary belief in a the token of 
 the game, the position on the chessboard. Even that abstract guy would 
 survive, if we implement it in the Babbage machine. It is not a knower in 
 the comp sense, because it has no well defined set of beliefs that he can 
 express, but it might already experience something, hard to say without 
 looking at the code (I think it is still in large part brut force, and that 
 it does not represent itself to play, so we have not enough to apply 
 Theaetetus).





 since we have ruled out, by assumption, the possibility of persons to whom 
 this could represent a difference.


 Except the difference between being, and not being, relatively to some 
 universal reality.

 The soul has a third person origin, even God has a third person origin, as 
 the outer God is a complete 3p reality (arithmetical truth, or the sigma_1 
 part).




 What might prevent us from seeing this is that we can't help imagining the 
 proposed

Re: It Knows That It Knows

2014-07-25 Thread David Nyman
On 24 July 2014 22:44, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 So I think you just saying I am missing the qualia - but that's the part
 that I think it is unreasonable to ask for an explanation of.  In what terms
 can it be explained - I'd say none.  And I don't think your explanation in
 terms of computation, while different and interesting, is any more complete
 than my physical one.

The qualia per se are not the capital point IMO. What may be even
Harder is precisely what comp purports to explain (and what would
consequently make it more complete than physics): a deep and necessary
relation between 1p and 3p logical regimes. The explanatory strategy
is to show how such regimes can be specifically distinguishable whilst
at the same time elucidating their inter-dependence. It also purports
to explain, again specifically in terms of the relation between the
two regimes, their necessary limitations of mutual reference. In terms
of this schema, whatever is sharable between 3p and 1p explanatory
entities and relations is to be found at the crossing-point, or common
point of reference, of two specifically distinguishable logical
regimes. They will finally be explicable (in comp terms) as the same
thing under two distinct, though limited, descriptions.

Physics (as a theory of what is observable, as distinct from a theory
of observation that embraces a theory of what is observable) does not
set out to explain any such relation. It is, of course, unreasonable
to ask for a 1p account from any theory whose terms of reference are
thus explicitly limited. To the extent that any such relation is
confronted in physical terms, there is typically a reliance (usually
tacit) on comp as the vehicle. There is also what is possibly an even
more deeply tacit reliance on a God's-eye default knower/interpreter.
Indeed it is only because of this latter assumption that we are able
to talk without apparent incoherence in terms of a universe that
exists independent of observation.

David

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Re: [New post] Why Probability in Quantum Mechanics is Given by the Wave Function Squared

2014-07-24 Thread David Nyman
On 24 July 2014 18:40, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

This may clarify (or provoke) discussion of Moscow vs. Washington.  It's
 interesting that Carroll and Sebens use FPI and Sean says it increases his
 confidence in Everett's MWI.  But in his penultimate paragraph he
 essentially lays out an endorsement of Fuchs QBism, which is generally seen
 as the instrumentalist alternative to MWI.


Brent, could you possibly summarise what you see as the essential
distinction between the CS and Fuchs alternatives for dummies?

David

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CTM and the UDA (again!)

2014-07-23 Thread David Nyman
Recent discussions, mainly with Brent and Bruno, have really got me
thinking again about the issues raised by CTM and the UDA. I'll try to
summarise some of my thoughts in this post. The first thing to say, I
think, is that the assumption of CTM is equivalent to accepting the
existence of an effectively self-contained computationally-observable
regime (COR). By its very definition, the COR sets the limits of possible
physical observation or empirical discovery. In principle, any physical
phenomenon, whatever its scale, could be brought under observation if only
we had a big enough collider. But by the same token, no matter how big the
collider, no such observable could escape its confinement within the limits
of the COR.

If we accept that the existence of a COR is entailed by assuming CTM, we
come naturally to the question of what might be doing the computation. In
terms of the UDA, by the time we get to Step 7, it should be obvious that,
in principle, we could build a computer from primitive physical
components that would effectively implement the infinite trace of the UD
(UD*). Furthermore, if such a computer were indeed to be implemented, the
COR would necessarily exist in its entirety somewhere within the infinite
redundancy of that trace. This realisation alone might well persuade us, on
grounds of explanatory parsimony and the avoidance of somewhat strained or
ad hoc reservations, to accept FAPP that UD*-COR. Should we be so
persuaded, any putative underlying physical computer would have already
become effectively redundant to further explanation.

Notwithstanding this, we may still feel the need to retain reservations of
practicability. Perhaps the physical universe isn't actually sufficiently
robust to permit the building of such a computer? Or, even if that were
granted, could it not just be the case that no such computer actually
exists? Reservations of this sort can indeed be articulated, although
worryingly, they may still seem to leave us rather vulnerable to being
captured by Bostrom-type simulation scenarios. The bottom line however
seems to be this: Under CTM, can we justify the singularisation, or
confinement, of a computation, and hence whatever is deemed to be
observable in terms of that computation, to some particular physical
computer (e.g. a brain)? More generally, can we limit all possibility of
observation to a particular class of computations wholly delimited by the
activity of a corresponding sub-class of physical objects (uniquely
characterisable as physical computers) within the limits of a
definitively physical universe?

This is where Step 8 comes in. Step 7 seeks to destabilise our naive
intuition about an exclusive 1-to-1 relationship between computations and
particular physical objects by pointing to the consequences of a physical
implementation of UD*. Step 8 however is a change of tactic. First, it
postulates a scenario where physical tokens have been contrived to
represent a conscious computation (either in terms of a brain or in terms
of a substitute computer). Then it sets out to shows how all putatively
computational relations between such tokens could in principle be
disrupted without change in the net physical action or environmental
relations of the system that embodies them. Step 8 differs from Step 7 in
that it seeks in the first instance to undermine the very notion that
physical activity can robustly embody *any* second-order relations above
and beyond those of net physical action. Accepting such a stringent
conclusion would then seem to rule out CTM prima facie. The only
possibility of salvaging it would lie in an explanatory strategy in terms
of which computational relations take logical precedence over physical
ones. Given that computational relations are effectively arithmetical, this
in turn leads to the conclusion that CTM-UD*-COR (or more generally, that
each implies the others).

Notwithstanding this it would seem that Step 8 is not wholly persuasive to
everybody, so is there yet another tack? The line of argument that I've
been pursuing with Brent has led me to consider the following analogy,
which I'm sure you'll recognise. Consider something like an LCD screen as
constituting the universe of all possible movie-dramas. In terms of this
analogy, what are the referents of any physical observations on the part
of the dramatis personae featured in such presentations? IOW what are we to
suppose Joe Friday to be referring to when he asks for Just the facts,
ma'am? Well, the one thing we can be sure of is that NO such reference can
allude to the underlying physics (i.e. the pixels and their relations) of
the LCD display. If this analogy holds, at least in general outline, what
justification, under CTM, could remain for any assumption that our own
observations and references might accidentally allude to some
LCD-physics postulated, mutatis mutandis, as underlying the COR? Would it
not seem extraordinary that any such underlying physics could contrive to

Re: It Knows That It Knows

2014-07-23 Thread David Nyman
On 23 July 2014 18:25, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

You miss, and perhaps David's too (?), the fact that above a threshold of
 relative complexity, the lower level is not relevant for the description of
 the higher level. It would be like asking why Obama has been elected?,
 and getting back the answer: everything followed the SWE.


Hmm...Well, I originally suggested that the knower *couldn't* simply be
reduced to computation or numbers, unlike the case of physical
reducibility. In my view, the presence of a 1p knower is what
retrospectively justifies realism about higher-level 3p structures with
which the knower is to be associated. To see what I mean, let's assume that
there is some putative ontology that can't in principle be used to justify
the presence of such a knower. Any higher-level scenario conceived in terms
of such an ontology is then vulnerable to a particularly pernicious species
of zombie reductionism. It isn't merely that the radical absence of first
person-hood leaves in its wake nothing but zombies with 3p functional
bodies but no consciousness. It's much more radical than that. The zombie
body is now radically lacking in existence-for-itself. Consequently, the
distinction between any such putative body and its ontological reduction
is a differentiation without a difference. To put it another way, there is
nobody present for whom it could represent a difference.

I realise this may be difficult to accept, for example in the case of Deep
Blue that you posed to me. However, imagine re-posing this case with
respect to an ontology with which (let us assume) a knower could not *in
principle* be associated. In that case there could be no effective
distinction between Deep Blue and its physical reduction, since we have
ruled out, by assumption, the possibility of persons to whom this could
represent a difference. What might prevent us from seeing this is that we
can't help imagining the proposed scenario from a God's-eye perspective.
God then takes the role of the knower and sees that Deep Blue is still
there. Thus we have unwittingly justified our ascription of Deep Blue to
some aspect of the generalised ontology by divine retrospection.

David

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Re: It Knows That It Knows

2014-07-20 Thread David Nyman
Have you read Julian Jaynes The Origin of Consciousness in the Breakdown
of the Bicameral Mind?

Great book! Even if they are impossible to verify in detail, Jaynes's ideas
are a terrific stimulus to thinking about both the function and the origin
of consciousness (in the 3p sense). By the way, I once used TOOCITBOTBM in
a game of charades. They got it!

David
On 20 Jul 2014 13:46, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 On 7/19/2014 11:37 PM, Kim Jones wrote:

 On 20 Jul 2014, at 3:51 pm, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 It could be that language constructs the self (or perhaps more precisely
 that using language allowed us to create the concept of a self as one
 amongst many linguistic concepts).

 I don't grok this thing of the self 'evolving' like brains and thumbs. We
 surely didn't create the concept of the self. The self did not evolve. It
 switched ON. It awoke. There was a moment. It was a moment in history. Kind
 of like the ape and the bone in Kubrick's '2001'.



 You seem to know a lot about it.  Have you read Julian Jaynes The Origin
 of Consciousness in the Breakdown of the Bicameral Mind?

 Brent


 It may be that some substance consumed altered consciousness. From that
 moment forward, there was a signal difference. The possibility of suffering
 being a very large one. I don't think, along with Russell Standish, that
 ants are conscious, for example - but individuals may share in a group
 'self'. Selfhood is independent  of minds or of contents of minds or the
 precision or mental acuity (perception) of minds. It appears to be the kind
 of knowledge of something that cannot be demonstrated in any 3p way.

 K


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Chalmers and Consciousness

2014-07-20 Thread David Nyman
https://www.youtube.com/watch?feature=player_embeddedv=uhRhtFFhNzQ

This is a TED video of David Chalmers on the Hard Problem. His basic ideas
will be pretty well known to most of us on this list although
interestingly, he now seems less equivocal about panpsychism than in The
Conscious Mind. He talks about the need for crazy ideas to tackle the
Hard Problem. In this regard, he mentions Daniel Dennett's
functionalism-is-everything and his his own formulation of information +
panpsychism as examples of such crazy theories. However, IMHO these ideas
simply aren't crazy enough to confront the Hardest part of the problem.
Both seem blind to the crucial need to *reconcile* the 1p and 3p accounts,
albeit they ignore it in opposite ways. Dennett's position is essentially
to eliminate the 1p part, whereas panpsychism (with or without
information) just seems incoherent on the reconciliation. Chalmers seems
to consider the outstanding problem in the latter case to be structural
mismatch (i.e. physical things don't appear to be structured like mental
things). He proposes that this might be solved by invoking informational
structure as encoded in physical systems.

However, ISTM that the really Hard problem (at least a priori) is not
structural, but referential. IOW, how can phenomena that are (putatively)
the mutual *referents* of the mind and the brain be shown, in some rigorous
sense, to be equivalent, always assuming that one or the other isn't
tacitly eliminated from the explanation? Indeed, if one accepts physics as
a self-sufficient level of explanation, what purely 3p justification, or
need, is there for claiming that a physical system refers at all, as
distinct from what is already explained in terms of physical interaction?
This is well captured by the Paradox of Phenomenal Judgement (POPJ). The
POPJ asks: With reference to what theory (specifically and in detail) is it
possible to reconcile the claim that utterances about mental phenomena
are exhaustively reducible to purely physical processes, with the parallel
claim that such utterances refer to 1p phenomena that are not so reducible?

Comp, of course, purports to have the theoretical resources to justify such
a reconciliation.  Any other contenders?

David

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-17 Thread David Nyman
On 14 July 2014 02:36, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

But from the above I'm led to wonder whether you've actually read the MGA,
 so I repeat them here for convenient reference:


Hi Brent - did you see my response to this?

David

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Re: Autism, Aspbergers, and the Hard Problem

2014-07-16 Thread David Nyman
On 16 July 2014 14:02, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

but I would say it is very likely that having mindreading-empathy deficits
 on the autistic spectrum would tend to result in a strong bias against
 idealism, panpsychism, free will, or the hard problem of consciousness.


I must say I've often wondered about this very thing in the course of some
online discussions. However I try not to fall prey too readily to any
assumption of this sort, to at least temper any tendency on my part to
debate the person rather than the argument.

David

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-14 Thread David Nyman
 any of its sub-classes. Consequently, it must be the case that,
 although one can construct an argument for the emergence of physical
 relations in the form of an observer-dependent sub-class of
 computation, there simply can be no parallel argument available in the
 opposite direction.

 Of course there can.  All you have to do is be equally assertive.
 Mathematics is fundamentally physical.

OK, so in that case we must regard it as fully reducible to physical
action simpliciter.

 And clearly physics as a whole is
 more extensive than any sub-class; not every physical process is conscious
 or is a computation.

Well I guess I would have to argue that, under strictly physicalist
assumptions, NO physical process is, in any non-question begging
sense, conscious or a computation. If it is sufficient in principle
that all physical action fall within the scope of reductive
explanation then what is left over, or unaccounted for? Supernumerary
hypotheses such as computation and thought consequently demand
justification beyond the reach of the a priori assumptions of bare
reductionism. Nonetheless I feel I must concede, albeit a tad
unwillingly, that Bruno is probably correct in pointing out that it is
only in considering the 1p part that this conclusion becomes
absolutely unavoidable.

 Although one can easily construct an argument for the
 emergence of mathematical thoughts and computation based on evolution,

Again I would stipulate that one can easily construct such an argument
only so long as one ignores the a priori assumption that mathematical
thoughts, computation and evolution are exhaustively reducible to
physical action simpliciter. It follows in principle that there is no
requirement for the further hypotheses of mathematical thoughts and
computation, or for that matter evolution, in explaining the relevant
transitions between physical states that putatively constitute them.
One can hardly then avoid the conclusion that these hypotheses are
motivated by a posteriori psychological or epistemological
considerations as distinct from a priori physical ones.

 there can be no parallel argument in the opposite direction.

Well, that of course is moot indeed. Actually, having forced myself
once again through these mental contortions I feel I now have a
somewhat firmer grasp of Bruno's reversal argument purely *on the
assumption of CTM*. Even if we accept, for the sake of the argument, a
definition of computation as physical, as soon as we hypothesise the
existence of a physically infinite UD (i.e. Step 7) we cannot avoid
the necessity of justifying the entire spectrum of physical phenomena
from the resources of computational logic alone. And in that case we
find that what we have originally conceived as a fundamental physics
underlying computation has already been relegated to the status of a
kind of sub-noumenon that can have no further role in explanation.
Consequently I can appreciate, as more than purely Gallic sentiment,
Bruno's allegation of explanatory treachery in the face of reluctance
to accept the consequences of that reversal unless the physical
existence of an infinitely-running UD can be proved beyond a
peradventure.

David


 On 7/13/2014 5:38 PM, David Nyman wrote:

 On 13 July 2014 22:01, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Well, if you still hold to your earlier opinion, you should agree
 that, in terms of an explanatory hierarchy based on an ontology of
 molecular kinetics, temperature must be considered to have been
 eliminated *ontologically* (i.e. to have been revealed as *nothing
 more than* the underlying kinetics).

 I can, and see what you mean, but I prefer not, because I am realist on the
 relations and higher 3p description too.

 Well, I'm still not really convinced that the fundamental assumptions
 of physical reduction justify your realism on the higher-level
 descriptions. But actually I'm not even sure that one need insist on
 this to stop the notion of physical computation dead in its tracks.
 And of course if one can do this then it must also, a fortiori, put a
 stop to any idea of linking any such notion with consciousness. This
 reductio was really the point of my argument and if I had to sum it up
 for grandma I would say that the key idea is just that, ex hypothesi
 physicalism, action of any sort and at whatever level of description
 must always be reducible to *physical action simpliciter*. So
 accepting physics as a TOE is equivalent to accepting both that no
 possible action can be omitted from its explanatory scope and that no
 further class of action need be appealed to in accounting for any
 physical state of affairs.

 I think from that one can already get the idea that, under such
 assumptions, supplementary notions such as computation are simply
 *redundant* in explaining physical action. Indeed the MGA itself
 exploits this basic insight by showing how relations originally
 accepted as computational can be entirely evacuated from a physical
 system whilst

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-14 Thread David Nyman
On 14 July 2014 18:26, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Such
 explanations are bottom up all the way down. Hence there is simply no
 place in that explanatory hierarchy for any supplementary notion of
 computation distinguishable from what is already fully embodied in
 physical action.

 Hmm... You do the non relevant mistake again (or I misinterpret you
 badly). I am afraid that what you say here for physics can be applied to
 arithmetic too.

No doubt I may be mistaken (I'm trying to be clear enough to be
wrong). Computation per se may indeed be reducible to just the basic
number relations, in something like the sense that matter, under
physicalism (phys), is reducible to just the basic physical
relations. But ISTM, that comp is redeemed from (or as you say
vaccinated against) reduction (and by the same token zombie-hood) by
the irreducible emergence of the internal views. It is much more
difficult to see how phys can be redeemed in any comparable way
without resorting at least tacitly to comp (at which point the
difficulties begin anew).

 This in my opinion already does not eliminate the reality of the 3p
 high level description, but of course constitutes a threat to eliminate the
 role of consciousness.

But do you think that the 3p high-level description would be equally
real if (somehow) it were not ultimately redeemable by the internal
views (e.g. if, counter-factually, my own high-level 3p description
merely resulted in zombie-hood)?

 Here physicalism fails, almost because it is not interested in
 consciousness. Here QM (and especially Everett-QM) should open the mind of
 the physicists that such a reductionism mind = brain state is failing.

Yes, this is the point I have been making for some time now.

 But the machine itself has a natural knower associated to it.

Forgive me for not commenting more extensively on your remarks (which
I will study) but this seems to me to be the absolutely capital point.
ISTM above all else that a natural knower is the crux of the
redemption of the first person from exhaustive physical reduction and
effective elimination. It's precisely the radical absence of such a
natural knower in the reductive hierarchy of phys - indeed the
irrelevance of such a knower to its defining mode of explanation -
that I've continually had in mind. Of course, it may still seem open
to phys to make a grab for the knower associated to the machine,
unless the conjunction of comp and phys can be shown to be
incompatible, or at least lead to the explanatory irrelevance of the
latter.

 I can understand your attitude here, and I draw the same conclusion,
 but I still think it a pity to miss any potential opportunity to
 de-construct the notion of physical computation in its own terms.

 All right, just be careful to not de-construct 3p computer science and
 3p-number theory in the same élan :)

Hmm.. that would be a Pyrrhic victory indeed. However, as I've said,
ISTM that comp, unlike phys, has the internal resources to resist any
analogous de-construction.

David



 On 14 Jul 2014, at 02:38, David Nyman wrote:

 On 13 July 2014 22:01, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Well, if you still hold to your earlier opinion, you should agree
 that, in terms of an explanatory hierarchy based on an ontology of
 molecular kinetics, temperature must be considered to have been
 eliminated *ontologically* (i.e. to have been revealed as *nothing
 more than* the underlying kinetics).


 I can, and see what you mean, but I prefer not, because I am realist on
 the
 relations and higher 3p description too.


 Well, I'm still not really convinced that the fundamental assumptions
 of physical reduction justify your realism on the higher-level
 descriptions.


 I see, and perhaps I should not have made that remark here, as it is
 distracting from the issue that you discuss with Brent.
 I really don't think it is important (here).




 But actually I'm not even sure that one need insist on
 this to stop the notion of physical computation dead in its tracks.


 But only through the MGA, because at step seven, we might still, from a
 logical point of view, make a move toward the assumption that the real
 physical is not robust enough to run a significant part of the UD*.
 Of course that move is ad hoc, and then MGA attempts to show how much that
 move is ad hoc.

 But the existence or not of high level 3p objects is not really relevant to
 kill the notion of physical computation, or of primitively physical
 entities.





 And of course if one can do this then it must also, a fortiori, put a
 stop to any idea of linking any such notion with consciousness. This
 reductio was really the point of my argument and if I had to sum it up
 for grandma I would say that the key idea is just that, ex hypothesi
 physicalism, action of any sort and at whatever level of description
 must always be reducible to *physical action simpliciter*. So
 accepting physics as a TOE is equivalent to accepting both

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-13 Thread David Nyman
minimal first-order combinatorial ontology (such as RA). FAPP, in
terms of the comp explanatory strategy, this comes to be represented
by the infinite trace of the UD. It might, I guess, be arguable that
computation is a phenomenon of arithmetic, but certainly not in any
straightforwardly hierarchical sense analogous to, say,
temperature/molecular kinetics. Whatever the nuances, computation -
and in particular its self-referential sub-class - is the singular
phenomenon explicitly relied on in the noumenal explanatory
basement. From this point forward the explanatory strategy necessarily
shifts from the noumenal view from nowhere to the epistemological
view from everywhere; or from 3p to 1p (plural).

That is to say, all phenomena must from here on be justified by
reference to *explicitly knowable* modalities of logic and truth,
filtered from the computational everything, by the competing points of
view of its noumenal machinery. Consequently physics - and in
particular its proprietary reductive hierarchy of explanation - is no
longer posited at the unknowable, 3p or noumenal level, but rather
entirely and exclusively at the knowable, phenomenal or 1p-plural
level, where it must appear both in its formal (reducible) and
informal (irreducible) guises. This crucial yin-yang nuance is what
points to a possible resolution of the apparently inner with the
apparently outer, aka the paradox of phenomenal judgement, or more
simply the mind-body problem.

David


 On 11 Jul 2014, at 09:41, David Nyman wrote:

 On 11 July 2014 00:54, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 As I understand the MGA it assumes physicalism and then purports to show
 that computation still exists with minimal or zero physical activity - it
 evaucates the physics and keeps the computation.


 For heaven's sake, Brent! This is what you originally said to Liz.
 What you're referring to is Maudlin's argument. It's the *opposite* of
 my understanding of the MGA, which seeks to show how physical action
 can be preserved unchanged even in cases where the original
 computational relations have been completely disrupted. I spent
 several paragraphs describing this with additional examples. You then
 commented this with I agree with all you wrote, which led to some
 further discussion based (as I thought) on this understanding.

 Your comment above now leaves me hopelessly confused. I would be
 grateful if you would review our recent discussion and clarify what
 you do or do not agree with in my analysis.



 I think that it will help to define perhaps more precisely what is a
 computation.

 I will reread the thread (many posts) when I have more time, and make only
 one comment.

 We have a computation when a universal machine compute something. We have an
 intensional Post-Church thesis 'which follows from the usual
 Post-Church-Turing thesis), which makes possible to translate universal
 machine compute something in term of numbers addition and multiplication +
 one existential quantifier.

 Now, when are two computations the same? If we fix a base phi_i, we might
 define a computations by sequences of step of the universal base computing
 some phi_k, that is the nth steps  phi_k(j)^n of the computation by the base
 of the program k on the input j, with n = 0, 1, 2, 3, etc.

 But now that very computation will recure infinitely often, and not always
 in (algorithmically) recognizable way.

 You can conceive it might not be obvious that the evolution of a game of
 life pattern (GOL is Turing-universal) is simulating a Fortran interpreter
 simulating a Lisp program computing the ph(j)^n above.

 That is exactly why our computations, with and without (and in between)
 their environment (with and without oracles) recurre infinitely often in the
 sigma_1 truth (UD*).

 So two computations can be the same at some level of description, and yet
 occurs in quite different places in the UD*.

 Comp says that there is a level of description of myself such that those
 computation *at the correct level carries my consciousness.

 But Brent, and Peter Jones, adds that the computation have to be done by a
 real thing.
 This is a bit like either choosing some particular universal number pr, and
 called it physical reality, and add the axioms that only  the phi_pr
 computations counts: the phi_pr (j)^n.

 Well, this would just select (without argument) a special sub-universal
 dovetailing among (any) universal dovetailing. The only force here is that
 somehow the quantum Everet wave, seen as such a phi_pr do solve the measure
 problem (accepting Gleason theorem does its job).

 But just choosing that phi_pr does not solve the mind-body problem, only the
 body problem in a superficial way (losing the non justifiable parts
 notably).

 Or they make that physical reality non computable (as comp needs, but they
 conjecture that it differs from the non (entirely) computable physics that
 we can extract from arithmetic (with comp). But then it is just a statement
 like your

Re: Atheist

2014-07-13 Thread David Nyman
On 12 July 2014 20:34, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 Of course they wouldn't because 17 is a prime number is a tautology.  It's
 true simply in virtue of it's meaning like x is x.  But is it a fact about
 the world or just a fact about language?

I must confess to being somewhat flabbergasted that we're still
debating the semantics and metaphysical provenance of numbers as if it
were in any way relevant to the fundamental topics under discussion.
Of course we can use the the vocabulary of numbers in everyday terms
as a proxy for whatever practical grasp of mathematics has been
achieved by humans as a product of their evolutionary engagement with
their bodies and the wider environment. Many years ago I read a
fascinating little book called The Psychology of Learning Mathematics,
on that very topic. But I can't see in what way this is relevant to
their role in the explanatory ontology of comp.

What we call physical theory boils down, I guess, to the view that a
particular, restricted class of *special* mathematical relations can
ultimately be shown sufficient to derive all subsequent phenomena that
require explanation. Comp, on the other hand, postulates that this
apparently special class can be shown, more fundamentally, to be a
spectrum of epistemological phenomena ultimately derivable from the
implications of number relations alone. Of course, in either case,
everything depends on the can be shown part and the extent to which
this is achievable is the extent, in the end, to which anyone should
take the putative ontologies seriously.

Perhaps it's a little ironical that, these days, both cosmological and
micro-physical theorising (at least in certain circles) seem to be
converging. like comp, on a species of observer-selection as a means
of justifying their putatively special class (or now classes) of
ultimate physical relations. Only comp, AFAICT, has focused
specifically on the *mechanics of observation* as central in such
selection, or on number relations simpliciter as its ultimately
sufficient combinatorial ontology. But my point remains, that in any
other respects than those stated above, arguments over the
metaphysical provenance of numbers, just like those over that of
material stuff, are beside the point.

David

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-13 Thread David Nyman
On 13 July 2014 22:01, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Well, if you still hold to your earlier opinion, you should agree
 that, in terms of an explanatory hierarchy based on an ontology of
 molecular kinetics, temperature must be considered to have been
 eliminated *ontologically* (i.e. to have been revealed as *nothing
 more than* the underlying kinetics).

 I can, and see what you mean, but I prefer not, because I am realist on the
 relations and higher 3p description too.

Well, I'm still not really convinced that the fundamental assumptions
of physical reduction justify your realism on the higher-level
descriptions. But actually I'm not even sure that one need insist on
this to stop the notion of physical computation dead in its tracks.
And of course if one can do this then it must also, a fortiori, put a
stop to any idea of linking any such notion with consciousness. This
reductio was really the point of my argument and if I had to sum it up
for grandma I would say that the key idea is just that, ex hypothesi
physicalism, action of any sort and at whatever level of description
must always be reducible to *physical action simpliciter*. So
accepting physics as a TOE is equivalent to accepting both that no
possible action can be omitted from its explanatory scope and that no
further class of action need be appealed to in accounting for any
physical state of affairs.

I think from that one can already get the idea that, under such
assumptions, supplementary notions such as computation are simply
*redundant* in explaining physical action. Indeed the MGA itself
exploits this basic insight by showing how relations originally
accepted as computational can be entirely evacuated from a physical
system whilst preserving the same net physical action (including, pace
Brent, the same relations with a physical environment). Even in the
case that we accept a notion of physical computation as an a
posteriori attribution, that attribution cannot retrospectively be
accepted as adding anything to the exhaustive reductive hierarchy of
the physical object or system in question. To put it baldly, under
physicalism, a PC or a brain is, at whatever level of description, a
physical object first last and always. Any action associated with that
object must, under the same assumptions, be exhaustively reducible to
the explanatory basement of physical entities and relations. Such
explanations are bottom up all the way down. Hence there is simply no
place in that explanatory hierarchy for any supplementary notion of
computation distinguishable from what is already fully embodied in
physical action.

In the end, the point is that, as you argue yourself, computation is a
fundamentally mathematical (indeed an arithmetical) notion, not a
physical one. And clearly computation as a whole is more extensive
than any of its sub-classes. Consequently, it must be the case that,
although one can construct an argument for the emergence of physical
relations in the form of an observer-dependent sub-class of
computation, there simply can be no parallel argument available in the
opposite direction.

 Then I think it helps to single what is precisely difficult in consciousness
 which will be the modal difference, instead of a 3p higher description.

I can understand your attitude here, and I draw the same conclusion,
but I still think it a pity to miss any potential opportunity to
de-construct the notion of physical computation in its own terms.

David



 On 13 Jul 2014, at 14:19, David Nyman wrote:

 On 11 July 2014 19:21, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 I agree with Brent, and I think everybody agree,  when he says that
 reducing
 does not eliminate.


 You are a little too quick here with your everybody, since obviously
 my whole point has been that I *don't* agree! I would remind you that,
 in an earlier iteration of this argument with Peter Jones, you said
 that 3p reductive explanation eliminates *ontologically*, but not
 *epistemologically*. This, essentially, is the distinction I've been
 insisting on.


 The problem is that a pure 3p reduction does not eliminate a 3p notion,
 either, except for consciousness, due to the fact that it is a pure 1p
 notion.

 It is not because I can explain prime number in terms of addition and
 multiplication, than prime number would not exist, that is why there is a
 whole 3p higher order 3p science.

 But that 3p science is, (and it is there that we agree, and it is the key
 relevant point in the thread with Brent), is that no 3p reduction at all can
 be done for consciousness. The analogy brain/chess playing with
 machine/self-playing works without eliminating the chess player, but does
 eliminate the chess player consciousness if we limit ourself on that
 analogy.








 But we can't use that to compare consciousness/neurons
 to temperature/molecules-kinetic.
 In that later case we reduce a 3p high
 level to a 3p lower level. And indeed, this does not eliminate
 temperature.


 Well

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-11 Thread David Nyman
On 11 July 2014 00:54, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 As I understand the MGA it assumes physicalism and then purports to show
 that computation still exists with minimal or zero physical activity - it
 evaucates the physics and keeps the computation.

For heaven's sake, Brent! This is what you originally said to Liz.
What you're referring to is Maudlin's argument. It's the *opposite* of
my understanding of the MGA, which seeks to show how physical action
can be preserved unchanged even in cases where the original
computational relations have been completely disrupted. I spent
several paragraphs describing this with additional examples. You then
commented this with I agree with all you wrote, which led to some
further discussion based (as I thought) on this understanding.

Your comment above now leaves me hopelessly confused. I would be
grateful if you would review our recent discussion and clarify what
you do or do not agree with in my analysis.

David

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread David Nyman
On 10 July 2014 04:35, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 I'm not sure about physics. I think the point of the MGA is that matter
 isn't primary? (As I've already mentioned, I'm not 100% au fait with the
 MGA.)


 It tries to show that by leading you to accept a scenario in which there
 is no physical action but which you believe is computing consciousness (of
 a dream).


That's Maudlin's argument, in which he uses a particular toy model to show
that the degree of physical action needed to implement any given
computation can be *trivialised* (though not in fact entirely eliminated).
However the MGA, in my understanding, exploits a different tack to reach a
different conclusion. It assumes a device, the systematic relation of whose
physical components is accepted as implementing a computation, which in
turn is assumed to correspond to some conscious state. The argument is then
that, even in the case that any or all of the original computational
relations (i.e. logic gates) is disrupted, an equivalent sequence of
physical states can still be made to go through. This can be by fortuitous
accident (cosmic rays or suchlike) or by the deliberate superimposition
of a recording of a prior iteration (for this reason the argument exploits
an optical computer).

So the conclusion is that the same sequence of physical states and the same
end product can persist even in the case that every *systematic relation*
between those states, originally accepted as 'implementing a computation',
has been disrupted. Hence, here it is the notion of *computation* itself,
not physical action, that has been trivialised. Essentially, the nub of the
argument is: You show me a physical device that you claim produces a given
effect *in virtue of its systematically implementing a computation*, and
I'll show you a case in which every trace of said systematic relations can
be evacuated and yet the same sequence of physical states occurs. The real
point of the MGA is to make it obvious that, ex hypothesi physicalism,
derived notions such as computation lack any *effective* role in the
production of a given physical outcome.

An example closer to home would be that the PC on which I am currently
typing might have one or innumerable faults in its logic gates but those
faults are in fact being fortuitously compensated by a series of accidents.
In such a case I would be none the wiser because the same physical results
would be produced and as far as I am concerned those results *just are* the
computation. Or, even closer to home, I may unknowingly suffer disruption
to certain synaptic junctions in my brain, but if these deficiencies happen
fortuitously to be compensated in like manner, my consciousness would be
similarly undisrupted. This latter example is actually rather plausible in
that open brain experiments have shown that external stimulus of brain
cells can elicit memory recall, strongly implying that fortuitous events
do indeed elicit the same, or similar, conscious states as those produced
by normal brain function.

In short, under physicalism, a 'computation' *just is* a particular
sequence of physical states. Indeed what else could it be? The states, so
to speak, come first and hence the notion that those states 'implement a
computation' is always an a posteriori attribution that neither need, nor
can, bring anything further to the party. In this light the particularity
of physical structures such as my PC, for example, is that they happen to
be arrangements in which certain preferred physical outcomes normally have
a greater probability of occurring relatively reliably rather than
fortuitously. In terms of such outcomes the notion of physical
computation can only be a convenient fiction which, in the final analysis
can always be shown to be *effectively* redundant. And this is indeed the
conclusion of my own more general reductio of reductionism.

David

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread David Nyman
On 7 July 2014 20:13, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 So no, there's no heresy involved in such an idea
 unless, IMHO, it is a blind for eliminativism.


 Why? Is eliminativism then the heresy?  I'm not even sure what
 'eliminativism' means in this context.  You seem to argue that reductive
 hierarchy in physics eliminates the explananda, but in Bruno's theory the
 reductive hierarchy does not?  I don't think anything is necessarily
 eliminated by explaining it.


But the unfortunate thing is that it is indeed eliminated when it is
explained reductively. And so you might well say that elimination is the
reductionist heresy. I'd be grateful, by the way, if you could be more
explicit about your reasons for disagreement than merely stating that you
don't think I'm right. When I'm wrong (which is doubtless all too
frequently) it would be helpful to know in what particulars. Anyway, what I
originally had in mind was limited to the tacit elimination of the
first-person that occurs in the exhaustive reduction of 'consciousness' to
physical action. But actually, in the course of this discussion, It's borne
in on me, with greater force than before, that it isn't only the
first-person that is eliminated in the course of reductive explanation, but
the entire third-person hierarchy above the basement level.

No explanandum of the hierarchy can be other than a proxy for its
basement-level reduction, in essentially the same sense that society is a
proxy for persons and their relations. So there must be something wrong in
the state of reductionism, at least in this bare form. And if Bruno's
theory were indeed similarly susceptible to bare reduction, the same
criticism would apply. Reductive explanation is like some flesh-eating
microbe - it eats away the structure as it reduces it, until nothing but
the bare explanatory bones remain. That indeed is its power. But, in this
bare form it can't stand alone as a theory of everything, because
manifestly everything does not appear in the form of a bare reduction. So
we need an explanatory vaccine against the microbe of reduction.

I've already said why I believe that Bruno's theory does indeed provide
such a vaccine, essentially by (partly) formalising the relation between
the One and the Many. The One, which I guess is represented here by
Arithmetical Truth, has many modes. These modes can be distinguished (in
part) by reference to detailed character of what appears in the many
points-of-view that are consequential on the self-referential capabilities
of universal computation. The fact that the latter requires us to assume
arithmetic, or something with equivalent combinatorial power, as a minimal
ontology, does not mean that the explanatory strategy then proceeds by
reference to any simple hierarchy of numbers. Of course it is crucial to
the success of this explanatory strategy that a 'physics' emerge as
statistically dominant in these views (indeed, precisely that subset of the
computational 'everything' that is capable of instantiating the manifest
phenomena) and *that physics* will indeed appear as hierarchically
reducible. But such a physics of appearance will in addition be
inextricably bound to modes of self-referential truth that resist such
reduction (the 'internal views').

None of this means that comp per se is true of course, but I suspect this
whole comp contra reduction thing is worthy of a thread by itself.

David

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread David Nyman
On 10 July 2014 19:39, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 In short, under physicalism, a 'computation' *just is* a particular
 sequence of physical states. Indeed what else could it be? The states, so
 to speak, come first and hence the notion that those states 'implement a
 computation' is always an a posteriori attribution that neither need, nor
 can, bring anything further to the party.


 I agree with all you wrote.  But as Bruno says it's a reductio.  Given
 that it's absurd, the question is what makes it absurd.  I think it's the
 assumption that the sequence of physical states constitutes a computation
 *independent* of any reference to a world.  When you talk about your PC and
 accidental compensation for a physical fault, the concept of 'compensation'
 already assumes a correct operation - but what makes an operation
 correct?...it's relation to you and the rest of the world.  A computation,
 a sequence of states simpliciter, could be a computation of anything or of
 nothing.  So the intuition that the computation still exists without the
 physical instantiation is contradicted by the intuition that a computation
 must be about something.  With conflicting absurdities I'm left unconvinced.


But the MGA has never been claimed to show that computation exists without
physical instantiation. The consequence it presses on us is rather that it
is absurd to accept a series of physical accidents or a recording as
continuing to implement a computation. Yet that would be the conclusion
forced on us by the conjunction of physicalism and computationalism. Under
physicalism, if it goes on walking and quacking like a computation, then it
*continues to be* a computation; the physical states and outcomes are what
*constitute* a computation. Furthermore, we need not suppose any such
system as the one in question to be isolated from the rest of the world and
hence devoid of reference. The 'relation with the rest of the world', under
physicalism, is fully satisfied by the *physical* relation of the system in
question with the rest of the *physical* world. As long as the relevant
sequence of physical states is unchanged there can be no reason to complain
that this requirement can't be met.

So after all this we are faced with not one, but two, options.

1) CTM is false and physicalism is true but incompatible with
computationalism; hence, if the system in question continues, after the
postulated disruptions, to support some conscious state it can't be in
virtue of its ever having implemented a computation. This leads to its own
nest of puzzles.

2) CTM is salvageable but not in the case that physical activity is the
true 'basement level'. We must hope to elucidate some more deeply concealed
basement where, in some formalisable sense, number relations are sufficient
and computation itself is the key organisational principle. This entails
what Bruno calls the reversal of physics and machine psychology.

David

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-10 Thread David Nyman
On 10 July 2014 21:21, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 But I think it becomes absurd only because the scenario ignores the fact
 that it is the physical instantiation that provides a reference to the world
 which then gives the computation meaning.  It is the implicit isolation into
 physical system which is going through a computation that gives the
 impression that it is just the sequence of states that instantiates the
 computation.

It might save you some typing if you read the whole post before you
comment on a part of it. I dealt with this point a couple of sentences
later.

 Under physicalism, if it goes on walking and quacking like a computation,
 then it *continues to be* a computation; the physical states and outcomes
 are what *constitute* a computation.

 OK, if by physicalism you include that the computation goes on in the
 physical context of a world.

Yes, just so; now read on.

 Furthermore, we need not suppose any such system as the one in question to
 be isolated from the rest of the world and hence devoid of reference. The
 'relation with the rest of the world', under physicalism, is fully satisfied
 by the *physical* relation of the system in question with the rest of the
 *physical* world.

 Right.

Yeah, right indeed. The system as described continues to relate
physically, in the relevant ways, with the rest of the physical world.
If I may quote my next sentence As long as the relevant sequence of
physical states is unchanged there can be no reason to complain that
this requirement can't be met.

So what precisely is your remaining objection?

 So after all this we are faced with not one, but two, options.

 1) CTM is false and physicalism is true but incompatible with
 computationalism;

 What do you mean by computationalism?  Just saying yes to the doctor?

No, I mean the assumption that a physical system can be conscious
simply in virtue of its implementing a computation. Since in the
gedanken experiment we have succeeded in evacuating any trace of
computation from the system, whilst preserving its net physical
action, if it remains conscious, it can't be in virtue of its ever
having implemented a computation. If on the contrary we conclude that
it loses consciousness, we then have the mystery of how this can be
the case given that the sequence of physical states remains the same.
Either way the conjunction is shown to be incompatible and it would be
unsafe on this understanding to say yes to the computationalist
doctor.

 2) CTM is salvageable but not in the case that physical activity is the true
 'basement level'.

 Why not?  Why isn't the option that CTM is true but the C must be a
 sequence of states instantiated in the context of a physical world - where
 the physics need not be fundamental (but could be).

? If you still want to claim this either you haven't yet quite grasped
all the implications of the MGA, or the physical world to which you
now refer can't be the one that has featured in the argument to this
point. We've already shown that we can evacuate all traces of
computation from *that* world whilst preserving its sequences of
physical states complete with all relevant relations to an external
physical environment. Hence to hang on to the C we must look to
computational relations to be primary, rather than secondary, in our
explanatory strategy.

This in turn implies that any physical world below computation
would have to be consigned to some explanatory sub-basement; IOW a
world of ur-physics that existed merely in order to implement
computational relations. It is the latter that must do all the work in
our explanatory basement. Hence, to appropriate an image of Bruno's,
the putative ur-physical sub-basement would merely be there to stable
a sort of supernumerary invisible horse whose sole purpose is to
pull the numbers around. Sure, we could posit its existence, but
it couldn't otherwise feature in our explanations.

 This entails what Bruno calls the
 reversal of physics and machine psychology.

 That's possible, but I don't see it as the only possibility.

Granted, I guess. But would you care to suggest some viable alternatives?

David




 On 7/10/2014 12:49 PM, David Nyman wrote:


 On 10 July 2014 19:39, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 In short, under physicalism, a 'computation' *just is* a particular
 sequence of physical states. Indeed what else could it be? The states, so to
 speak, come first and hence the notion that those states 'implement a
 computation' is always an a posteriori attribution that neither need, nor
 can, bring anything further to the party.


 I agree with all you wrote.  But as Bruno says it's a reductio.  Given
 that it's absurd, the question is what makes it absurd.  I think it's the
 assumption that the sequence of physical states constitutes a computation
 *independent* of any reference to a world.  When you talk about your PC and
 accidental compensation for a physical fault, the concept of 'compensation'
 already

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-07 Thread David Nyman
On 6 July 2014 04:18, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  Yes, but it's a theory of epistemology after the physical fact. It
  assumes without further justification what it wishes to prove,
 
 No, it defines a certain kind of belief, just as Bruno identifies
belief with provable in some axiomatic system (which you
must admit is not a standard  meaning of belief) one can identify
belief with certain actions in context.   I  don't know what you
mean by after the physical fact.  If it's a physical theory of
belief then of course it's explained in terms of physical facts.  You
seem to  reject this as though it's obviously wrong.


Not wrong, just not the whole story. My argument has been that any
mechanism of belief that is hierarchically reducible to a finite set
of (assumptive) primitives cannot thereafter rely on the (supposedly)
independent effectiveness of derivative notions such as computation as
the basis of its mechanism of knowledge. This is essentially the
same conclusion as MGA or Maudlin and amounts to an insistence on what
is most powerful in reductive explanation (i.e. the redundancy of
intermediate levels of effectiveness) . Hence the specific line of
attack is that, under reductionism, the effectiveness of derivative
notions such as physical computation cannot be meaningfully
distinguished from that of their ontological primitives. Since this
isn't always obvious, I've offered suggestions, closer to hand than
the hierarchical relation between micro and macro physical phenomena,
to exemplify the similarly tacit reification of supernumerary
ontological assumptions (e.g. mountains, football teams, societies,
etc.).

  It may be inadequate or Bruno's theory may be better, but you seem
to think it's somehow heretical to have a physical idea of what
constitutes belief.


Well, It is at least my intention to make clear what I actually think
so that you don't have to rely on what I may seem to think. But if
my argument goes through, what is left to a reductionist strategy
would look like some kind of mind-brain, or more properly
mind-reductive-primitive, identity theory. But then the burden would
be on finding a convincing justification of identical, in this
non-standard sense, that doesn't amount to effective elimination of
the first term.

We can clearly understand in what way Mark Twain and Sam Clemens were
identical, but it is somewhat less easy to fathom in any equivalent
sense how such heterogeneous concepts as mind and brain could share
that relation. So no, there's no heresy involved in such an idea
unless, IMHO, it is a blind for eliminativism. But the risk in any
straightforward equation of the physical idea of what constitutes
belief with some parallel physical account, however exhaustive, is
that of consigning the 1p part to some not-available-for-explanation
limbo.

 One might therefore say that
 action, belief and truth are hypothesised as being complementary or
 co-effective, rather than hierarchical-reductive, in relation.

 Truth in comp only refers to mathematical truth of the form Exf(x). It's
a long way to connect that to I see a dog.


True enough it's a long way, but it might yet be a first step on the
right path. By contrast, I don't see how any equivalent truth-relation
can be tacked on to reductive physicalism except as an act of
courtesy. What can it mean to say that the physical evolution of some
particularised system corresponds to a self-referential truth (i.e.
a subjective reality transcendent over its physical states) other
than as an ad hoc attribution in the face of an indisputable a
posteriori fact? Of course, sans a viable theory of mind, this latter
position is indeed the one we find ourselves in. But what we really
seek is some explanatory framework within which such relations as
believes, knows and acts can be conciliated on something more
than a merely metaphorical or operational basis.

 Beyond that
 commonality, the spectrum of subjectivity (i.e. its possible
 objects) would extend asymptotically towards infinity, I guess, but
 always according to the specifics of the logic and statistics
 extractable from comp. At least, that is the hypothesis and the
 project.

 OK, I can buy that.


OK, sold. How many would you like?

;-) David



 On 7/5/2014 5:08 AM, David Nyman wrote:

 On 5 July 2014 06:27, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 Ok, maybe it's mostly a matter of semantics. I don't exclude things as
not
 existing just because they are not part of the primitive ontology.

 But of course I haven't been saying these things don't exist. On the
 contrary, I've been labouring to differentiate, for the sake of this
 discussion, two distinct senses of existence. The first sense picks
 out the basic ontology of a theory and the second refers to whatever
 can (putatively) be derived from that ontology on the basis of further
 epistemological considerations. And I've been pointing out that
 nothing whose existence is picked out only in the the latter sense
 can

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-05 Thread David Nyman
 that the same kind of thing can be done
in a physical theory. On the comp assumption, by contrast, belief in
a truth and acting as if true, in conjunction with their truth
content, are alike derived from the outset as consequences of a
fundamentally epistemological theory. One might therefore say that
action, belief and truth are hypothesised as being complementary or
co-effective, rather than hierarchical-reductive, in relation.

 I think in the case of consciousness, explanation as opposed to
 engineering has to take foundational questions of knowledge and
 reference as seriously as those of physical phenomenology. And I also
 think comp at least provides a possible model of how progress could be
 made in this direction.

 But not a physical, neuroscience based model.  You reject that, in spite of
 the fact that it has had considerable success.

I don't reject it at all. I'm only going so far as saying that
ultimately it may lack the explanatory moxie to take us as far as we
could go under more comprehensive assumptions. Your stance, I think,
is that wherever a future neuroscience is capable of taking us is as
far as any reasonable person could expect explanation to reach. To put
it more baldly, whatever can't be known in this way just isn't
knowable. All I've really been trying to argue for in this thread is
that this limit may in the end turn out to be an artefact of a
particular explanatory strategy.

As to success, I don't recall Einstein being taken to task for dissing
the considerable success of Newton's theory. In the end any
paradigm, however successful, may suffer the fate of being subsumed
into a more comprehensive one if certain puzzles stubbornly resist it
for long enough. And I'm suggesting that one early but perhaps
worrying symptom that this fate may lie somewhere up the road for
physical reductionism is a persistent tendency to trivialise, mystify,
or eliminate epistemological puzzles that seem to resist capture
within the framework of that theory.

 So what does an answer look like?  Is Turing completeness enough - that's
 what Bruno says.  But apparently it makes you and a jumping spider equally
 conscious.  I don't think that's a very good answer.

Where is it written that I and a jumping spider are equally conscious?
That is, on the assumption that I'm not actually a jumping spider,
which I guess is not a matter for complete certainty, in the
cyberverse. I think that comp implies only that I and a jumping spider
may share a particular species of self-referentiality that is
representable in any Turing complete system (indeed, that this is the
basis of the I shared by all such subjects). Beyond that
commonality, the spectrum of subjectivity (i.e. its possible
objects) would extend asymptotically towards infinity, I guess, but
always according to the specifics of the logic and statistics
extractable from comp. At least, that is the hypothesis and the
project.

David


 On 7/4/2014 6:14 PM, David Nyman wrote:

 On 4 July 2014 22:36, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 Do you wish to say that
 mountains have *ontological* significance *in addition* to the rocks
 that comprise them?

 Yes.  There could be rocks without there being mountains.

 If rocks and their relations are primitive in this analogy, what is
 the independent *ontological* relevance of a mountain *in addition* to
 the rocks that comprise it? What, given ideal knowledge of the
 disposition of rocks, would I fail to account for in terms of their
 further evolution?

 We accept of course that they exist
 *epistemologically* (i.e. as objects of knowledge from the point of
 view of a knower), but we can't adduce that fact, a posteriori, in
 support of their having any *ontological* purchase independent of
 their components.

 Can you define ontological purchase?

 I'm merely reiterating that they lack further ontological significance
 in addition to that of their ontological primitives. Please understand
 that this isn't an attempt on my part to impose my ideas on reality.
 I'm only speaking in terms of the requirements of a theory; and
 whatever a reductive theory takes to be its primitive ontology
 exhausts *by definition* what is ontologically relevant *in terms of
 that theory*. The alternative, I presume, is some form of strong
 ontological emergence - i.e. the idea that, at some higher level of
 organisation, completely novel features, not reducible to the
 basement-level ontology, must be taken into account.


 Ok, maybe it's mostly a matter of semantics. I don't exclude things as not
 existing just because they are not part of the primitive ontology.  In
 physics the stuff that is most primitive in a model is also stuff who's
 existence is least certain, e.g. strings, super-symmetric particles,
 space-time quanta,...  While the stuff you would say doesn't really exist is
 the most certain - including the instruments used to infer the primitive
 stuff and records of the data taken.



 What then is physical computation

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-03 Thread David Nyman
On 3 July 2014 10:02, Kim Jones kimjo...@ozemail.com.au wrote:

 Yes, primary belief, though necessarily incorrigible in the first
 instance, is nonetheless vulnerable in the second instance to
 correction or reinterpretation. Just as well, really.

 But is it?

Only in the primary sense of immediate cognition.

  If primary belief (your belief in where the buck stops) were vulnerable
  to correction then why has Christianity for example, persevered so
long   without revision or updating of beliefs when say,
knowledge of the universe   progressed.

I think you're using primary belief in a different sense here. What
you're describing is what psychologists like to call cognitive
dissonance. Rather disturbingly for our cherished assumptions of
rationality, an ability to keep contradictory beliefs apart within a
single mind seems actually to be indispensable to what is often
thought of as mental health.

 First impressions seem to count for a lot in forming the patterns of 
 recognition  the brain uses.

Well, I would say that the patterns of recognition the brain uses
are part of the visual belief system and hence constitute embodied
primary beliefs in the sense I intended.

 A powerful primary belief in matter seems to be a very difficult thing to 
 have  some people admit to.

Yes, though I'm not sure how much this owes to primary patterns of
recognition and how much to more abstracted habits of mind. In the
first instance, a belief in the materiality and causal relevance of
matter is clearly crucial to survival and hence would be expected to
have a long and deep history in the evolution of brain function.
Secondarily, it might be the case that such deeply embedded survival
prejudices may be difficult to overcome even in the context of more
abstract reasoning.

That said, there is a very long history of belief not in one, but two,
primary realities: i.e. body and soul. This seems to be the default
human assumption, and you can even detect it in secular form in the
apparent narrative plausibility of movie plots involving body
swapping. I think the problem comes in moving from the default
dualist assumption to some form of monism. Then it starts to look as
if the only viable options are the elimination or trivialising of
soul, on the one hand, or the relegation of body to a secondary
manifestation of a generalised theory of cognition, on the other.
Neither of these options is particularly easy to swallow.

David


 On 3 Jul 2014, at 9:09 am, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:

 Yes, primary belief, though necessarily incorrigible in the first
 instance, is nonetheless vulnerable in the second instance to
 correction or reinterpretation. Just as well, really.

 But is it? If primary belief (your belief in where the buck stops) were 
 vulnerable  to correction then why has Christianity for example, persevered 
 so long without  revision or updating of beliefs when say, knowledge of the 
 universe progressed.  First impressions seem to count for a lot in forming 
 the patterns of recognition  the brain uses. A powerful primary belief in 
 matter seems to be a very difficult  thing to have some people admit to.

 Kim

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-03 Thread David Nyman
On 3 July 2014 14:22, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 And perhaps most interestingly,
 its central motivation originates in, and simultaneously strikes at
 the heart of, the tacit assumption of its rivals that perception and
 cognition are (somehow) second-order relational phenomena attached to
 some putative virtual level of an exhaustively material reduction.

 The problem of the exhaustively material reduction is that it does use comp,
 more or less explicitly, without being aware that it does not work when put
 together with with materialism.

Yes, and I was roused from my customary torpor specifically to have
another stab at a thoroughgoing reductio of this position (or else, of
course, learn where I am in error). But, frustratingly, it does seem
to be extraordinarily hard to get across for the first time, because
of the tacit question-begging almost unavoidably consequent on the
difficulty of vacating the very perceptual position whose all too
manifest entities are undergoing ontological deconstruction. Once
seen, however, the error may then strike one as having been obvious.

The commonest response, in my experience, after describing the
mind-body problem to someone for the first time, is I don't see the
problem. On further probing, the default assumptions usually turn out
to be either straightforward mind-brain identity, or mind =
simulation, brain = computer. If the former, I point, in the first
place, to the completely non-standard and unjustified use of the
identity relation that this entails. If the latter, simple reductive
analogies like house-bricks, or society-people, can sometimes help to
convey the idea that any exhaustively reductive material schema
necessarily *eliminates* its ontological composites (difficult to see
precisely because *epistemological* composition manifestly remains and
the distinction is thereby elusive). Anyway, if the point is grasped
it becomes possible to see the disturbing consequences that such a
reduction has for the standard conjunction of material computation
and consciousness.

 Does comp by itself solves the problem? I think it is technically promising,
 if we agree with the ancient epistemology.  It provides directly the
 needed quantization to get a stable measure on the relative computational
 histories, and it separates well the quanta from the qualia, or more
 generally the 3p communicable, the 3p non communicable, the 1p, etc.

 Physics predicts very well eclipses, but still fail completely to predict
 the first person experience of the subject verifying the predicted eclipse.
 To do this, they need to use some brain-mind identity thesis, which is
 violated with comp, and arguably also with Everett QM.

I don't think that most physicists (there are exceptions) have taken
the problem of consciousness seriously (i.e. as a problem in physics)
up to this point, hence my speculation that certain kinds of answer
are ruled out (or rendered either absurd or trivial) by posing the
defining questions of a field in one way rather than another. As you
say, comp is a theory of consciousness, so its question is that of
explaining material appearances from the point of view of a
generalised (arithmetical) theory of knowledge. By contrast, physics
is explicitly NOT a theory of consciousness and, should it consider
the question at all, must expect material appearances to be
explained in the same terms as any other physical phenomenon (e.g.
Tegmark's recent idea that consciousness is a state of matter).

For me at least, the ways in which the mind-body problem has been
approached against the background of physical-primitivism have the
feel of being not even wrong or, at least, of being attempts to
answer a badly-posed question. Brent's alternative speculation that
the problem itself will fade away in the face of superior
engineering, whilst (unfortunately) all too sociologically plausible,
consequently strikes me as a willingness to capitulate to outright
mysterianism, or else tacit eliminativism. Such intractable
mysteries or equally, the tacit elimination of troublesome
problems, are perhaps defining hallmarks of an explanatory strategy
operating outside its limits of applicability. Unfortunately this
insight seems to strike some as a form of heresy against physics,
rather than an observation about explanation in general.

 I agree comp rehabilitates old thinking, but sometimes the mechanist
 assumption (unaware of Church thesis and digitalness) was already there.
 Well, a form of digitalism (still without Church thesis) was arguably
 present in Pythagorus and reappear with the neoplatonists (unfortunately not
 all neoplatonist will be as serious on this as Plotinus).

 For this thread I want to insist on the little book by Gerson Ancient
 Epistemology.

I'll take a look :-)

David


 On 01 Jul 2014, at 14:00, David Nyman wrote:

 Whatever its independent merits or demerits, and its inherent
 complexity, ISTM that comp gets closer to a way of posing questions

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-02 Thread David Nyman
 by the
chosen means can't be known at all. But I don't believe that the
equivalence implied by your use of just as above is necessarily
justified, as I've argued. I think that comp gives us some grounds for
hope that further exploration of the relation between belief and
truth, as in the example of visual belief and truth I suggested
earlier, may ultimately be quite fruitful in closing such a gap,
whilst at the same time elucidating why it may not be completely
eliminable.

 Do you see no merit in the second type of theory? Do you disagree that
 one can usefully differentiate theories by the kinds of question they
 set out to answer?

 No, I agree.  But usefully differentiating a theory is not the same as
 differentiating a useful theory.  I can differentiate theory that asks,
 What does God command us to do. from a theory that asks, What ethics
 makes for a satisfying society.  and only one of them is useful.

Of course, the proof of the pudding, etc. But my point was just that
theories can be so differentiated, and we agree on this at least. And
my further point is that if comp ultimately proves useful, it may well
be in elucidating questions that systematically elude, or are
trivialised by, other models.

 God did it is the most comprehensive explanation.  Deutsch never really
 defines what makes a good explanation - except that leads to theories that
 are better at prediction.

God did it may be comprehensive but not terribly enlightening, I
fear. I think that a good explanation is one that allows us to
fruitfully elucidate a broader spectrum of questions. We should expect
this to lead to better predictions, of course, but over a broader and
deeper range than that accessible by less comprehensive explanations.

David

 On 7/1/2014 4:42 PM, David Nyman wrote:

 On 1 July 2014 22:33, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 The point, again in principle at least, is that nothing *above*
 the level of the basic ontology need be taken into account in the
 evolution of states defined in terms of it; put simply, there is no
 top-down causality.

 Actually, causality, except in the no-spacelike influence, doesn't enter
 into fundamental physics. Models are generally time-symmetric.

 Well, I was trying to be short, hence to put it simply. Would you
 take issue with the preceding statement that The point, again in
 principle at least, is that nothing *above* the level of the basic
 ontology need be taken into account in the evolution of states defined
 in terms of it.? And if so, what essential difference would your
 specific disagreement make to the point in question?


 I agree with that.



 It is for this reason that I've been pointing out
 that whatever levels are posited above the basic ontology cannot
 possess, in terms of the theory, any independent ontological
 significance.

 And are you saying that is different for comp?  That there's top-down
 causality in comp?  What's top?

 I'm saying that comp uses its basic ontological assumptions to
 motivate an epistemology - i.e. a theory of knowledge and knowers.


 Well, it assumes one; although I'm not sure how the ontology of arithmetical
 realism motivated it.  It assumes that provable+true=known.  I don't think
 this is a good axiom in the sense of obviously true.  It's subject to
 Gettier's paradox.  But there's nothing wrong with assuming a model and
 seeing where it leads.


 Hence I'm suggesting that from this point on that the consequences of
 this epistemology become irreducible to the original ontology;


 ?? I don't think I can parse that.  The consequences of an epistemology are
 things known.  An ontology is things that exist. So you're saying, things
 known become irreducible to things that exist?  Were they reducible before,
 i.e. before the ontological assumption motivated the epistemology?


 instead
 the theory must hinge thereafter on the principled relations that can
 be established between such knowers and the putative objects of their
 knowledge.


 OK.



 Rather, what we *can* say is that such macroscopic, or composite,
 phenomena as temperature or, for that matter, the neural correlates of
 consciousness, are *explanatorily* relevant. We might go so far as to
 describe these phenomena as epistemological integrations over the
 ontological fundamentals. But if we do that the problem should become
 painfully obvious: the theory in which we are working has no explicit
 epistemological component.

 I think you're confusing epistemological and subjective.

 I disagree. I'm using epistemological in the sense of what is
 consequential on an explicit theory of knowledge and knowers. AFAIK
 physics deploys no such explicit theory and relies on no such
 consequences; in fact it seeks to be independent of any particular
 such theory, which is tacitly regarded as being irrelevant to what is
 to be explained. That is my criterion for distinguishing the two types
 of theory I had in mind.


 OK.  Although, physics does struggle with that it means

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-02 Thread David Nyman
On 2 July 2014 22:04, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 Since the primary truth of what I
 see is simply what I see (i.e. it is incorrigible) it can't be subject
 to Gettier's paradox. I can't be right about what I see for the wrong
 reasons because what I see is constitutively true.

 But is it incorrigble?  An optical illusion can cause you to see A is
 bigger than B even though A is smaller than B.  Of course you can say,
 Well, it's still incorrigbly true that A *appeared* bigger than B. but
 that's different.

Well, it isn't different to my point, which is precisely that what I
see (i.e. the 1p part) corresponds in the first instance to the truth
content of my visual belief system (i.e. the 3p part). Note that
there is nothing I can do about it. Hence in this case belief and
truth are necessarily, constitutively, or analytically, equivalent.
Only in the second instance are they vulnerable to correction. One
might say that belief and truth in this first sense are incorrigibly
bound together in a common vulnerability to secondary, or empirical,
error.

 What you literally *saw* was that A was bigger than B,
 i.e. that is the immediate perception
 and it only later that you are
 persuaded that it was mere appearance.
 So the perception that your brain
 forms is really creating a model based on sensory input

Yes, that's the first instance to which I refer above..

  and it can be wrong

Yes, primary belief, though necessarily incorrigible in the first
instance, is nonetheless vulnerable in the second instance to
correction or reinterpretation. Just as well, really.

 In other words
 there is no seeing at all without interpretation; There is no simply what
 I see.

I think you have been conflating two different senses of
interpretation that I specifically intended to distinguish. The
first corresponds to the immediate perception associated with the
visual belief system and the second with subsequent correction or
reinterpretation. Only the first sense is incorrigible.

 But that's not the point of Gettier's paradox.  Gettier's paradox is that
 you may believe something that is true by accident, e.g. with no causal
 connection to the facts that make it true.  Under Theaetetus's definition
 this counts as knowledge, but not under a common sense understanding.

I think you may now see that this doesn't contradict my point. If the
visual belief system and its associated truth content are
constitutively equivalent, there is no question of truth by accident
in the first instance. Of course any second-order reinterpretation of
such first-order beliefs may be empirically true by accident, or
wholly untrue for that matter, but that is a different question.

 Specifically, if a theory lacks an
 explicit epistemological strategy then, in despite of any success in
 elucidating the structure of appearance, it may in the end tend to
 obfuscate, rather than illuminate, fundamental questions pertaining to
 the knowledge of such appearances.

 May tend is fairly weak criticism in face to enormous success. The success
 is because science closes the loop by testing its theories.  The
 epistemological strategy is to pass those tests.

But science and comp are not in opposition. To the contrary, if comp
as an explanatory strategy is to have any hope of being successful it
must *become* science and hence pass all empirical tests that are
thrown at it. And in any case I'm not criticising the success of the
current paradigm, I'm merely speculating, on grounds that I've argued,
as to whether that same success can ultimately extend to questions
which were, in a certain sense, deliberately sidelined at the start.
But such apparently subsidiary questions may ultimately expose an
explanatory Achilles' heel. Time will tell, I guess.

 Is that true? In what way do the collapse hypothesis or Everett's
 interpretation depend on how human beings work in detail?

 They depend on human thought being quasi-classical, even though humans
 are (presumably) made of quantum systems.  This is just part of the bigger
 question of how does the appearance of the classical world arise from a
 quantum substrate.

OK, thanks, I see what you mean. But I suppose you didn't mean to say
that this implies a dependency on any theory of knowledge in
particular, other than it be capable of being represented
quasi-classically. Is that accurate?

David

 On 7/2/2014 8:51 AM, David Nyman wrote:

 On 2 July 2014 01:24, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 Well, I was trying to be short, hence to put it simply. Would you
 take issue with the preceding statement that The point, again in
 principle at least, is that nothing *above* the level of the basic
 ontology need be taken into account in the evolution of states defined
 in terms of it.? And if so, what essential difference would your
 specific disagreement make to the point in question?

 I agree with that.

 Good, that's the essential premise I've been reasoning from.

 I'm saying that comp uses its

What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-01 Thread David Nyman
Some recent discussions have centred on the (putative) features of
hierarchical-reductionist ontologies, and whether comp (whatever its
intrinsic merits or deficiencies) should be considered as just another
candidate theory in that category, This prompts me to consider what
fundamental question a particular theory is designed to answer. Making
this explicit may help us to see what other questions are, by the same
token (and perhaps only implicitly), treated as subsidiary or, as it
were, merely awaiting resolution in due course in terms of the central
explanatory thrust.

I think it's fair to say that theories centred on an
exhaustively-reducible physical or material ontology seek to answer
the question of What are the fundamental entities and relations that
underlie and constitute everything that exists and how did things get
to be this way?. Even if this is a rather crude formulation, if
questions such as these are deemed central and definitive, the issue
of How and why does it *appear* to us that things are this way?
becomes subsidiary and presumably awaits ultimate elucidation in the
same terms. IOW, both we and what appears to us will in the end be
explained, exhaustively, as composite phenomena in a physical
hierarchy that can be reduced without loss to the basic entities and
relations.

ISTM however that comp asks different questions from the outset: How
and why does it APPEAR that certain entities and relations constitute
everything that exists, and what the hell is appearance anyway? To
be sure, in order to deal with such questions comp has to begin with
How does everything get to be this way?, but the crucial distinction
is that basic physical entities and relations are, in this mode of
question-and-answer, a complex by-product of the logic of appearance,
and the subjects of said appearance. A further consequence is that it
is no longer obvious that subjects, or what appears to them, are
reducible in any straightforward way, either to physical entities and
relations, or to the original first-order combinatorial ontology.

It is true that we can pose questions in the first way and still say
that we are non-eliminative about consciousness. The problem though is
that because we have already committed ourselves to an exhaustively
reductive mode of explanation, we can't help consigning such
first-person phenomena to a subsidiary status, as an impenetrable
mystery, an essentially irrelevant epiphenomenon, or some sort of
weirdly-anomalous side-effect of basic physical activity. ISTM that
this mode of question-and-answer, from the outset, essentially can't
escape trivialising, ignoring, or rendering unanswerable in principle,
the role of the first person. Consequently, I can't avoid the
suspicion that, despite its phenomenal success (pun intended) it
can't, in the end, be the most helpful way of asking the most
fundamental questions.

Whatever its independent merits or demerits, and its inherent
complexity, ISTM that comp gets closer to a way of posing questions
that might in the end yield more satisfying and complete answers. As
it happens, in so doing it rehabilitates earlier attempts in the
tradition stemming from the Greeks and Indians, and from later
exemplars such as Berkeley and Kant. And perhaps most interestingly,
its central motivation originates in, and simultaneously strikes at
the heart of, the tacit assumption of its rivals that perception and
cognition are (somehow) second-order relational phenomena attached to
some putative virtual level of an exhaustively material reduction.

David

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Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-01 Thread David Nyman
On 1 July 2014 19:24, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 I think you have created a strawman exhaustively-reducible physical or
 material ontology.  Sure, physicists take forces and matter as working
 assumptions - but they don't say what they are.  They are never anything
 other than elements of a mathematical model which works well.  And what
 does it mean to work well?  It means to explain appearances - exactly the
 same thing you put forward as a uniquely different goal of comp.

Firstly, I'm not really persuaded by your contention that forces and
matter, to use your example, are merely elements of a mathematical
model which works well. Rather, in terms of that very model, such
elements are precisely those that (at least in principle) are supposed
to comprise a fully-sufficient bottom-up ontology for the theory as a
whole. The point, again in principle at least, is that nothing *above*
the level of the basic ontology need be taken into account in the
evolution of states defined in terms of it; put simply, there is no
top-down causality. It is for this reason that I've been pointing out
that whatever levels are posited above the basic ontology cannot
possess, in terms of the theory, any independent ontological
significance.

Rather, what we *can* say is that such macroscopic, or composite,
phenomena as temperature or, for that matter, the neural correlates of
consciousness, are *explanatorily* relevant. We might go so far as to
describe these phenomena as epistemological integrations over the
ontological fundamentals. But if we do that the problem should become
painfully obvious: the theory in which we are working has no explicit
epistemological component. It is in fact explicitly designed to render
a principled account of the relevant phenomena in the absence of any
particular epistemological assumptions.

Secondly, I think you may have missed the distinction I was attempting
to make between a theory having the fundamental goal of seeking to
explain what appears and one that seeks to explain why and how
appearance manifests to its subjects. In the first case the goal is
to create a mathematical model of appearance (i.e. physics), on the
assumption (should this be considered at all) that the phenomena of
perception and cognition will fall out of it at some later stage. In
the second case the goal is to justify from first principles the
existence, in the first place, of perceivers and cognisers and, in the
second place, the appearances that manifest to them; then to show that
the latter constitute, amongst other things, an accurate model of
physics.

 Although I think comp is an interesting theory and worthy of study, I think
 I look at it differently than Bruno.  I look at it as just another
 mathematical model, one whose ontology happens to be computations.

But I have already said why I think comp can be distinguished from
other theories in this respect. I may well be mistaken, but I don't
see you have actually addressed the points I sought to make.

 As I noted in another post, any explanation is going to be exhaustively
 reductive or it's going to be reduction with loss. You can't have it both
 ways.  Bruno's theory explicitly defines the loss, i.e. unprovable truths
 of arithmetic.  That may be a feature, or it may be a bug.

I don't agree that these alternatives exclude each other. In fact,
I've been trying to point out that an exhaustively reductive physical
theory cannot avoid losing consciousness. Hence the stipulation
without loss is only tenable when that unfortunate consequence is
ignored or trivialised. My argument has also been that Bruno's theory,
whatever else its merits or demerits, is not reductive in the relevant
sense; so far I haven't seen you respond directly to these points.

David





 On 7/1/2014 5:00 AM, David Nyman wrote:

 Some recent discussions have centred on the (putative) features of
 hierarchical-reductionist ontologies, and whether comp (whatever its
 intrinsic merits or deficiencies) should be considered as just another
 candidate theory in that category, This prompts me to consider what
 fundamental question a particular theory is designed to answer. Making
 this explicit may help us to see what other questions are, by the same
 token (and perhaps only implicitly), treated as subsidiary or, as it
 were, merely awaiting resolution in due course in terms of the central
 explanatory thrust.

 I think it's fair to say that theories centred on an
 exhaustively-reducible physical or material ontology seek to answer
 the question of What are the fundamental entities and relations that
 underlie and constitute everything that exists and how did things get
 to be this way?. Even if this is a rather crude formulation, if
 questions such as these are deemed central and definitive, the issue
 of How and why does it *appear* to us that things are this way?
 becomes subsidiary and presumably awaits ultimate elucidation in the
 same terms. IOW, both we and what appears to us

Re: What's the answer? What's the question?

2014-07-01 Thread David Nyman
 of the
notorious paradox of phenomenal judgement, by distinguishing the
specific logics by which 3p and 1p accounts can justifiably be said to
refer to the same phenomena.

 And non-self-reflective
 consciousness can be accounted for by neurophysiology.

Only by losing it in the first-person sense, since neurophysiology
is vulnerable to exhaustive reduction.

 I think you have
 unrealistic ideas of what is explained and what is lost.

Perhaps, but nevertheless I tend to agree with Bruno that it is
premature to say that the only adequate answer to certain questions
is, in effect, don't ask.

 In a sense
 *nothing* is explained by physics.  It provides models that are successful
 at prediction.  The models may be looked on as explanations, but that's a
 kind of psychological comfort we get form them depending on how familiar we
 are with the form of explanation.

This is a little too positivist or indeed post-modern for my taste,
I'm afraid. I'm can't be satisfied by a purely operational approach of
this kind. I tend to side with David Deutsch in believing that we are
motivated to look for the most comprehensive explanations, not merely
the most successful predictions. ISTM in any case that predictions,
rather like data, already tacitly presuppose some more comprehensive
explanatory framework in terms of which predictions or data can be
isolated and interpreted. Of course I'm perfectly ready to concede
that it is hard to escape the influence of our personal predilections.
That said, I must say my own predilections in this regard have
undergone fairly comprehensive revision as a result of my encounters
with comp.

David


 On 7/1/2014 1:32 PM, David Nyman wrote:

 On 1 July 2014 19:24, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 I think you have created a strawman exhaustively-reducible physical or
 material ontology.  Sure, physicists take forces and matter as
 working
 assumptions - but they don't say what they are.  They are never anything
 other than elements of a mathematical model which works well.  And what
 does it mean to work well?  It means to explain appearances - exactly the
 same thing you put forward as a uniquely different goal of comp.

 Firstly, I'm not really persuaded by your contention that forces and
 matter, to use your example, are merely elements of a mathematical
 model which works well. Rather, in terms of that very model, such
 elements are precisely those that (at least in principle) are supposed
 to comprise a fully-sufficient bottom-up ontology for the theory as a
 whole. The point, again in principle at least, is that nothing *above*
 the level of the basic ontology need be taken into account in the
 evolution of states defined in terms of it; put simply, there is no
 top-down causality.


 Actually, causality, except in the no-spacelike influence, doesn't enter
 into fundamental physics. Models are generally time-symmetric.


 It is for this reason that I've been pointing out
 that whatever levels are posited above the basic ontology cannot
 possess, in terms of the theory, any independent ontological
 significance.


 And are you saying that is different for comp?  That there's top-down
 causality in comp?  What's top?



 Rather, what we *can* say is that such macroscopic, or composite,
 phenomena as temperature or, for that matter, the neural correlates of
 consciousness, are *explanatorily* relevant. We might go so far as to
 describe these phenomena as epistemological integrations over the
 ontological fundamentals. But if we do that the problem should become
 painfully obvious: the theory in which we are working has no explicit
 epistemological component.


 I think you're confusing epistemological and subjective.


 It is in fact explicitly designed to render
 a principled account of the relevant phenomena in the absence of any
 particular epistemological assumptions.

 Secondly, I think you may have missed the distinction I was attempting
 to make between a theory having the fundamental goal of seeking to
 explain what appears and one that seeks to explain why and how
 appearance manifests to its subjects. In the first case the goal is
 to create a mathematical model of appearance (i.e. physics), on the
 assumption (should this be considered at all) that the phenomena of
 perception and cognition will fall out of it at some later stage. In
 the second case the goal is to justify from first principles the
 existence, in the first place, of perceivers and cognisers and, in the
 second place, the appearances that manifest to them; then to show that
 the latter constitute, amongst other things, an accurate model of
 physics.


 Ok, I may have missed that.  That's why I say once conscious-like behavior
 is engineered, talk about percievers and cognisers will seem to be quaint
 questions, like Where is the elan vital in a virus?  Comp has an
 explanation of why some questions about consciousness are unanswerable, on
 pain of logical contradiction; and in that respect it is an improvement over

Re: Tyson is not atheist (was Re: So, a new kind of non-boolean, non-digital, computer architecture

2014-06-29 Thread David Nyman
On 29 June 2014 05:47, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 t's the materialist hat (I'm not sure which colour it is). Calling
 bullshit! on comp and similar ideas without stopping to understand them
 seems to stem from a religious belief in materialism (Bill Taylor on the
 FOAR forum is another example of this). There is endless spluttering and
 shouting and often even (gasp) capital letters, but never any sign that the
 person concerned has stopped and thought it through, in the spirit of what
 if he's got a point?

Yeah, occasionally I find myself re-reading conversations I had with
Bruno years ago (usually as a result of googling for some reference).
It reminds me that in the beginning I was pretty certain he must be
wrong, but his patience and persistence forced me repeatedly to refine
and reconsider my arguments, to the point that eventually I started to
see the holes in my own logic. This is the value of really sticking to
a line of thought in discussion (as opposed to point scoring). It
helps us, if we are willing to make the effort, to expose the
contradictory assumptions in our own thinking.

David

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Re: Pluto bounces back!

2014-06-27 Thread David Nyman
On 27 June 2014 12:24, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 I can call forth spirits from the vasty deep!

 Why, so can I, and so can any man; but do they come when you do call them?

 (Shakespeare, I'm not sure which play offhand, or who said it ... or if I
 quoted it accurately ... but I'm sure you get the point).

It was Hotspur, in response to Glendower's boasting (Henry IV Part 1).
I must say I've always considered it a very apposite riposte!

David

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Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-27 Thread David Nyman
On 26 June 2014 23:12, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 Ok, thanks. I think I grasp your idea.  But ISTM you are taking fiction
 and artefact to mean untrue or non-existent.  I don't see that is
 justified.  Just because a water molecule is made of three atoms doesn't
 make it a fiction.  If our perceptions and cognition are successfully
 modeled by some theory whose ontology is atoms or arithmetic, then that is
 reason to give some credence to that ontology.  But I see no reason to say
 the perceptions and cognitions are now untrue and useless as a basis for
 inference simply because they are derivative in some successful model?

I fear you may not yet have quite grasped it, based on the last
sentence above. I don't mean to say that the perceptions and
cognitions themselves (i.e. the 1p part) are untrue or useless, it's
the fiction of their having a non-conceptual 3p correlative in a
hierarchical-reductive ontology. Furthermore, it wasn't at all my
intention to *equate* atomic and arithmetical ontologies, but to try
to be explicit about how they might be *differentiated*. To reiterate,
any theory based on atoms (i.e. some finite set of entities and
relations whose behaviour is postulated to underlie all other
phenomena in a hierarchical manner) is, at least in principle,
straightforwardly reductive without loss. It follows that any derived
level (such as a water molecule) is precisely a conceptual fiction,
convenient or otherwise, in the strong *ontological* (though not in
the explanatory) sense, as a molecule is ex hypothesi a composite
concept, not a member of the putatively basic set of ontological
entities.

This is hardly a surprise as it falls directly out of the strategy of
reductionism. I appreciate, nonetheless, that it is an unusual
distinction to make (as Bruno remarked, not many people see it)
because in any purely 3p discourse it may seem to be a distinction
without consequence, since there is in principle no loss of
theoretical effectiveness after the reduction. But the selfsame
distinction has crucial consequences in the unique context of
perception and cognition, when we wish to associate a 1p part with a
3p part, because it then becomes starkly apparent (or at least it
should) that no such non-conceptual part lies to hand, in the latter
case, beyond the entities of the basement level ontology.

As an example, let's consider computation in the role of the
putative 3p part. On this analysis, any instantiation of computation
based on atomic reductionism must be seen, from the ontological
perspective, as instantly degenerating to the primitive relations of
atoms. Of course (and this is what continues to confuse the picture)
nothing prevents our continuing to *conceptualise* the behaviour of
particularised composites of atoms as constituting computation *at the
1p level* of perception and cognition. But the selfsame theory
originates all 3p phenomena effectively at the level of the atomic
primitives, *independent* of any higher-level conceptualisation.
Hence, we find ourselves in the uncomfortable position of seeking to
justify the correlation of a specific 1p concept (e.g. computation)
with some 3p composite activity that has no independent ontological
legitimacy or effectiveness outside the confines of that very
conceptualisation!

This seems to me to be arguing in a particularly vicious circle. I
suspect it is this inherent circularity that drives some to dismiss
the 1p part as illusory and the 3p composition as real, but the
desperation of this move is revealed in the consequence that the
elimination of the first inevitably implies the simultaneous
disappearance of both! In my view the above argument exposes an actual
contradiction, or at least a serious inconsistency, in
hierarchical-reductive attempts to associate 3p and 1p phenomena in
general, without effectively eliminating the latter. Indeed, I think
it may be a more general and ultimately more convincing argument than
those deployed in Step 8 of the UDA. This brings us to the
consideration of whether the selfsame argument can be deployed against
an arithmetical ontology. If we can show that such an ontology (as you
have suggested) is a straightforward reductionism then indeed the same
criticism should go through. However, I think we can discern that this
is not the case.

Arithmetical relations, as deployed in comp, do indeed serve in a
certain sense as the primitives of the theory, but they are not
thereby a basement-level foundation on which the remainder of the
theoretical structure rests in a hierarchical-reductive organisation.
Rather, they appear in the theory as the minimum necessary to justify
the constructive existence of a computational domain in terms of which
logico-computational features of a generally epistemological nature
(notably self-reference) can be derived. It is the epistemological
consequences of the latter (notably the FPI) that then take over the
explanatory thrust, and it is impossible thereafter to 

Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-27 Thread David Nyman
On 27 June 2014 05:02, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 Well my original phrase was convenient fiction and it was only intended to
 be considered relevant in a context of what is and isn't fundamental /
 primitive. Obviously the convenient fictions ARE very convenient,  for
 example I prefer to be thought of as Liz rather than a collection of 10^24
 atoms (or an infinite sheaf of computations as the case may be).

Yes, it does seem to be quite hard to stay on topic :-(

David

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Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-26 Thread David Nyman
On 26 June 2014 04:33, Kim Jones kimjo...@ozemail.com.au wrote:

*All political and sociological phenomena whatsoever CAN be reduced without
loss to the behaviour and relations of individual human beings.*


Yes of course, but that was my point. I offered the analogy as a toy model
of 3p reductionism per se. It's pretty clear that when we talking about,
say, a country having opinions or character, that this is merely a manner
of speaking. If we cared to, this manner of speaking could be reduced
without loss to the behaviour and relations of the individual human beings
who play the role of the fundamental entities in this reduction. However
it seems, for some reason, to be less obvious to most people in the case of
*physical* reductionism. Actually the reason is perhaps not so mysterious
after all, as it is difficult not to take for granted what is constantly
staring us in the face - hence the frequent confusion between what should
be considered ontologically, as opposed to epistemologically, basic.

But on reflection, can we really countenance an appeal to one convenient
fiction (computation) to explain another (consciousness) given a prior
commitment to the exhaustive hierarchical reducibility of both to the
ontological basement level of explanation? And in relying on
epistemological fictions in general to account for *epistemology itself*
are we not thereby in serious peril of merely arguing in a circle?

*If Bruno is right the only thing that is real are persons who are
essentially minds or computational relations anyway. Bruno is not saying
there is no sunstrate or 'hypothese'. He's dropping continual heavy hints
as to what it is. But, we just can't really describe that with a mind. The
hammer cannot hit itself. Blame Gödel or someone...*

Well, I've said before that I originally had misgivings that Bruno's schema
was vulnerable to a similar analysis as I have given above - i.e. that it
was in the end an exhaustive reductionism, in this case with number
relations as the basement level. But actually, on reflection, this cannot
be the case as it turns out to be impossible to reduce comp to number
relations tout court *without loss*. In fact, not less than everything
would be lost in such a reduction (assuming comp to be correct, of course):
the whole of physics, the entire possibility of observation, the whole kit
and caboodle. The emulation of computation and the universal machine in
arithmetic - with the concomitant umbilical connection to arithmetical
truth - make any straightforward hierarchical 3p reduction, along the lines
of physicalism, impossible in principle.

The totality of computation implies both the FPI (the indeterminism at
the heart of determinism) and a fundamental asymmetry of measure. Taken
together, these motivate a principled explanation of a consistent set of
observable (indexical) physical appearances, abstracted, as it were, from
the dross of the totality, by the unequal attention of a generalised
universal observer. Indeed the systemic inter-dependence of its explanatory
entities make a schema of this sort, as Bruno is wont to say, a veritable
vaccine against reductionism.

But is it correct? That's another question.

David



 On 26 Jun 2014, at 8:07 am, David Nyman da...@davidnyman.com wrote:

 The principal assumption then is that all phenomena whatsoever can be
 reduced without loss to some primitive (i.e. assumptively irreducible)
 basis, in which process the higher levels are effectively eliminated.
 Equivalently, one might say it's bottom-up all the way down. As an analogy,
 in the human sphere, this would be the contention that all political or
 sociological phenomena whatsoever can be reduced without loss to the
 behaviour and relations of individual human beings (i.e. what Margaret
 Thatcher presumably intended by there's no such thing as society).

 David


 All political and sociological phenomena whatsoever CAN be reduced without
 loss to the behaviour and relations of individual human beings. In
 addition, when was Margaret Thatcher ever wrong about something? ;-)

 So you lose a few 'isms' in this view...sounds like a good idea to me.

 If Bruno is right the only thing that is real are persons who are
 essentially minds or computational relations anyway. Bruno is not saying
 there is no sunstrate or 'hypothese'. He's dropping continual heavy hints
 as to what it is. But, we just can't really describe that with a mind. The
 hammer cannot hit itself. Blame Gödel or someone...

 Kim

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Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-26 Thread David Nyman
On 25 June 2014 23:58, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 As a matter of sociology, you may well be right. But that apart, why
 wouldn't such putative 3p conscious processes be as vulnerable to
 elimination (i.e. reducible without loss to some putative ur-physical basis)
 as temperature, computation, or any other physically-composite phenomenon?

 You mean reducible in explanation, but not eliminable in fact.

No, I mean the precise opposite: eliminable in fact, but not in explanation.

 Temperature
 is explained by kinetic energy of molecules, but you can't eliminate
 temperature and keep kinetic energy of molecules. There's a difference
 between eliminating in an explanation or description and eliminating in
 fact.

There is indeed. But as you yourself say below, we do suppose that all
3p describable phenomena can be reduced and hence that any
intermediate level in the hierarchy of reduction IS eliminable (i.e.
surplus to requirements) *in fact*. Such intermediate levels (be they
in terms of temperature or kinetic energy of molecules) are by
contrast NOT eliminable  from our explanations, simply because we lack
the capability to follow through any explanation at the
fully-reduced level.

 The principal assumption then is that all phenomena whatsoever can be
 reduced without loss to some primitive (i.e. assumptively irreducible)
 basis, in which process the higher levels are effectively eliminated.

 Or that all 3p describable phenomena can be reduced.  Which is what I
 suppose.  There may remain 1p phenomena (qualia?) which are not explicitly
 part of the reductive description, but which we suppose are still there
 because of the similarity of the 3p part to our 3p part which is
 consistently correlated with our 1p part (i.e. the reason we don't believe
 in p-zombies).

But our 3p part turns out to be one of the convenient
epistemological fictions that we have (inconveniently) eliminated
*in fact*. This is no kind of a problem for a purely 3p reduction, in
terms of which which all such intermediate levels are in the end
fictional, but every kind of a problem for the remaining 1p part,
which it is (to say the least) inconvenient to consider such a
fiction.

 Equivalently, one might say it's bottom-up all the way down. As an analogy,
 in the human sphere, this would be the contention that all political or
 sociological phenomena whatsoever can be reduced without loss

 I think without loss is ambiguous.  It could mean that in a simulation of
 the phenomena we would not have to consider it (because it would arise from
 the lower level, e.g. markets) or it could mean that it wouldn't occur.

No, it just means that if you assembled all the relevant human players
in the appropriate relations you would ex hypothesi have reproduced
the higher-level phenomena. Hence the inverse reduction from the
sociological to the human can be accomplished unambiguously without
loss. It really is a case of bottom-up all the way down.

David

 On 6/25/2014 3:07 PM, David Nyman wrote:

 On 25 June 2014 22:01, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 Note that I have not argued that the ability to 3p engineer consciousness
 will do anything to explain or diminish 1p conscious experience.  I just
 predict it will become a peripheral fact that consciousness of kind x goes
 with physical processes or computations of type y.


 As a matter of sociology, you may well be right. But that apart, why
 wouldn't such putative 3p conscious processes be as vulnerable to
 elimination (i.e. reducible without loss to some putative ur-physical basis)
 as temperature, computation, or any other physically-composite phenomenon?


 You mean reducible in explanation, but not eliminable in fact.  Temperature
 is explained by kinetic energy of molecules, but you can't eliminate
 temperature and keep kinetic energy of molecules. There's a difference
 between eliminating in an explanation or description and eliminating in
 fact.

 And, should they indeed be eliminable in this way, what does that bode for
 any 1p accompaniments? Note, please, that I am not staking any personal
 belief on the reductive assumptions as stated; I'm merely attempting to
 articulate them somewhat explicitly in order to discern what might, and what
 might not, be legitimately derivable from them.

 The principal assumption then is that all phenomena whatsoever can be
 reduced without loss to some primitive (i.e. assumptively irreducible)
 basis, in which process the higher levels are effectively eliminated.


 Or that all 3p describable phenomena can be reduced.  Which is what I
 suppose.  There may remain 1p phenomena (qualia?) which are not explicitly
 part of the reductive description, but which we suppose are still there
 because of the similarity of the 3p part to our 3p part which is
 consistently correlated with our 1p part (i.e. the reason we don't believe
 in p-zombies).


 Equivalently, one might say it's bottom-up all the way down. As an analogy,
 in the human sphere

Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-26 Thread David Nyman
On 26 June 2014 00:08, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 You mean reducible in explanation, but not eliminable in fact.
 Temperature is explained by kinetic energy of molecules, but you can't
 eliminate temperature and keep kinetic energy of molecules. There's a
 difference between eliminating in an explanation or description and
 eliminating in fact.

 I must admit I can't see that personally. If temperature is, in fact,
 molecular kinetic energy, then it doesn't actually exist at any level, it's
 just a convenient fiction, surely?

Spot on, Liz. Actually, we can consider both or either to be such
fictions, in terms of their mutual reducibility to some (exhaustive
and assumptively irreducible) basement level (string, anyone?). My
point is that the fundamental tenet of any 3p reductionism is
bottom-up all the way down. If that leads to inconvenient
consequences (not to mention a nasty dose of cognitive dissonance)
don't blame me, blame the assumptions.

David

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Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-26 Thread David Nyman
On 26 June 2014 20:38, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 I don't understand your point?  Are you saying that if there is a basement
 level explanation then everything above is a fiction?  I think of fiction
 = untrue.  If there is not a basement, then every explanation is a
 fiction, since there is always a lower level.  Or are you claiming there
 can be no reductive explanations of anything; that something is always left
 out?

Well, I attempted to address these points in my response to your
previous post. However, to re-iterate, I'm trying to draw a clear
distinction between explanatory and ontological assumptions. You may
personally take the view that in the end all we have is (attempts at)
explanation and in one sense (that of cognitive closure with respect
to ultimate reality) I would agree. Nevertheless, any exhaustively
reductive explanatory scheme is founded, ex hypothesi, on a bottom-up
hierarchy, such that the basement level entities and relations,
whatever we take them to be, are deemed fully adequate to support
(i.e. to be re-interpreted in terms of) all the levels above them.
IOW, they comprise, exhaustively, the ontology of the theory. It's in
that sense that higher levels in the hierarchy are (ontologically)
fictional; i.e. they are, however useful in an explanatory role,
surplus to requirements from an ontological perspective.

Not that, in any purely 3p reduction, anything is thereby left out.
How could it be, if all the higher levels are fully reducible to the
basement level? It's only when we consider the putative association of
1p phenomena with *intermediate* levels of the 3p hierarchy that a gap
appears, because now we are associating such 1p phenomena with a
level, that, whatever its *explanatory* power, has no independent
*ontological* purchase. Furthermore, at this point it becomes easier
to see that these explanatory fictions are, essentially, artefacts
of the perception and cognition we are seeking to explain; no doubt,
in the best cases (e.g. computation), of great generality and power,
but nonetheless, ex hypothesi, incapable of adding anything effective
to the bottom-up ontological hierarchy. If so, we seem to have arrived
at the position of attempting to found the aetiology of perception and
cognition on nothing more than its own fictions! But since these
fictions immediately degenerate, ontologically speaking, to the
basement level, it should be apparent that they are capable of
offering rather less independent ontological support than the smile of
the Cheshire Cat.

David

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Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-25 Thread David Nyman
On 25 June 2014 17:26, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 The problem is that, in the final analysis - and it is precisely the
 *final* analysis that we are considering here - such theories need take no
 account of any intermediate level of explanation in order to qualify as
 theories of everything, since any phenomenon whatsoever, on this species
 of fundamental accounting, can always be reduced without loss to the basic
 physical activity of the system in question.



 Ah! I remind you get the point. Still not sure many see it.

 Self consciousness can become equivalent with the knowledge of at least
 one non justifiable truth, but the raw consciousness remains problematical
 and it seems I have to attribute it to all universal numbers, perhaps in
 some dissociated state.


In my experience it isn't just that they don't see it, but that something
in them fiercely resists seeing it. And this is, I think, because it
violates an implicit tenet of physicalism, which is that in the final
analysis there must be an exhaustive accounting of any state of affairs
that makes no fundamental appeal to the first person. From this
perspective, consciousness, in the first-personal sense, is considered, in
the last resort, as dispensable or else as a kind of epiphenomenal rabbit
to be produced at the last moment, by some sleight-of-matter, from the
physicalist hat. The problem, however, is that the process of dispensing
with the first person cannot itself be achieved without recourse to the
convenient fictions of that very epiphenomenon, which makes the whole
enterprise self-defeating and, indeed, egregiously question-begging.

It exasperates me when people adduce phenomena such as temperature or life
as analogous to consciousness, without noticing that the analogy is, at
best, a half-truth. It is true - or at least plausible - that there might
be some discoverable set of physical processes that could, in principle, be
shown to be correlated with the conscious states of any physical system we
deem to be conscious. But we are also forced to assume - ex hypothesi
physicalism - that all such processes are fully instantiated entirely at
the most basic level posited by the physical theory in question. This poses
no problem whatsoever, in principle, for temperature, or life, or any other
of the exhaustively 3p-describable levels stacked in a virtual hierarchy
on the foundation of physics. It is of no import that any higher level is
eliminated in such a reduction, because it is not, in the end, required
to do any work; in fact the very success of the reduction is that such
levels are revealed, in essence, as convenient fictions. It is uniquely in
the case of consciousness that this approach becomes self-defeating, unless
we are willing to allow the convenient fiction of consciousness itself to
be eliminated with all the rest. But then, if we do so allow, the very
phenomena on which we have been relying instantly vanish, like the Cheshire
Cat, leaving not so much as a smile behind.

David

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Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-14 Thread David Nyman
On 14 June 2014 04:32, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 I thought I'd been pretty clear that it's ill defined, a point on which I
 agree with Bruno.  I tried to define it in the exchange with David, but he
 seemed to reject my definition and just assumed everybody knows what it
 means.

As I recall you proposed that physical might equate to sharable, in an
operational sense, and indeed I wouldn't demur from that as an
operational definition. But the question I was focusing on was the
mode of derivation of that particular set of operationally definable
entities and relations from whatever universe of possibility is
postulated by the underlying theory. And it is here that I would
contrast Bruno's approach with, say, string theory or the MUH, in that
the mode of derivation relies on epistemological logic from the
bottom up, as it were. This is why for me, if it can indeed be made to
work, such an approach seems to take more than a step or two towards
explicating the co-emergence of matter and mind from the
computational universe of possibility. In many, if not most, other
formulations, the latter is treated more like a metaphysical rabbit
that is assumed to pop out of the hat just in time, so to speak,
purely as an epiphenomenon of physical processes.

David

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Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-13 Thread David Nyman
On 13 June 2014 01:27, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 But although we may speculate that consciousness and physical events both
 depend on computation (perhaps only in the sense of being consistently
 described) it doesn't follow that a UD exists or the conscious/physical
 world is an illusion.  People throw around it's an illusion so freely
 that it ceases to distinguish rhinoceri from unicorns.

You're right, oftentimes they do. But I wouldn't include Bruno in
people here (if you see what I mean). Once one assumes the existence
of the UD (or rather its infinite trace) the hard problem then becomes
one of justifying in detail every aspect of the *appearance* of matter
through its interaction with mind. Then, as Bruno is wont to say, the
problem turns out to be (at least) twice as hard as we might have
feared. As to the admissibility of the UD, for me, in the end, it's
just another theoretical posit. As it happens, it strikes me as
sufficiently motivated, because once computation is fixed as the base,
I don't see how one would justify restricting its scope to certain
computations in particular.

It also suits my Everything-ist predilection (when I'm wearing that
hat) to see the world-problem formulated in terms of a
self-interpreting Programmatic Library of Babel. But my preferences
are neither here or there, of course. What counts, as always, is how
fruitful a theory turns out to be. So the proof of the comp pudding,
in the end, will lie in its ultimate utility. By that point, should it
come, I guess most people will have stopped quibbling about the
existence, or otherwise, of the number 2.

 It should be clear then, under such assumptions, that neither a
 conscious state, nor any local physical mechanism through which it is
 manifested, can any longer be considered basic;

 Aren't conscious thoughts epistemologically basic.  They are things of which
 we have unmediated knowledge.

Yes, they are. But on the comp assumption, they're still in a specific
sense derivative. Admittedly this is a subtle distinction that must be
handled with care. For example, I don't think that it wouldn't be
accurate to say that conscious thoughts are caused by arithmetic or
computation. It's more that the epistemological consequences turn out
to be a logical entailment of the original ontological assumptions.
And part of that entailment is that there is indeed a we that can
have unmediated knowledge of certain truths.

 rather, *both* must
 (somehow) be complex artefacts (albeit with distinctive derivations)
 of a more primitive (in this case, by assumption, computational)
 ontology. The relevant distinction, then, is between this set of
 relations and the alternative, in which both consciousness and
 computation are assumed to be derivative on a more basic (hence
 primitive) formulation of matter.

 I can agree with that.  It is consistent with my point that primitive
 matter is undefined and could be anything if we just called it ur-stuff
 instead of matter.

Good. Perhaps that's all a little clearer, then.

David

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Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-13 Thread David Nyman
On 13 June 2014 03:52, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 I think you are assuming the point in question, i.e. that all the physical
 interactions of brains with the painting and the rest of the world are
 irrelevant and that the physical description of the painting is *just* the
 pigment on the canvas.  You take all that other interaction, which also has
 both physical and psychological description and leave it out and then you
 say the physical description leaves out something essential.  That seems to
 imply that you believe philosophical zombies are possible?

No, I think it just means that I pushed this particular metaphor
beyond its breaking point. You are, of course, correct to say that an
adequate physical description must include the relevant context. And I
agree that what is relevant in context may be moot. However, my basic
point was that, under physicalism, the ultimate goal is to be able to
give an exhaustive, contextualised account of a given system
exclusively in terms of its *physical relations*. And this is the case
whether or not we wish to distinguish one descriptive level as
ontological and another as epistemological. In the final analysis
it's all - ex hypothesi - physics.

We seem to have agreed that physicalism and computationalism rely on
different assumptions about what one might call the hierarchy of
derivation. So, under physicalism, both computation and mind are
assumed to derive from (in the sense of being alternative descriptions
of) some ultimately basic formulation of matter (to whatever depths
that might have to descend). Under computationalism, by contrast, both
matter and mind are assumed to derive from some ultimately basic
formulation of computation.

The crucial dissimilarity is then that mind is not appealed to, under
physicalism, in accounting for the origin of matter (which is basic).
This makes it coherent, at least in principle, to ask for an
exhaustive physical accounting of any given state of affairs. In the
final analysis *everything* must be reducible, by assumption, to one
or another description of some basic set of underlying physical
relations.

Under computationalism, by contrast, the epistemological logic is
absolutely central in differentiating the lawful appearances of matter
from the exhaustive redundancy of the computational base. Hence on
these assumptions, even in principle, no state of affairs above the
level of the basic ontology could ever be exhaustively accounted for
by any catalogue of descriptions, however sophisticated or
multi-levelled, of its merely physical dispositions, absent the
selective logic of its epistemology.

David

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Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-13 Thread David Nyman
On 13 June 2014 20:44, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
 under
 physicalism, in accounting for the origin of matter (which is basic).
 This makes it coherent, at least in principle, to ask for an
 exhaustive physical accounting of any given state of affairs. In the
 final analysis *everything* must be reducible, by assumption, to one
 or another description of some basic set of underlying physical
 relations.

 Under computationalism, by contrast, the epistemological logic is
 absolutely central in differentiating the lawful appearances of matter
 from the exhaustive redundancy of the computational base. Hence on
 these assumptions, even in principle, no state of affairs above the
 level of the basic ontology could ever be exhaustively accounted for
 by any catalogue of descriptions, however sophisticated or
 multi-levelled, of its merely physical dispositions, absent the
 selective logic of its epistemology.

 ?? Too dense for me.

 I think logic can be accounted for in 3p and can be observed in brains, as
 in computers.

I'm sorry if it's hard to follow my drift, but I'm also a little
flummoxed that we're still flogging this particular horse. Why is such
a fundamental distinction between physicalism and computationalism
still so contentious after all the to-ing and fro-ing on this very
point on this list over the years? We are not debating the correctness
of either of the theories under discussion, but rather the
distinctively different role that is played by their various
conceptual elements.

To summarise, then: physicalism is the hypothesis that an exhaustively
reduced account of any state of affairs whatsoever can, in principle,
be rendered by reference to a particular, restricted class of
fundamental entities and relations. Given this scope, it must be true,
ex hypothesi, that any and all higher-order derivatives, for example
computational or neurological states, are re-descriptions (known or
unknown) of the basic entities and relations and hence always fully
reducible to them. Consequently such higher-order concepts, though
explanatorily indispensible, are ontologically disposable; IOW, it's
the basic physics that, by assumption, is doing all the work.

By contrast, computationalism, as formulated in the UDA, leads to the
hypothesis of an arithmetical ontology resulting in a vastly redundant
computational infinity. This being the case, there is a dependency
from the outset on a fundamental selective principle in order to
justify the appearance of a lawlike observational physics; IOW before
it can advance to the stage that physicalism has already assumed at
the outset. That selective principle is a universal observational
psychology, based on the universal digital machine, whose primary
role is to justify the singularisation of a particular, lawlike
physics that comports with observation.

It should be clear, therefore, that the psychology of observation is
not itself reducible to basic physics in this scheme of things. That
would be an egregious confusion of levels. Moreover, it is not
straightforwardly reducible to the underlying arithmetical entities
and relations, because the selective principle in question *depends
on complex, computationally-instantiated epistemological states and
their relation to modes of arithmetical truth. Absent those states and
modes, there would be no physics, no observer and nothing to observe.
Consequently, neither computation, nor the epistemological states it
emulates, are dispensable (i.e. fully reducible) in this schema.

David

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Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-13 Thread David Nyman
On 13 June 2014 23:01, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 and
 their relation to modes of arithmetical truth. Absent those states and
 modes, there would be no physics, no observer and nothing to observe.

 At least that's Bruno's theory.

Well yes, it was Bruno's theory that I originally commented on. I said
that it had originally troubled me that it seemed as vulnerable to the
reduction/elimination impasse as any other ism based on purportedly
fundamental entities but, on further reflection, I thought it might be
able to escape that impasse, essentially for the reasons encapsulated
in my remark above. It seemed to me that this was, at least, an
important conceptual distinction. Wasn't that what we were discussing?

Anyway, I think I've said my piece for now. I'm sure there will be
other occasions ;-)

David

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Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-12 Thread David Nyman
On 12 June 2014 04:09, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 Of course most physicists think the
 mind/body problem is too ill defined a problem to tackle right now.

But this is Bruno's whole point and aim, isn't it? Given that the
whole subject area is indeed a quagmire of confusion, he sets out his
stall to formulate the problem in a way that is sufficiently
well-defined, unambiguous, and mathematically precise to be subjected
to rigorous scrutiny. As you know, he originally expected it to break
immediately under the resulting strain, but in practice it hasn't yet
done so.

That said, I think your remarks about primitive matter rather miss the
point. The UDA starts with the most general assumption of a
computational theory of mind: i.e. the brain is some sort of mechanism
and that the relation between consciousness and this mechanism depends
on some (unknown) set of computational relations obtaining between
some (unknown) finite collection of its physical components. One might
then say of this state of affairs that the mechanism itself is
physically instantiated, whereas the resultant conscious states are
computationally instantiated (aka consciousness qua computatio).
Step 8 is then intended, on this assumption, to make explicit the (in
retrospect, rather obvious) point that any given net physical
behaviour of such a mechanism (i.e. the disposition of its components
through any given set of physical states) can be fortuitously
preserved even after every trace of its original, purportedly
computational, architecture has been evacuated.

If this be the case, it would seem to make little sense to continue in
the view that any conscious states correlated with the net physical
behaviour of the mechanism are still *computationally instantiated*.
Consequently, either consciousness qua computatio is false (Maudlin's
conclusion), or it is at least persuasive that both conscious states
and their correlative physical mechanisms alike depend on
computation in some rather deeper and more general formulation. This
is what opens the conceptual gap for the reversal to bite and the UD
to exert its baleful influence.

It should be clear then, under such assumptions, that neither a
conscious state, nor any local physical mechanism through which it is
manifested, can any longer be considered basic; rather, *both* must
(somehow) be complex artefacts (albeit with distinctive derivations)
of a more primitive (in this case, by assumption, computational)
ontology. The relevant distinction, then, is between this set of
relations and the alternative, in which both consciousness and
computation are assumed to be derivative on a more basic (hence
primitive) formulation of matter.

David

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Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-12 Thread David Nyman
On 13 June 2014 00:23, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 On 6/12/2014 8:03 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 That said, we might still at this stage wish to point out - and
 indeed it might seem at first blush to be defensible - that such
 fictions, or artefacts, could, at least in principle, be redeemable in
 virtue of their evident epistemological undeniability. Indeed this is
 FAPP the default a posteriori strategy, though often only tacitly. It
 might even be persuasive were it not that no first-person
 epistemological consequence has ever been shown to be predictable or
 derivable from basic relations defined strictly physically, as
 distinct from computationally, nor indeed is any such consequence
 appealed to, ex hypothesi, in accounting rather exhaustively for any
 state of affairs that is defined strictly physically. (The single
 candidate I can adduce as a counter example to the latter, by the way,
 is the collapse hypothesis which, far from being such a consequence,
 is rather an ad hoc interpolation.)

 But that's an instructive example.  It shows that there is no absolute
 barrier to such explanation.  And with the further development of
 decoherence theory it not be so ad hoc.  I think the barrier itself is an
 illusion engendered by criteria of explanation that are not met even by the
 most widely accepted theories.

Actually I wrote the above remarks, not Bruno. I assume you mean that
a singularised conscious state might be taken to be a consequence of
decoherence. If so, one could indeed consider singularisation to be an
epistemological consequence of a state of affairs defined strictly
physically. But that isn't quite what I intended. What I meant was
that, in this view, the epistemological consequences, singularised or
not, must always be inessential to the basic accounting of the
strictly *physical* state of affairs.

David

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Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-12 Thread David Nyman
On 12 June 2014 16:03, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 Well, I guess that's my stab for now.


 Wow!

Thanks (I think) ;-)

David

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Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-12 Thread David Nyman
On 13 June 2014 02:42, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 Simply because you can give something you call a basic accounting of a
 painting by specifying the placement of pigments on a canvas doesn't
 preclude also describing it as a Monet of water lillies.  You've chosen a
 level and called it basic and then complain that it leaves something out.
 I'd say it's just incomplete.

You're right, it doesn't preclude it, but neither does it demand it.
The painting wouldn't be any the less what it is *physically* were it
to remain uninterpreted in perpetuity. The point is that the
completion (i.e. the interpretation of the pigments on canvas as a
particular work by Monet) is a supernumerary epistemological
consequence that is not required (in the strict terms of this view) to
singularise or otherwise determine the physical state of affairs.

David

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Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-11 Thread David Nyman
 rather exhaustively for any
state of affairs that is defined strictly physically. (The single
candidate I can adduce as a counter example to the latter, by the way,
is the collapse hypothesis which, far from being such a consequence,
is rather an ad hoc interpolation.)

Well, I guess that's my stab for now.

David


 On 6/10/2014 4:22 PM, David Nyman wrote:

 But to reiterate once more,
 if we are tempted to see this as a sign that the search for further
 explanation is futile, we should first reflect whether we have hit the
 buffers of a particular explanatory strategy, rather than the limits
 of explanation tout court.


 I do see it as futile, and I think that it is futile under any explanatory
 strategy whatsoever.  And this is why it is referred to as 1p.  I think
 you're asking for an explanation that can't exist.  But I'm willing to be
 shown wrong.  Can you say what form such an explanation might take?  That is
 apparently what you refer to in writing:

 That is, the emulation of computation and hence the universal machine in
 arithmetic could motivate the missing relation to a distinctively
 supernumerary domain - the modes of arithmetical truth - that is both
 irreducible to its base and (possibly) demonstrably coterminous with the
 specifics of 1p phenomena.

 But I don't understand it.  distinctively supernumerary sounds to me like
 an explanation in terms of something not 1p and hence having the same
 failing in satisfying the demand for explanation as the explanation in terms
 of brain physics.

 Brent

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Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-11 Thread David Nyman
On 11 June 2014 00:36, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 PS I'm not trying to take any credit for anything here, just saying I had a
 vague hunch that was in the same area. You've done all the hard work of
 thinking through what it actually implies.

Thanks Liz and too kind. But it's always a boost to know when I've
managed somehow to get my point across. :-)

David

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Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-10 Thread David Nyman
On 10 June 2014 04:09, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

They're along for the ride like temperature is alftr on the kinetic
 energy of molecules.  Before stat mech, heat was regarded as an immaterial
 substance.  It was explained by the motion of molecules; something that is
 3p observable but the explanation didn't make it vanish or make it illusory.


I would argue that, at the ontological level, the explanation *does indeed*
make heat, or temperature, illusory. The whole point of the reduction is
to show that there could not, in principle, be any supernumerary something
left unaccounted for by an explanation couched exclusively at the
primordial level, whatever one takes that to be. Given that this is the
specific goal of explanatory reduction, what we have here is a precise
dis-analogy, in that there *is indeed* a disturbingly irreducible something
left behind, or unaccounted for, in the case of consciousness: i.e. the 1p
experience itself.

By contrast, there is no need to grant the phenomena of temperature or heat
any such supernumerary reality. One could indeed argue with some force that
all such phenomena are themselves, in fine, specific artefacts, or useful
fictions, of consciousness. That is, they are epistemologically or
explanatorily, as distinct from ontologically, relevant. Primordial matter,
as it were, in its doings, need take no account of such intermediate
levels, which, by assumption, reduce without loss to some exhaustive set of
primordial entities and relations.

This was the entire point of the argument (focused on steps 7 and 8 of the
UDA) that Liz excerpted: that there is a reduction/elimination impasse that
needs somehow to be bridged by any theory seeking to reconcile
consciousness and any primordial substratum (or, pace Bruno, hypostase)
with which it is supposed to be correlated. And hence we have an
unavoidable problem, up to this point, with theories based on
primordially-explanatory material entities and processes. The problem is
that, in the final analysis - and it is precisely the *final* analysis that
we are considering here - such theories need take no account of any
intermediate level of explanation in order to qualify as theories of
everything, since any phenomenon whatsoever, on this species of
fundamental accounting, can always be reduced without loss to the basic
physical activity of the system in question.

David

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Re: TRONNIES - SPACE

2014-06-10 Thread David Nyman
 of fundamental accounting, can always be reduced
 without loss to the basic physical activity of the system in question.

 Or in Bruno's theory, to the basic arithmetical relations.

Sure, but I don't know why you are ignoring the specific remarks that
I made about this very point. I took pains to explain that it used to
trouble me, as you say above, that the same reduction/elimination
critique could be applied to arithmetical relations. I think somebody
once called this nothing butting. But on further consideration it
now seems to me that there could be a distinctive and potentially
game-changing difference. That is, the emulation of computation and
hence the universal machine in arithmetic could motivate the missing
relation to a distinctively supernumerary domain - the modes of
arithmetical truth - that is both irreducible to its base and
(possibly) demonstrably coterminous with the specifics of 1p
phenomena.

Of course I claim no technical competence in any such demonstration.
But I can see at least the outline of a re-contextualisation that
might permit the extrapolation of explanation beyond what may well
appear, under different assumptions, as some sort of absolute limit.

David



 On 6/10/2014 4:37 AM, David Nyman wrote:

 On 10 June 2014 04:09, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 They're along for the ride like temperature is alftr on the kinetic
 energy of molecules.  Before stat mech, heat was regarded as an immaterial
 substance.  It was explained by the motion of molecules; something that is
 3p observable but the explanation didn't make it vanish or make it illusory.


 I would argue that, at the ontological level, the explanation *does indeed*
 make heat, or temperature, illusory. The whole point of the reduction is
 to show that there could not, in principle, be any supernumerary something
 left unaccounted for by an explanation couched exclusively at the
 primordial level, whatever one takes that to be. Given that this is the
 specific goal of explanatory reduction, what we have here is a precise
 dis-analogy, in that there *is indeed* a disturbingly irreducible something
 left behind, or unaccounted for, in the case of consciousness: i.e. the 1p
 experience itself.


 You're simply assuming it's unaccounted for. The hypothesis was that there
 might be a theory which was successful in reading minds and predicting
 thoughts based on physical observation of a brain.  I'd say that is all
 that can be done; to ask for more is just anthropic prejudice about what an
 explanation should look like - it's like asking, But why does gravity want
 to pull things together?



 By contrast, there is no need to grant the phenomena of temperature or heat
 any such supernumerary reality.


 Grant?  There's no need to grant anything reality.  It's sort of an
 honorific we give to theories we believe (or at least seriously entertain).


 One could indeed argue with some force that all such phenomena are
 themselves, in fine, specific artefacts, or useful fictions, of
 consciousness. That is, they are epistemologically or explanatorily, as
 distinct from ontologically, relevant. Primordial matter, as it were, in its
 doings, need take no account of such intermediate levels, which, by
 assumption, reduce without loss to some exhaustive set of primordial
 entities and relations.

 That sounds very anthropomorphic and psychological - as though primordial
 matter was Mother Nature and took account or ignored things.  In a straight
 forward mathematical description you can look at a certain integral and say,
 That's the temperature. and there isn't any formulation in which such a
 value does not appear, it's a necessary aspect.

 This was the entire point of the argument (focused on steps 7 and 8 of the
 UDA) that Liz excerpted: that there is a reduction/elimination impasse that
 needs somehow to be bridged by any theory seeking to reconcile consciousness
 and any primordial substratum (or, pace Bruno, hypostase) with which it is
 supposed to be correlated. And hence we have an unavoidable problem, up to
 this point, with theories based on primordially-explanatory material
 entities and processes. The problem is that, in the final analysis - and it
 is precisely the *final* analysis that we are considering here - such
 theories need take no account of any intermediate level of explanation in
 order to qualify as theories of everything, since any phenomenon
 whatsoever, on this species of fundamental accounting, can always be reduced
 without loss to the basic physical activity of the system in question.


 Or in Bruno's theory, to the basic arithmetical relations.

 Brent
 In the first sense, to be a realist about quantum mechanics is simply to
 think that we should believe in the entities and structures that subserve
 its explanatory hypotheses. Put simply, belief goes along with explanatory
 success. And must be tempered by explanatory failure.
--- Adrian Heathcote, Quantum Heterodxy, Science and Education, April

Re: Suicide Words God and Ideas

2014-06-08 Thread David Nyman
 of the screen, an external interpreter is necessary
for any dramatic truth whatsoever to be accessible. To complete the
analogy one must rather imagine something that is both self-interpreting
and self-filtering (at this point one also importing The Library of Babel
into the picture!). Et voila - the UDA!

David


 On 07 Jun 2014, at 17:23, David Nyman wrote:

 On 12 February 2014 11:17, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 At step seven, the primitive materialist can still invoke a physicalist
 form of ultrafinitism, to prevent the comp reversal between physics and
 arithmetic (or number theology).


 If I've grasped this, it's that one could attempt to avoid the reversal by
 claiming that the physical universe isn't (or mightn't be) sufficiently
 robust (i.e. physically extended?) to instantiate a physical UD that
 would run forever. If so, this would presumably side-step the need to
 take the consequent infinities of computations into account.


 Yees, that the whole point.




 However, I've never felt fully in command of this step, actually. For
 example, why couldn't one argue that the physical universe is indeed
 sufficiently robust, in the sense intended, to support the infinite running
 of a UD, but it simply be the case that - in fact - *there is no such UD in
 existence*?



 Yes, that certainly exists too. But it is not an interesting protocol to
 get the partial reversal of step seven: if there is a concrete UD* then the
 laws of physics = the hunting of the arithmetical rabbits.

 Then in step eight we quasi-eliminate moves like small universe, or your
 robust but without UD, etc.





  I seem to have missed the force of the implication (at step 7) that a
 physically instantiated, infinitely-running UD *must* be taken into
 account, given the simple fact of a physical universe sufficiently robust,
 *in principle*, to support its existence.


 At step 7, it is not in principle. Like in the preceding protocol, we just
 assume the existence of an infinite running of the UD in our infinite
 (then) space-time structure.

 The proposition is that if that is the case, and don't see white rabbits,
 it means some computations are multiplied, and exploit (perhaps) the random
 oracle inherent in that multiplication.




 IOW, even given the comp assumption, why couldn't one still argue that all
 relevant computations - *absent actual physical evidence* of an
 infinitely-running UD - in fact supervene on physical brains and/or other
 non-biological physical digital machines?


 By step 8. That moves above is shown introducing a god-of-the-gap to
 select a reality. It entails a sort of magic distinguishing a computation
 from all the others.

 You can do this, as step 8 talk about reality and thus can only suggest
 the implausibility of such a move.

 It is almost like using an ideology (the belief in a primary physical
 universe) to divert from a testable explanation of where the physical laws
 come from, and why the physical can hurt.

 It is the same than Omnes, who invoke literally the abandon of rationalism
 to select one universe in his otherwise clear description of a (QM)
 multiverse.

 The step 8 does not, and cannot, refute your point above, but it can
 explain how far it goes near a god-of-the-gap move, or a magic move. It is
 close to be proved, as to counteract to step 8 you are forced (in the
 transfinite) to provide a matter which is non Turing emulable, and non FPI
 recoverable. It looks like reifying a mystery to prevent a possible partial
 solution to a mystery. Someone might add that matter needs a Gods
 blessing, also.


 Bruno





 David


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  http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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Re: Suicide Words God and Ideas

2014-06-08 Thread David Nyman
On 8 June 2014 22:47, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

Ready? Have you bought the Mendelson?


OK, I give in. I just found a reasonably-priced second-hand copy of the
Mendelson on Abebooks - should be here in a few days. Oh, and by the way,
I'm presently reading and enjoying Hines's Return to the One. Thanks for
the recommendation.

David

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Re: Suicide Words God and Ideas

2014-06-07 Thread David Nyman
On 12 February 2014 11:17, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

At step seven, the primitive materialist can still invoke a physicalist
 form of ultrafinitism, to prevent the comp reversal between physics and
 arithmetic (or number theology).


If I've grasped this, it's that one could attempt to avoid the reversal by
claiming that the physical universe isn't (or mightn't be) sufficiently
robust (i.e. physically extended?) to instantiate a physical UD that
would run forever. If so, this would presumably side-step the need to
take the consequent infinities of computations into account.

However, I've never felt fully in command of this step, actually. For
example, why couldn't one argue that the physical universe is indeed
sufficiently robust, in the sense intended, to support the infinite running
of a UD, but it simply be the case that - in fact - *there is no such UD in
existence*? I seem to have missed the force of the implication (at step 7)
that a physically instantiated, infinitely-running UD *must* be taken into
account, given the simple fact of a physical universe sufficiently robust,
*in principle*, to support its existence. IOW, even given the comp
assumption, why couldn't one still argue that all relevant computations -
*absent actual physical evidence* of an infinitely-running UD - in fact
supervene on physical brains and/or other non-biological physical digital
machines?

David

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Re: Pluto bounces back!

2014-05-31 Thread David Nyman
On 31 May 2014 13:06, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

Hawking has all my sympathy for the warning against authoritative argument,
 but he lost all his credits by implying that theology or religion are the
 guilty one, when it is only human stupidity, that of course any
 institutionalized religion can enhance, but this includes atheism, as I
 have experimented, and I was not alone.


Not sure what you intended here; perhaps the following will help:

False cognates in French (F) and English (E)

expérience (F) vs experience (E)

Expérience (F) is a semi-false cognate, because it means both experience
and experiment: J'ai fait une expérience - I did an experiment. J'ai eu une
expérience intéressante - I had an interesting experience.

Experience (E) can be a noun or verb referring to something that happened.
Only the noun translates into expérience : Experience shows that ... -
L'expérience démontre que... He experienced some difficulties - Il a
rencontré des difficultés.


expérimenter (F) vs experiment (E)

Expérimenter (F) is a semi-false cognate. It is equivalent to the English
verb, but also has the added sense of to test an apparatus.
Experiment (E) as a verb means to test hypotheses or ways of doing things.
As a noun, it is equivalent only to the first sense, given above, of the
French word expérience.

David

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Re: Interesting Google tech talk on QM

2014-04-23 Thread David Nyman
On 23 April 2014 17:25, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

Samuel Clemens? Was is not Mark Twain? I missed a post perhaps.


Same guy, different name.

David

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Re: Universal Programming

2014-03-17 Thread David Nyman
On 17 March 2014 13:56, Gabriel Bodeen gabebod...@gmail.com wrote:

If there isn't already, there needs to be some fiction about Buddhist
 comp-believers trying to escape immortality.


To quote Wikipedia:  In Indian religions, the attainment of nirvana is
moksha, liberation from the cycle of rebirth. Not sure if this counts as
fiction, though.

David

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Re: Tegmark and UDA step 3

2014-03-10 Thread David Nyman
On 10 March 2014 17:43, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

or to bet on normal higher level of simulation, like with Böstrom


Could you elaborate?

David

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Re: Is information physical?

2014-02-28 Thread David Nyman
On 27 February 2014 21:35, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au wrote:

When I last took a look at constructor theory, it wasn't much of a
 theory. I know David's been working on it, when he's not doing the
 chat show circuit, but hadn't heard any major development in it
 announced, so haven't taken another look. Do you have any papers on
 it?


This is the most recent, I think:

http://arxiv.org/abs/1210.7439

He says the paper is philosophical rather than technical.

David

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Re: Alien Hand/Limb Syndrome

2014-02-28 Thread David Nyman
On 27 February 2014 16:43, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Thursday, February 27, 2014 9:47:33 AM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 27 February 2014 14:02, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 In other words, why, in a functionalist/materialist world would we need a
 breakable program to keep telling us that our hand is not Alien? When
 you start by assuming that I'm always wrong, then it becomes very easy to
 justify that with ad hoc straw man accusations.


 I do not in fact start with that assumption and, if you believe that I
 do, I suggest you should question it. I do find however that I am unable to
 draw the same conclusion as you from the examples you give. They simply
 seem like false inferences to me (and to Stathis, based on his comment).


 You are unable to draw the same conclusion because you aren't considering
 any part of what I have laid out. I'm looking at CTM as if it were true,
 and then proceeding from there to question whether what we observe (AHS,
 blindsight, etc) would be consistent with the idea of consciousness as a
 function.


Yes, but functionalism doesn't necessarily force the claim that
consciousness *just is* a function: that is the eliminativist version. More
usually it is understood as the claim that consciousness *supervenes on*
(or co-varies with) function (i.e. the epiphenomenalist or crypto-dualist
versions). But, if we take this latter view, the conundrum is more peculiar
even than you seem to imply by these piecemeal pot-shots. Rather, the
*entire story* of awareness / intention now figures only as a
causally-irrelevant inside interpretation of a complete and
self-sufficient functional history that neither knows nor cares about it.
You remember my analogy of the dramatis personae instantiated by the pixels
of the LCD screen?

However it would be self-defeating if our response to such bafflement
resulted in our misrepresenting its patent successes because it cannot
explain everything. We should rather seek a resolution of the dichotomy
between apparently disparate accounts in a more powerful explanatory
framework; one that could, for example, explain how *just this kind of
infrastructure* might emerge as the mise-en-scène for *just these kinds of
dramatis personae*. Comp is a candidate for that framework if one accepts
at the outset that there is some functional level of substitution for the
brain. If one doesn't, there is certainly space for alternatives, but it is
fair to demand a similar reconciliatory account in all cases, rather than a
distortion of particular facts to suit one's preference.

What I conclude is that since the function of the limb is not interrupted,
 there is no plausible basis for the program which models the limb to add in
 any extra alarm for a condition of 'functional but not 'my' function'. AHS
 is the same as a philosophical zombie, except that it is at the level where
 physiological behavior is exhibited rather than psychological behavior.


  If you have a compelling argument to the contrary, I wish you would find
 a way to give it in a clearer form.


 See above. Hopefully that is clearer.


  I can't see that what you say above fits the bill.


 I don't see that criticism without any details or rebuttals fit the bill
 either. Whenever the criticism is It seems to me that your argument
 fails', it only makes me more suspicious that there is no legitimate
 objection. I can't relate to it, since as far as I know, my objections are
 always in the form of an explanation - what specifically seems wrong to me,
 and how to see it differently so that what I'm objecting to is not
 overlooked.


  You seem to regard rhetorical questions beginning why would we need..?
 as compelling arguments against a functional account, but they seem to me
 to be beside the point.


 That's because you are only considering the modus ponens view where since
 functionalism implies that a malfunctioning brain would produce anomalies
 in conscious experience, it would make sense that AHS affirms functionalism
 being true. I'm looking at the modus tollens view where since functionalism
 implies that brain function requires no additional ingredient to make the
 function of conscious machines seem conscious, some extra, non-functional
 ingredient is required to explain why AHS is alarming to those who suffer
 from it. Since the distress of AHS is observed to be real, and that is
 logically inconsistent with the expectations of functionalism, I conclude
 that the AHS example adds to the list of counterfactuals to
 CTM/Functionalism. It should not matter whether a limb feels like it's
 'yours',* functionalism implies that the fact of being able to use a limb
 makes it feel like 'yours' by definition*. This is the entire premise of
 computationalist accounts of qualia; that the mathematical relations simply
 taste like raspberries or feel like pain because that is the implicit
 expression of those relations.


I think if you consider my comments

Re: Is information physical?

2014-02-28 Thread David Nyman
On 27 February 2014 22:22, Russell Standish li...@hpcoders.com.au wrote:

Only when interpreted by an observer. An electrical circuit has only
 voltages and currents, not bits. To an observer, a voltage on a data
 line might be interpreted as 1 if it is greater than 3V, and zero if
 it is less than 1V. In between those two thresholds, the voltage might
 be determinate, but the information is not.


AFAICT observers don't seem central to constructor theory - it seems to be
(or aims at being) an objective theory from which everything else of
relevance will be emergent. From what I remember of the topic in FOR, David
isn't an avowed eliminativist on consciousness but on the whole seems
content to sideline it as a subsidiary problem for psychologists. That
said, do you feel that his information-is-physical position, even in the
case that physics-is-construction, is in effect crypto-eliminativism?

David

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Re: 3-1 views (was: Re: Better Than the Chinese Room)

2014-02-28 Thread David Nyman
On 26 February 2014 17:04, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

Hi David,

 On 24 Feb 2014, at 17:32, David Nyman wrote:

 On 24 February 2014 15:50, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 24 Feb 2014, at 02:41, David Nyman wrote:

 On 24 February 2014 01:04, chris peck chris_peck...@hotmail.com wrote:

 *This is the same as saying that I will experience all possible futures
 in the MWI - but by the time I experience them, of course, the version of
 me in each branch will be different, and it always seems to me,
 retrospectively, as though I only experienced one outcome.*

 Each duplicate will only experience one outcome. I don't think there is
 any disagreement about that. The problems occur when considering what the
 person duplicated will experience and then what probability he should
 assign to each outcome and that seems to me to depend on what identity
 criterion gets imposed. Its a consideration I've gone into at length and
 won't bore you with again. But I will say that where you think that what
 Bruno wants is just recognition that each duplicate sees one outcome, I
 think that he actually wants to show that 3p and 1p probability assignments
 would be asymmetric from the stand point of the person duplicated.
 Certainly for me he doesn't manage that.


 Correct me if I'm misremembering Chris, but I seem to recall proposing to
 you on a previous occasion that Hoyle's pigeon hole analogy can be a useful
 way of tuning intuitions about puzzles of this sort, although I appear to
 be the sole fan of the idea around here. Hoyle's idea is essentially a
 heuristic for collapsing the notions of identity, history and continuation
 onto the perspective of a single, universal observer. From this
 perspective, the situation of being faced with duplication is just a random
 selection from the class of all possible observer moments.

 Well, the just might be not that easy to define.

 If the universal observer is the universal machine, the probability to
 get a computational history involving windows or MacOS might be more
 probable than being me or you.


 But how would you remember that?


 By noting it in my diary, by inquesting my past, and hacking data banks,
 or reading book on my origin.


Well, I'm not sure if it makes sense to say the Hoyle's universal observer
is the universal machine. I don't know to what extent his idea is
compatible with comp. But to be clear, you suggested above that a
computational history involving windows or MacOS might be more probable
than being me or you, so I asked you how Bruno, for example, could remember
that, meaning to suggest that of course you could not. I suppose it would
be some sort of problem for Hoyle's idea if one suspected not simply that
certain classes of non-human observer vastly out-numbered human ones, but
that they were likely to be asking themselves similar sorts of questions.
IOW, what might constitute an appropriate equivalence class for ourselves?



 I am not sure that the notion of observer moment makes sense, without a
 notion of scenario involving a net of computational relative states.

 I think the hypostases describe a universal person, composed from a
 universal (self) scientist ([]p), a universal knower ([]p  p), an observer
 ([]p  p), and a feeler ([]p  p  p)).

 But I would not say that this universal person (which exist in arithmetic
 and is associated with all relatively self-referential correct löbian
 number) will select among all observer moment.


 Well, perhaps eventually it will select all of them, if we can give some
 relevant sense to eventually in this context.


 Is this not done by simple 3p arithmetical realism?


Not, I think, in the 1p sense, without a certain amount of equivocation.


 There is a sense God select them all, but they inter-relations are
 indexicals.


Yes, but the inner God cannot select them all simultaneously, without the
equivocation to which I refer.





 And I suppose Hoyle's point is that if one imagines a logical
 serialisation of all such moments, its order must be inconsequential
 because of the intrinsic self-ordering of the moments themselves.



 That is the mathematical conception of an order, and there are dualities
 between those ways of considering a structure.

 You can already see that with the modal logic, where properties of
 accessibility will characterize modal formula and theories.



 Essentially he is saying that the panoptic bird view is somehow preserved
 at the frog level, at the price of breaking the simultaneity of the
 momentary views.


 I am not sure I understand.


I think he is saying (as did Schroedinger) that the frog must see every
indexical reality, but cannot see them all simultaneously.








 The hypostatic universal person is more like a universal baby, which
 can split in a much larger spectrum of future 1p histories, but from its
 first person perspective it is like it has still to go through the
 histories to get the right relative statistics on his

Re: Alien Hand/Limb Syndrome

2014-02-28 Thread David Nyman
On 28 February 2014 16:44, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Friday, February 28, 2014 8:29:52 AM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 27 February 2014 16:43, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Thursday, February 27, 2014 9:47:33 AM UTC-5, David Nyman wrote:

 On 27 February 2014 14:02, Craig Weinberg whats...@gmail.com wrote:

 In other words, why, in a functionalist/materialist world would we need
 a breakable program to keep telling us that our hand is not Alien?When 
 you start by assuming that I'm always wrong, then it becomes very easy
 to justify that with ad hoc straw man accusations.


 I do not in fact start with that assumption and, if you believe that I
 do, I suggest you should question it. I do find however that I am unable to
 draw the same conclusion as you from the examples you give. They simply
 seem like false inferences to me (and to Stathis, based on his comment).


 You are unable to draw the same conclusion because you aren't
 considering any part of what I have laid out. I'm looking at CTM as if it
 were true, and then proceeding from there to question whether what we
 observe (AHS, blindsight, etc) would be consistent with the idea of
 consciousness as a function.


 Yes, but functionalism doesn't necessarily force the claim that
 consciousness *just is* a function: that is the eliminativist version. More
 usually it is understood as the claim that consciousness *supervenes on*
 (or co-varies with) function (i.e. the epiphenomenalist or crypto-dualist
 versions).


 That's even more eliminativist IMO.


I wouldn't disagree. You should have read on a bit further.


 To say that consciousness is identical to the function of a machine at
 least acknowledges that phenomenology is causally efficacious.


Not really. Only in a crypto-eliminativist sense, which is to say no sense
at all.


 To add in supervenience to non-computational epiphenomena is not really
 functionalism or digital functionalism or computationalism. What is
 overlooked is that supervenience and emergence both depend themselves on
 consciousness to provide a perspective in which some phenomena appear to
 'emerge' from the supervening substrate. From the point of view of
 computation, surely computationalism cannot allow that consciousness comes
 as a surprise. From any comp perspective, we humans can define
 consciousness as emergent or supervenient, but surely arithmetic itself
 would not define its own conscious functionality as non-computational.


Slipping surely into a sentence doesn't make a contention any the more
plausible. It is certainly not obvious how one can begin from arithmetic
and arrive at consciousness. I have already argued that the assumption of a
first-personal reality, transcending any third-personal description of it,
is necessitated from the outset in any theory that purports to take
consciousness seriously (and that includes comp, by definition). The theory
must then show how this reality comes to be discoverable under the
appropriate conditions, but it doesn't thereby pull it out of a hat by
magic. I think it would be foolish to expect that the consequences of any
theory dealing with such fundamental questions would be obvious and
therefore criticisms on the grounds of its failure to meet uninformed
expectation are beside the point.
.



 But, if we take this latter view, the conundrum is more peculiar even
 than you seem to imply by these piecemeal pot-shots. Rather, the *entire
 story* of awareness / intention now figures only as a causally-irrelevant
 inside interpretation of a complete and self-sufficient functional
 history that neither knows nor cares about it.


 What self-sufficient functional history do you mean?


The physical history of the systems in question, for example.


 When I use history I'm generally talking about a collection of aesthetic
 resources which have been accumulated through direct experience and remain
 present implicitly locally and explicitly in the absolute sense.


You could hardly call that a functional history though.




 You remember my analogy of the dramatis personae instantiated by the
 pixels of the LCD screen?


 Semi remember.


Well, the analogy was that fact that the pixels are an adequate
infrastructure for the portrayal of any possible drama that will fit within
their confines doesn't mean that this provides a sufficient account of
those dramas. Analogously, the fact that we can give a functional account
of the brain doesn't mean that this provides a sufficient account of
consciousness. Since we can't appeal to an external source of
interpretation as we can in the analogy, we must look for a schema that can
make sense of internal interpretation. If comp is correct, that
interpretation requires us to cast our net pretty wide.




 However it would be self-defeating if our response to such bafflement
 resulted in our misrepresenting its patent successes because it cannot
 explain everything. We should rather seek

Is information physical?

2014-02-27 Thread David Nyman
http://edge.org/conversation/constructor-theory

I don't recall if the list has discussed these ideas of David Deutsch
recently. The link is to an Edge interview in which he discusses his view
that mathematicians are mistaken if they believe that information or
computation are purely abstract objects. He says that both are in fact
physical, but to justify that assertion we may need deeper principles of
physics than the existing ones. He proposes constructor theory as a
candidate.

Implications for comp (or anything else for that matter)?

David

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Re: Alien Hand/Limb Syndrome

2014-02-27 Thread David Nyman
On 27 February 2014 14:02, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:

In other words, why, in a functionalist/materialist world would we need a
 breakable program to keep telling us that our hand is not Alien? When you
 start by assuming that I'm always wrong, then it becomes very easy to
 justify that with ad hoc straw man accusations.


I do not in fact start with that assumption and, if you believe that I do,
I suggest you should question it. I do find however that I am unable to
draw the same conclusion as you from the examples you give. They simply
seem like false inferences to me (and to Stathis, based on his comment). If
you have a compelling argument to the contrary, I wish you would find a way
to give it in a clearer form. I can't see that what you say above fits the
bill. You seem to regard rhetorical questions beginning why would we
need..? as compelling arguments against a functional account, but they
seem to me to be beside the point. They invite the obvious rejoinder that
AHS doesn't seem in principle to present any special difficulties to
functionalism in explaining the facts in its own terms. You recently
proposed the example of tissue rejection which invited a similar response.

None of this is to say that I don't regard functional / material accounts
as problematic, but this is for a different reason; I think they obfuscate
the categorical distinctions between two orthogonal versions of the
facts: at the reduced level of function and at the integrated level of
sensory awareness / intention. Comp, for example, seeks to remedy this
obfuscation by elucidating principled correlations between formal notions
of reduction and integration via computational theory. Hence, per comp, the
principle of digital substitution is not the terminus of an explanation but
the starting point for a deeper theory. ISTM that alternative theories
cannot avoid a similar burden of explanation.

David

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Re: Alien Hand/Limb Syndrome

2014-02-26 Thread David Nyman
On 26 February 2014 12:58, Craig Weinberg whatsons...@gmail.com wrote:


 The alien hand syndrome, as originally defined, was used to describe
 cases involving anterior corpus callosal lesions producing involuntary
 movement and a concomitant inability to distinguish the affected hand from
 an examiner's hand when these were placed in the patient's unaffected hand.
 In recent years, acceptable usage of the term has broadened considerably,
 and has been defined as involuntary movement occurring in the context of
 feelings of estrangement from or personification of the affected limb or
 its movements. Three varieties of alien hand syndrome have been reported,
 involving lesions of the corpus callosum alone, the corpus callosum plus
 dominant medial frontal cortex, and posterior cortical/subcortical areas. A
 patient with posterior alien hand syndrome of vascular aetiology is
 reported and the findings are discussed in the light of a conceptualisation
 of posterior alien hand syndrome as a disorder which may be less associated
 with specific focal neuropathology than are its callosal and
 callosal-frontal counterparts. -
 http://jnnp.bmj.com/content/68/1/83.full


 This kind of alienation from the function of a limb would seem to
 contradict functionalism.


? AFAICS it wouldn't even *seem* to contradict functionalism.


 If functionalism identifies consciousness with function, then it would
 seem problematic that a functioning limb could be seen as estranged from
 the personal awareness, is it is really no different from a zombie in which
 the substitution level is set at the body level. There is no damage to the
 arm, no difference between one arm and another, and yet, its is felt to be
 outside of one's control and its sensations are felt not to be your
 sensations.


I think it is generally understood that the relevant disruption to function
is that of brain tissue, not that of the limb; hence the references in the
passage to lesions in the corpus callosum and other areas of the *brain*.
If the function of brain tissue is disrupted, then it would be consistent
to expect some concomitant disruption of consciousness, per functionalism.


 This would be precisely the kind of estrangement that I would expect to
 encounter during a gradual replacement of the brain with any inorganic
 substitute.


It's clear that's what you would expect, but to infer this much, purely on
the basis of the passage you quoted, is grasping at straws. Actually it's
not even that - it's a completely unsupported inference.


 At the level at which food becomes non-food, so too would the brain become
 non-brain, and any animation of the nervous system would fail to be
 incorporated into personal awareness. The living brain could still learn to
 use the prosthetic, and ultimately imbue it with its own articulation and
 familiarity to a surprising extent, but it is a one way street and the
 prosthetic has no capacity to find the personal awareness and merge with it.


I don't see how starting from an unsupported inference helps your case. In
fact, if you are proposing this as an example of the strength of your
position in general, it can only serve to weaken it.

David





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Re: Digital Neurology

2014-02-24 Thread David Nyman
On 24 February 2014 11:27, ghib...@gmail.com wrote:

Yo David, You said somewhere you had a thought for how consciousness might
 be. I'm into  that one at the moment so I'd be interested to hear anything
 you have to say. Assuming it's not secret squirrel - which if it is mazel
 tov geezer you go for it


Sorry, you're going to have to help me out here. What statements of mine
are you referring to?

David

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